MPBSE Class 11 Chemistry Notes For Amorphous Carbon

MPBSE Class 11 Chemistry Notes For Amorphous Carbon

1. Charcoal

Vegetable charcoal:

  1. Wood charcoal: When wood is subjected to destructive distillation in an iron retort, the volatile organic compounds present escape and the residue left in the retort is called wood charcoal.
  2. Sugar charcoal: It can be prepared by heating pure sugar in a closed vessel or by eliminating water from sugar by reacting it with concentrated sulphuric acid

P Block Elements Sugar Charcoal

Animal charcoal:

  • Bone charcoal:
    • Small pieces of animal bones are treated with superheated steam to remove the adhering fat and marrow.
    • The dried bones are then subjected to destructive distillation in an iron retort when volatile substances are distilled out and a black residue containing carbon and about 90% impurities like calcium phosphate and calcium carbonate is left behind.
    • This is known as bone black or bone charcoal. These impurities are removed by dissolving the black material in dilute HCl.
    • The insoluble deep black powder thus obtained is almost pure charcoal and is called ivory black.
  • Blood charcoal:  Charcoal obtained by destructive distillation of blood is known as blood charcoal.

MPBSE Class 11 Chemistry For Carbon nanotubes Physical properties

Charcoal is black, soft and porous.It is a bad conductor of heat and electricity. Its specific gravity lies between 1.4 and 1.9. But because of its porosity, air enters in its pores.

  • As a result, its specific gravity gets reduced to 0.2 and hence charcoal floats on water. When porous charcoal b freed from entrapped air, it can retain any other ga* In ib pores, This phenomenon is known as adsorption.
  • The adsorbed gas escapes on heating and is much more reactive than the ordinary gas.

Class 11 Chemistry Notes For Amorphous Carbon

2. Activated charcoal

Activated charcoal has high adsorption power as compared to ordinary charcoal.

Activated charcoal Preparation

  • When the charcoal obtained by destructive distillation of coconut shell is heated to about 800-900°C  a limited supply of air or steam, activated charcoal is obtained.0
  • Besides this, activated charcoal may also be obtained by the destructive distillation of sawdust soaked In aqueous solution of ZnCl2 or MgCl

Activated charcoal Properties

  • Activated charcoal is not only a good adsorbent for gases but it also has the power of decolourising a coloured substance and absorbing the taste of a substance
  • Moreover, as a catalyst accelerates the rates of many chemical reactions.

MPBSE Class 11 Chemistry Notes For Amorphous Carbon

MPBSE Class 11 Chemistry For Activated charcoal Chemical properties

1. At higher temperatures, charcoal burns in air or oxygen to form CO2 gas. However, in a limited supply of oxygen, its combustion produces carbon monoxide.

C + O2→ CO2; 2C + O2→ 2CO

2. Charcoal forms different compounds with sulphur, nitrogen and hydrogen at high temperatures.

Class 11 Chemistry Notes For Amorphous Carbon

P Block Elements Carbon Disulphide

2C + N2→ (CN)2 (cyanogen)

2C + H2→ C2H2 (acetylene)

In the first reaction, two solids (C and S) react together to form a liquid (carbon disulphide

3. Charcoal combines with heated Ca, Al, Fe etc. to form their corresponding carbides.

Ca + 2C→ CaC2; 3Fe + C→ Fe3C; 4Al + 3C→Al4C3

4. When a mixture of silica (SiO2) and coke dust is heated at 1500’2000°Cin an electric furnace, silicon carbide (SiC) is formed. It is black, bright and very hard solid. It is known as carborundum which is used for polishing metals

5. When steam is passed over white-hot charcoal or coke, a mixture containing equal volumes of CO and H2, called water gas is produced

C+H2 O → CO + H2 (water gas)

6. Reducingproperty: Charcoal is a good reducing agent.

Class 11 Chemistry Notes For Amorphous Carbon

1. At higher temperatures, various metal oxides are reduced by charcoal to their corresponding metals.

CuO + C→ Cu + CO; PbO + C→ Pb + CO

Fe2O3 + 3C→  2Fe + 3CO

2. At higher temperatures, charcoal reduces carbon dioxide to CO and sodium sulphate to sodium sulphide.

P Block Elements Sodium Sulphate To Sodium Sulphide

3. Charcoal in burning condition is oxidised by concentrated nitric acid or sulphuric acid to CO2.

P Block Elements Nitric Acid Or Sulphuric Acid

MPBSE Class 11 Chemistry For Activated Charcoal Uses

Wood charcoal serves as a fuel and a reducing agent in metal extraction.

  • It is employed in the decolorization of sugar syrup and the refinement of oils, fats, and glycerin.
  • It is utilized in the treatment of potable water as it adsorbs surplus chlorine following chlorination.
  • It is utilized in gas masks due to its ability to adsorb toxic gases.
  • It is additionally utilized in the formulation of gunpowder and black paint (Black Japan).

MPBSE Class 11 Chemistry For Lamp Black Or Carbon Black

When organic liquids rich in carbon such as kerosene, petrol, turpentine oil, benzene etc. are subjected to bum in controlled air, a black sooty smoke is produced. This smoke on condensation in a cold container forms soot.

  • This soot is called lamp black or carbon black.
  • It may also be obtained when natural gas (methane) is subjected to albumin-controlled air.
  • It is the purest form of all the amorphous allotropes of carbon.

Class 11 Chemistry Notes For Amorphous Carbon

Lamp Black Or Carbon Black Properties:

It is amorphous, black and non-conductor of heat and electricity.

Lamp Black Or Carbon Black Uses:

It is used in the preparation of printing ink, shoe polish and blackpaints

MPBSE Class 11 Chemistry For Coke And Gas Carbon

When anthracite coal (96% carbon) is subjected to destructive distillation, the solid residue left in the iron retort is called coke. At higher temperatures (1000 -1200°C), hard coke is called coke. At higher temperatures (1000 -1200°C), hard coke is obtained whereas at 600-650°C, we get soft coke.

Class 11 Chemistry Notes For Amorphous Carbon

The black hard dense residue deposited on the relatively cooler upper part of the retort is as gas carbon. it possesses thermal water gas is produced. and electrical conductivity and electrical conductivity.

MPBSE Class 11 Chemistry For Coke and gas carbon Uses

  • Hard coke serves as a fuel and a reducing agent for residential applications.
  • Soft coke serves as a residential fuel source.
  • Carbon gas is extensively utilized as electrodes in batteries, arc lamps, and during electrolysis.

All allotropic forms of carbon comprise the same element: When a certain mass of a pure allotropic variant of carbon is heated in an elongated, robust combustion tube in the presence of pure oxygen, carbon dioxide (CO2) and carbon monoxide (CO) are generated.

  • CuO, contained within the tube, transforms CO into CO2. The collected CO2 is absorbed in a pre-weighed potash bulb connected to the exit end of the tube.
  • An rise in the bulb’s weight indicates the quantity of CO2 produced. When the experiment is conducted independently with the same constant weight of any other allotrope, an equivalent quantity of CO2 is produced in each instance.
  • This experiment demonstrates that the various allotropes comprise the same element, namely carbon.

MPBSE Class 10 Biology Excretion Question and Answers

MPBSE Class 10 Science Excretion Question and Answers

Question 1. (1) Name the part that (A) Produces urine and (B) Releases urine to the outside.

(2) What is the main toxic waste kidney filters from blood?

(3) Name any two substances which are selectively reabsorbed from the tubules of a nephron.
Answer:

  1.  (A) Kidney (B) Urethra
  2.  Main Toxic Substance. Urea.
  3.  Selectively Reabsorbed. Glucose, amino acids.

Question 2. (1) How is urine produced?

(2) Name two excretory products of plants other than Oxygen and Carbon dioxide.
Answer:

  1. Production of Urine. It occurs through ultrafiltration of blood in renal or Malpighian capsules, reabsorption of useful substances (glucose, amino acids, salts, water) from the filtrate in PCT, tubular secretion of remaining wastes in DCT, and ADH-mediated concentration in collecting tubules.
  2.  Alkaloids, tannins, resin, gum.

Question 3. (1) Write the important function of the structural and functional unit of the kidney.

(2) Write one function of an artificial kidney.
Answer:

  1. Function of Nephron. It takes part in the ultrafiltration of blood, reabsorption of useful materials in PCT, and selective secretion of remaining wastes in the area of the DCT.
  2. Artificial Kidney. It is specialized in removing toxins, urea, uric acid, and other wastes from the body of a person suffering from a damaged kidney.

MPBSE Class 10 Biology The Excretory System Question And Answers

Question 4. (1) Explain the excretory system in human beings.

(2) List four strategies used by plants for excretion.
Answer:

(1) The human excretory system consists of a pair of kidneys, a pair of ureters, a urinary bladder, and a urethra.

  • Kidneys are reddish-brown bean-shaped structures present in the lower abdomen, one on each side of the vertebral column. In the concave hilum part of the kidney enters a waste-laden renal artery. The renal vein and ureter come out of the same.
  • Each kidney has about a million nephrons. They are the structural and functional units of the kidney. Each nephron has a renal or Malpighian capsule and a renal tubule. Blood is filtered in the region of the Malpighian capsule.
  • It produces primary urine. Useful substances present in the primary urinary are reabsorbed in the PCT part of the uriniferous tubule. Residual waste products are poured into the urine in the DCT part of the nephron. Nephrons pour the urine into the collecting tubule where it may be further concentrated.
  • Ureters are narrow distensible tubes that carry urine from the kidneys into the urinary bladder. The urinary bladder is a pear-shaped distensible sac that stores urine. It has the capacity to store urine up to 700 to 800 ml.
  • As the urinary bladder reaches the halfway mark, an urge for micturition begins to appear. The urethra carries the urine from the urinary bladder to the outside.

(2) Strategies for Excretion in Plants

  • Oxygen during the daytime and carbon dioxide at night pass out of the plants through diffusion.
  • Secondary metabolites like alkaloids, organic acids, and tannins collect in old dying leaves which later fall off.
  • Waste products such as tannins, resins, and others pass into the bark which is peeled off periodically.
  • Resins, gums, and tannins are also deposited in old non-functional xylem.

MPBSE Class 10 Biology The Excretory System Question And Answers

Question 5. State the function of the renal artery, kidney, ureter, and urinary bladder In Hum, an Excretory System
Answer:

Renal Artery. It brings oxygenated blood laden with waste products into the kidney.

Kidney. Separation and elimination of nitrogenous and other waste products, regulation of water balance, regulation of blood pressure and pH.

Ureter. Carrying of urine from the kidney to the urinary bladder.

Urinary Bladder. Temporary storage of urine and helping in voiding the same.

Question 6. (1) Define excretion. (2) Name the basic filtration unit in the kidney. (3) Draw the excretory system in human beings and label the organs that perform the following function : (A) Forms urine, (B) Is a long tube that collects urine from the kidney
Answer:

  1. Excretion. It is the removal of metabolic wastes, toxins, and excess salts from the body.
  2. Basic filtration Unit Nephrons or uriniferous tubule.

Question 7. Name the organs that form the excretory system in human beings.
Answer:

A pair of kidneys, a pair of ureters, a urinary bladder, and a urethra.

Question 8. (1) Describe the structure and function of the basic unit of the kidney.

(2) List two factors on which the reabsorption of water from urine depends.
Answer:

  1. Nephron.
  2. (A) Amount of excess water and wastes (B) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH).

MPBSE Class 10 Biology The Excretory System Question And Answers

Question 9. Write one main function for each of the labeled parts.
Answer:

  1. Kidney. Urine formation. Ureter. Transport of urine from the kidney to the urinary bladder.
  2. Urinary Bladder. Stores urine. Urethra. Throws out urine or micturition.

Question 10. (1) How do the leaves of plants help in excretion? Explain briefly.

(2) Describe the structure and function of the nephron.
Answer:

(1) (A) Passage of O2 during daytime

(B) Transpiration of excess water

(C) Passage of CO2 during night

(D) Storage of secondary metabolites and waste products which are disposed of when the old leaves fall off.

(2) Nephron

Important Questions For Class 10 Biology Respiration

Important Questions For Class 10 Biology Respiration  Respiration

Question 1. What is the function of the trachea? Why do the walls not collapse even when there is less air in them?
Answer:

  • The trachea is a cylindrical conduit for air from the pharynx to the lungs
  • The lining epithelium captures dust particles and bacteria, expelling them forth.
  • The trachea remains patent despite lower air pressure owing to the presence of C-shaped cartilaginous rings.

Question 2. Give reason:

  1. Fine hair and mucus are present in the nasal passage.
  2. Rings of cartilage are present in the throat.

Answer:

  1. Fine hair and mucus present in nasal passages trap dust particles and microbes from inspired air.
  2. Rings of cartilage prevent the collapsing of the trachea when air pressure is low.

Question 3. Mention the shape of guard cells and write their constituents.
Answer:

In most plants, guard cells are bean-shaped in outline. They are joined at their ends but are free on inner thick-walled regions. The outer walls are thin-walled. Guard cells are nucleated. They have several small chloroplasts and small-sized vacuoles.

Question 4. Why is diffusion not sufficient to meet the oxygen requirement of all the cells in multicellular organisms?
Answer:

Diffusion may transpire if each cell in the body is encased by intercellular gaps that are linked to the atmosphere via pores. This is not possible in mammals. Consequently, they possess a transport system to deliver oxygen to all body cells.

Class 10 Respiration Life processes Important questions

Question 5.

  1. Why are cramps caused in our muscles during sudden excess activity?
  2. Name the type of respiration that takes place in Yeast during fermentation.

Answer:

  1. Muscles get fatigued during sudden excess activity due to the accumulation of lactic acid caused by anaerobic respiration. This causes cramps.
  2. Anaerobic respiration yields ethyl alcohol and carbon dioxide.

Question 6. Write two different ways in which glucose is oxidised to provide energy in the human body. Write the products formed in each case.
Answer:

The two ways in which glucose is oxidised are aerobic and anaerobic. In aerobic respiration, oxygen functions as a terminal oxidant. It produces CO2 and water.

In anaerobic respiration that occurs in skeletal muscles, oxygen is not used. Glucose is broken down to produce lactic acid.

Question 7. Give a reason for the following:

  1. The glottis is covered by epiglottis.
  2. Lung alveoli are covered with blood capillaries.
  3. The wall of the trachea is supported by cartilage rings.

Answer:

  1. The epiglottis covers the glottis during swallowing to prevent entry of food and water into the trachea.
  2. Lung alveoli are covered by blood capillaries because they function as the respiratory surface of the lungs. There is a gaseous exchange between blood and alveolar air with oxygen entering blood and carbon dioxide entering alveolar air.
  3. Cartilage rings provide support to the trachea and keep it open for free passage of air.

Question 8. List three characteristics of lungs which make them an efficient respiratory surface.
Answer:

  1. Lungs have a large number of microscopic alveoli which create a huge respiratory surface area of about 80 m².
  2. Alveoli are invested with blood capillaries for rapid exchange of gases.
  3. The passageway of air is non-collapsible being supported by cartilaginous rings in broader branches and surfactant in narrow areas.
  4. Airtight location of lungs in the thoracic cavity where rise or fall in pressure causes exhalation and inhalation respectively.

Important Question for Class 10 Science Life Processes

Question 9.

  1. The breathing cycle is rhythmic whereas the exchange of gases is continuous. Justify the statement.
  2. Why is breathing through the mouth harmful?

Answer:

  1. The whole of the air is not drained out during exhalation. A large amount of air remains in the lungs. The same is called residual volume. It allows the continued exchange of gases.
  2. Breathing through the mouth is harmful as:
    1. It allows dust particles and microbes to enter the buccal cavity and lungs causing irritation and infection,
    2. Dry, hot or cold air produces irritation to the whole respiratory system.

Question 10. Mention the special features of nasal breathing that make it a safer process.
Answer:

  • Filtration of particulate matter by nasal cilia.
  • Elimination of dust and microorganisms by the mucus in the nasal cavities.
  • Expelling trapped dust and germs by ciliary action.
  • Destruction of microorganisms by lysosome in the nasal epithelium.
  • Humidification of breathed air by the moist nasal epithelium.
  • Air conditioning refers to the process of adjusting the temperature of inhaled air to match that of the body, facilitated by the blood capillaries located in the nasal passage

Question 11. Explain how glucose is broken down in the absence or shortage of oxygen.
Answer:

Glucose is first broken down to form two molecules of pyruvate, two molecules each of NADH2 and ATP.

  1. In the absence or shortage of oxygen, pyruvate is reduced by NADH2 by two methods
  2. Formation of ethyl alcohol and evolution of CO2 as in yeast.
  3. Formation of lactic acid as in skeletal muscles and lactic acid bacteria.

In both cases, a molecule of glucose yields a small amount of energy (2ATP molecules) as compared to aerobic respiration (38 ATP molecules).

Class 10 Biology Chapter 2 Respiration

Question 12.

  1. In the process of respiration, state the functions of alveoli.
  2. The rate of breathing in aquatic organisms is much faster than that in terrestrial organisms. Give reasons.
  3. Complete the following pathway showing the breakdown of glucose

Respiration Breakdown Of Glucose Pathway

Answer:

  1. Alveoli. Exchange of gases.
  2. Aquatic Organisms. The rate of breathing is faster in aquatic organisms in order to obtain required oxygen from water which is very low as compared to air.
  3. Pyruvate
  4. Carbon dioxide.

Class 11 Chemistry Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties Question and Answers

Question 1. Would you expect the second electron-gain enthalpy of 0 as positive, more negative, or less negative than the first? Justify your answer.
Answer:

There are sue valence electrons in oxygen and it requires two more electrons to complete its octet. So, the O-atom accepts one electron to convert into an O- ion and in the process liberates energy. Thus, the first electron-gain enthalpy of oxygen is negative.

⇒ \(\mathrm{O}(g)+e \rightarrow \mathrm{O}^{-}(g)+141 \mathrm{~kJ} \cdot \mathrm{mol}^{-1}\left(\Delta_i H_1=-v e\right)\)

However, when another electron is added to O- to form 02-ion, energy is absorbed to overcome the strong electrostatic repulsion between the negatively charged O ion and the second incoming electron. Thus, the second electron-gain enthalpy of oxygen is positive.

⇒ \(\mathrm{O}^{-}(\mathrm{g})+e \rightarrow \mathrm{O}^{2-}(\mathrm{g})-\left(780 \mathrm{~kJ} \cdot \mathrm{mol}^{-1}\right)\left(\Delta_i H_2=+v e\right)\)

Read and Learn More Class 11 Chemistry

Question 2. How would you react to the statement that the electronegativity of N on the Pauling scale is 3.0 in all the nitrogen compounds?
Answer:

The electronegativity of any element depends on the hybridization state and oxidation state of that element in a particular compound, i.e., the electronegativity of an element varies from compound to compound. For example, the electronegativity of Natom varies as sp3 —N < sp2—N < sp—N. So, the, given statement is not correct.

Question 3. Would you expect the first ionisation enthalpies for two isotopes of the same element to be the same or different? Justify your answer.
Answer:

Isotopes of an element have the same number of electrons and similar electronic configurations. So their nuclear charge and atomic radii are identical. Consequently, two isotopes of the same element are expected to have the same ionisation enthalpy.

Question 4. What are the major differences between metals and
non-metals?
Answer:

Metals exhibit a pronounced propensity to lose electrons, resulting in the formation of cations.

  • They serve as potent reducing agents, possess low ionization enthalpies, exhibit less negative electron gain enthalpies, have low electronegativity, and generate basic oxides and ionic compounds.
  • Non-metals exhibit a pronounced inclination to acquire electrons, resulting in the formation of anions.
  • They are potent oxidizing agents, possess elevated ionization enthalpies, exhibit substantial negative electron-gain enthalpies, demonstrate high electronegativity, and generate acidic oxides and covalent compounds.

Class 11 Chemistry Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties Question and Answers

Question 5. Use the periodic table to answer the given questions. Identify an element with 5 electrons in an outer subshell. Identify an element that would tend to lose 2 electrons. Identify an element that would tend to gain 2 electrons. Identify the group having metal, non-metal, liquid, and gas at room temperature
Answer:

Fluorine. Its configuration is ls²2s22p5

Magnesium. Its configuration is ls22s22p63s2. So, Mg loses 2 electrons from its outermost shell to form Mg2+ and attains a stable configuration.

Oxygen. Its configuration is ls22s22p4 So, O gains 2 electrons to form O2– and attains stable configuration.

Group-17. The metallic character of astatine (At) is much greater than its non-metallic character and its melting point is very high (3O2°C).

So, astatine is considered as a metal. So in group-17 there is a metal (At), non-metals (F2, Cl2, Br2, I2), liquid (Br2) and gas (F2, Cl2).

Class 11 Chemistry Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties Question and Answers

Question 6. The order of reactivity of group-1 LI < Na < K < Rb < Cs whereas that of group-17 elements Is F > Cl > Br >I. Explain.
Answer:

There is only one electron in the valence shell of the elements of group 1. Thus, they have a strong tendency to lose this single electron.

The tendency to lose electrons depends on the ionization enthalpy. As ionization enthalpy decreases down the group, the correct order of increasing reactivity of group-1 elements is Li < Na < K < Rb < Cs. On the other hand, there are 7 electrons in the valence shell of the elements of group-17. Thus, they have a strong tendency to gain a single electron.
The tendency to gain electrons depends on the electrode potentials of the elements. As the electrode potential of elements decreases down the group, the correct order of activity is F > Cl > Br >I.

Alternate explanation: In the case of halogens, their reactivity increases with the increase in electron-gain enthalpy.

Order of electron-gain enthalpy: F < Cl > Br >I. As electron gain enthalpy decreases from Cl toI, the order of activity also follows this sequence. However, fluorine is the most reactive halogen as its bond dissociation energy is very low.

Class 11 Chemistry Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties Question and Answers

Question 7. Assign the position of the element having outer electronic configuration: ns2np4 for n = 3, 0 (n-l)d2ns2 for n = 4 & (n-2)/7(n-l)d1ns2 for tt = 6, in the periodic table.
Answer: (T) As n= 3, the element belongs to the period. Since the last electron enters the p-orbital, the given element is a p-block element. For p-block elements, group no. of the element = 10+no. of electrons in the valence shell.

The element is in the (10+6) = 16th period

As n = 4, the element belongs to the fourth period.

Since is present in the element, it is a block element. For d-block elements, group no. of the element = no. of ns electrons + no. of(n-l) f electrons = 2+2 = 4. Therefore, the element is in the 4th period.

As n – 6, the element belongs to the sixth period. Since, the last electron enters the f-orbital, the element is a f-block element. All f-block elements are situated in the third group of the periodic table.

The first (A1H1) and second (A1H2) ionisation enthalpies (klmol-1) and the (AegH) electrongain enthalpy (in kj.mol-1 ) of a few elements are given below: Which of the above elements is likely to be the P least reactive clement. the most reactive metal.

the most reactive non-metal. the least reactive non-metal. the metal which can form a stable binary halide of the formula MX2(X = halogen).

Question 8. The metal that can form a predominantly stable covalent halide of the formula MX (X = halogen)? Element V is the least reactive metal as it has the highest first ionisation enthalpy & positive electron-gain enthalpy.|
Answer

The element is the most reactive metal due to its lowest initial ionization enthalpy and low negative electron gain enthalpy.

  • Element 3 is the most reactive non-metal due to its exceptionally high initial ionization enthalpy and significantly high negative electron uptake enthalpy.
  • Element 4 is the least reactive non-metal due to its large negative electron-gain enthalpy and very moderate initial ionization enthalpy.
  • Element 4 possesses low first and second ionization enthalpies. The initial ionisation enthalpy of this element exceeds that of the alkali metals. Consequently, the specified element is an alkaline earth metal capable of forming a stable binary halide with the formula MX2.
  • The initial ionization enthalpy of elements is low, whereas the subsequent ionization enthalpy is elevated. It is an alkali metal capable of forming stable covalent halides (MX).
  • Predict the formulas of the stable binary compounds generated by the following pairs of elements: OLi and O, Mg and N, Al and Si, P and F, and the element with atomic number 71 and F.

Class 11 Chemistry Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties Question and Answers

Question 9. In the modern periodic table, period indicates the value of atomic number atomic mass principal quantum number azimuthal quantum number
Answer: Each period in the modern periodic table begins with the filling of a new shell. So, the period indicates the value of a principal quantum number.

Question 10. Which of the following statements related to the modern periodic table is incorrect?

p -block has 6 columns because a maximum of 6 electrons can occupy all the orbitals in a p-shell.

d -block has 8 columns, as a maximum of 8 electrons can occupy all the orbitals in a d -subshell.

Each block contains some columns equal to the number of electrons that can occupy that subshell.

Question 11. Block indicates the value of azimuthal quantum number (l) for the last subshell that received electrons in building up electronic configuration
Answer: The statement is incorrect because d -the block has 10 columns because a maximum of ten electrons can occupy all the orbitals in a d -subshell.

Question 12. Anything that influences the valence electrons will affect the chemistry of the element. Which one of the following factors does not affect the valence shell?

  1. Valence principal quantum number (n)
  2. Nuclear charge (Z)
  3. Nuclear mass
  4. Number of core electrons.
  5. Nuclear mass does not affect the valence shell electrons (such as, and H have similar chemical properties.
  6. The size of isoelectronic species F-, Ne, Na+ is affected by: nuclear charge (Z)
  7. valence principal quantum number (n)
  8. electron-electron interaction in the outer orbitals is one of the factors because their size is the same.
  9. The size of isoelectronic species depends on the nuclear charge. As nuclear charge increases, the size of species decreases.
  10. electron-electron interaction in the outer orbitals
  11. none of the factors because their size is the same.
  12. The size of isoelectronic species depends on the nuclear charge. As nuclear charge increases, the size of species decreases.

Question 13. Which one ofthe following statements is incorrect about ionization enthalpy?

  1. Ionization enthalpy increases for each successive electron.
  2. The greatest increase in ionization enthalpy is experienced in the removal of electrons from the core noble gas configuration.
  3. The end of valence electrons is marked by a big jump in ionization enthalpy.
  4. Removal of electrons from orbitals with lower n values is easier than from orbitals with higher values.

Answer: This is incorrect as the removal of electrons from orbitals with lower values is more difficult than the removal of electrons from orbitals with higher values. Because in the former case, the electron remains tightly bound as it more closer to the nucleus.

Question 14. Considering the elements B, Al, Mg, and K, the correct order of their metallic character is:

  • B > Al > Mg > K
  • Mg > Al > K > B
  • Al > Mg > B > K
  • K > Mg > Al > B

Answer: The statement is correct because across a period from left to right, the metallic character of the elements decreases but down a group, the metallic character increases. Thus, the metallic character of K is the highest, and that of B is the lowest.

Class 11 Chemistry Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties Question and Answers

Question 15. Considering the elements B, C, N, F, and Si, the correct order of their non-metallic character is:

  • B>C>Si>N>F
  • F>N>C>B>Si
  • Si>C>B>N>F
  • F>N>C>Si>B

Answer: On moving across a period from left to right, the nonmetallic character of the elements increases. Thus, the order of
non-metallic character ofthe given elements: F > N > C > B. However, on moving down a group, the non-metallic character
of elements decreases. Thus, S is more non-metallic than C. Thus, the non-metallic character of the elements follows the
sequence F>N>C>B>Si.

Question 16. For the elements F, Cl, O, and N correct order of their chemical reactivity in terms of oxidizing property is:

  • F > Cl > O > N
  • Cl > F > O > N
  • F > O > Cl > N
  • O > F > N > Cl

Answer: Oxidising power increases across a period from left to right. Thus, the order of oxidizing power decreases in the order F > O > N. On moving down a group, oxidizing power decreases. So, F is a stronger oxidizing agent than Cl. Again, O being more electronegative than Cl, O is a stronger oxidizing agent than Cl. Therefore, the overall decreasing order of oxidizing powers F > 0 > Cl > N.

MPBSE Class 11 Chemistry Nascent Hydrogen Notes

MPBSE Class 11 Chemistry  Nascent Hydrogen

Hydrogen at the moment of its formation is called nascent hydrogen. The reducing property of nascent hydrogen is much greater than that of ordinary molecular hydrogen.

Nascent Hydrogen Example:

Ordinary’ molecular hydrogen cannot reduce acidic potassium permanganate or ferric chloride solution. However, when zinc dust is added to these solutions, the solutions become colorless and this is because, nascent hydrogen liberated in situ by the action of zinc on dilute sulphuric acid brings about the reduction of these compounds, discharging the colors of these solutions.

⇒ \(\mathrm{Zn}+\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{SO}_4 \rightarrow \mathrm{ZnSO}_4+2[\mathrm{H}](\text { nascent hydrogen })\)

Hydrogen Nascent hydrogen

Nascent hydrogen is a hydrogen atom released during a reaction, and it reacts with something else very, very rapidly. Now, there isn’t any physical difference, both are atoms, but based on the surrounding conditions, if the atom is stable, it is called atomic. If not, it is called nascent.

MPBSE Class 11 Chemistry  Identification And Uses Of Dihydrogen

Identification of dihydrogen:

  1. The gas burns in the air with a pale blue flame and produces water. That the product is water is identified by the fact that it turns white anhydrous CuSO, blue.
  2. The gas is completely adsorbed by spongy palladium metal at ordinary temperature and die adsorbed gas is set free on heating the hydrogenised palladium to dull-red.

Uses of dihydrogen:

  1. Dihydrogen is largely used in the synthesis of ammonia which is a starting material for the manufacture of nitric acid and various fertilizers such as urea, ammonium sulfate, etc.
  2. Large quantities of dihydrogen are consumed in the vanaspati industry for the conversion of vegetable oil into vanaspati ghee (hardening of oils).
  3. It is used in the manufacture of bulk chemicals such as methanol.\(\mathrm{CO}(g)+2 \mathrm{H}_2(g) \underset{\mathrm{Co}+\text { catalyst }}{\stackrel{700 \mathrm{~K} / 200 \mathrm{~atm}}{\longrightarrow}} \mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{OH}(l)\)
  4. It is used in the manufacture of metal hydrides.
  5. In metallurgy, dihydrogen is used to reduce heavy metal oxides to metals.
  6. It is used in the preparation of many useful chemicals such as hydrochloric acid.
  7. It is used in tire atomic hydrogen torch (produces temperature ~ 4000°C ) and oxy-hydrogen torch (produces temperature between 2270-2770°C ) for cutting and welding purposes.
  8. Liquid dihydrogen mixed with liquid oxygen is used as a rocket fuel in space research. It is also used in fuel cells for generating electrical energy.
  9. It is used in the manufacture of synthetic petrol.
  10. With helium, it is used for filling balloons employed for atmospheric study.

MPBSE Class 11 Chemistry  Dihydrogen As A Fuel Hydrogen Economy

The production of energy in our present-day life involves mainly the use of fossil fuels such as coal, petroleum, natural gas, etc.

  • In order to meet the growing demand for energy, the world’s fossil fuel reserves are getting depleted at an alarming rate and possibly they may get exhausted by the middle of the 21st century.
  • In fact, the rate of consumption of fossil fuels is very much faster than the rate of their renewal in nature and it is the basic reason for their shortage. Therefore, new sources of energy are to be found.
  • Dihydrogen has been considered as an alternative source of energy. The basic principle of a hydrogen economy is the storage and transportation of energy in the form of liquid or gaseous dihydrogen.

MPBSE Class 11 Chemistry Hydrogen Notes

MPBSE Class 11 Chemistry  Advantages of using dihydrogen as a fuel:

  1. The major advantage of using dihydrogen as a fuel is that it provides a pollution-free atmosphere because its combustion product is only water.
  2. The heat of combustion per gram of dihydrogen is higher than any other fuel. For example, the amount of energy obtained from dihydrogen is 142 kJ. g-1 while those obtained from gasoline, coal, paper, and wood are 48, 29.3, 20, and 15 kJ . g-1 respectively.
  3. It is abundant in a combined state as water.
  4. An automobile engine using dihydrogen is about 25- 50% more efficient than an automobile engine using gasoline.
  5. The time required for the regeneration of dihydrogen from its combustion product water is much shorter than that of fossil fuel from its combustion product CO2.
  6. Although dihydrogen appears to be a very good future fuel, there are some typical problems that are to be solved before we adopt the hydrogen economy.

Hydrogen Problems of using dlhydrogen and their solutions

MPBSE Class 11 Chemistry  Hydrides

Dlhydrogcn, under appropriate reaction conditions, combines with almost all elements, except noble gases, to form binary compounds called hydrides. The hydrides may be represented by the general formula EHx (Example, MgH2) or EmHn (ExampleB2H6 ), where E is a symbol of the element.

Chemistry Nascent Hydrogen Notes

All the main group elements except noble gases and probably indium and thallium, all lanthanides, all actinides, and transition metals such as Sc, Y, La, Ac, Tc, Zr, and Hf (to a lesser extent V, Nb, Tb, Cr, Cu, and Zn) form hydrides.

Depending upon the behavior and the nature of bonding, the hydrides can be classified into three main categories:

  1. Ionic or saline or salt-like hydrides;
  2. Covalent or molecular hydrides and
  3. Metallic or interstitial hydrides

MPBSE Class 11 Chemistry  Ionic Or Salt-Like Hydrides

These hydrides are formed when hydrogen combines with electropositive alkali metals or alkaline earth metals of s -s-block having electronegativity less than hydrogen (2.1). The formation of ionic hydrides involves the transfer of one electron from the metal atom to the H-atom. Some common examples are LiH, NaH, CaH2, SrH2, etc. The hydride ion (H ) with [He] configuration is soft enough to be strongly polarised by the small Be2+ and Mg2+ ions and for this reason, BeH2 and MgH2 are significantly covalent. In fact, they exist in polymeric form.

Ionic Or Salt-Like Hydrides Preparation: These hydrides are prepared by heating the metal in an atmosphere of hydrogen under pressure over the temperature range of 150-600°C. For example:

⇒ \(2 \mathrm{Li}+\mathrm{H}_2 \stackrel{600^{\circ} \mathrm{C}}{\longrightarrow} 2 \mathrm{LiH}\)

⇒ \(2 \mathrm{M}+\mathrm{H}_2 \stackrel{400^{\circ} \mathrm{C}}{\longrightarrow} 2 \mathrm{MH}[\mathrm{M}=\mathrm{Na}, \mathrm{K}, \mathrm{Rb}, \mathrm{Cs}]\)

⇒ \(\mathrm{M}^{\prime}+\mathrm{H}_2 \stackrel{150-300^{\circ} \mathrm{C}}{\longrightarrow} \mathrm{M}^{\prime} \mathrm{H}_2\left[\mathrm{M}^{\prime}=\mathrm{Ca}, \mathrm{Ba}, \mathrm{Sr}\right]\)

Chemistry Nascent Hydrogen Notes

Ionic Or Salt-Like Hydrides Physical properties:

  1. Ionic hydrides are non-volatile, non-conducting white crystalline solids.
  2. They have high melting and boiling points.
  3. They- have high density, generally higher than that of the metals from which they are formed. This is due to the fact that H“ ions occupy holes in the lattice of the metal, without distorting the metal lattice.
  4. They have high values of heat of formation\(\left(\Delta H_f^0\right)\)
  5. Their thermal stability decreases with increasing the cationic size of the metal down the group in the periodic table: LiH > NaH > KH > RbH > CsH
  6. In the molten state, they conduct electricity with the liberation of dihydrogen at the anode. This confirms the presence of hydride ions (H) in them. For example:

⇒ \(\mathrm{CaH}_2(\text { molten }) \rightarrow \mathrm{Ca}^{2+}+2 \mathrm{H}^{-}\)

Cathode: \(\mathrm{Ca}^{2+}+2 e \rightarrow \mathrm{Ca}\)

Anode: \(2 \mathrm{H}^{-} \rightarrow \mathrm{H}_2+2 e\)

MPBSE Class 11 Chemistry  Ionic Or Salt-Like Hydrides  Chemical Properties

1. They react vigorously with water and other protic solvents such as ethanol, ammonia, etc., to liberate dihydrogen.

⇒ \(\mathrm{NaH}+\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O} \rightarrow \mathrm{NaOH}+\mathrm{H}_2 \uparrow\)

⇒ \(\mathrm{LiH}+\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{OH} \rightarrow \mathrm{LiOCH}_3+\mathrm{H}_2 \uparrow\)

⇒ \(\mathrm{NaH}+\mathrm{NH}_3 \rightarrow \mathrm{NaNH}_2+\mathrm{H}_2 \uparrow\)

2. Except LiH, they bum in the air on strong heating (400°-500°C) due to their decomposition into hydrogen which is inflammable.

3. There are strong reducing agents (especially under heated conditions). For example:

⇒ \(\mathrm{LiH}+\mathrm{CO}_2 \rightarrow \mathrm{HCOOLi} \text { [lithium formate] }\)

⇒ \(\mathrm{NaH}+2 \mathrm{CO} \rightarrow \mathrm{HCOONa} \text { [sodium formate] }+\mathrm{C}\)

Chemistry Nascent Hydrogen Notes

⇒ \(\mathrm{PbSO}_4+2 \mathrm{CaH}_2 \rightarrow \mathrm{PbS}+2 \mathrm{Ca}(\mathrm{OH})_2\)

⇒ \(6 \mathrm{LiH}+\mathrm{N}_2 \rightarrow 2 \mathrm{Li}_3 \mathrm{~N}+3 \mathrm{H}_2 \uparrow ; 3 \mathrm{CaH}_2+\mathrm{N}_2 \rightarrow \mathrm{Ca}_3 \mathrm{~N}_2+3 \mathrm{H}_2 \uparrow\)

MPBSE Class 11 Chemistry  Jonic hydrides Uses:

Jonic hydrides are used as

  1. A ready source of di¬ hydrogen,
  2. Solid fuel,
  3. Reducing agents and
  4. To prepare the very important reducing agents like lithium aluminum hydride (liajh4) & sodium borohydride (nabh4).

Covalent Or Molecular Hydrides

  • When hydrogen combines with elements of comparatively high electronegativity such as p -p-block elements, covalent or molecular hydrides are formed. The common elements forming molecular hydrides are B, C, N, O, F, Si, P, S, Cl, Ga, Ge, As, Se, Br, In, Sn, Pb, etc.
  • The two s -s-block elements namely Be and Mg also form this type of hydride. The formation of covalent hydride is primarily due to the fact that the electronegativity difference between these elements and hydrogen is not much higher.
  • Their general formula is XHn (for s -block elements) or XH8-n (for p -block elements) where n is the number of valence electrons of the element. These hydrides usually exist as discrete covalent molecules which are held together by weak van der Waals forces of attraction and hence are called covalent or molecular hydrides.

Molecular Hydrides Classification: Covalent or molecular hydrides can be further classified into three categories according to their relative number of electrons and bonds present in their Lewis structures.

1. Electron-deficient hydrides: These hydrides have less number of electrons in the valence shell of the central atom (usually, less than eight electrons in the valance shell). So their monomers do not satisfy the usual octet rule.

The elements of group-13 form this type of hydride, which gains stability through the formation of dimers (Example., B2H6, Ga2H6, etc.) and polymers [Example (AlH3)w, etc.]. Due to a deficiency of electrons, these hydrides act as Lewis acids and form complex entities with Lewis bases such as \(\ddot{\mathrm{N}}_3\) H ion, etc.

Chemistry Nascent Hydrogen Notes

⇒ \(\mathrm{B}_2 \mathrm{H}_6+2 \mathrm{LiH} \rightarrow 2 \mathrm{Li}^{+}\left[\mathrm{BH}_4\right]^{-} \text {[Lithium borohydride] }\)

2. Electron-precise hydrides: These hydrides have an exact number of electrons in the valence shell of the central atom so as to write their conventional Lewis structures. Examples are hydrides of the elements of the group- 14 such as CH4, SiH4, GeH4, etc. They are tetrahedral in structure.

3. Electron-rich hydrides: These hydrides have more electrons in the valence shell of the central atom so as to write their conventional Lewis structures. The excess electrons are present in the form of lone pairs. Examples are hydrides of elements of group-15 to 17 such as \(\ddot{\mathrm{N}_H}{ }_3, \mathrm{H}_2 \ddot{\mathrm{O}}:, \mathrm{H} \ddot{\mathrm{i}} \mathrm{i}:, \mathrm{H}_2 \ddot{\mathrm{s}}:\) etc. Due to the presence of lone pairs of electrons, these hydrides act as Lewis bases and form complex entities with Lewis acids such as BF3, B2H6, Ga2 H,6, etc.

⇒ \(\mathrm{BF}_3+\ddot{\mathrm{NH}}_3 \rightarrow\left[\mathrm{BF}_3 \leftarrow: \mathrm{NH}_3\right]\)

⇒ \(\mathrm{B}_2 \mathrm{H}_6+2 \ddot{\mathrm{NH}}_3 \rightarrow\left[\mathrm{BH}_2\left(\mathrm{NH}_3\right)_2\right]^{+}\left[\mathrm{BH}_4^{-}\right]\)

Nomenclature : The systematic names of the molecular hydrides are usually derived from the name of the element by attaching the suffix ‘ane! For example chlorane for HCl, phosphane for PH3, oxidane for H2O, azane for NH3, sulphane for H2S, etc. However, common names like hydrogen chloride, phosphine, water, ammonia, and hydrogen sulfide are more commonly used.

MPBSE Class 11 Chemistry  Nomenclature  Preparation:

1. These hydrides can be obtained by direct combination of the elements at high temperatures.

⇒ \(\mathrm{N}_2+3 \mathrm{H}_2 \stackrel{\Delta}{\longrightarrow} 2 \mathrm{NH}_3 ; \mathrm{O}_2+2 \mathrm{H}_2 \stackrel{\Delta}{\longrightarrow} 2 \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}\)

2. These may be obtained by the hydrolysis of compounds such as borides, silicides, phosphides, sulfides, carbides, etc. For example:

⇒ \(\mathrm{Mg}_3 \mathrm{~B}_2+6 \mathrm{HCl} \rightarrow 3 \mathrm{MgCl}_2+\mathrm{B}_2 \mathrm{H}_6\)

⇒ \(\mathrm{Mg}_2 \mathrm{Si}+4 \mathrm{HCl} \rightarrow 2\mathrm{MgCl}_2+\mathrm{SiH}_4\)

⇒ \(\mathrm{Al}_4 \mathrm{C}_3+12 \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O} \rightarrow 4 \mathrm{Al}(\mathrm{OH})_3+3 \mathrm{CH}_4\)

⇒ \(\mathrm{Mg}_3 \mathrm{~N}_2+6 \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O} \rightarrow 3 \mathrm{Mg}(\mathrm{OH})_2+2 \mathrm{NH}_3\)

Chemistry Nascent Hydrogen Notes

⇒ \(\mathrm{FeS}+2 \mathrm{HCl} \rightarrow \mathrm{FeCl}_2+\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{~S}\)

⇒ \(\mathrm{Ca}_3 \mathrm{P}_2+6 \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O} \rightarrow 3 \mathrm{Ca}(\mathrm{OH})_2+2 \mathrm{PH}_3\)

3. These may also be prepared by the reduction of the appropriate anhydrous chloride by LiAlH4. For example:

⇒ \(4 \mathrm{BCl}_3+3 \mathrm{LiAlH}_4 \rightarrow 2 \mathrm{~B}_2 \mathrm{H}_6+3 \mathrm{LiCl}+3 \mathrm{AlCl}_3\)

⇒ \(\mathrm{MCl}_4+\mathrm{LiAlH}_4 \rightarrow \mathrm{LiCl}+\mathrm{AlCl}_3+\mathrm{MH}_4[\mathrm{M}=\mathrm{Si}, \mathrm{Ge}, \mathrm{Sn}]\)

MPBSE Class 11 Chemistry  Nomenclature  Physical Properties:

  1. These hydrides consist of discrete covalent molecules held together by relatively weaker van der Waals forces and dipole-dipole interaction and in some cases by hydrogen bonding. Hence, these axe gases, liquids, or solids of low melting and boiling points.
  2. The hydrides of the first element of groups 15, 16, and 17 (i.e.„ NH3, H2O, and HF ) have abnormally high boiling points as compared to the hydrides of other elements of each group. The highly electronegative central atoms of these compounds strongly polarise the covalent bond with H and as a result, they remain associated through intermolecular hydrogen bonding. Due to such associations, they have abnormally high boiling points.
  3. They are bad conductors of electricity.
  4. Being covalent in nature, they are much soluble in organic solvents.

MPBSE Class 11 Chemistry  Nomenclature  Chemical Properties

1. Since the electronegativity of the central atoms increases from left to right along a period of the periodic table, covalent hydrides become progressively more acidic. For example, NH3 (basic), H2O (amphoteric), and HF (acidic).

2. The electron-rich hydrides behave as Lewis bases (electron donors), while the electron-deficient hydrides behave as Lewis acids (electron acceptors). They react with each other to form complex compounds.

⇒ \(\mathrm{B}_2 \mathrm{H}_6+2 \ddot{\mathrm{NH}}_3 \longrightarrow 2\left[\mathrm{BH}_3 \leftarrow: \mathrm{NH}_3\right]\)

Chemistry Nascent Hydrogen Notes

3. They undergo decomposition to their respective elements when heated.

⇒ \(\mathrm{SiH}_4 \stackrel{>300^{\circ} \mathrm{C}}{\longrightarrow} \mathrm{Si}+2 \mathrm{H}_2\)

The thermal stability in a group decreases as the electronegativity decreases with an increase in the size of the central atom down the group. For example, the thermal stability of group-15 hydrides follows the order:

NH3 > PH3 > ASH3 > SbH3 > BiH3

MPBSE Class 11 Chemistry  Metallic Or Interstitial Hydrides

  • These hydrides are binary compounds of hydrogen and transition elements and are generally formed when d -d-block elements of group-3, 4, 5 (Sc, Ti, V, Zr, Nb, La, Hf, Ta, Ac, etc.), 6 (only Cr), 10, 11, 12, (Pb, Cu, Zn, etc.) and /-block elements (Ce, Eu, Yb, Th, U, etc.) are subjected to react with dihydrogen at elevated temperatures.
  • The metals of group-7, 8, and 9 do not form hydrides, and the region of the periodic table from group- 7 to 9 is called hydride gap. These hydrides exhibit properties similar to those of the parent metal and hence are called metallic hydrides.
  • In these hydrides, hydrogen atoms being small in size occupy the interstitial space of the metal lattice producing distortion without any change of its type. That’s why, these hydrides are called interstitial hydrides. This distortion of the lattice makes the hydrides brittle.
  • However, it has been known from recent studies that except the hydrides of Ni, Pb, Ce, and Ac, other hydrides of this class have lattices different from those of the parent metal. These hydrides may also be regarded either as alloys or as solid solutions of hydrogen in metal.
  • The composition of hydrides of some lanthanides and actinides belonging to f-block may not correspond to a simple whole number ratio and therefore, they are called non-stoichiometric hydrides. Their composition has been found to vary with temperature and pressure. LaH2.87’ YbH2.55’ ZrH1.3-1.75’ VH0.56’  NiH0.6-0.7’ PdH0.6-0.8 etc.

MPBSE Class 11 Chemistry  Metallic Or Interstitial Hydrides Properties

  1. These hydrides are hard and conduct heat and electricity.
  2. They have a metallic luster and magnetic properties.
  3. They generally undergo reversible decor position into dihydrogen and metal and therefore, they are strong-reducing agents.

Occlusion of dihydrogen:

  • Some transition metals can adsorb large volumes of dihydrogen on their surface due to the formation of interstitial hydrides. For example, when red-hot Pd is cooled in the atmosphere of dihydrogen, it adsorbs 935 times its own volume of dihydrogen.
  • This property of adsorption of a gas by a metal is known as occlusion. The amount of dihydrogen occluded depends upon the nature and the physical state of the metal involved.
  • For example, the occlusion power decreases in the order of colloidal Pd > Pt > Au >Ni. Due to the occlusion of H2, the metal lattice becomes expanded and unstable. For this reason, the occluded dihydrogen is liberated on strong heating.

Chemistry Nascent Hydrogen Notes

Hydrogen Occlusion of dihydrogen

MPBSE Class 11 Chemistry  Occlusion of dihydrogen Uses

  1. Metal hydrides formed as a result of the occlusion of H2 gas can be used as a hydrogen storage media (i.e., as a source of energy).
  2. Occlusion can be used to remove impurities like N2 present in H2.
  3. Occlusion can also be used to separate H2 from He.
  4. Metals like Ni, Pd, Pt, etc. which can adsorb large volumes of dihydrogen are widely used in catalytic hydrogenation (reduction) reactions for preparing a large number of compounds.
    1. Besides the three categories of hydrides mentioned above, elements having electronegativity between 1.4 to 2.0 form some polymeric hydrides in which the monomer molecules are held together in two or three dimensions by hydrogen bridges. Some common examples are (BeH2)n< (AlH3)n, (InH3)n, (SiH4)n, etc.
    2. Some complex hydrides are also formed. In these hydrides, the hydride ion H becomes involved in forming a coordinate bond with the central metal atom. B, A1, Ga, etc., of group IIIA form this type of hydride. Some common examples are lithium aluminum hydride (LiAlH4), sodium borohydride (NaBH4), etc. These are extensively used in organic and inorganic chemistry as a versatile reducing agent.

MPBSE Class 12 Physics Ohm’s Law Combination Of Resistances Notes

Electric Current and Ohm’s Law Combination Of Resistances

Several resistances or resistors such as light bulbs, fans, pumps, etc. may bo Joined In a network variously for various purposes.

A combination of resistances can ho of three types:

Aeries combination,

Parallel combination

Mixed combination.

Equivalent resistance:

If a single resistance is used Instead of a combination of resistances, to keep the current unchanged in the circuit, then that single resistance is called the equivalent resistance of the combination.

Ohm’s Law Combination Of Resistances Notes

Series Combination of Resistances:

A number of resistances are said to be connected In scries if they are connected end to end consecutively so that the same current flows through each resistance when a potential difference is applied across the combination.

Calculation of equivalent resistance: Three resistances R1, R2, and R3 arc connected in series in between the two points A and D of on electrical circuit.

Let VA, VB, VC, and VD be the potentials at points A, B, C, and D respectively.

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current and Ohm's Law Calculation of equivalent resistance

If I am the current flowing in the circuit, then according to Ohm’s law

VA-VB = IR1….(1)

VB – VC = IR2…..(2)

VC – VD = IR3….(3)

Adding (1), (2) and (3) we have,

VA-VD = I(R1+ R2+R3)…..(4)

If R be the equivalent resistance of the combination and if it is connected between die points A and D, the main current flowing in the circuit will remain die same. So

VA-VD = IR…..(5)

From (4) and (5) we have

R = R1 + R2 + R3

Ohm’s Law Combination Of Resistances Notes

Similarly, if n number of resistances are connected in series instead of the three resistances then,

⇒ \(R=R_1+R_2+R_3^{\wedge}+\cdots+R_n=\sum_{i=1}^n R_i\)….(6)

So, the equivalent resistance of a series combination = the sum of the individual resistances.

A few characteristics of the series combination of resistances:

The same current flows through each resistance.

The total potential difference across the combination is equal to the sum of the individual potential difference across each resistance.

Since the current is constant, an individual potential difference is directly proportional to the individual resistance.

Unit 2 Current Electricity Chapter 1 Electric Current and Ohm’s Law Combination Of Resistances Numerical Examples

Example 1. Three resistances of magnitudes 20Ω, 30Ω, and 40Ω, are connected in series,

  1. What is the equivalent resistance?
  2. If the potential difference across the resistance 20 A is 1 V, calculate the potential difference across the other two resistances and also the total potential difference across the combination.

Solution:

1. Equivalent resistance, R = 20 + 30 + 40

= 90Ω

2. For the resistance of 20Ω

⇒ \(\text { current, } I=\frac{\text { potential difference }}{\text { resistance }}=\frac{1}{20} \mathrm{~A}\)

Since it is a series combination, the current everywhere is \(\frac{1}{20}\)A.

∴ The potential difference across 30Ω resistance

⇒ \(\frac{1}{20} \times 30\)

= 1.5 V

and across the 40Ω resistance = \(\frac{1}{20} \times 40\)

= 2.0 V

⇒ \(\frac{1}{20} \times 90\)

= 4.5 V

Ohm’s Law Combination Of Resistances Notes

Example 2. \(\rho_1 \text { and } \rho_2\) are the resistivities of the materials of two wires of the same dimensions. What will be the equivalent resistivity of the series combination of the two wires?
Solution:

Let l be the length and A be the cross-sectional area of each wire.

The equivalent resistance in series combination is

⇒ \(R=R_1+R_2=\rho_1 \frac{l}{A}+\rho_2 \frac{l}{A}=\left(\rho_1+\rho_2\right) \frac{l}{A}\)….(1)

In the series combination, the length of the conductor =21; cross-sectional area = A.

Let the equivalent resistivity be \(\rho\)

∴ \(R=\rho \frac{2 l}{A}\)…..(2)

Comparing (1) and (2) we have,

⇒ \(\rho \frac{2 l}{A}=\left(\rho_1+\rho_2\right) \frac{l}{A} \quad \text { or, } \rho=\frac{\rho_1+\rho_2}{2}\)

Parallel Combination of Resistances:

Two or more resistors are said to be connected in parallel if one end of each is connected to a common point, and the other end to another point.

When this combination is joined in a circuit, the main current is distributed among the resistors, but the potential difference across each is the same

Ohm’s Law Combination Of Resistances Notes

Calculation of equivalent resistance: Three resistances R1, R2, and R3 are connected in parallel in between two common points A and B of an electrical circuit. Let VA and VB be the potentials at points A and B respectively.

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current and Ohm's Law Calculation of equivalent resistance.

A current I is divided into three parts through these resistances.

I = I1 +I2+ I3…(1)

A and B are the common terminals of each of the three resistances. So according to Ohm’s law,

For the resistance \(R_1, I_1=\frac{V_A-V_B}{R_1}\)….(2)

For the resistance \(R_2, I_2=\frac{V_A-V_B}{R_2}\)…..(3)

For the resistance \(R_3, I_3=\frac{V_A-V_B}{R_3}\)….(4)

Adding (2), (3) and (4) we get,

⇒ \(I_1+I_2+I_3=\left(V_A-V_B\right)\left(\frac{1}{R_1}+\frac{1}{R_2}+\frac{1}{R_3}\right)\)

or, \(I=\left(V_A-V_B\right)\left(\frac{1}{R_1}+\frac{1}{R_2}+\frac{1}{R_3}\right)\)….(5)

If R is the equivalent resistance of the combination and if it is connected between points A and B, the main current flow in the circuit will remain the same. So

⇒ \(I_1+I_2+I_3=\left(V_A-V_B\right)\left(\frac{1}{R_1}+\frac{1}{R_2}+\frac{1}{R_3}\right)\)…(6)

From (5) and (6) we get \(\frac{1}{R}=\frac{1}{R_1}+\frac{1}{R_2}+\frac{1}{R_3}\)

Similarly, if n number of resistances are connected in parallel
instead of the three resistances, we have

⇒ \(\frac{1}{R}=\frac{1}{R_1}+\frac{1}{R_2}+\frac{1}{R_3}+\cdots+\frac{1}{R_n}=\sum_{i=1}^n \frac{1}{R_i}\)…(7)

So, the reciprocal of the equivalent resistance of the parallel combination = the sum of the reciprocals of the individual resistances.

Ohm’s Law Combination Of Resistances Notes

Calculation of current in different resistances: If R be the equivalent resistance of a parallel combination connected between two points A and B of the circuit, the main current is given by,

⇒ \(I=\frac{V_A-V_B}{R} \text { or, } V_A-V_B=I R\)

The potential difference of each resistance is ( VA– VB).

So, the current flowing through Rl is

⇒ \(I_1=\frac{V_A-V_B}{R_1}=\frac{I \cdot R}{R_1}=I \cdot \frac{R}{R_1}\)

This rule is applicable to each resistance of the parallel combination.

So, the current flowing through any resistance

⇒ \(\text { main current } \times \frac{\text { equivalent resistance }}{\text { corresponding resistance }}\)

A few characteristics of parallel combinations of resistances:

1. The potential difference across each resistance is the same.

2. \(\frac{1}{R}=\frac{1}{R_1}+\frac{1}{R_2}+\cdots ; \text { so } \frac{1}{R}\) is greater than each of \(\frac{1}{R_1}+\frac{1}{R_2}+….\) etc. Therefore, the value of R is less than each of R1, R2….etc i.e., the equivalent resistance is less than each of the resistances in the combination.

3. Total ament through the parallel combination is the sum of the individual currents through the resistances.

4. Since the potential difference across each resistance Is constant, individual currents are Inversely proportional to the individual resistances.

In domestic electrical circuits, appliances such as bulbs, electric fan, heaters, etc. operate with the same potential difference (220 V), So these are connected in parallel.

Special case (parallel combination of two resistances): Suppose two resistances R1 and R2, are connected in parallel. Let their equivalent resistance be R. Then,

⇒ \(\frac{1}{R}=\frac{1}{R_1}+\frac{1}{R_2} \quad \text { or, } R=\frac{R_1 R_2}{R_1+R_2}\)

The potential difference across the two ends of the combination,

⇒ \(V=I R=I \frac{R_1 R_2}{R_1+R_2}\)

A potential difference of each resistance = V.

So, current flowing through \(R_1, I_1=\frac{V}{R_1}=I \cdot \frac{R_2}{R_1+R_2}\)

Similarly, current flowing through \(R_2, I_2=I \cdot \frac{R_1}{R_1+R_2}\)

So, current flowing through a resistance

⇒ \(=\text { main current } \times \frac{\text { other resistance }}{\text { sum of the two resistances }}\)

This formula will often be found handy in numerical calculations

Ohm’s Law Combination Of Resistances Notes

Electric Current and Ohm’s Law Numerical Examples

Example 1. ABC is a triangle formed by wires. The resistances of the sides AB, BC, and CA are respectively 40Ω, 60Ω and 100Ω. What is the equivalent resistance between points A and B?

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current and Ohm's Law Triangle Formed

Solution:

Along the path ACD the two resistances 100Ω and 60Ω are connected in series. So the equivalent resistance of the ACD

= 100 + 60

= 160Ω.

Again, the resistance 40Ω of the side All Is connected In parallel with the path ACB, So the equivalent resistance between the two points A and B is

⇒ \(R=\frac{160 \times 40}{160+40}=\frac{160 \times 40}{200}=32 \Omega\)

Example 2. Determine the equivalent resistance between points A and B

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current and Ohm's Law Equivalent Resistance

Solution:

The equivalent resistance of the path ADC = 3 + 7 = 10Ω.

With the path ADC, the 10Ω resistance of the diagonal AC Is connected in parallel.

So, the equivalent resistance of AD, DC, and AC

⇒ \(\frac{10 \times 10}{10+10}=5 \Omega \text {. }\)

With this 5Ω resistance, the 5Ω resistance of the side DC Is connected In series. So the equivalent resistance of 5 ft and DC

= 5 + 5

= 10Ω

Now, the 10Ω resistance of AD is also In, parallel with the above equivalent resistance 10Ω.

So, the equivalent resistance between A and B is

⇒ \(R=\frac{10 \times 10}{10+10}=5 \Omega\)

Ohm’s Law Combination Of Resistances Notes

Example 3. The two circuits draw equal currents from the battery. But the current through the resistance R in the second circuit is \(\frac{1}{10}\)th of that the first circuit. Determine the values of R1 and R2.

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current and Ohm's Law Equal Currents From The Battery

Solution:

Current drawn from the battery in first case,

⇒ \(I_1=\frac{E}{R}\)…..(1)

Current drawn from the battery in the second case,

⇒ \(I_2=\frac{\text { total emf }}{\text { total resistance }}=\frac{E}{R_1+\frac{R R_2}{R+R_2}}\) [∵ R1 is in series with the parallel combination of R and R2 ]

So, \(I_2=\frac{E\left(R+R_2\right)}{R_1 R+R_1 R_2+R R_2}\)….(2)

Accordingly, \(I_1=I_2 \quad \text { or, } \frac{E}{R}=\frac{E\left(R+R_2\right)}{R_1 R+R_1 R_2+R R_2}\)

or, R1R + R1R2 + RR2 = R2 + RR2

or, R2-R1R- R1R2 = 0 ….(3)

Now, current through the resistance R,

⇒ \(I_R=I_2 \frac{R_2}{R+R_2}\)…(4)

It is given that, \(I_R=\frac{I_1}{10} \quad \text { or, } I_R=\frac{I_2}{10} \quad\left(… I_1=I_2\right)\)

or, \(\frac{I_2 R_2}{R+R_2}=\frac{I_2}{10} \text { [from equation (4)] }\)

or, \(10 R_2=R+R_2 \quad \text { or, } R_2=\frac{R}{9}=0.11 R\)

Putting R2 in equation (3), we get

⇒ \(R^2-R_1 R-R_1 \frac{R}{9}=0 \quad \text { or, } R_1 \frac{10 R}{9}=R^2\)

⇒ \(R_1=\frac{9}{10} R=0.9 R\)

Required resistance, R2 = 0.117R and 7R1 = 0.9R

Ohm’s Law Combination Of Resistances Notes

Example 4. You are given several identical resistances, each of value R = 10Ω and each capable of carrying a maximum combination of these resistances to obtain a resistance of 5Ω which can carry a current of 4 A. Find the minimum number of resistances of the Type R that will be required.
Solution:

The resistances have to be connected in a series of parallel combinations. Since each resistance can carry a current of 1 A, to pass a 4 A current, we need four paths in parallel. Let r be the resistance of each path.

The equivalent resistance of 4 parallel paths will be \(\frac{r}{4}\).

According to the given problem,

⇒ \(\frac{r}{4}\) = 5

∴ r = 5 x 4

= 20Ω

In order to have 20Ω resistance in each path, two resistances each of resistance 10Ω have to be connected in series.

Since there are four paths, the total number of resistances required

=2 x 4

= 8.

Example 5. A wire of uniform cross-section and length l has a resistance of 16Ω. It is cut into four equal parts. Each part is stretched uniformly to length l and all four stretched parts are connected in parallel. Calculate the total resistance of the combination so formed. Assume that the stretching of the wire does not cause any change in the density of its material.
Solution:

Let the cross-section of the wire change from A to Aj when it is cut into four parts.

As density remains constant, so volume also remains constant.

Volume of each part before stretching = volume of each part after stretching

or, \(\frac{A l}{4}=A_1 l \quad \text { or, } A_1=\frac{A}{4}\)

So resistance of each part, \(R_1=\frac{\rho l}{\frac{A}{4}}=\frac{4 \rho l}{A}\)

Therefore, the equivalent resistance of the parallel combination,

⇒ \(R_{\mathrm{eq}}=\frac{R_1}{4}=\frac{\rho l}{A}=16 \Omega\) [∵ initial resistance = \(\frac{\rho l}{A}=16 \Omega\)]

MPBSE Class 12 Physics Electric Current and Ohm’s Law Shunt Notes

Current Electricity

Electric Current and Ohm’s Law Shunt

For every electrical instrument, the current flowing through it has a maximum permissible limit.

If the current exceeds the limit, there is a possibility of damage to the instrument.

To protect sensitive instruments like galvanometers and ammeters against possible damages due to heavy current passing through them, an alternative passage is provided as an inbuilt device within these instruments such that a major part of the main current in the circuit passes through this alternative route and a very small part through the instrument.

This alternative passage which is nothing but a low resistance connected in parallel with the instrument is called a shunt.

The arrangement of a shunt where a low resistance S (shunt) is connected in parallel with a galvanometer of resistance G.

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current And Ohm's Law Shunt

Let I be the main current, IG be the current through the galvanometer, and Is be the current through the shunt.

So, \(I=I_G+I_S\)

Now the equivalent resistance of the combination of the galvanometer and the shunt = \(\frac{G S}{G+S}\)

So, \(V_A-V_B=I \cdot \frac{G S}{G+S}\)

∴ \(I_G=\frac{V_A-V_B}{G}=I \cdot \frac{S}{S+G}\)…(2)

Class 12 Physics Electric Current and Ohm’s Law Shunt Notes

and \(I_S=\frac{V_A-V_B}{S}\)

= \(I \cdot \frac{G}{S+G}\) ….(3)

From equations (2) and (3) we get \(\frac{I_G}{I_S}=\frac{S}{G}\)

Particularly, if S << G, then IG << Is.

The ratio of the main current and the current passing through the galvanometer is known as the multiplying factor or power of a shunt, denoted by n

∴ \(\frac{I}{I_G}=n \quad \text { or, } \frac{S}{G+S}=\frac{1}{n} \text { [from equation (2)] }\)

or, \(\frac{S}{G}=\frac{1}{n-1} \quad \text { or, } S=\frac{G}{n-1}\)…(4)

Thus the shunt resistance can be adjusted according to the demand of n depending on G.

The shunt has another utility. With the help of the shunt, the galvanometer can almost accurately record the current flowing through the circuit. When a high-resistance galvanometer is connected to a circuit, the current drops considerably.

But with a shunt which is used in parallel, the equivalent resistance is reduced even below S. So, the main current of the circuit remains practically unchanged. Therefore, it becomes possible to measure the main current almost correctly.

Current Electricity Electric Current and Ohm’s Law Shunt Numerical Examples

Example 1. To reduce the action of a galvanometer by 25 times, a shunt is added to it. If the galvanometer resistance is 1000 ft, what is the resistance of the shunt? An ammeter is used to measure the current and a voltmeter
Solution:

⇒ \(I_G=I \cdot \frac{S}{S+G} \quad \text { or, } \frac{I_G}{I}=\frac{S}{S+G}\)

According to the question \(\frac{I_G}{I}=\frac{1}{25}\)

∴ \(\frac{1}{25}=\frac{S}{S+G} \quad \text { or, } 25 S=S+G \quad \text { or, } 24 S=1000\)

or, \(S=\frac{1000}{24}=41.67 \Omega\)

Example 2. If a shunt of 1Ω Is connected to a galvanometer of resistance 99Ω, what fraction of the main current will flow through the galvanometer?
Solution:

The galvanometer resistance G and the shunt resistance S are connected in parallel. So the galvanometer current

⇒ \(I_G=I \cdot \frac{S}{S+G} \quad[I=\text { main current }]\)

or, \(\frac{I_G}{I}=\frac{S}{S+G}=\frac{1}{1+99}=\frac{1}{100}=1 \%\)

i.e., 1% of the main current will flow through the galvanometer.

Class 12 Physics Electric Current and Ohm’s Law Shunt Notes

Example 3. A battery of internal resistance zero is connected to a galvanometer of resistance 80Ω and a resistance of 20Ω in series. A current flows through the galvanometer. If a shunt of 1Ω resistance is connected to the galvanometer, show that the current that will now flow through the galvanometer becomes \(\frac{1}{17}\) of the previous current.
Solution:

The main current before adding the shunt to the circuit is

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current And Ohm's Law A Battery Of Internal Resistance

⇒ \(I=\frac{E}{80+20}=\frac{E}{100}\)

After adding the shunt the main current is

⇒ \(I^{\prime}=\frac{E}{\frac{80 \times 1}{80+1}+20}=\frac{E \times 81}{80+20 \times 81}\)

So, \(I_G=I^{\prime} \cdot \frac{S}{S+G}=I^{\prime} \cdot \frac{1}{80+1}=I^{\prime} \times \frac{1}{81}=\frac{E}{80+20 \times 81}\)

∴ \(\frac{I_G}{I}=\frac{E}{80+20 \times 81} \times \frac{100}{E}=\frac{100}{20(4+81)}=\frac{100}{20 \times 85}=\frac{1}{17}\)

i.e., \(I_G=\frac{1}{17} I\)

Connection of Ammeter and Voltmeter in a Circuit:

An ammeter is used to measure the current and a voltmeter is used to measure the potential difference between any two points of a circuit.

Milliammeters and ammeters are used to measure small currents while millivoltmeters and microvoltmeters are used to measure small potential differences.

Connection of ammeter:

An ammeter is connected an electrical circuit, so that it may give the reading of the current when the circuit current passes through it. The main current decreases a little due to the resistance of the ammeter. To overcome this disadvantage a low-resistance ammeter should be used

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current and Ohm's Law Connection Of Ammeter

Connection of voltmeter: A voltmeter of resistance Rv is inserted in a parallel connection between the two points of the circuit across which the potentia difference is to be measured. The potential difference across the voltmeter is recorded as that between the two points. But there is a difficulty in this arrangement. Before inserting the voltmeter the resistance between the points A and B was R.

After joining the voltmeter, the resistance between points A and B is equal to the equivalent resistance of R and Rv, which is always less than R.

Class 12 Physics Electric Current and Ohm’s Law Shunt Notes

So, the main current increases i.e., the potential difference between A and B also increases. Hence it is desirable that Rv should be much greater than R.

In that case, the equivalent resistance becomes almost equal to R and the slight increase of the potential difference can be ignored. So, the voltmeter is an instrument having a very high resistance and is connected in parallel in an electrical circuit.

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current And Ohm's Law Connection Of Voltmeter

Current Electricity

Electric Current and Ohm’s Law Numerical Examples

Example 1. The internal resistance of a battery of 100 V is 5fl. j When the emf of the battery is measured by a voltmeter 20% error is found. What is the resistance of the voltmeter?
Solution:

Suppose, the resistance of the voltmeter is R. Its reading is the potential difference of the external circuit.

According to the question, voltmeter reading =IR = 80% of 100 V = 80 V

∴ Lost volt =Ir = 100-80 = 20 V

∴ \(\frac{I R}{I r}=\frac{80}{20} \quad \text { or, } \frac{R}{r}=4\)

or, R = 4r

= 4 x 5

= 20Ω

Class 12 Physics Electric Current and Ohm’s Law Shunt Notes

Example 2. In a supply line of 100 V, there is a resistance of 1000Ω. In between one terminal of the resistance and its point, a voltmeter is connected which gives a reading of 40 V. Determine the resistance of the voltmeter
Solution:

Suppose, the resistance of the voltmeter is R. I C is the midpoint of the resistance AB.

So, resistance of each portion AC and BC = \(\frac{1000}{2}\)

= 500Ω

Since the reading of the voltmeter = 40 V,

∴ VA – VC = 40V,

SO VC– VB = 100 – 40

= 60V

Now, the main current of the circuit,

⇒ \(I=\frac{V_C-V_B}{\text { resistance of } B C}=\frac{60}{500}=0.12 \mathrm{~A}\)

Again, current in the resistance AC,

⇒ \(I^{\prime}=\frac{V_A-V_C}{\text { resistance of } A C}\)

= \(\frac{40}{500}\)

= 0.08A

So, current in the voltmeter

IV = I-V

= 0.12 – 0.08

= 0.04 A

Therefore, the resistance of the voltmeter,

⇒ \(R=\frac{V_A-V_C}{I_V}=\frac{40}{0.04}=1000 \Omega\)

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current and Ohm's Law The Resistance Of The Voltmeter

Class 12 Physics Electric Current and Ohm’s Law Shunt Notes

Example 3. When a voltmeter of resistance 100Ω is connected. with an electric cell, the reading of the voltmeter Is 2 V. When the cell is connected with a resistance of 15Ω, an ammeter of resistance 1Ω gives the reading of 0.1 A. Determine the emf of the cell.
Solution:

In the first circuit

⇒ \(\text { current, } I_1=\frac{\text { reading of the voltmeter }}{\text { resistance of the voltmeter }}=\frac{2}{100}=0.02 \mathrm{~A}\)

If the die emf of the cell is E and the internal resistance is r then,

lost volt = I1r

= 0.02r

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current And Ohm's Law Voltmeter Of Resistance

i.e., E = 2 + 0.02r…(1)

Now, in the second circuit

⇒ \(\text { current, } I_2=\frac{E}{r+15+1}\)

or, \(0.1=\frac{E}{r+16}\)

or, E = 0.1r + 1.6…(2)

From the equations (1) and (2) we have,

2 + 0.02r = 0.1r+ 1.6

or, 0.08r = 0.4

or, \(r=\frac{0.4}{0.08}=5 \Omega\)

So, from (1), E = 2 + 0.02 x 5

= 2 + 0.1

= 2.1V

MPBSE Class 12 Physics Ohm’s Law Multiple Choice Question And Answers

Class 12 Physics Ohm’s Law Multiple Choice Question And Answers

Question 1. Two copper wires have a ratio of 1: 4 between their diameters. If the same current passes through both of them, the drift velocity of the electrons will be in the ratio of

  1. 16:1
  2. 4: 1
  3. 1:4
  4. 1:16

Answer: 1. 16:1

Question 2. A conductor of uniform cross-section is carrying a current of 1 ampere. The number of free electrons flowing across the cross-section of the conductor per second is

  1. 6.25 x 1018
  2. 6.25 x 1017
  3. 6.25 X 1016
  4. 6.025 x 1023

Answer: 1. 6.25 x 1018

1 A electric current = the flow of 1 C charge through the cross-sectional area of the conductor in 1 second.

∴ Number of free electrons flowing per second

⇒ \(\frac{1 \mathrm{C}}{\text { charge of an electron }}\)

= \(\frac{1 \mathrm{C}}{1.6 \times 10^{-19} \mathrm{C}}\)

= \(6.25 \times 10^{18}\)

The option 1 is correct.

Question 3. In the circuit,

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current and Ohm's Law In Circuit

  1. I = 3A
  2. I1 = 2A
  3. I2 = 1A
  4. VAB = 8V

Answer:

1. I = 3A

2. I1 = 2A

3. I2 = 1A

Question 4. In the circuit,

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Chapter 1 Electric Current and Ohm's Law Circuit

  1. I = 1 A
  2. I = \(\frac{4}{3}\)A
  3. VAB = 4 V
  4. VAB = 3 V

Answer:

1. I = 1 A

4. VAB = 3 V

Class 12 Physics Ohm’s Law MCQs Question 5. If I = 2 A in the circuit

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current and Ohm's Law The Circuit

  1. E = 5 V
  2. I1 = 1.5 A
  3. I2 = 0.5 A
  4. VAB = 3 V

Answer:

1. E = 5 V

2. I1 = 1.5 A

3. I2 = 0.5 A

4. VAB = 3 V

Question 6. If the resistance of the rheostat Rh is gradually increased in the circuit,

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current and Ohm's Law The Resistance Of The Rehostar

  1. I will rise gradually
  2. I will fall gradually
  3. I1 will rise gradually
  4. I1 will fall gradually

Answer:

2. I will fall gradually

3. I1 will rise gradually

Question 7. Which of the following observations is correct if the galvanometer resistance is 200Ω in the circuit

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current and Ohm's Law Galvanometer Resistance

  1. S = 5Ω, I = 1.5 A,IG = 36.6 mA
  2. S = 1Ω, I = 1.5 A, IG = 14.9 mA
  3. S = 2Ω, I = 2 A, IG = 19.8 mA
  4. S = 3Ω, I = 2 A, IG = 29.6 mA

Answer:

1. S = 5Ω, I = 1.5 A,IG = 36.6 mA

3. S = 2Ω, I = 2 A, IG = 19.8 mA

4. S = 3Ω, I = 2 A, IG = 29.6 mA

Question 8. Brown, black, orange, and gold are the respective colors of the characteristic rings on a carbon resistor. Which of the following values of its resistance are definitely wrong?

  1. 10.6 kΩ
  2. 10.2 kΩ
  3. 9.8 kΩ
  4. 9.4 kΩ

Answer:

1. 10.6 kΩ

4. 9.4 kΩ

Question 9. Three 4Ω resistances can be connected in different combinations. The probable values of the equivalent resistance are

  1. 12Ω
  2. \(\frac{10}{3}\)Ω
  3. \(\frac{4}{3}\)Ω

Answer:

1. 12Ω

2. 6Ω

4. \(\frac{4}{3}\)Ω

Class 12 Physics Ohm’s Law MCQs  Question 10. E1, E2, and r1,r2 are respectively, the emf’s and internal resistances of two cells. The current through an external resistance R, when it is connected to the first cell, is equal to that when it is connected to the second. Here, the probable relations are

  1. E1 = E2,r1 = r2
  2. E1 > E2, r1 > r2
  3. E1 < E2, r1 < r2
  4. E1 > E2, r1 < r2

Answer:

1. E1 = E2,r1 = r2

2. E1 > E2, r1 > r2

3. E1 < E2,r1 < r2

Question 11. A voltmeter and an ammeter are connected in series to an ideal cell of emf E. The voltmeter reading is V and the ammeter reading is I. Choose the correct options.

  1. The voltmeter resistance is \(\frac{V}{I}\)
  2. The potential difference across the ammeter is (E- V)
  3. V<E
  4. Voltmeter resistance + ammeter resistance = \(\frac{E}{I}\)

Answer:

1. The voltmeter resistance is \(\frac{V}{I}\)

2. The potential difference across the ammeter is (E- V)

3. V

Question 12. Part of a circuit. Which points have the potential same as that of point m?

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current and Ohm's Law A Circuit

  1. p
  2. r
  3. t
  4. u

Answer:

2. r

3. t

Question 13. A galvanometer has a resistance of 100Ω and a full-scale range of 50μA. It can be used as a voltmeter or as a higher range ammeter, provided a resistance is added to it. Pick the correct range and resistance combination(s).

  1. 50 V range with 10kΩ resistance in series
  2. 10 V range with 200 kΩ .resistance in series
  3. 5 mA range with 1Ω resistance in parallel
  4. 10 mA range with 1Ω resistance in parallel

Answer:

2. 10 V range with 200 kΩ .resistance in series

3. 5 mA range with 1Ω resistance in parallel

Question 14. A straight conductor AB lies along the axis of a hollow metal cylinder, which is connected to the earth through a conductor C. A quantity of charge will flow through C if

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current and Ohm's Law Hollow Metal Cylinder

  1. A Current begins to flow through AB
  2. The current through AB is reversed
  3. AB is removed and a beam of protons flows in its place
  4. AB is removed, and a beam of electrons flows in its place

Answer:

3. AB is removed and a beam of protons flows in its place

4. AB is removed, and a beam of electrons flows in its place

Class 12 Physics Ohm’s Law MCQs  Question 15. To double the full-scale voltage reading of any galvanometer turned into a voltmeter, you must

  1. Increase the resistance to 3R
  2. Half the resistance R
  3. Increase the resistance to 4R
  4. None of the above

Answer: 4. None of the above

Question 16. The resistance Ω of a conducting wire depends on its material, length l, and area of cross-section A. The resistivity of the material of the wire is p = \(\frac{RA}{l}\) the value of p is different for different materials. It is very low for conducting materials, like metals. Besides, the resistance of a conductor also depends on its temperature. If the resistance of a conductor is R0 at 0° C, and Rt at t° C, then Rt = R0(1 + αt), where a is called the temperature coefficient of resistance. The resistance increases with temperature for metallic conductors but decreases for graphite, a few metal alloys, and for semiconductors like silicon and germanium.

1. The resistance of a metal wire increases by 10% when its temperature rises from 10° C to 110° C. The temperature coefficient of resistance of the metal is

  1. 0.02 °C-1
  2. 0.01 °C-1
  3. 0.002 °C-1
  4. 0.001 °C-1

Answer: 4. 0.001 °C-1

2. The length of this metal wire is doubled by stretching. What will be the change in its resistance?

  1. 100% increase
  2. 200% increase
  3. 300% increase
  4. 500% decrease

Answer: 3. 300% increase

3. The temperature of this new wire is again raised from A B 10°C to 110°C. The percentage increase of its resistance would be

  1. 5%
  2. 10%
  3. 20%
  4. 40%

Answer: 2. 10%

4. The temperature coefficient of resistance of a semiconductor is

  1. Zero
  2. Positive
  3. Negative
  4. Positive or negative depending on the material

Answer: 3. Negative

5. The graphs of the relations between current (I) and potential difference (V) of a metal wire at two different temperatures t1 and t2. The relation between t1 and t2 is

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current and Ohm's Law A Metal Wire

  1. t1 = t2
  2. t1 < t2
  3. t1 > t2
  4. Insufficient data

Answer: 2. t1 < t2

Question 17. If a current passes through a metal conducting wire of area of cross-section A, the drift velocity of free electrons inside the metal is vd = \(\frac{1}{neA}\) where the amount of electric charge of an electron = e, and the number of free electrons per unit volume of the metal =n. The applied electric field on the wire is E = \(\frac{V}{l}\) y, where a potential difference V exists between two points,l apart, along the length of the wire. If R is the resistance of the wire between those two points, then the resistivity of its material is \(\rho=\frac{R A}{l}\). Besides, the mobility (μ) of the free electrons inside a wire is defined as their drift velocity for a unit-applied electric field.

1. Two copper wires have both lengths and radii in the ratio 1: 2. If the ratio between the electric currents flowing through them is also 1: 2, what would be the ratio between the drift velocities of free electrons?

  1. 1:1
  2. 1:2
  3. 2:1
  4. 4:1

Answer: 3. 2:1

2. The radii of two wires of the same metal are in the ratio 1: 2. The same potential difference is applied between two points at a distance on each of the wires. The ratio between the drift velocities of the free electrons in two wires is

  1. 1:1
  2. 1:2
  3. 2:1
  4. 1:4

Answer: 2. 1:2

Class 12 Physics Ohm’s Law MCQs  3. The radii of two wires, made of two different metals, are in the ratio 1: 2. The number density of free electrons in the first metal is double that in the second metal. If the current in the first wire is 1 A, then the current In the second wire producing the same drift velocity is

  1. 1 A
  2. 2 A
  3. 4 A
  4. 8 A

Answer: 3. 4 A

4. Tire current through unit cross-section of a conductor, culled tire electric current density J, Is related to the applied electric field E as

  1. J = \(\rho\)E
  2. \(J=\frac{1}{\rho} E\)
  3. J = μE
  4. \(J=\frac{1}{\mu} E\)

Answer: 2. \(J=\frac{1}{\rho} E\)

Question 18. Measurements and Interpretations of voltage and electric current signals are common In modern medicine. Occasionally, a situation arises In which a voltmeter or an ammeter Is needed but it Is not available. A galvanometer Is an instrument dial that can be used to construct an ammeter (for measuring electric currents). It can also be used to construct a voltmeter (to measure voltages). In both cases, a resistor R must be connected to the galvanometer to effect the change. To turn the galvanometer into an ammeter, the resistor R is connected in parallel. The resistor R is connected in series with the galvanometer in order to turn it into a voltmeter. The current required to produce a full-scale deflection in a galvanometer is 10mA. The internal resistance of the galvanometer is 100Ω. Let Vr be the voltage across r and VR the voltage across R.

1. Which of the following relations correctly applies to the ammeter?

  1. Vr>VR
  2. Vr < VR
  3. Vr=VR
  4. More information is required

Answer: 1. Vr>VR

2. What resistance must be connected in parallel to the galvanometer to turn It into an ammeter capable of reading electric currents up to 10.01 A?

  1. 0.1Ω
  2. 10Ω
  3. None

Answer: 1. 0.1Ω

3. What resistance R must be connected in series to the galvanometer in order to convert it to a 100 V voltmeter?

  1. 900Ω
  2. 1000Ω
  3. 9900Ω
  4. 10000Ω

Answer: 3. 9900Ω

4. In the voltmeter circuit, the current in the resistor R must be

  1. Negligible, so that it has only a small effect on the voltage reading
  2. Substantial, but does not have any effect on the voltage reading
  3. Substantial, but does have some effect on the voltage reading
  4. None of the above

Answer: 1. Negligible, so that it has only a small effect on the voltage reading

Class 12 Physics Ohm’s Law MCQs  5. Which of the following relations correctly applies to the voltmeter circuit?

  1. Vr>VR
  2. Vr<VR
  3. Vr=VR
  4. Vr = 2VR

Answer: 2. Vr<VR

Question 19. Two cells each of emf e but internal resistances r1 and r2 are connected in series through an external resistance R. If the potential difference across the first cell is zero while current flows, the relation of R in terms of r1 and r2 is

  1. R = r1 + r2
  2. R = r1-r2
  3. R = \(\frac{1}{2}\) (rj + r2)
  4. R = \(\frac{1}{2}\)(r1 – r2)

Answer: 2. R = r1-r2

Question 20. Resistance of the thinner wire is 10Ω, then the resistance of the other wire will be

  1. 40Ω
  2. 20Ω
  3. 10Ω

Answer: 3. 10Ω

\(R=\rho \frac{l}{A}=\frac{\rho l}{\pi r^2}\)

∴ \(\frac{R_1}{R_2}=\frac{\rho_1}{\rho_2} \cdot \frac{l_1}{l_2} \cdot\left(\frac{r_2}{r_1}\right)^2=\frac{1}{3} \times \frac{1}{3} \times\left(\frac{3}{1}\right)^2=1\)

R2 = R1 = 10Ω

The option 3 is correct

Question 21. Four cells, each of emf E . and internal resistance r, are connected in series across an external resistance R. By mistake one of the cells is connected in reverse. Then the current in the external circuit is

  1. \(\frac{2 E}{4 r+R}\)
  2. \(\frac{3 E}{4 r+R}\)
  3. \(\frac{3 E}{3 r+R}\)
  4. \(\frac{2 E}{3 r+R}\)

Answer: 1. \(\frac{2 E}{4 r+R}\)

Currently the circuit,

⇒ \(I=\frac{3 E-E}{4 r+R}=\frac{2 E}{4 r+R}\)

The option 1 is correct.

Class 12 Physics Ohm’s Law MCQs  Question 22. A circuit consists of three batteries of emf E1 = 1V, E2 = 2 V, and E3 = 3V and internal resistances 1Ω, 2Ω, and 1Ω respectively which are connected in parallel. The potential difference between points P and Q is

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current and Ohm's Law A Circuit Consists Of Three Batteries

  1. 1.0V
  2. 2.0V
  3. 2.2V
  4. 3V

Answer: 2. 2.0V

Equivalent resistance of the internal resistances connected in parallel

= \(\frac{2}{5}\)Ω

Total current = \(\frac{1}{1}+\frac{2}{2}+\frac{3}{1}\)

= 5V

∴ The potential difference between points P and

Q = 5 x \(\frac{2}{5}\)

= 2V

The option 2 is correct

Question 23. A metal wire of a circular cross-section has a resistance. The wire is now stretched without breaking so that its length is doubled and the density is assumed to remain the same. If the resistance of the wire now becomes R2 then R2: R1 is

  1. 1:1
  2. 1:2
  3. 4:1
  4. 1:4

Answer: 3. 4: 1

If the length of the wife is l and its cross-sectional area is A, the volume of the wire, V = lA = constant.

Then, A = \(\frac{V}{l}\)

Now, from the relation \(R=\rho \frac{l}{A}\)

⇒ \(\frac{R_1}{R_2}=\frac{l_1}{l_2} \cdot \frac{A_2}{A_1}=\frac{l_1}{l_2} \cdot \frac{V / l_2}{V / l_1}=\left(\frac{l_1}{l_2}\right)^2=\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^2=\frac{1}{4}\)

or, \(\frac{R_2}{R_1}=\frac{4}{1}=4: 1\)

The option 3 is correct

Question 24. Two equal resistances, 400Ω each, are connected in series with an 8 V battery. If the resistance of the first one increases by 0.5%, the charge required in the resistance of the second one in order to keep the potential difference across it unaltered is to

  1. Increase it by 1Ω
  2. Increase it by 2Ω
  3. Increase it by 4Ω
  4. Decrease it by 4Ω

Answer: 2. Increase it by 2Ω

Increase in first resistance =400 x \(\frac{0.5}{100}\) = 2Ω

Initially, the emf 8 V will be divided equally between the two resistances. So the voltage across each resistance will be 4 V. When the first resistance is increased, the second resistance should also be increased by 2Ω to keep the voltage across it unchanged.

The option 2 is correct.

Class 12 Physics Ohm’s Law MCQs  Question 25. Two wires of the same radius having lengths l1 and l2 and resistivities p1 and p2 are connected in series. The equivalent resistivity will be

  1. \(\frac{\rho_1 l_2+\rho_2 l_1}{\rho_1+\rho_2}\)
  2. \(\frac{\rho_1 l_1+\rho_2 l_2}{l_1+l_2}\)
  3. \(\frac{\rho_1 l_1-\rho_2 l_2}{l_1-l_2}\)
  4. \(\frac{\rho_1 l_2+\rho_2 l_1}{l_1+l_2}\)

Answer: 2. \(\frac{\rho_1 l_1+\rho_2 l_2}{l_1+l_2}\)

⇒ \(\frac{\rho_1 l_1}{A}+\frac{\rho_2 l_2}{A}=\rho_{\mathrm{eq}} \frac{\left(l_1+l_2\right)}{A}\)

∴ \(\rho_{\mathrm{eq}}=\frac{\rho_1 l_1+\rho_2 l_2}{l_1+l_2}\)

The option 2 is correct.

Question 26. The effective resistance between A and B is \(\frac{7}{12}\)Ω if each side of the cube has 1Ω resistance. The effective resistance between the same two points when the link AB is removed is

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current and Ohm's Law The Effective Resistance Between A And B

  1. \(\frac{7}{12}\)Ω
  2. \(\frac{5}{12}\)Ω
  3. \(\frac{7}{5}\)Ω
  4. \(\frac{5}{7}\)Ω

Answer: 3. \(\frac{7}{5}\)Ω

If x is the effective resistance between A and B of the remaining cube, then

⇒ \(\frac{7}{12}=\frac{1 \times x}{1+x}\)

Solving we get, x = \(\frac{7}{5}\)Ω

The option 3 is correct

Question 27. Four resistors 100Ω, 200Ω, 300Ω, and 400Ω are connected to form four sides of a square. The resistors can be connected in any; order. What is the maximum possible equivalent resistance across the diagonal of the square?

  1. 210Ω
  2. 240Ω
  3. 300Ω
  4. 250Ω

Answer: 4. 250Ω

The resistance across the diagonal of the square formed by the four resistors is equal to the equivalent resistance of the resistors in parallel combination.

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current and Ohm's Law Resistance In Parallel Combination In Resistance

The equivalent resistance of the parallel combination is maximum when the resistance on the two sides of the diagonal is equal.

∴ Equivalent resistance,

⇒ \(R=\frac{500 \times 500}{500+500}=250 \Omega\)

The option 4 is correct.

Class 12 Physics Ohm’s Law MCQs  Question 28. What will be the current through the 200Ω resistor in the given circuit a long time after the switch K is made on?

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current and Ohm's Law Circuit A Long After Time Circuit

  1. 0
  2. 100mA
  3. 10mA
  4. 1mA

Answer: 3. 10mA

A long time after the switch K is turned on, the 1μF and 2μF capacitors will be open-circuited and no current will flow through them.

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current and Ohm's Law Capacitor Will Be Open Circuit

∴ Current through, the 200Ω resistor

⇒ \(\frac{6}{200+400}=\frac{1}{100} \mathrm{~A}\)

= 10mA

The option 3 is correct.

Question 29. When the 5 V potential difference is applied across a wire of length 0.1 m, the drift speed of electrons is 2.5 x 10-4 m s-1. If the electron density in the wire is 8 x 1028 m-3, the resistivity of the material is close to

  1. 1.6 x 10-8Ω.m
  2. 1.6 x 10-7Ω.m
  3. 1.6 x 10-6Ω.m
  4. 1.6 x 10-5Ω.m

Answer: 4. 1.6 x 10-5Ω.m

Drift velocity, \(v=\frac{I}{n e A}\)

⇒ \(I=\frac{V}{R}=\frac{V}{\rho \frac{l}{A}} \quad \text { or, } \rho=\frac{V}{\frac{I}{A} l}=\frac{V}{n e v l}\)

∴ \(\rho=\frac{5}{\left(8 \times 10^{28}\right) \times\left(1.6 \times 10^{-19}\right) \times\left(2.5 \times 10^{-4}\right) \times 0.1}\)

= 1.56 X 10-5Ω.m

= 1.6 X 10-5Ω m

The option 4 is correct.

Question 30. The temperature dependence of resistances of Cu and undoped Si in the temperature range of 300-400 K, is best described by

  1. Linear increase for Cu, linear increase for Si
  2. Linear increase for Cu, exponential increase for Si
  3. Linear increase for Cu, exponential decrease for Si
  4. Linear decrease for Cu, linear decrease for Si

Answer: 3. Linear increase for Cu, exponential increase for Si

Question In the given circuit the current in each resistance is

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current and Ohm's Law Current In A Each Resistor

  1. 1A
  2. 0.25A
  3. 0.5A
  4. zero

Answer: 4. zero

There are two cells of equal electromotive force in opposite directions with each other in each loop. So, the electromotive force in each loop is zero. Hence, the current is also zero.

Option 4 is correct

Class 12 Physics Ohm’s Law MCQs  Question 31. In the given circuit diagram when the current reaches a steady state in the circuit, the charge on the capacitor of capacitance C will be

  1. CE
  2. \(\frac{C E r_1}{r_2+r}\)
  3. \(\frac{C E r_2}{r+r_2}\)
  4. \(\frac{C E r_1}{r_1+r}\)

Answer: 3. \(\frac{C E r_2}{r+r_2}\)

The current reaches a steady state in the circuit means that the current through the capacitor is zero

Class 12 Physics Unit 2 Current Electricity Chapter 1 Electric Current and Ohm's Law Current Through The Capacitor Is Zero

∴ Current in the circuit, \(i=\frac{E}{r+r_2}\)

Potential differences across the capacitor,

⇒ \(V_{A D}=V_{A B}=i r_2=\frac{E r_2}{r+r_2}\)

Therefore, the charge storedin the capacitor C,

⇒ \(Q=C V_{A D}=C E \frac{r_2}{r+r_2}\)

The option 3 is correct

Question 32. A, B, and C are voltmeters of resistance R, 1.5R, and 3R respectively. When some potential difference is applied between X and Y, the voltmeter readings are VA, VB,  and VC respectively. Then

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current and Ohm's Law The Voltmeter Of Resistance

  1. VA=VB=VC
  2. VA ≠ VB = VC
  3. VA = VB ≠ VC
  4. VA ≠ VB ≠ VC

Answer: 1. VA=VB=VC

Clearly, VB = VC

Again, equivalent resistance for B and C = \(\frac{1.5 \times 3}{1.5+3}=1 \Omega\)

= resistance of A.

Hence, VA = VB = VC

The option 1 is correct.

Question 33. Across a metallic conductor of a non-uniform cross-section, a constant potential difference is applied. The quantity which remains constant along the conductor is

  1. Current density
  2. Current
  3. Drift velocity
  4. Electric field

Current remains constant along the conductor.

The option 2 is correct.

Class 12 Physics Ohm’s Law MCQs  Question 34. In the electrical circuit, the current I through the side AB is

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current and Ohm's Law The Electrical Circuit

  1. \(\frac{6}{2}\)A
  2. \(\frac{10}{33}\)A
  3. \(\frac{1}{5}\)A
  4. \(\frac{10}{63}\)A

Answer: 1. \(\frac{6}{2}\)A

E=IR

or, \(10=I\left(10+\frac{20 \times 30}{20+30}+3\right)=0.25 I\)

Here, \(I=\frac{10}{25}=\frac{2}{5} \mathrm{~A}\)

∴ \(I_{A B}=\frac{2}{5} \times \frac{30}{20+30}=\frac{6}{25} \mathrm{~A}\)

The option 1 is correct

Question 35. A cell of emf E and internal resistance r is connected to a variable external resistor R. The graph which gives the terminal voltage of cell V with respect to R is

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current and Ohm's Law Terminal Voltage Of Cell

Answer: 2.

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current and Ohm's Law Terminal Voltage Of Cell

⇒ \(V=E-I r=E-\frac{E r}{R+r}\)

or, \(\frac{d V}{d R}=\frac{E r}{(R+r)^2}\)

Therefore, the slope of the V-R graph is positive and it decreases within resistance R

The option 2 is correct.

Question 36. A carbon resistor of (47 ± 4.7)kΩ is to be marked with rings of different colors for its identification. The color code sequence will be

  1. Yellow—Green—Violet—Gold
  2. Yellow—Violet—Orange—Silver
  3. Violet—Yellow—Orange—Silver
  4. Green—Orange—Violet—Gold

Answer: 2. Yellow—Violet—Orange—Silver

⇒ \((47 \pm 4.7)=47 \pm\left(\frac{4.7}{47} \times 100\right) \%=47 \pm 10 \%\)

∴ \((47 \pm 4.7) \mathrm{k} \Omega=47 \times 10^3 \pm 10 \% \Omega\)

Therefore, the color code sequence will be yellow—Violet—Orange—Silver

The option 2 is correct

Class 12 Physics Ohm’s Law MCQs  Question 37. A set of n equal resistors, of value R each, are connected in series to a battery of emf E and internal resistance R. The current drawn is I. Now, the n resistors are connected in parallel to the same battery. Then the current drawn from the battery becomes 10I. The value of n is

  1. 20
  2. 11
  3. 10
  4. 9

Answer: 3. 10

Equivalent resistance in series,

R1 = nR + R = (n + 1)R

∴ \(I=\frac{E}{R_1}=\frac{E}{(n+1) R}\)…..(1)

Equivalent resistance in parallel

⇒ \(R_2=\left(\frac{R}{n}+R\right)=\left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right) R\)

∴ \(10 I=\frac{E}{R_2}=\frac{E}{\left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right) R}\)…..(2)

From equations (1) and (2)

⇒ \(\frac{10 I}{I}=\frac{(n+1) R}{\left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right) R} \text { or, } 10\left(\frac{n+1}{n}\right)=(n+1)\)

or, n = 10

The option 3 is correct.

Question 38. A battery consists of a variable number n of identical cells (having internal resistance r each) which are connected in series. The terminals of the battery are short-circuited and the current I is measured. Which of the graphs shows the correct relationship between I and n?

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current and Ohm's Law Identical Cell

Answer: 3.

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current and Ohm's Law Identical Cell.

Current in the circuit containing n identical cells connected in series,

I = \(\frac{ne}{nr}\) [ e = emf of each identical cell]

or, I = \(\frac{e}{r}\)

So, I remain the same with any change of n.

The option is correct.

MPBSE Class 12 Physics Atomic Nucleus Question And Answers

Question 1. The Q -the value of a nuclear reaction A + b → C + d is defined by Q = [mA + mb-mC-md]c² , where the masses refer to nuclear rest masses. Determine from the given data whether the following reactions are exothermic or endothermic

1. \({ }_1^1 \mathrm{H}+{ }_1^3 \mathrm{H} \rightarrow{ }_1^2 \mathrm{H}+{ }_1^2 \mathrm{H}\)

2. \({ }_6^{12} \mathrm{C}+{ }_6^{12} \mathrm{C} \rightarrow{ }_{10}^{20} \mathrm{Ne}+{ }_2^4 \mathrm{He}\)

Atomic masses are given to be

\(m\left({ }_1^1 \mathrm{H}\right)=1.007825 \mathrm{u}, m\left({ }_1^2 \mathrm{H}\right)=2.014102 \mathrm{u}\)

\(m\left({ }_1^3 \mathrm{H}\right)=3.016049 \mathrm{u}, m\left({ }_1^{12} \mathrm{C}\right)=12.000000 \mathrm{u}\)

\(m\left({ }_{10}^{20} \mathrm{Ne}\right)=19.992439 \mathrm{u}, \quad m\left({ }_2^4 \mathrm{He}\right)=4.002603 \mathrm{u}\)

Answer:

1. \({ }_1^1 \mathrm{H}+{ }_1^3 \mathrm{H} \rightarrow{ }_1^2 \mathrm{H}+{ }_1^2 \mathrm{H}\)

Q= \(m_{\mathrm{N}}\left({}_1^1\mathrm{H}\right)+m_{\mathrm{N}}\left({ }_1^3 \mathrm{H}\right)m_{\mathrm{N}}\left({ }_1^2 \mathrm{H}\right)-m_{\mathrm{N}}\left({ }_1^2 \mathrm{H}\right)\)

= \(m\left({ }_1^1 \mathrm{H}\right)-m_e+m\left({ }_1^3 \mathrm{H}\right)-m_e-m\left({ }_1^2 \mathrm{H}\right)\) + \(m_em\left({}_1^2\mathrm{H}\right)+m_e\)

= \(m\left({ }_1^1 \mathrm{H}\right)+m\left({ }_1^3 \mathrm{H}\right)-m\left({ }_1^2 \mathrm{H}\right)-m\left({ }_1^2 \mathrm{H}\right)\)

1.007825 + 3.016049-2 × 2.014102

= -0.00433 ×  931.5 MeV = -4.03 MeV

∴ Q < 0, the reaction is endothermic

2. \({ }_6^{12} \mathrm{C}+{ }_6^{12} \mathrm{C} \rightarrow{ }_{10}^{20} \mathrm{Ne}+{ }_2^4 \mathrm{He}\)

Q = \(2 m_{\mathrm{N}}\left({ }_6^{12} \mathrm{C}\right)-m_{\mathrm{N}}\left({ }_{10}^{20} \mathrm{Ne}\right)-m_{\mathrm{N}}\left({ }_2^4 \mathrm{He}\right)\)

= \(=2 m\left({ }_6^{12} \mathrm{C}\right)-12 m_e-m\left({ }_{10}^{20} \mathrm{Ne}\right)+10 m_e\) \(-m\left({ }_2^4 \mathrm{He}\right)+2 m_e\)

= [2 × 12.000000-19.992439-4.002603] × 931.5 MeV

= 0.004958 × 931.5 MeV = 4.62 MeV

Q > 0; so, the reaction is exothermic.

Class 12 Physics Atomic Nucleus Question And Answers

Question 2. Is the fission of  56Fe26 nucleus into two equal fragments,  28Al13 energetically possible? Argue by working out the Q of the process. Given, m ( 56Fe26 ) = 55.93494 u and m(28Al13) = 27.98191 u
Answer:

If possible, let the reaction be \({ }_{26}^{56} \mathrm{Fe} \rightarrow{ }_{13}^{28} \mathrm{Al}+{ }_{13}^{28} \mathrm{Al}\)

Q -value of the process = \(m\left({ }_{26}^{56} \mathrm{Fe}\right)-2 m\left({ }_{13}^{28} \mathrm{Al}\right)\)

55.934944-2 × 27.98191

= -0.02888 × 931.5 MeV

= -26.90 MeV

Since the Q -value is negative, fission is not possible

Question 3. The fission properties of 239Pu94 are very similar to those of 235U92 The average energy released per fission is 180 MeV. How much energy, in MeV, is released if all the atoms in 239Pu941 kg of pure undergo fission?
Answer:

Number of nuclei in 1 kg of 239Pu94

= \(\frac{6.023 \times 10^{23}}{239} \times 1000.0\)

= 2.52 × 10 24

The energy released per fission = 180 MeV

Total energy released = 2.52 x 1024 × 180 MeV

= 4.54 × 1026 MeV

Class 12 Physics Atomic Nucleus Question And Answers

Question 4. A 1000 MW fission reactor consumes half of its fuel in 5y. How much 235U92 did it contain initially? Assume that the reactor was active 80% of the time and all the energy generated arises from the fission of 235U92 and that this nuclide is consumed by the fission process.
Answer:

Energy generated per gram of 235U92

= \(\frac{6.023 \times 10^{23}}{235} \times 200 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-13} \mathrm{~J} \cdot \mathrm{g}^{-1}\)

Energy generated in 5 y

Power × Time × 80%

(1000 × 106) × (5 × 365 × 24 × 60 × 60) × 80% J

Amount of spent

= \(\frac{\left(1000 \times 10^6\right) \times(5 \times 365 \times 24 \times 60 \times 60)}{6.023 \times 10^{23} \times 200 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-13}} \mathrm{x} \times 235\)

= 1538 kg

Initial mass of 235U92  = 2 × 1538 kg = 3076 kg

Question 5. How long an electric lamp of 100 W can be kept glowing by fusion of 2.0 kg of deuterium? The fusion reaction can be taken as = \({ }_1^2 \mathrm{H}+{ }_1^2\mathrm{H}\rightarrow{}_2^3\mathrm{He}+\mathrm{n}+3.2 \mathrm{MeV}\)
Answer:

Number of nuclei in 2 kg of 2H1

= \(\frac{6.023 \times 10^{23} \times 2000}{2}=6.023 \times 10^{26}\)

Energy generated by the fusion of these nuclei

E = \(\frac{3.2 \times 6.023 \times 10^{26}}{2} \mathrm{MeV}\)

Power of the bulb = 100 W

Let the bulb = 100 W

Energy spent = \(\frac{100 \times t}{1.6 \times 10^{-13}} \mathrm{MeV}\)

∴ \(\frac{100 t}{1.6 \times 10^{-13}}=\frac{3.2 \times 6.023}{2} \times 10^{23}\)

t = \(\frac{3.2 \times 6.023 \times 10^{23} \times 1.6 \times 10^{-13}}{2 \times 100}\)

– 1.54 × 10 12 s

= 4.89 × 104 y

Class 12 Physics Atomic Nucleus Question And Answers

Question 6. A source contains two phosphorus radionuclides  32P15 (T1/2 = 14.3 d) and 33P15 (T1/2 = 25.3 d). Initially, 10% of the decay comes from 33P15. How long one must wait until 90% do so. 33 32
Answer:

Let i R01 and R02 be the initial activities of 33P15 and 32P15 respectively and R1 and R2 be their activities at any instant t. According to the first observation

R01 = 10% (R01 +R02)

R02 =  9 R01 ……………………………. (1)

Again, R1 = 90% (R1 + R2)

Or, \(\frac{R_2}{R_{02}}=\frac{1}{81} \frac{R_1}{R_{01}}\) ……………………………. (1)

Combining equation (1) and (2)

⇒ \(\frac{R_2}{R_{02}}=\frac{1}{81} \frac{R_1}{R_{01}}\)

Or, \(\frac{R_{02} e^{-\lambda_2 t}}{R_{02}}=\frac{1}{81} \times \frac{R_{01} e^{-\lambda_1 t}}{R_{01}}\)

Or, \(81 e^{-\lambda_2 t}=e^{-\lambda_1 t}\)

⇒ \(\left(\lambda_2-\lambda_1\right) t=\dot{2} .303 \log 81\)

t = \(\frac{2.303 \log 81}{\frac{0.693}{14.3}-\frac{0.693}{25.3}}\)

Since Or, λ = 0.693T½

= 208 . 5 d

Question 7. Under certain circumstances, a nucleus can decay by = 231.1 MeV emitting a particle more massive than an a -particle. Consider the following decay processes

1. \({ }_{88}^{223} \mathrm{Ra} \rightarrow{ }_{82}^{209} \mathrm{~Pb}+{ }_6^{14} \mathrm{C}\)

2. \({ }_{88}^{223} \mathrm{Ra} \rightarrow{ }_{86}^{219} \mathrm{Rn}+{ }_2^4 \mathrm{He}\)

Calculate the Q -values for these two decays and determine that both are energetically possible. 

m( 223Ra88 ) = 223.01850 u, m( 209Ra82 ) = 208.98107 u,

m(219Ra86 ) = 219.00948 u, m(14C6) = 14.00324 u and m(4He2) = 4.00260 u

Answer:

1. \({ }_{88}^{223} \mathrm{Ra} \rightarrow{ }_{82}^{209} \mathrm{~Pb}+{ }_6^{14} \mathrm{C}+Q\)

= \(\left[m_{\mathrm{N}}\left({ }_{88}^{223} \mathrm{Ra}\right)-m_{\mathrm{N}}\left({ }_{82}^{209} \mathrm{~Pb}\right)-m_{\mathrm{N}}\left({ }_6^{14} \mathrm{C}\right)\right]\) x 931.2 MeV

= \(\left[m_{88}^{223} \mathrm{Ra}-m\left({ }_{82}^{209} \mathrm{~Pb}\right)-m\left({ }_6^{14} \mathrm{C}\right)\right] \times 931.2 \mathrm{MeV}\)

31. 8 MeV

∴ Q > 0: so, the decay is possible

2. \({ }_{88}^{223} \mathrm{Ra} \rightarrow{ }_{86}^{219} \mathrm{Rn}+{ }_2^4 \mathrm{He}+Q^{\prime}\)

Q’ = 5.98 MeV [by similar calculation as above]

∴ Q’ > 0; so, this decay is also possible.

Class 12 Physics Atomic Nucleus Question And Answers

Question 8. Consider the fission of 238U92 by fast neutrons. In one fission event, no neutrons are emitted and the final stable end products, after the beta decay of the primary fragments, are140Ce58 and 99Ru44 Calculate Q for this fission process
Given

\(m\left({ }_{92}^{238} \mathrm{U}\right)=238.05079 \mathrm{u}, m\left({ }_{58}^{140} \mathrm{Ce}\right)=139.90543 \mathrm{u}\)

\(m\left({ }_{44}^{99} \dot{\mathrm{Ru}}\right)=98.90594 \mathrm{u}, \dot{m}_n=1.008667 \mathrm{u}\)

Answer:

The fission reaction is

⇒ \({ }_{92}^{238} \mathrm{U}+{ }_0^1 \mathrm{n}{\beta}{ }_{58}^{140} \mathrm{Ce}+{ }_{44}^{99}\mathrm{Ru}+Q\)

∴ Q = \(\left[m\left({}_{92}^{238}\mathrm{U}\right)+m\left({ }_0^1\mathrm{n}\right)m\left({}_{58}^{140}\mathrm{Ce}\right)-m\left({ }_{44}^{99} \mathrm{Ru}\right)\right] \mathrm{u}\)

= \([238.05079+1.00867-139.90543-98.90594]\)

= 23 1.1 MeV

Question 9. Suppose India had a target of producing by 2020 AD, 200, 000 MW of electric power, 10% of which was to be obtained from nuclear power plants. Suppose we are given that, on average, the efficiency of utilization (i.e., conversion to electric energy) of thermal energy produced in a reactor was 25%. How much amount of fissionable uranium did our country need per year by 2020? Take the heat per fission of 235U92 to be about 200 MeV. Avogadro’s number = 6.023 × 10 mol-1. Nuclear power target = 10% of total generation
Answer:

Nuclear power target = 10% of total generation

= 10% × 2 × 1011 W

= 2 × 1010 W

Efficiency, η = 25%

∴ Total power generated by the nuclear reactor

= \(\frac{2 \times 10^{10}}{25 \%} \mathrm{~W}=8 \times 10^{10} \mathrm{~W}\)

∴ Generated heat by the reactor in 2020

H = 8 × 1010 × 366 × 24 × 60 ×60 J

∴ Number of fission required for generation of this heat,

N = \(\frac{H}{200 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-13}}\)

If m g of  235U92 contains this number of nuclei, then,

m = \(\frac{N \times 235}{6.023 \times 10^{23}} \mathrm{~g}\)

= \(\frac{8 \times 10^{10} \times 366 \times 24 \times 60 \times 60 \times 235}{200 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-13} \times 6.023 \times 10^{23}} \mathrm{~g}\)

= 3.084 × 104  kg

Class 12 Physics Atomic Nucleus Question And Answers

Question 10. Calculate and compare the energy released by

  1. Fusion of: 1.0 kg of hydrogen deep within the sun and
  2. The fission oqc of 1.0 kg of 235U in a fission reactor.

Answer: 

1. Equation of fusion reaction,

4 1H → 4He2 + 2 0e+1 + 26 MeV

∴ 26 MeV of energy is released on a combination of four H nuclei.

Number of nuclei in 1 kg of hydrogen

= 6.023 × 1023 × 1000

Energy released,

EH = 6.023  × 1026 ×  26 MeV

2. Fission of one  nucleus releases 200 MeV of energy

Number of nuclei in 1 kg of 235U92 = \(\frac{6.023 \times 10^{23} \times 1000}{235}\)

∴ Energy released,

EU = \(\frac{6.023 \times 10^{23} \times 1000 \times 20}{235}\)

= 5.12 × 1026 MeV

∴ \(\frac{E_{\mathrm{H}}}{E_{\mathrm{U}}}=\frac{3.913 \times 10^{27}}{5.12 \times 10^{26}}\)

= 7.6

Question 11. The half-life of a radioactive substance is 30 days. The number of atoms in the substance is 1012. How many disintegrations of atoms per second does occur?
Answer:

T = 30 d =30 × 24 × 60 × 60 s

⇒ \(\lambda=\frac{0.693}{T}\)

= \(=\frac{0.693}{30 \times 24 \times 60 \times 60}\)

= 2.67 × 10-7(approx)

If t = 1 s, t = 2.67 × 10-7

Hence, eλt  = 1.000000267(approx)

N = N0eλt  = \(\)

= 9.99999733 × 1011 (approx)

∴ Number of atoms disintegrated per second

= N0 – N = 2.67 ×  10 5 (approx)

Question 12. Draw a plot of the potential energy of a pair of nucleons as a function of their separations. Mark the region where the nuclear force is (1) attractive and (il) repulsive. Write any two characteristic features of nuclear forces
Answer:

The required plot

Atomic Nucleus Required Plot

In region AB, nuclear force is attractive.

The nuclear force is not repulsive. The repulsive force corresponding to the region DF is the repulsive coulomb force between protons

Class 12 Physics Atomic Nucleus Question And Answers

Question 13.

  1. Draw the Plot of binding energy per nucleon (B.E./A ) as a function of mass number A . Write two important conclusions that can be drawn regarding the nature of
    nuclear force
  2. Use this graph to explain the release of energy in both the processes of nuclear fusion and fission.
  3. Write the basic nuclear process of neutrons undergoing β-decay. Why is the detection of neutrinos found very difficult?

Answer:

1.

Atomic Nucleus Binding Energy Per Nucleon

  1. Two conclusions from the plot: the nuclear force is
  2. Short-range and
  3. Charge independent

2. Mass of a nucleus (M) = mass of its nucleons- binding energy (B)

So, M decreases with an increase in B.

Now, we consider nuclear fission: 1 → 2 + 3.

From mass-energy equivalence,

M1 = M2 + M3+ energy release (Q)

or, Q = M1 – M2 – M3

Q is positive, i.e., energy is released if

M1 > M2 – M3,i.e., B1 < B2 – BM3

or A1e1<A2e2 + A3e3

Where A1A2, A3 are mass numbers A1 = A2 + A3) and e1 , e2 , e3 are binding energy per nucleon. From the plot, we see that this condition is satisfied for high A1, where both e2 and e3 are higher than e1 of the large nucleus 1.

The fission of a large nucleus releases energy. On the other hand, for low A nuclei, e2, and e3 will be less than the e1 of the larger nucleus 1. So, energy will be released rather in the opposite process: 2 + 3 → 1. Therefore, a fusion of small nuclei releases energy

3. It is very difficult to detect neutrinos or antineutrinos experimentally because they have neither any charge nor any mass.

Question 14. Define the activity of a radioactive sample. Write its SI unit. A radioactive sample has the activity of 10000 disintegrations per second (DPS) after 20 hours. After the next 10 hours its activity reduces to 5000 dps. Find out its half-life and initial

The activity of a radioactive sample is defined as the rate of disintegration of the sample. It is also called the count rate. Its SI unit is becquerel (Bq).

1 Bq = 1 decays/s

We know A = A8 e-λt

5000 = 10000e-λt

Or, eλt = \(\frac{10000}{5000}\)

= 2

Taking logs on both sides we get

λt = log 2

Or, λ = \(\frac{\log 2}{t}\)

Now half-life T = \(=\frac{0.693}{\lambda}=\frac{0.693 \times t}{\log 2}=\frac{0.693 \times 600}{\log 2}\)

= 1381. 26 min 23 h

Atomic Nucleus Radioactivity Samples

In this table, the last two values are the given values. Prom these values, the first two values have been calculated,

Class 12 Physics Atomic Nucleus Question And Answers

Question 15.

1. A radioactive nucleus ‘A ‘ undergoes a series of decays as given below:

Atomic Nucleus Radioactive Nucleus

The mass number and atomic number of A2 are 176 and 71 respectively. Determine the mass and atomic numbers of A4 and A.

2. Write the basic nuclear processes underlying α and β decays

Answer:

1. When βdecay occurs

Atomic Nucleus Nuclear Process Beta Negative

When β decay occurs

Atomic Nucleus Nuclear Process Beta Positive

In the case of β–   decay, the mass number of A is 180 and its atomic number is 72. In the case of β+ decay, the mass number of A is 100 and its atomic number is 74. In both cases, the mass number of A4   Is 172 and its atomic number is 69.

Atomic Nucleus Beta Decay Occurs

Question 16. Explain the processes of nuclear fission and nuclear fusion by using the plot of binding energy per nucleon (BE/A) versus the mass number A

Nuclear fission:

The binding energy per nucleon for heavier nuclei is approximately 7.6 MeV, but for lighter nuclei, it is roughly 8.4 MeV. The heavier nuclei exhibit reduced stability, leading to the fission of the heavier nucleus into lighter nuclei, which therefore releases energy. This process is referred to as nuclear fission.

Nuclear fusion:

The binding energy per nucleon for nuclei with mass number A < 12 is minimal, rendering them less stable. Consequently, two such nuclei can amalgamate to create a somewhat heavier nucleus, which possesses a greater binding energy per nucleon.

Consequently, energy is liberated in this process, referred to as nuclear fusion.

Class 12 Physics Atomic Nucleus Question And Answers

Question 17. A radioactive isotope has a half-life of 10 years. How long will it take for the activity to reduce to 3.125%?
Answer:

Activity A = λN

Given A = 3. 125 % of \(\frac{3.125 A_0}{100}=\frac{A_0}{32}\)

Or, \(\frac{A}{A_0}=\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^5\)

∴ \(\frac{N}{N_0}=\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^5\)

So the activity will reduce to 3.125% after 5 half-lives. Hence required time =5 × 10 = 50 years

MCQs on biopesticides – NEET Biology

NEET Biology Biopesticides Multiple Choice Questions And Answers

Question 1. Pulse pest is:

  1. Rntehtts
  2. Slug and snails
  3. Schocnobices
  4. Leptocorisa.

Answer: 1. Rntehtts

Question 2. The disease apple scab is due to:

  1. Zinc deficiency in the soil
  2. Molybdenum deficiency in the soil
  3. Respiratory gaseous products in cold storage
  4. Xanthomonas malvacerrum .

Answer: 3. Respiratory gaseous products in cold storage

Question 3. Nephantis screencap is responsible for damage of:

  1. Rice
  2. Wheat
  3. Coconut
  4. Cotton.

Answer: 3. Coconut

Question 4. Late blight of potatoes is caused by:

  1. Pythium species
  2. Calviceps purpura
  3. Phytophthora infestans
  4. Uncinula ancestor.

Answer: 1. Pythium species

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

MCQs on Biopesticides for NEET Question 5. Which of the following herbicides is derived from urea?

  1. Simazine
  2. DDT
  3. Malathion
  4. Aldrin.

Answer: 1. Simazine

NEET Biology Biopesticides On MCQs

Question 6. Stem borer of rice is caused by:

  1. Tnporyza inertias
  2. Leptocorisa varicomis
  3. Pectinophora gossypiella
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Tnporyza incertulas

Question 7. Which of the following pests feeds directly on the rice grains?

  1. Red pumpkin beetle
  2. Rice weevil
  3. Carpet beetle
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Rice weevil

Question 8. The science which deals with the study of the nature, development and control of plant diseases is called as:

  1. Plant pathology
  2. Phytopathology
  3. Pathology
  4. Both (1) and (2).

Answer: 4. Both (1) and (2).

Question 9. A plant is said to be diseased when:

  1. It shows some physiological disorder
  2. There developed some structural abnormality
  3. Its economic value is reduced
  4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

MCQs on Biopesticides for NEET Question 10. In modern science, a disease is an interaction:

  1. Between the host and parasite
  2. Between the plant and environment
  3. Among the host, parasite and environment
  4. All of the above

Answer: 3. Among the host, parasite and environment

Question 11. Puccinia graminis tritici causes:

  1. Covered smut of wheat
  2. Black rust of wheat
  3. Loose smut of wheat
  4. White rust.

Answer: 2. Black rust of wheat

Question 12. The problem of wheat rust in India was studied by:

  1. J.F. Dastur
  2. E.J. Butler
  3. K.C. Mehta
  4. G.S. Kulkami.

Answer: 3. K.C. Mehta

Question 13. The small insects that suck the milky sap in the tender grains of rice after destroying the crop completely are:

  1. Gundhy or paddy bugs of rice, leukocoria
  2. Larvae of rice grasshopper, hieroglyphs
  3. Rice weevil, Calandra sp.
  4. Lesser grain beetles, Rhizopertha sp.

Answer: 1. Gundhy or paddy bugs of rice, leukocoria

Question 14. An organism which causes a disease in a plant is called as:

  1. Parasite
  2. Pathogen
  3. Vector
  4. Host.

Answer: 2. Pathogen

Question 15. Bacteria and fungi are the pathogens belonging to:

  1. Biotic type
  2. Abiotic type
  3. Viral type
  4. Both biotic and abiotic types.

Answer: 1. Biotic type

MCQs on Biopesticides for NEET Question 16. When a disease spreads to the whole of the plant, it is termed as:

  1. Localised
  2. Systemic
  3. Sporadic
  4. Endemic.

Answer: 2. Systemic

Question 17. The brown leaf spot disease of rice is caused by a fungus called:

  1. Phytophthora infestans
  2. Helminthosporium oryzae
  3. Venturia inadequate
  4. Xanthomonas oryzae.

Answer: 3. Venturia inadequate

Question 18. Insect pests can be controlled by:

  1. Using bastide
  2. Using antibiotics
  3. Spraying sulphur dust
  4. Spraying insecticides.

Answer: 4. Spraying insecticides.

Question 19. Paddy bug is a serious pest of:

  1. Wheat
  2. Paddy
  3. Groundnut
  4. Sugarcane.

Answer: 4. Sugarcane.

Question 20. An abnormal increase in the size of the plant organ due to the increase in the number of cells is called:

  1. Hyperplasia
  2. Hypertrophy
  3. Overgrowth
  4. Canker.

Answer: 1. Hyperplasia

Mcqs On Biopesticides Question 21. Blight refers to the:

  1. Development Of Large And Irregular Spots On The Leaves
  2. Burnt Appearance In The Infected Part Of The Plant
  3. Decaying And Discolouring Of The Different Parts Of The Plant
  4. Death Of The Cells In The Form Of Elongated Lines Or Streaks.

Answer: 2. Burnt Appearance In The Infected Part Of The Plant

Question 22. Khapra beetle (Trogoderma granarium) is a pest of:

  1. Stem Of Rice
  2. Leaves Of Paddy
  3. Stored Grains
  4. Both (1) and (2).

Answer: 3. Stored Grains

Question 23. Wilting in a plant is caused by:

  1. An injury to the root system
  2. Loss of water from the soil
  3. Plugging of xylem by fungi and bacteria
  4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 24. In ergot disease, fungal mycelium (Claviceps purpurea) aggregates to form a hard bunch called the:

  1. Blotch
  2. Knot
  3. Spot
  4. Sclerotium.

Answer: 1. Blotch

Mcqs On Biopesticides Question 25. Insecticides are specific inhibitors of:

  1. Nervous system
  2. Blood vascular system
  3. Digestive system
  4. Excretory system.

Answer: 1. Nervous system

Question 26. When a disease in moderate or severe form is localised to a particular region, it is called as

  1. Epidemic
  2. Endemic
  3. Sporadic
  4. Pandemic.

Answer: 2. Endemic

Question 27. The disease in which the floral parts get transformed into leafy structures is called as:

  1. Dieback
  2. Phylloidy
  3. Atrophy
  4. Hypertrophy

Answer: 2. Phylloidy

Question 28. Rust diseases are:

  1. Air bone
  2. Soil bone
  3. Seed borne
  4. All the above

Answer: 1. Air bone

Mcqs On Biopesticides Question 29. Tobacco mosaic virus particles are:

  1. Rod-shaped
  2. Rounded
  3. Comma-shaped
  4. Amoeboid.

Answer: 1. Rod-shaped

Question 30. Xantliomonas oryzae causes:

  1. Bacterial blight of rice
  2. Citrus canker
  3. Potato mosaic
  4. White rust of crucifers.

Answer: 1. Bacterial blight of rice

Question 31. Bacterial blight of rice is a disease which is

  1. Seed Borne
  2. Air Borne
  3. Soil Borne
  4. Water Borne.

Answer: 1. Seed Borne

Question 32. Malathion is present in:

  1. Baygon
  2. Finit/Flit
  3. Temik
  4. Furadin.

Answer: 2. Finit/Flit

Question 33. Potato mosaic disease is caused by:

  1. Bacteria
  2. Synchytrium sp.
  3. Potato virus X and Y
  4. Both (2) and (3).

Answer: 3. Potato virus X and Y

NEET Objective Questions On Biopesticides Question 34. Black stem rust of wheat is caused by:

  1. Ustilago tritici
  2. Puccinia graminis tritici
  3. Altemaria solani
  4. None of these.

Answer: 2. Puccinia graminis tritici

Question 35. A diseased plant shows water-soaked translucent spots on the margin and mid-rib of the leaves. Slowly the spots increase and form yellowish white streaks. Bacterial exudates appear in the form of droplets on the affected parts, which later on dry up forming hard resinous granules. The vascular tissue gets plugged and the plant ultimately dies. The disease is known as:

  1. Potato mosaic
  2. Bacterial blight of rice
  3. Little leaf of brinjal
  4. Late blight of potato.

Answer: 3. Little leaf of brinjal

Question 36. Prophylaxis refers to:

  1. Curing the diseased plants
  2. Improvement of the power of disease resistance of the plants
  3. Prevention of the plants from being exposed to the agencies responsible for various plant diseases
  4. All the above.

Answer: 3. Prevention of the plants from being exposed to the agencies responsible for various plant diseases

Question 37. Quarantine regulations are a measure of control of plant diseases of:

  1. Therapeutic nature
  2. Prophylactic nature
  3. Immunization nature
  4. Not related to plant diseases.

Answer: 2. Prophylactic nature

Question 38. Bordeaux mixture contains:

  1. Borax dissolved in water
  2. Sodium bisulphite dissolved in water
  3. Copper sulphate and lime dissolved in water
  4. Phenyl mercuric acetate dissolved in water.

Answer: 3. Copper sulphate and lime dissolved in water

NEET Objective Questions On Biopesticides Question 39. Quarantine regulations are concerned with

  1. The growing of fruit trees
  2. Prevention of entry of diseased plant material into our country
  3. The spraying of diseased plants with insecticides and fungicides, etc.
  4. None of these

Answer: 2. Prevention of entry of diseased plant material into our country

Question 40. The pesticide used as a preventive measure in buildings is:

  1. Aldrin
  2. Dieldrin
  3. Endrin
  4. DDT.

Answer: 1. Aldrin

Question 41. Systematic removal of diseased plants from a field is called:

  1. Roguing
  2. Crop rotation
  3. Field sanitation
  4. Biological control.

Answer: 1. Roguing

Question 42. A good chemotherapeutic should be:

  1. Cheap, easily available and harmless to the host
  2. Toxic to the pathogen
  3. Capable of remaining on the host surface for quite some time
  4. All of these.

Answer: 4. All of these.

Question 43. A mild mosaic of potato is visible in the form of:

  1. Hypertrophy of leaves
  2. Mild interveinal mottling or chlorosis of leaves
  3. Tubers show necrotic spots
  4. Both (2) and (3).

Answer: 4. Both (2) and (3).

NEET Objective Questions On Biopesticides Question 44. A mild mosaic of potato is transmitted by:

  1. Bacteria
  2. Sap inoculum
  3. Insects
  4. Soil.

Answer: 2. Sap inoculum

Question 45. Rugose mosaic of potato is caused by:

  1. Potato virus X
  2. Potato virus Y, t,
  3. Potato virus A
  4. Both (1) and (2).

Answer: 4. Both (1) and (2).

Agricultural Chemical Pesticides And Plant Pests Questions From Competitive Examinations

Question 1. Which of the following pesticides is an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor?

  1. Aldrin
  2. Y-BHC
  3. Endosulfan
  4. Alatliion.

Answer: 4. Allison.

Question 2. Integrated pest management (IPM) stands for:

  1. Chemical control
  2. Biological control
  3. Host plant resistances
  4. Integration of the above.

Answer: 4. Integration of the above.

Question 3. The chemical pesticide present in Baygon is

  1. Parathion
  2. Malatliion
  3. Aldicarb
  4. Propoxur.

Answer: 4. Propoxur.

Question 4. Which one is the active ingredient of flit.?

  1. Malathion
  2. Aldicarb
  3. Propoxur
  4. Carbofuran.

Answer: 1. Malathion

MCQs on Biopesticides for NEET Question 5. Which of the following pesticides is most toxic to vertebrates:

  1. Carbamates
  2. Organochlorines
  3. Organophosphates
  4. None of these.

Answer: 3. Organophosphates

Question 6. D.D.T. and 2, 4-D were introduced:

  1. During World War 1
  2. Just after the World War 1
  3. Towards the beginning of World War 2
  4. Towards the end of World War 2.

Answer: 4. Towards the end of World War 2.

Question 7. Carbofuran is sold in the market as:

  1. Baygon
  2. Furadan
  3. Aldrin
  4. DDT.

Answer: 2. Furadan

Question 8. Which one of the chemicals is present in Baygon?

  1. Aldicarb
  2. Propoxur
  3. Carbofuran
  4. Malathion.

Answer: 2. Propoxur

Question 9. The major drawback of D.D.T. as a pesticide is that

  1. Organisms at once develop resistance to it.
  2. It is significantly less effective than other pesticides
  3. Its cost of production is high
  4. It is not readily and rapidly degraded in nature.

Answer: 4. It is not readily and rapidly degraded in nature.

Question 10. Which is a fungicide?

  1. BHC
  2. DDT
  3. 2,4-D
  4. Bordeaux mixture.

Answer: 4. Bordeaux mixture.

MCQs on Biopesticides for NEET Question 11. A pesticide of a lipophilic nature is:

  1. 2-4D
  2. DDT
  3. BHC
  4. Carbamates.

Answer: 2. DDT

Question 12. The common mode of action of most insecticides is through the attack on:

  1. Nervous system
  2. Circulatory system
  3. Respiratory system
  4. Muscular system.

Answer: 1. Nervous system

Question 13. Which of the following is not correctly matched:

  1. Pyrethroid—Arazine
  2. Organochlorine—D.D.T.
  3. Organophosphate—Malathion
  4. Carbamate—Carbaryl.

Answer: 1. Pyrethoid—Arazine

Question 14. Which of the following ingredients of pesticide killed hundreds of people in the Bhopal gas tragedy:

  1. Carbon tetra chloride
  2. Methyl isocyanate
  3. Mustard gas
  4. Nitrous acid.

Answer: 2. Methyl isocyanate

Question 15. Herbicides interfere with

  1. Carbon dioxide absorption
  2. Water absorption
  3. Translocation of sugar
  4. Photolysis of water.

Answer: 4. Photolysis of water.

Question 16. Drinking mineral water with very low pesticides (about 0.02 ppm) for long periods may:

  1. Cause cancer of the intestine
  2. Produce immunity against mosquito
  3. Cause leukaemia (blood cancer) in most people
  4. Lead to the accumulation of pesticide residues in body fat.

Answer: 4. Lead to accumulation of pesticide residues of body fat.

Question 17. Which one among the following is likely to have the highest level of DDT deposition in its body?

  1. Crab
  2. Eel fish
  3. Sea gull
  4. Phytoplanktons

Answer: 3. Seagull

Mcqs On Biopesticides Question 18. The chemicals used in the National Malaria Eradication Programme are:

  1. BHC
  2. DDT
  3. 2,4-D
  4. Pyrethroid

Answer: 2. DDT

Question 19. Which one is a pest:

  1. Mouse
  2. Pathogen
  3. Insect
  4. All of these.

Answer: 4. All of these.

Question 20. Insecticides obtained from neem plant are:

  1. Pyrethrin
  2. Pyrethroid
  3. Thiocarbamate
  4. Azadirachtin.

Answer: 4. Azadirachtin.

Question 21. Which of the following statements is correct about DDT?

  1. It is not a pollutant
  2. It is a biomagnifying biodegradable pollutant
  3. It is a non-biomagnifying biodegradable pollutant
  4. It is a biomagnifying non-biodegradable pollutant.

Answer: 4. It is a biomagnifying non-biodegradable pollutant.

Mcqs On Biopesticides Question 22. Weed killers generally have properties much like that of:

  1. Hormones
  2. Carbohydrate
  3. Enzymes
  4. All of these.

Answer: 1. Hormones

Question 23. Bordeaux mixture can be prepared by mixing the copper sulphate with:

  1. Limestone
  2. Sodium chloride
  3. Calcium sulphate
  4. Milk of calcium hydroxide.

Answer: 4. Milk of calcium hydroxide.

Question 24. Which is used as weedicide?

  1. 2, 4-D
  2. IBA
  3. IAA
  4. ABA.

Answer: 1. 2, 4-D

Question 25. Biomagnification phenomenon is related to the pollutant:

  1. CO2
  2. NO2
  3. DDT
  4. SO2

Answer: 3. DDT