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NEET Biology Human Growth Development

• Growth is defined as an irreversible permanent change in the volume or size of a living body accompanied by a change in the dry weight.
• It involves 3 phases i.e. phase of cell division, phase of cell elongation, and phase of cell differentiation.
• Growth is always followed by differentiation and the two phenomena jointly constitute a larger phenomenon called development.
• The growth centers in higher plants are called meristems which may be apical, lateral, or intercalary.
• The growth at the cellular level is initiated by plasmatic growth. A cell passes through 3 phases of growth, differentiated as cell formation, cell elongation, and cell maturation.
• The growth may be measured in terms of fresh weight, dry weight, length, and area.
• Growth in length can be measured by horizontal microscopy, are indicator, or auxanometer. Bose’s crescograph is the finest instrument for measuring growth.

Sachs was the first to plot growth rate i.e., increase of growth per unit of time, and obtained a sigmoid curve.

Neet Biology Human Growth And Development Notes

He differentiated three phases i.e., lag, log or exponential, and steady-state followed by the senescence phase. In some plants, a linear phase is recognized.

1. The arithmetic growth of the root can be put as Lt = Lo +rt, where Lo is the length at zero time, Lt at time t, and r is the growth rate.
2. Maintenance of the ratio between the growth rates of different parts is called allometric growth. The growth shows a diurnal rhythm. They are partly endogenous and partly governed by external factors.
3. The growing shoot tip follows a helical path and the phenomenon is called circumnutation. Many phases of plants operate by a ‘biological clock’.
4. When a distinct juvenile phase is identified in the life history, the development is said to be heteroblastic. Such phases have been seen in many plants. Example:  BatrachosperDuan, Hedera, Citrus, Quercus, etc.

The juvenility may be due to arrested development or low light intensity. In Acacia melamoxylon, it recapitulates phylogeny.

Human Growth And Development NEET Notes

NEET Biology Notes On Human Growth Development Factors Affecting Growth

The growth of plants is fundamentally regulated by genetic factors via the production of several enzymes. Multiple environmental elements affect growth, including flight, temperature, CO₂ levels, moisture, nutrition, and pollution.

• Plants growing in darkness exhibit etiolation. Light intensity influences leaf orientation, chlorophyll synthesis, and other factors. Sun leaves differ from shadow leaves.
• Optimal growth is observed under red light, while minimal growth occurs under green light among monochromatic lights. Gamma, ultraviolet, and X-rays are detrimental to plants. The length of light influences flowering.
• The temperature thresholds for the growth phase are 5°C, 20-30°C, and 35-40°C. They respond to diurnal (photo-temperature) and nocturnal temperatures. This occurrence is referred to as thermoperiodicity.
• Exposure to severe temperatures results in harm to plants. For instance, desiccation, refrigeration, and cryopreservation.
• To endure these challenges, a plant exhibits both internal and external adaptations.
  An elevation in CO₂concentration from 300 to 1000 ppm enhances net respiration (NR) and relative growth rate (RGR) in certain plant species. Moisture stress may cause the RGR to decline to zero.
• The growth of plants is affected by mineral deficiencies, specifically nitrogen, calcium, iodine, and boron.
• Growth is significantly impacted by contaminants including fluorine, ozone, and ethylene.

Human Growth And Development NEET Notes

NEET Biology Notes On Human Growth Development Growth regulators

1. Growth is regulated not only by environmental factors like light and temperature but also by certain chemical substances within the plants.

• These substances are known as plant hormones, growth hormones, phytohormones, or growth regulators.
• A plant hormone can be defined as a chemical substance, which is capable of translocation and regulating one or more physiological reactions, when present in low concentrations.
• The plant hormones can have a positive effect on a process and thus promote it, or they have a negative effect and cause inhibition. A particular hormone may promote certain processes, or inhibit some other processes.

Human Growth And Development NEET Notes

NEET Biology Notes On Human Growth Development Auxins

• Auxins (auxin = to grow) are a class of phytohormones that promote longitudinal growth in plants.

• Auxins that occur in plants are called natural auxins eg.- indole-3-acetic acid, Indolc- 3-acetaldehyde, and Indolc-3-pyruvic acid.
• Synthetic auxins are synthesized artificially and have properties like auxins, eg.- Naphthalene Acetic Acid (NAA), Indole Butyric Acid (IBA), Indole Propionic Acid (IPA), 2, 4-Dichlorophenoxy acetic acid (2,4-D).
• The biosynthesis of auxin has been traced back from the amino acid tryptophan.
• The movement of auxins is polar and basipetal in most plants.
• Auxins can be degraded by the enzyme system IAA oxidase and also by light. They can be inactivated by X-rays UV-rays and gamma rays.
• Auxins are synthesized in the apices ol‘ the stem.
• The most characteristic action of auxin is to promote cell enlargement.
• Auxins cause growth in leaves, roots, stems, etc. by Indicating cell enlargement and cell elongation.
• The cell enlargement is due to ;

1. 1. Increase in osmotic content of the cell.
   2. increase in cell permeability to water. ,
   3. Reduction in wall pressure,
   4. Increase in wall synthesis and,
   5. Synthesis of specific RNA and proteins which increase cell wall plasticity.

Human Growth And Development NEET Notes

NEET Biology Notes On Human Growth Development Gibberellins

They are weakly acidic plant growth hormones that possess a gibbon ring, structure, and can bring about cell elongation of both leaves and stems in general, and intermodal length of genetically dwarf plants in particular.

• They are named after the fungus Gibberella  (= Fusariitm moniliform) which produces balance (foolish seedling disease) in rice. The hormone was discovered by Yabuta and Suniiki. Yabuta (1935) coined the term gibberellin.
• About 100 gibberellins are known, GA or gibberellic acid is the commonest. GA₄ and GA₂ are also commercially used. Gibberellins are synthesized in plants in the leaves of buds, developing embryos, and root tips.
• GA3 promotes intermodal elongation and flowering.
• They promote stem growth by activating the subapical meristem of the stem tip.
• The elongation of internodes before flowering in rosette plants is called bolting.
• Applications of gibberellins induce bolting.
• Gibberellins induce flowering in long-day plants during short-day conditions, e.g.- cabbage, Rudbeckia.
• Gibberellins induce flowering in plants that require cool winter nights before flowering (i.e., they substitute the cold treatment, vernalization).
• Gibberellins break the dormancy in buds and seeds.
• Gibberellins promote the germination of cereal grains such as barley, wheat, rice, etc.
• Gibberellins promote the development of parthenocarpic fruits in tomatoes, apples, almonds, etc.

1. 1. The size of the fruits and seeds also increases due to gibberellin treatment.
   2. When giberellins are sprayed on plants their leaves become expanded. It increases the total photosynthetic area and biomass.
   3. Gibberellins inhibit the formation of adventitious roots from the cut end of the stem.
   4. Parthenocarpy. They can induce parthenocarpy in several plants.
   5. Maleness. Gibberellins stimulate maleness.
   6. Fruit Yield. Gibberellin application increases the number and size of fruits, e.g., grapes.
   7. Malt. There is increased malt production when gibberellins are provided to germinating barley grains (due to greater production of a-amylase).
   8. Sugarcane. GA application increases the sugar yield of sugarcane by promoting intermodal length.

NEET Human Growth And Development Chapter Notes

NEET Biology Notes On Human Growth Development Cytokinins

Cytokinins are slightly basic growth hormones, often derivatives of amino-purine (sometimes adenine), that stimulate cell division in plants. The initial cytokinin was identified by Miller et al. (1955) via the autoclaving of Herring sperm DNA.

• The substance is a synthetic compound known as kinetin. It is 9-furfurylaminopurine. The initial natural cytokinin was identified by Letham et al. (1963). It was satin fabric. Approximately 18 cytokinins have been identified, including dihydrozeatin, IPA, and benzyl adenine.
• Cytokinins are crucial for cytokinesis via chromosomal duplication and may occur in their absence.
• Cytokinins induce division in permanent cells in the presence of auxin.
• Cytokinins, like to auxin and gibberellins, induce cell elongation.
• Buds arise when cytokinins are in surplus, but roots develop when their ratios are inverted (Skoog and Miller, 1957).
• Cytokinins promote plastid differentiation, lignification, and the development of interfascicular cambium.
• Cytokinins postpone the senescence of leaves and other tissues. They also enhance resilience to harsh temperatures and diseases.
• They function antagonistically to auxin, which facilitates apical dominance.
  Similar to gibberellins, they mitigate seed dormancy.
• They facilitate phloem movement.
• Cytokinins, similar to auxins and ethylene, facilitate the development of female characteristics in flowers.

Human Growth And Development Class 12 Notes For NEET

NEET Biology Notes On Human Growth Development Ethylene

1. Ethylene (CH₂ = CH₂) is a volatile gas present in the atmosphere and as a component of smoke and other industrial gases. Ethylene is formed by incomplete combustion of carbon-rich compounds such as coal, petroleum, and natural gas.
2. Soon after the introduction of illuminating gas (produced from coal) for home and street lighting, evidence of plant damage was observed. Physiological studies confirmed that plants produce ethylene by metabolic process during growth and development.
3. Ripening fruits in particular synthesize quantities of ethylene that build up to rather high concentrations within intercellular spaces of fruit tissue. The most important effect of ethylene on fruit ripening is that it is produced in large amounts which coincides with the respiratory climacteric.
4. Excess of auxin causes ethylene synthesis.
5. In the presence of ethylene, roots become apogeotropic while stems turn positively geotropic.
6. Abscission of various parts (leaves, flowers, fruits,) is stimulated by ethylene which induces the formation of hydrolases.
7. Ethylene promotes apical dominance and prolongs the dormancy of lateral buds.
8. In low concentrations ethylene helps in root initiation, growth of lateral roots, and root hairs.

NEET Biology Human Growth And Development Revision Notes

NEET Biology Notes On Human Growth Development Abscisic Acid (Aba)

• It is also called stress hormone or dormant because the production of hormones is stimulated by drought, water logging, and other adverse environmental conditions.
• The hormone is an inhibitor that counteracts the influence of growth-promoting hormones (auxin, gibberellins, and cytokinins), induces dormancy, and helps overcome conditions of stress. The hormone was discovered by Addicott et al in 1963.
• It is commonly formed inside chloroplasts either from mevalonic acid or xanthophyll-like violoxanthin.
• It is known as dormant as it induces dormancy in buds, underground stems, and seeds.
• This hormone was first isolated by Addicott et al (1963) from cotton balls.
• It is produced in many parts of the plants but more abundantly inside the chloroplasts of green cells.
• The hormone is formed from mevalonic acid or xanthophylls.
• It is transported to all parts of the plant through diffusion as well as transport channels (phloem and xylem).
• Abscisic acid induces dormancy of buds towards the approach of winter.
• The buds as well as seeds sprout only when abscisic acid is overcome by gibberellin.
• The formation of abscisic acid stops mitosis in the vascular cambium towards the approach of winter.
• Abscisic acid promotes the abscission of flowers and fruits.

NEET Biology Notes Oon Human Growth Development Calines

• The effect of auxin on root, stem, and leaves is not an isolated reaction but involves other natural hormones called canines which are of three types :

1. Rhizocaline: It is a special root-forming honnone produced by the leaves and transported in a polar manner down the stem.
2. Caulocaline: It is a stem-forming hormone synthesized in roots from where it is translocated to its site of activity in the stem. ,
3. Phyllocaline: It stimulates mesophyll development in leaves. It is synthesized only in the presence of light and the actual site of its synthesis is not known.

NEET Biology Human Growth And Development Important Points

NEET Biology Notes On Human Growth Development Florigen

It is a floral hormone that is produced in photo-induced leaves and translocated to apical and lateral meristems where flower formation is initiated

NEET Biology Human Growth And Development Important Points

NEET Biology Notes On Human Growth Development Useful Information

• Went is credited with the discovery of auxins.
• Hitchcock and Zimmerman showed that flowering in Nicotiana can be accelerated by auxins.
• Auxins prevent premature leaf fall by arresting the formation of the abscission layer.
• Snow (1933) showed that the reactivation of the cambial cells in the spring season is due to auxins.
• Went named the growth-promoting substance Auxin (auxin = to grow)
• Kogl and Haagen Smith isolated three chemicals from human urine and named them auxin a, auxin b, and heteroauxin.
• IAA was first discovered by KogI et al in 1934.
• Letham et al obtained the first naturally occurring cytokinin from unripe maize grain called Zeatin (6 hydroxy, 3 methyl trans, 2 butenyl amino purine).
• Crookes et al recognized ethylene as a plant hormone. r4 Cams and Addict (1961) extracted abscisin-1 and abscisic-II from old cotton bolls and young cotton bolls respectively.
• Knott (1934) found that the locus for photoperiodic induction occurs in the leaves.
• Wellensick (1964) found that the locus for perception of cold treatment is the mer- istematic cells, especially the shoot apex.
• Yabuta (1935) separated the hormone and named it Gibberellin.
• O Yabuta (1938) prepared a crystalline form of Gibberellin.
• Hitchcock and Zimmerman showed that flowering in Nicotiana can be acceler¬ated by auxins.
• Snow (1933) showed that the cambial cells become activated in spring due to auxins.
• Brain et al (1955) isolated GA₃ in pure form.
• Cross et al (1961) worked out the structure of Gibberellin or GA₃. It is chemically CL 19 ^22
• The first cytokinin was discovered by Miller et al and called Kinetin.
• Draghett (1933) used the term crypto vegetation to signify a state of vegetation maintained by certain plants under low-temperature conditions of winter.
• Peter Ray et al showed that IAA promotes the liberation of a water-soluble xyloglucan from the cell wall.
• Boysen Jensen (1931) while working on coleoptiles of oats (Avena saliva), concluded that growth triggering substance is synthesized in the coleoptile tips.
• Paal (1919) confirmed that growth-promoting substance is synthesized in the stem tips only.
• Went extracted the substance from Avena coleoptile tip and observed its effects
  on the stump. He named the substance as auxin.
• Kogl, Erxlaben, and Haagen-Smit isolated heteroauxin from human urine which was chemically Indole-3-acetic acid (IAA). The term auxin was coined by KogI.

Human Growth And Development NEET Exam Preparation Notes

NEET Biology Notes On Human Growth Development Photoperiodism

• Light is of crucial significance in the flowering of plants. The response of a plant to the Native lengths of light and dark periods is called photoperiodism and the length of the daylight required by the plant to flower is called photoperiod.
• Garner and Allard (1920) classified plants into three groups according to their photoperiods.
• Short-dav plants (SDP or long-night plants): These plants flower when the day length is less than a certain critical length (critical day length is the photoperiod required to induce flowering) say 12 hours. Some examples of short-day plants are tobacco, soybean, Xanlhium, and Chrysanthemum. etc.
• Long-day plants: These plants flower when the day length is greater than a certain critical length example. Spinach, sugarbeet, radish, henbane, potato etc.
• Day-neutral plants: These plants flower in all possible photoperiods e.g. tomato, four o’clock, cotton, cucumber, balsam, maize, etc.
• The photoperiodic stimulus is received by a pigment called phytochrome present in leaves. This pigment is a protein with a chromophore prosthetic group. It seems to be localized in the cell membranes. Phytochrome exists in two interconvertible forms i.e. Pr and Pfr.
• The Pr form of phytochrome absorbs red light (660 nm) and is converted into Pfr form while Pfr forms absorb far-red light (730 nm) and are converted into Pr form. Under continuous darkness, the Pfr form of phytochrome gradually changes to Pr form which promotes the formation of flowering stimulus in short-day plants.
• If the long dark period is interrupted by red light, the Pr form is converted into Pfr form which inhibits the formation of flowering stimulus in short-day plants. In long-day plants, the flowering is promoted by the Pfr form of phytochrome as the long light period favors the conversion of Pr to the Pfr form of phytochrome.
• It is. therefore, concluded that flowering in short-day plants is promoted by the Pr form and inhibited by the Pfr form whereas in long-day plants, flowering is promoted by the Pfr form of phytochrome and inhibited by the Pr form.
• The floral stimulus is a floral hormone. Butler and others isolated the phytochrome pigment responsible for the above change. It is a glycoprotein having a molecular weight of 1,25,000 and located in the plasma membrane. It occurs in two forms PR and Pp^ which are interconvertible as under :
• The photo-induced leaves synthesize this floral hormone called florigen which is translocated to the site of flower formation. Cajlachjan (1958) suggested that there are two steps involved in the flowering process, the first mediated by gibberellin and the second by the flowering factor called ‘adhesive.’
• Together, gibberellin and anthesine constitute the true florigen.

Photoperiodism and C/N Ratio: Kraus and Kraybill, 1918, while working with tomato plants discovered an interesting correlation. They found that different levels of carbohydrate and nitrate supply produce different responses in the plant. Broadly speaking there are four possibilities.

1. Very high C/N Ratio → Plants remain weakly vegetative and no flowering is observed.
2. High C/N Ratio → Plants show less vegetative growth but flower profusely.
3. Low C/N Ratio→ Plants show luxuriant vegetative growth but no flowering is observed.
4. Very low C/N Ratio → Plants show weak vegetative growth but fail to produce flowers.

• The Day neutrals or photo neutrals do not need any specific photoperiod for flowering example, Cucumis, Gossypium, impatiens, Lycopersicon, Zea, Mirabilis, etc.
• The photoperiod needed for flowering is called a critical day length. In short-day plants, it indicates the minimum period whereas in long-day plants, it tells the maximum photoperiod.
• Based on experiments Knott, and Cajlachjan confirmed that photoperiodic and photoperiodic stimulus is captured by leaves of cotyledons. The experiments were conducted on loin pioups of plants of Chrysanthemum.

The photoperiodic stimulus may be systemic (Xanthium) or localiscil ((cosmos), Host flowering ooouis in red wavelength. poor flowering under blue and no flowering occurs in green.

Human Growth And Development NEET Exam Preparation Notes

NEET Biology Notes On Human Growth Development Vernalization

• Many species, especially biennials and perennials, arc induced or promoted to flower by low temperatures. Vernalization is the low-temperature treatment given to water-soaked seeds, slightly germinated seeds, or seedlings to hasten the time of plants that will develop from them.
• So, vernalization can best be defined as “The acquisition or acceleration of tire ability to flower by a chilling treatment.’’ (Chounrd 1960).
• T.D Lysenko used the term vernalization as a low-temperature promotion of flowering in plants, The low-temperature requirement for flowering was first noticed by lvlippart (1837) while working with two varieties of wheat, the winter wheat and the spring wheat.
• He concluded that winter wheat requires low treatment (0 – 5° C) for subsequent flowering, a tire phenomenon now called vernalization. It is an aerobic process.
• Plains, in nature, requiring vernalization commonly behave as biennials. The biennials complete their life cycle in two years. They germinate and grow vegetatively in the first year and produce flowers in the second year of growth.
• These fulfill their cold requirement during winter.
• Russian scientists recognized the following two phrases in vernalization.
• Thermophase. It requires a temperature varying between 10 – 20° C together with some moisture and oxygen (so that the embryo wakes up from the dormancy).
• This phase has to be completed before the initiation of the primordia of reproductive organs. The period of low-temperature treatment varies from four days to three months in different plants. Thermophase can take place during the day as well as at night.
• Photophase. A thermophase has to be followed by a period of illumination (i.e., photoperiod) and a period of relatively high temperature.
• This low-temperature treatment given to the seeds to reduce the vegetative growth period and accelerate flowering is called vernalization or Yarovization. The site of vernalization is believed to be the growing point (apical bud).
• The German botanist, Melchers (1939) demonstrated that the product of vernalization could be transmitted from a vernalized to an unvernalized Hyoscyamus plant through a graft union. He named this substance vernalin which is a hypothetical one and has not been isolated yet.
• The vernalization effect is reversible and the process is called deyernalization. If the vernalized seeds are kept at high temperatures or under anaerobic conditions, they revert to their normal nature and produce biennial plants.

Human Growth And Development NEET Chapter Summary

Human development NEET notes Mechanism Of Vernalization

• To explain the mechanism of vernalization in physiological terms, three different hypotheses have been put forward.
• Antagonism between vegetative and reproductive growth. According to this theory, vegetative growth and flowering are antagonistic to each other. Thus any means of repressing vegetative growth would result in flowering.
• Phasic development hypothesis. Lysenko (1932) emphasized the distinction between growth (quantitative change or increase in size) and development (a qualitative change or progressive change in the characteristics of new organs produced in cell division) and opined what has become known as the ‘Phasic development theory’.
• According to this theory, the process of development of an annual seed plant consists of a series of phases that must occur in some predetermined sequence. When the proceeding phase is completed, the onset of any one phase will only take place.
• Flower-producing substances hypothesis—Regarding the role of flower-producing substances during vernalization in cereal plants, Purvis (1961) has proposed a scheme. According to Purvis’s scheme, B is some compound that is part of a reaction system leading to flowering.

Human Growth And Development NEET Chapter Summary

NEET growth and development Biology Factors Affecting Vernalization

1. Water and Oxygen. Dry seeds cannot be vernalized. Seeds need to imbibe about 30¬40% moisture before they can be vernalized. Although moisture may be present, in the absence of air or oxygen, seeds or plants cannot be vernalized.
2. In other words, active respiration is essential. This is supported by the fact that the inhibitors of respiration such as cyanide and dinitrophenol prevent vernalization even when other conditions are favourable.
3. Temperature. The seeds of plants can be vernalized by exposing them to low temperatures. Usually, a temperature in the range of 1-7° C is equally effective. Vernalization, although weak, is still possible at temperatures lower than this range up to-4 °C and the higher range up to 12°C. Temperature beyond 12°C does not cause vernalization.
4. Food Substances. If vernalization has to take place, there should be a source of carbohydrates. Isolated embryos of cereals cannot be vernalized till these are supplied with sucrose and minerals.
5. Effect of Light. Light does not affect the process of vernalization. Many plants like carrots and hyoscyams have both vernalization and photoperiodic requirements for flowering.
6. Effect on Hormones. Many species with an obligate vernalization requirement such as Carrot and Hyoscyams are rosette in habit during the vegetative stage. When vernalized, these plants show flowering, and flowering is accompanied by rapid elongation.
7. Such an elongation of the stem is called bolting. In such rosette plants, the vernalization requirement can be replaced by the application of gibberellic acid.
8. In these plants, GA causes both bolting and flowering without the necessity of exposure to low temperatures.

Human Growth And Development NEET Chapter Summary

NEET Biology Notes On Human Growth Development Senescence

As the young plant grows, it undergoes aging and develops into mature plants in an orderly fashion. Senescence constitutes a collective, progressive, and deteriorative development process that ultimately leads to the complete loss of organization and function of plant or plant parts.

Types of senescence. Mainly senescence is of two types :

1. Whole plant senescence. In the case of monocarpic species ( which flower and form fruit only once in their lifetime and then die) whole plant senescence occurs e.g.wheat, soybeans (annuals), agave, bamboo, sunflower etc.
2. Organ senescence. In polycarpic species (which flower and form fruit repeatedly) senescence and death are not associated with flowering and fruiting. Organ senescence is of the following types.
3. Shoot senescence. In herbaceous perennials, the whole above-ground part of the plant body may senescence and die each year. example: Gladius, Ginger, Rumex, Banana.
4. Simultaneous or synchronous senescence. Leaves of temperate deciduous woody arcs may sense and fall at a certain season of the year. It is controlled by environmental factors rather than internal factors.
5. Sequential senescence. It is the progressive senescence of older leaves which may occur at any time of year. Each leaf in most of the plants has a limited life span, so that the shoot grows in height, lower older leaves tend to senesce and die.
6. Retardants of Sense . Kinetin, a growth regulator, retards senescence of leaves. It causes a rapid increase in the rate of RNA and protein synthesis and it also causes mobilization of metabolites.

• Growth is a quantitative phenomenon and can be measured over time.
• Quiescence is the suspension of growth due to external factors such as changes in surrounding conditions.
• Seed dormancy may be due to rudimentary, embryos, permeable seed coats, mechanically resistant seed coats, physiologically immature embryos, and due to presence of germination inhibitors.
• The common germination inhibitors are abscisic acid, phenolic acids, short-chain fatty acids, and coumarin.
• Rhizophora. Sonneratia and Heriticra growing in marshy land show a special type of germination termed vivipary, in which seed germination within the fruit, while still attached to the parent plant.
• The rate of growth is called the efficiency index.
• Auxin precursors tire the compounds which can be converted to auxins.
• Antiauxins inhibit the action of auxins
• Free auxins can be easily extracted and are active.
• Bound auxins are inactive and hard to extract. They need the use of organic solvents. A dynamic equilibrium exists between the two forms.

Human Growth And Development NEET Chapter Summary

NEET Biology Notes on Human Growth Development Quanta to Memory

• The presence of more auxin on the lower side of the stem apex causes more growth oil on that side.
• The presence of more auxin in the root has a negative effect i.e., it inhibits growth on the lower side.
• IAA (Indole Acetic Acid) is the principal naturally occurring auxin found in all plants studied so far and also in fungi.
• IAA Destruction is caused by : (i) Photo-oxidation by blue light, and (ii) Dark oxidation by IAA-oxidase.
• Auxin IAA stimulates ethylene synthesis in a plant.
• IAA also occurs in human urine, especially in persons suffering from pellagra.
• Bioiissay means the testing of a substance for its activity in living organisms under controlled conditions.
• Abscission is the shedding of leaves, fruits, or (lowers by a plant generally due to a change in the hormonal balance.
• The term Phytoalexin was introduced by Muller (1956) example. Pisatin in Pisum sativum is due to an infection of Ascochyta Ω.
• 0•025 % of maleic hydrazide prevents potato sprouting.
• Cytokinins along with auxins help in the differentiation of roots and shoots.
• 2,4 D is a synthetic auxin acting as a weedicide.
• Abscisic acid inhibits gibberellin-mediated amylase formation during the germination of cereal grains.
• ABA has been found to induce parthenocarpic development in roses.
• The use of abscisic acid promotes rooting in many stem cuttings.
• It counteracts the effects of all growth-promoting hormones (auxins, gibberellins, cytokinins) and therefore, keeps their activity under check.
• The role of IAA in humans is not known.
• In maize, the single cotyledon never leaves the germinating grain and plumule grows out of coleoptile.
• Vernalization was first studied in Europe on the winter varieties of cereals such as wheat, barley, rye, and oat.
• The chemical nature of vernalin (Cold induced stimulus) is not known.
• In growth anabolic processes dominate over the catabolic processes and therefore growth is the final product of successful metabolism.

NEET Biology Tools And Techniques Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Fluorescent dye bonded to monoclonal antibodies is used to locate particular:

1. Cell proteins
2. Cells
3. Diseased parts
4. Organs of defence.

Answer: 1. Cell proteins

Question 2. The scientists who developed the technique of keeping tissue and organs alive outside the body are:

1. Ringer
2. Cannon
3. Lorenty
4. Binning and Rohrer.

Answer: 1. Ringer

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 3. The Electron microscope has revealed the presence of:

1. Chloroplasts
2. Leucoplasts
3. Ribosomes
4. Chromosomes.

Answer: 3. Ribosomes

Molecular Biology MCQ For NEET Biology With Answers Question 4. Magnification of a “compound microscope” does not depend upon :

1. The focal length of the objective
2. The focal length of the eyepiece
3. Tube length of the microscope
4. Numerical aperture of the objective.

Answer: 4. Numerical aperture of objective.

Question 5. For studying the metabolism of deoxyribonucleic acid, an autoradiographic technique is used involving:

1. Tritiated uridine
2. Tritiated thymidine
3. Tritiated mannose
4. Tritiated amino acids.

Answer: 2. Tritiated thymidine

Question 6. Phase contrast microscope was designed by:

1. Tolles
2. Zernicke
3. Hooke
4. Zsigmondy.

Answer: 1. Tolles

Question 7. Scanning electron microscope (sem) is primarily used for :

1. 3-D external surface only
2. 3-D internal study of tissue
3. 2-D external study
4. 2-D internal study.

Answer: 1. 3-D external surface only

Question 8. In a microscope. A lens closer to the eye is called :

1. Ocular
2. Eye piece
3. Both 1 & 2
4. Oculomotor.

Answer: 1. Eyepiece

Molecular Biology MCQ For NEET Biology With Answers Question 9. The electron microscope is made up of :

1. Fluorochromes
2. Polariser and analyser filter
3. Electromagnetic lenses
4. Objective and ocular lenses.

Answer: 3. Electromagnetic lenses

Question 10. Angstrom, the unit of measurement in the transmission electron microscope , is equal to :

1. 0.01tim
2. 0.001pm
3. 0.0001pm
4. 0.00001pm.

Answer: 3. 0.0001pm

Question 11. The resolving power of an electron microscope is :

1. 1A
2. 10a
3. 100A
4. 10004.

Answer: 2. 10a

Question 12. Knoll and Ruska first designed the electron microscope in the year:

1. 1932
2. 194S
3. 1941
4. 1900.

Answer: 1. 1932

Question 13. Among the following isotopes, which is not radioactive?

1. C-o
2. P-
3. H
4. O-.

Answer: 4. O-.

Question 14. X-ray crystallography is used to study :

1. Structure of lipids
2. Composition of proteins and nucleic acids
3. Arrangement of proteins
4. Three-dimensional structure of proteins.

Answer: 2. Composition of proteins and nucleic acids

Question 15. One of the important techniques used to study the synthesis of molecules and to trace the metabolic pathway or events in cells is:

1. Autoradiography
2. Microspectrophotometry
3. Calorimetry
4. Chromatography.

Answer: 1. Autoradiography

Molecular Biology MCQ For NEET Biology With Answers Question 16. Resolution power is the ability to :

1. Distinguish two close points
2. Distinguish two close objects
3. Distinguish amongst organelles
4. Magnify images.

Answer: 1. Distinguish two close points

Question 17. What will you call the study of plants and animals outside the body in a glass tube?

1. In vivo
2. In vitro
3. Innate
4. Desperate.

Answer: 2. Innate

Question 18. When biologists wish to study the internal ultrastructure of cells, they most likely would use :

1. A good modern light microscope
2. A scanning electron microscope
3. A transmission electron microscope
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. A transmission electron microscope

Question 19. Living cells can be studied by :

1. Phase contrast microscope
2. Fluorescent microscope
3. Electron microscope
4. Light microscope.

Answer: 1. Phase contrast microscope

Question 20. The method most frequently used to determine the molecular weight of proteins is :

1. X-ray diffraction
2. Classical chemistry
3. Ultra-centrifugation
4. Both 1 and 2.

Answer: 3. Ultra-centrifugation

Biotechnology Principles and Processes MCQ for NEET Question 21. Which of the following techniques other than a microscope

1. Plasmolysis
2. Maceration
3. Chromatography
4. Auto-radiography.

Answer: 4. Auto-radiography.

Question 22. The electron microscope differs from the ordinary microscope in having resolving power due to the use of:

1. Electrons, which have a longer wavelength than ordinary light, as the source of illumination
2. Ultraviolet light as the source of illumination
3. Fast electrons which have shorter wavelengths than ordinary light rays as the source of illumination
4. Gamma rays as the source of illumination.

Answer: 3. Fast electrons which have shorter wavelengths than ordinary light rays as the source of illumination

Question 23. A student wants to study the metaphysic behaviour of chromosomes/chromosomes in a living cell. The technique most suitable is:

1. Phase contrast microscope
2. Scanning electron microscope
3. X-ray microscope
4. Cell fractionation.

Answer: 1. Phase contrast microscope

Question 24. What is the primary objective of cell fractionation?

1. To view the structure of cell membranes
2. To identify the enzymes outside the organelles
3. To determine the size of various organelles
4. To separate the organelles.

Answer: 4. To separate the organelles.

Question 25. High-wavelength UV rays are used in:

1. Fluorescent microscope
2. Polarising microscope
3. Ultraviolet microscope
4. Phase-contrast microscope.

Answer: 1. Fluorescent microscope

Biotechnology Principles and Processes MCQ for NEET Question 26. The pattern of protein binding on dna can be studied by

1. Light microscope
2. Electron microscope
3. Ultracentrifugation
4. X-ray crystallography.

Answer: 4. X-ray crystallography.

Question 27. Fundamentally a dead cell differs from a living cell when seen under a phase contrast microscope because:

1. It has become separated from other cells
2. Its vital forces have been destroyed
3. A change in its surrounding environment has occurred
4. A change in its specific organization has occurred.

Answer: 2. Its vital forces have been destroyed

Question 28. The part of a cell that can be seen with an electron microscope, but never with a light microscope is/are the:

1. Nucleus
2. Golgi bodies
3. Chloroplasts
4. Mebrane separating the nucleus from the cytoplasm

Answer: 3. Chloroplasts

Question 29. A lab technician spun a cell suspension from leaf tissue in a centrifuge in a slurry of sucrose at a speed that formed a bright green band about halfway down the solution in the tube. In what fraction would you expect to find the nuclei?

1. In a pellet at the bottom of the tube
2. In the green band
3. In a dark band above the green band
4. In the supernatant.

Answer: 1. In a pellet at the bottom of the tube

Question 30. You have developed a stain that colours alpha and beta tubulin a bright orange colour. When the stain is ap- plied to non-dividing leaf cells, what area of the cell would you expect to be orange when viewed with a light microscope?

1. The nucleus
2. The cell wall adjacent to the surface of the plasma membrane
3. The cytoskeleton
4. Flagella.

Answer: 4. Flagella.

Question 31. A cytologist must decide what type of microscope to purchase for his laboratory. The lab examines fibres and hairs. And other forensic evidence as whole specimens. As the microscope salesperson, you suggest that he should buy:

1. A light microscope with a resolution power of 1 nm.
2. A scanning electron microscope.
3. A transmission electron microscope with a maximum magnification of 1,000 x.
4. An electron microscope with resolution power of about 2 nanometres.

Answer: 2. A transmission electron microscope with a maximum magnification of 1,000 x.

NEET Biology MCQ Test  Question 32. Cellulose in a cell is stained by :

1. Ivlethylene blue
2. Zinc chloro-iodide
3. Sudan iv
4. Ruthenium red.

Answer: 2. Zinc chloro-iodide

Question 33. Elisa is used to detecting viruses where the key reagent is:

1. Catalase
2. Osmic acid
3. Acetylcholinesterase
4. Alkaline phosphate.

Answer: 4. Alkaline phosphate.

Question 34. A fluorescence microscope is used to:

1. Increase resolving power
2. Localise cell components
3. Obtain x-ray dif1iaction pattern of dna
4. Study cells and their components in a living state using phase differences in light rays.

Answer: 2. Localise cell components

NEET Biology MCQ Test  Question 35. Cell organelles can be separated by :

1. Differential centrifugation
2. Autoradiography
3. Thin section microtomy
4. X-ray diffraction.

Answer: 1. Differential centrifugation

Question 36. If a biochemical analysis of mitochondria is to be done, the best procedure would be:

1. Subject the cells to cell fractionation (centrifuge) and obtain mitochondria.
2. Grind the cell filter out the mixture and take the debris
3. Plasmolyse the cells, filter them and take the debris
4. Select cells which have a large number of mitochondria.

Answer: 4. Select cells which have a large number of mitochondria.

Human Health And Disease MCQ With Answers For NEET

Question 1. The population of Homo sapiens was 453 millions in:

1. 1550 A.D.
2. 4000 B.C.
3. 1650 A.D.
4. 8000 B.C.

Answer: 3. 1650 A.D.

Question 2. The average annual birth rate per 1000 individuals in developing countries is:

1. 10
2. 37
3. 19
4. None of the above

Answer: 2. 37

Question 3. The causes of uneven distribution of the world’s population in various regions may be due to the:

1. Geographical factors
2. Socio-economic factors
3. Demographic factors
4. All of the above factors.

Answer: 4. All of the above factors.

Question 4. Major areas of population concentration in the world are:

1. South East Asia, Japan, India
2. European countries
3. Latin American countries
4. North America.

Answer: 1. South East Asia, Japan, India

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 5. The density of a population in a given country is obtained by:

1. Dividing the total number of persons living in the country by the total land area
2. Dividing the total number of persons living in the country by the total fertile land area
3. Dividing the total number of persons living in the country by the total forest land area
4. Dividing the total number of persons living in the country by the amount of production of natural resources.

Answer: 1. Dividing the total number of persons living in the country by the total land area

Question 6. The population density of the Netherlands is higher than that of India because of:

1. More land area is there in the Netherlands as compared to India
2. A greater proportion of the inhabitable area is there in the Netherlands than that in India
3. Greater economic advancement of the Netherlands
4. More natural resources in the Netherlands.

Answer: 2. A Greater proportion of the inhabitable area is there in the Netherlands than that in India

NEET Questions Human Health and Diseases Question 7. The high population concentration of India is due to the:

1. The poor economic status of the people of the country
2. Availability of fertile land
3. Industrial advancement
4. Non-availability of resources.

Answer: 1. Poor economic status of the people of the country

Question 8. The very dense population of Indo-Gangetic plains is due to the:

1. Availability of adequate river water
2. Fertile alluvial soil of the region
3. Both of the above factors
4. Presence of large cities.

Answer: 3. Both of the above factors

Question 9. Some densely populated cities like Durgapur and Bhilai came up recently as a result of:

1. Removal of forests
2. Better transport facilities
3. Better agricultural opportunities
4. Development of resource-based industries.

Answer: 4. Development of resource-based industries.

Question 10. Most of the world’s largest cities are found at coastal locations primarily due to the:

1. Pleasant coastal climates
2. Availability of water
3. Availability of seafood
4. The fact that the sea provides a cheaper mode of transport.

Answer: 4. Fact that the sea provides a cheaper mode of transport.

NEET Questions Human Health and Diseases Question 11. Demography is the study of:

1. Fossils and their distribution
2. Statistics of population
3. Relationship between man and the environment
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Statistics of population

Question 12. The term biotic potential means:

1. Distribution of human population in an area
2. The rate of growth of population in an area
3. The physiological capacity of an organism to reproduce
4. The increase in number of human population in a country.

Answer: 3. The physiological capacity of an organism to reproduce

Question 13. The basic cause of continued urban growth is due to the:

1. Better transport facility
2. Entertainment facility
3. Prosperity in cities
4. Better health facilities.

Answer: 3. Prosperity in cities

Important MCQs on Human Health and Disease Question 14. Increasing urbanization causes:

1. Overcrowding
2. Health and pollution hazards
3. Socio-economic problems
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 15. The biosphere consists of interaction ecological functional units called:

1. Ecosystems
2. Populations
3. Communities
4. Species.

Answer: 1. Ecosystems

Question 16. Agriculture and urbanization are two examples of man’s capacity to create new:

1. Species
2. Ecosystem
3. Biosphere
4. Lithosphere.

Answer: 2. Ecosystem

Question 17. The middle phase of the population growth curve is a phase of:

1. No growth
2. Low growth
3. Maximum growth
4. Stabilised growth.

Answer: 3. Maximum growth

Question 18. A population can grow exponentially:

1. When food is the only limiting resource
2. When first invading a suitable and previously unoccupied habitat
3. Only if there is no predation
4. Only in the laboratory.

Answer: 2. When first invading a suitable and previously unoccupied habitat

Important MCQs on Human Health and Disease Question 19. Which of the following does not directly affect biotic potential?

1. A female’s age of first reproduction
2. Carrying capacity of the environment
3. Length of time a female is fertile
4. Average number of offspring per brood or litter.

Answer: 2. Carrying capacity of the environment

Question 20. The best way to decrease the population of a country is:

1. To educate the people
2. To have better living conditions
3. Mass killing
4. To practise and implement family planning techniques.

Answer: 4. To practise and implement family planning techniques.

Question 21. The main factors for the growth of the human population in India are:

1. High birth rate
2. Less death rate
3. Lack of education
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 22. The prenatal diagnostic technique is known as:

1. Implantation
2. Amniocentesis
3. Parthenogenesis
4. Biomedical termination of pregnancy.

Answer: 2. Amniocentesis

Question 23. At the current rate of growth, the human population is doubling itself every:

1. 50 yrs
2. 25 yrs
3. 40 yrs
4. 35 yrs.

Answer: 4. 35 yrs.

Question 24. The carrying capacity is represented by:

1. K
2. S
3. J
4. I.

Answer: 1. K

Human Health and Disease NEET Questions Question 25. What is the popular name of IVF?

1. Amniocentesis
2. Tubectomy
3. Rhythm method
4. Test tube baby.

Answer: 4. Test tube baby.

Question 26. The most thickly populated country in the world is:

1. Australia
2. India
3. Japan
4. The USA.

Answer: 3. Australia

Question 27. The most thinly populated country in the world is:

1. Australia
2. India
3. Japan
4. The USA.

Answer: 1. Australia

Question 28. The most thickly populated state of India is:

1. Orissa
2. Tamil Nadu
3. Punjab
4. Kerala.

Answer: 4. Kerala.

Question 29. The environmental resistance means:

1. The environmental factors which tend to maintain homeostasis by regulating emigration
2. Factors imposing a check on population size
3. Resistance of a species to the environmental factors which impose a check on population size
4. The physiological capacity of a species to resist changes in the environment.

Answer: 2. Factors imposing a check on population size

Human Health and Disease NEET Questions Question 30. Fertilisation of the ovum may be prevented by:

1. Tubal ligation
2. Vasectomy
3. Use of IUCD
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 31. Which is biologically responsible for the sex of the child?

1. Father
2. Mother
3. Both parents
4. God.

Answer: 1. Father

Question 32. A contraceptive pill contains:

1. Progesterone and estrogen
2. Spermicidal salts
3. Chemicals that cause abortion
4. Chemicals that prevent fertilization.

Answer: 1. Progesterone and estrogen

Question 33. According to the 1991 census, human population was:

1. 689 million
2. 840 million
3. 1032 million
4. 960 million.

Answer: 2. 840 million

Question 34. A contraceptive pill prevents ovulation by:

1. Blocking fallopian tubes
2. Inhibiting the release of FSH and LH
3. Stimulating release of FSH and LH
4. Causing immediate degeneration.

Answer: 2. Inhibiting release of FSH and LH

Question 35. Which mechanical device to control childbirth is fitted on the cervix?

1. Diaphragm
2. Condom
3. Loop
4. Copper T.

Answer: 1. Diaphragm

Question 36. Laparoscopy means:

1. Removal of ovary
2. Removal of a part of the oviduct
3. Tubular ligation
4. Fitting copper T.

Answer: 3. Tubular ligation

Question 37. Mothers nurse the foetus in the womb for:

1. 180 days
2. 210 days
3. 270 days
4. 320 days.

Answer: 3. 270 days

Human Health And Disease MCQ With Answers For NEET Question 38. According to the 1991 census, the urban population of India is about:

1. 30%
2. 24%
3. 57%
4. 34%.

Answer: 2. 24%

Question 39. At present world population is increasing at the rate of:

1. 2%
2. 2.25%
3. 2.50%
4. 30%.

Answer: 1. 2%

Question 40. The rapid decline in a population due to a high mortality rate is:

1. Population density
2. Population crash
3. Population explosion
4. All of the above.

Answer: 2. Population crash

Question 41. Growth of the population of an area depends upon:

1. Natality rate
2. Immigration
3. Environmental resistance
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 42. The physiological capacity of a species of animals to produce that progeny in the absence of natural enemies, disease or other inhibiting factors is:

1. Carrying capacity
2. Biotic potential
3. Population explosion
4. All of the above.

Answer: 2. Biotic potential

Question 43. The concept that “population tends to increase geometrically while food supply increases arithmetically” was put forward by:

1. Thomas Malthus
2. Adam Smith
3. Stuart Mill
4. Charles Darwin.

Answer: 1. Thomas Malthus

Human Health And Disease MCQ With Answers For NEET Question 44. In India, the human population is heavily weighted towards the younger age groups as a result of:

1. Short lifespan and low birth rate
2. Long life-span of many individuals and low birth rate
3. The short life span of many individuals
4. Long life span and low birth rate.

Answer: 3. Short life span of many individuals

Question 45. Which mechanical means is used to cover the penis before coital activity?

1. Diaphragm
2. Condom
3. Loop
4. Copper-T.

Answer: 2. Condom

Question 46. The best way to control the population is:

1. Education
2. Family planning
3. Better living conditions
4. Better health care.

Answer: 2. Family planning

Question 47. An IUCD is:

1. Copper-T
2. Condom
3. Vasectomy
4. Pill.

Answer: 1. Copper-T

Question 48. Surgical removal of the testes of males to control the population is:

1. Castration
2. Tubectomy
3. Laparoscopy
4. Vasectomy.

Answer: 1. Castration

Question 49. A permanent method of birth control is:

1. Vasectomy
2. Tubectomy
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. None of these.

Answer: 3. Both (1) and (2)

Human Health And Disease MCQ With Answers For NEET Question 50. Which mechanical device to control childbirth is fitted on the cervix?

1. Diaphragm
2. Condom
3. Loop
4. Cooper T.

Answer: 1. Diaphragm

Question 51. Saheli, a female antifertility pill is used:

1. Daily
2. Weekly
3. Quarterly
4. Monthly.

Answer: 2. Weekly

Question 52. Which of the following is a 100% effective method of birth control?

1. Use of oral contraceptives
2. Use of I.U.C. Devices
3. Use of condoms
4. Medical Termination of Pregnancy.

Answer: 1. Use of oral contraceptives

Question 53. In the past, to control population, the Family Planning Department has been advocating:

1. Ligation
2. Salpectomy
3. Vasectomy
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 54. Government-sponsored “Family Planning Programme” started in:

1. 1947
2. 1950
3. 1951
4. 1955.

Answer: 3. 1951

Question 55. Laparoscopy means:

1. Removal of ovary
2. Removal of a part of the oviduct
3. Tubular ligation
4. Fitting copper T.

Answer: 3. Tubular ligation

NEET Questions Human Health and Diseases Question 56. The chemical method of birth control involves the use of:

1. Condom
2. Loop
3. Cream or jelly
4. Diaphragm.

Answer: 3. Cream or jelly

Question 57. A contraceptive can be:

1. Condom, cervical cap or diaphragm
2. Intrauterine device
3. Pill
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 58. Which of the following is a mechanical device of birth control?

1. Copper-T
2. A combined pill
3. Foam tablet
4. Abortion pill.

Answer: 1. Copper-T

Question 59. Fertilisation of the ovum may be prevented by:

1. Tubal ligation
2. Vasectomy
3. Use of IUCD
4. All of these.

Answer: 4. All of these.

Question 60. A sterilization technique is:

1. Loop
2. Diaphragm
3. Tubectomy
4. Cervical cap.

Answer: 4. Cervical cap

Question 61. According to the 1991 census, the urban population of India was about:

1. 30%
2. 24%
3. 57%
4. 34%.

Answer: 2. 24%

NEET Questions Human Health and Diseases Question 62. In 1991, the Indian population was:

1. 832.93 million
2. 843.93 million
3. 840.90 million
4. 830.90 million.

Answer: 2. 843.93 million

Question 63. The 1991 census of population in India indicates:

1. Sudden fall in the birth rate
2. Minor fall in birth rate
3. No fall in birth rate
4. Increased birth rate.

Answer: 2. Minor fall in birth rate

Question 64. In India, the marriageable age for females is:

1. 15 years
2. 18 years
3. 20 years
4. 21 years.

Answer: 2. 18 years

Question 65. Which of the following is involved in test-tube baby production?

1. Laparoscopy
2. Catheter
3. In-vitro fertilization
4. All of these.

Answer: 4. All of these.

Question 66. Amniocentesis can reveal the foetus’s:

1. Chromosomal abnormalities
2. Physical deformities
3. Metabolic disorders
4. Only (1) and (3).

Answer: 4. Only (1) and (3).

Question 67. In amniocentesis:

1. The foetal cells are taken out, cultured and examined for metabolic defects
2. The foetus is examined for metabolic defects
3. The foetus is examined for sex
4. The amniotic fluid is examined for metabolic defects.

Answer: 1. The foetus is examined for metabolic defects

NEET Questions Human Health and Diseases Question 68. Which of the following is a pre-natal diagnostic technique?

1. X-ray technique
2. IUCD
3. Tubectomy
4. Amniocentesis.

Answer: 4. Amniocentesis.

Question 69. Test-tube baby is the one:

1. Who is reared on artificial medium outside the womb
2. Whose early growth is inside the female body but later growth on artificial medium
3. Whose fertilization and early growth are on an artificial medium but later implantation in the female uterus
4. Whose growth is inside the fallopian tube instead of the uterus.

Answer: 3. Whose fertilization and early growth is on an artificial medium but later implantation in the female uterus

Question 70. Pre-natal defects in the foetus can be detected by:

1. Laparoscopy
2. Amniocentesis
3. Genetic engineering
4. Sonography.

Answer: 2. Amniocentesis

NEET Biology Human Health And  Common Human Diseases Multiple Choice Questions And Answers

Question 1. Common examples of allergens are mites in dust, pollens, and animal dander. Allergy is due to the release of chemicals such as:

1. IgF
2. Histamine
3. Colostrum
4. Histamine and serotonin

Answer: 4. Histamine and serotonin

Question 2. Which of the following is an autoimmune disease?

1. Gout
2. Rheumatoid arthritis
3. Diabetes inspires
4. SCID.

Answer: 2. Rheumatoid arthritis

Question 3. BCG vaccine is given against:

1. Typhoid
2. Cholera
3. TB
4. Diphtheria.

Answer: 3. Diphtheria.

Question 4. Which of the following is a symptom(s) of ascariasis?

1. Muscular pain and fever
2. Internal bleeding and anaemia
3. Blockage of intestinal passage
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 5. The appearance of dry, scaly lesions on various parts of the body such as skin, nails and scalp accompanied by intense itching. This disease is caused by:

1. Epidermophyton
2. Microsporum
3. Trichophyton
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Human Health and Disease MCQs with Answers Question 6. Elephantiasis or filariasis is caused by Wuchereria bancrofti and W. malayi. The major symptoms are

1. Chronic inflammation of lymphatic vessels of lower limbs
2. Deformities of genital organs
3. Swelling of scrotum
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 7. Sporozoites of malarial parasite on entering the blood first attack:

1. RBCs
2. Liver cells
3. Blood platelets
4. WBCs

Answer: 2. Liver cells

Question 8. Who is the initiator of the ‘Lab to Land’ concept?

1. M.S. Swaminathan
2. Norman Borlaug
3. G.S. Khush
4. G.S. Randhawa.

Answer: 1. M.S. Swaminathan

Question 9. In pneumonia, symptoms include fever, cough, chills, and headache, and lips and fingers may turn grey to blue colour. It is caused by

1. Streptococcus pneumonia
2. Haemophilus influenza
3. Aedes
4. Both (1) and (2).

Answer: 4. Both (1) and (2).

Question 10. The proteins produced by B-lymphocytes in response to pathogens are called

1. Antigens
2. Interferons
3. Antibodies
4. PMNL.

Answer: 3. PMNL.

Question 11. Japenese elephantiasis is transmitted by:

1. Housefly
2. Tse-tse fly
3. Phlebotomus
4. Mosquito.

Answer: 4. Mosquito

Human Health and Disease MCQs with Answers Question 12. Select the correct statement:

1. Barbiturates when given to criminals make them tell the truth
2. Morphine is Olien given to persons who have undergone surgery as a painkiller
3. Chewing tobacco lowers blood pressure and heart rate
4. Cocaine is given to patients who have undergone surgery and recovering slowly.

Answer: 2. Morphine is Olien given to persons who have undergone surgery as a pain killer

Question 13. A patient is suspected to be suffering from acquired immune deficiency syndrome. Which diagnostic technique will you recommend for its detection?

1. ELISA
2. MRI
3. Ultrasound
4. Widal

Answer: 1. ELISA

Question 14. The side effects of the use of anabolic steroids in females are

1. Aggressiveness
2. Masculinisation
3. Enlargement of clitoris and deepening of voice
4. All the above

Answer: 4. All the above
.
Question 15. At what stage does HIV infection usually show symptoms of AIDS

1. When the infecting retrovirus enters host cells
2. When viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase
3. Within 15 days of sexual contact with an infected person
4. When HIV replicates rapidly in the helper T- lymphocytes and damages a large number of these.

Answer: 4. When HIV replicates rapidly in the helper T-lymphocytes and damages a large number of these.

Question 16. Antigens are:

1. The micro-organisms which are the source of disease in the body
2. A foreign body which is harmful to the animal and evokes the generation of antibodies
3. The substance generated in the body in response to the infection
4. None of these.

Answer: 2. A foreign body which is harmful to the animal and evokes the generation of antibodies

Question 17. Koch’s postulates include which of the following?

1. The organism must be regularly found in the body of the patient
2. Must be isolated and grown in an artificial medium
3. When the culture is inoculated into the healthy person it must cause disease and can be recovered again
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 18. Reservoir of infection is:

1. Site where pathogens reside without causing any damage
2. Soil, water and air
3. Another animal
4. Another person who is suffering.

Answer: 1. Site where pathogens reside without causing any damage

Question 19. Antibodies fight against:

1. Starvation
2. Stress
3. Thirst
4. Infection.

Answer: 4. Infection.

Human Health and Disease NEET Questions Question 20. The humoral immune system consists of:

1. A family of diverse proteins present in body fluids
2. Some special types of cells destroy the pathogens
3. Both cells as well as polysaccharides
4. All the above.

Answer: 1. A family of diverse proteins present in body fluids

Question 21. How many principal lines of defence are present in the body?

1. Two
2. Three
3. Five
4. Innumerable.

Answer: 2. Three

Question 22. Which of the following is a correct statement?

1. B-cells directly engulf the pathogenic bacteria
2. B-cells produce antibodies soon after they are produced
3. B-cells produce a large clone of plasma cells soon after it is formed
4. The B-cells produce the plasma cells in the body only after they are triggered by a specific antigen.

Answer: 4. The B-cells produce the plasma cells in the body only after they are triggered by a specific antigen.

Question 23. Antiserum is a serum containing:

1. Antigens
2. Leucocytes
3. Active antibodies
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Active antibodies

Question 24. Interferon is a glycoprotein which possesses:

1. Antiviral activity
2. Antifungal activity
3. Antiparasitic activity
4. Antibacterial activity.

Answer: 1. Antiviral activity

Question 25. Antibodies are:

1. A large family of protein molecules produced by the body’s defence cells in the body fluids neutralise the antigens
2. The chemicals produced by the invading microbes destroy and damage the body’s cells
3. Certain substances enclosed in lymphocytes
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. A large family of protein molecules produced by the body’s defence cells in the body fluids which neutralise the antigens

Human Health and Disease NEET Questions Question 26. The mode of transmission of communicable diseases is dealt by a branch of science named:

1. Epidemiology
2. Immunology
3. Aetiology
4. Angiology.

Answer: 1. Epidemiology

Question 27. The degree of pathogenicity is called:

1. Infestation
2. Infection
3. Virulence
4. Resistance.

Answer: 3. Virulence

Question 28. Which one of the following diseases is caused by bacteria?

1. Chicken-pox
2. Poliomyelitis
3. Measles
4. Tetanus.

Answer: 4. Tetanus.

Question 29. Which one of the following communicable diseases is not caused by bacteria?

1. Diphtheria
2. Typhoid
3. Leprosy
4. Poliomyelitis.

Answer: 4. Poliomyelitis.

Question 30. The causative organism of cholera is a:

1. Bacterium
2. Protozoan
3. Nematode
4. Virus.

Answer: 1. Bacterium

Human Health And Disease MCQ With Answers For NEET Question 31. Tetanus is caused by:

1. Bacterium
2. Fungus
3. Protozoan
4. Virus.

Answer: 1. Bacterium

Question 32. Poliomyelitis is caused by

1. Bacteria
2. Virus
3. Protozoan
4. Nematodes.

Answer: 2. Virus

Question 33. AIDS is caused by:

1. Cocci
2. Bacilli
3. TMV
4. HIV.

Answer: 4. HIV.

Human Health And Disease MCQ With Answers For NEET Question 34. Invention and study of the effects of medicines on the organism is known as:

1. Toxicology
2. Pharmacology
3. Pharmacy
4. Haematology.

Answer: 2. Pharmacology

Question 35. DPT vaccine is given to infants to immunize them against:

1. Diphtheria, pneumonia and typhoid
2. Diphtheria, whooping cough and tetanus
3. Diarrhoea, pneumonia and tuberculosis
4. Diphtheria, whooping cough and typhoid.

Answer: 2. Diphtheria, whooping cough and tetanus

Question 36. Dengue fever is caused by:

1. Bacteria
2. Plasmodium
3. Virus
4. Entamoeba histolytica.

Answer: 3. Virus

Question 37. Vims cause contagious epidemic disease with high fever and a rash all over the body. Its incidence is among children. It’s one attack that gives immunity. Which one is of the following?

1. Mumps
2. Plague
3. Brain fever
4. Measles.

Answer: 4. Measles.

Question 38. Syphilis is a venereal disease. It is caused by:

1. Neisseria
2. Vibrio
3. Corynebacterium
4. Treponema pallidum.

Answer: 4. Treponema pallidum.

MCQs on Human Health and Diseases Question 39. The contagious diseases are:

1. Measles
2. Chickenpox
3. Whooping cough
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 40. Where are the gametocytes of Plasmodium first formed and found?

1. Liver of man
2. Stomach of female mosquito
3. Blood of man
4. RBC of the blood of man.

Answer: 4. RBC of the blood of man.

Question 41. Entamoeba histolytica has:

1. Well developed pseudopodia
2. Contractile vacuole
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. None of the above.

Answer: 4. None of the above

Question 42. Which mosquito actually transmits malaria and acts as an intermediate host of Plasmodium?

1. Male Anopheles
2. Female Anopheles
3. Male Culex
4. Female Culex.

Answer: 2. Female Anopheles

MCQs on Human Health and Diseases Question 43. The credit of working out the complicated life cycle of Plasmodium goes to:

1. Louis Pasteur
2. John Snow
3. Robert Koch
4. Ronald Ross.

Answer: 4. Ronald Ross.

Question 44. The symptoms of Malaria fever appear at their peak in a patient when:

1. Sporozoites enter liver
2. Merozoites enter red blood cells
3. Red blood cells rupture and haemozoin is released
4. Gametocytes are formed.

Answer: 3. Red blood cells rupture and haemozoin is released

Question 45. Which of the following worms is viviparous?

1. Wuchereria bancrofti
2. Ancylostoma dudoenale
3. Ascaris lumbricodes
4. Taenia solium.

Answer: 1. Wuchereria bancrofti

Question 46. The infective stage of plasmodium is:

1. Trophozoite
2. Sporozoite
3. Merozoite
4. Schizont.

Answer: 2. Sporozoite

MCQs on Human Health and Diseases Question 47. A chronic contagious eye disease, caused by a virus is called:

1. Thrombosis
2. Myopia
3. Conjunctivitis
4. Night blindness.

Answer: 3. Conjunctivitis

Question 48. The region of the body where the poliomyelitis virus multiplies is:

1. Nerve cells
2. Muscle cells
3. Intestinal cells
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Nerve cells

Question 49. The disease Tilariasis’ is caused by the worm:

1. Wuchereria bancrofti
2. Ancylostoma duodenale
3. Trichinella spiralis
4. Enterobius vermicularis.

Answer: 1. Wuchereria bancrofti

Question 50. The mode of transmission of the disease Filariasis is:

1. Bite of mosquito
2. Eating unwashed eatables
3. Eating unripe Pork
4. Both (2) and (3).

Answer: 1. Bite of mosquito

Question 51. Which mosquito aids in the transmission of the disease filariasis?

1. Male Anopheles
2. Female Anopheles
3. Culex
4. Both (1) and (2).

Answer: 3. Culex

Biology MCQ Human Health and Disease Question 52. A disease characterised by chronic sleeplessness is:

1. Insomnia
2. Jaundice
3. Sleeping sickness
4. Nervous breakdown.

Answer: 1. Insomnia

Question 53. Trachoma is caused by the infection of:

1. Virus
2. Fungus
3. Nematode
4. Bacterium.

Answer: 1. Virus

Question 54. Chickenpox can be easily identified from measles due to the:

1. High fever
2. Irritation all over the skin
3. Dew drop-like rashes
4. Sneezing and water discharge from the nose.

Answer: 3. Dew drop-like rashes

Question 55. Varicella virus causes:

1. Smallpox
2. Chickenpox
3. Measles
4. Influenza

Answer: 2. Chickenpox

Biology MCQ Human Health and Disease Question 56. Elephantiasis is caused by:

1. Tapeworm
2. Wuchereria
3. Ascaris
4. Culex.

Answer: 2. Wuchereria

Question 57. The incubation period of smallpox is:

1. 2 days
2. 12 days
3. 12 hours
4. 2 to 12 days.

Answer: 2. 12 days

Question 58. The infective period of enteric fever is:

1. 6 hours
2. 6 days
3. 6 weeks
4. 6 minutes.

Answer: 2. 6 days

Question 59. Protection against poliomyelitis and tetanus is done simultaneously by:

1. Sulpha drugs
2. Gamma globulin inoculation
3. Multiple vaccines
4. Pasteur treatment.

Answer: 3. Multiple vaccine

Question 60. After floods, the victims are usually attacked by:

1. Appendicitis
2. Peritonitis
3. Rabies
4. Cholera.

Answer: 4. Cholera.

NEET Biology Inflorescence And Flower Multiple Choice Questions And Answers

Question 1. If a raceme inflorescence is branched, it is called :

1. Umbel
2. Panicle
3. Head
4. Cymose.

Answer: 2. Panicle

Question 2. The arrangement of flowers in a raceme is :

1. Basipetal
2. Acropetal
3. Head
4. Cymose.

Answer: 2. Acropetal

Question 3. A raceme of sessile flowers is termed :

1. Catkin
2. Hypanthodium
3. Spike
4. Umbel.

Answer: 3. Spike

Question 4. Multiparous cyme is the characteristic of :

1. Calotropis
2. Acacia
3. Begonia
4. Bignonia.

Answer: 1. Calotropis

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Morphology of Flowering Plants NEET Questions Question 5. ln Mimosa pudica, the inflorescence is :

1. Raceme
2. Cymose head
3. Spike
4. Umbel.

Answer: 2. Cymose head

Question 6. Involucre forms the cup in the inflorescence of :

1. Fig
2. Salvia
3. Sunflower
4. Poinsettia.

Answer: 4. Poinsettia.

Question 7. Zig-development of the inflorescence axis is an example of:

1. Helicoid cyme
2. Verticillasrer
3. Umbel
4. Scorpioid.

Answer: 1. Helicoid cyme

Question 8. Considering the angiosperm flower :

1. Anemophilous are more advanced than regular flowers
2. Irregular flowers are more primitive than regular flowers
3. A solitary axillary or solitary terminal flower is more primitive than the inflorescence, likewise, capitulum and umbel are the most advanced forms of inflorescence.
4. An inflorescence is more primitive than a solitary axillary or solitary terminal flower and the umbel is more primitive than a spike.

Answer: 3. A solitary axillary or solitary terminal flower is more primitive than the inflorescence, likewise capitulum and umbel are the most advanced forms of inflorescence.

Question 9. In Musaceae, the inflorescence is :

1. Spike
2. Head
3. Capitulum
4. Spadix.

Answer: 4. Spadix.

Morphology of Flowering Plants NEET Questions Question 10. Ovule of Opuntia is coiled and called:

1. Anatropous
2. Circinotropous
3. Hemitropous
4. Amphitropous.

Answer: 2. Circinotropous

Question 11. An inflorescence in which flowers arise from different levels but reach the same level is called :

1. Catkin
2. Umbel
3. Corymb
4. Spadix.

Answer: 3. Corymb

Question 12. Cauliflory is :

1. Formation of flowers in clusters
2. Production of flowers on young branches
3. Production of flowers on old stem from new buds
4. Formation of plants from epiphyllous buds.

Answer: 3. Production of flowers on old stem from new buds

Question 13. Feathery stigma is present in :

1. Wheat
2. Pea
3. Ceasalpinia
4. Darura.

Answer: 1. Wheat

Question 14. The inflorescence in candytuft is :

1. Raceme
2. Corymb
3. Cyme
4. Umbel.

Answer: 2. Corymb

Morphology of Flowering Plants NEET Questions Question 15. Hypanthodium is a characteristic inflorescence of:

1. Ficus
2. Pineapple
3. Mulberry
4. Poinsettia.

Answer: 1. Ficus

Question 16. In onion, the inflorescence is :

1. Umbellate cyme
2. Catkin
3. Raceme
4. Corymb.

Answer: 1. Umbellate cyme

Question 17. In a compound umbel, each umbellet is subtended by :

1. Involucre
2. Ramenta
3. Involucral
4. Bracteole.

Answer: 3. Involucral

Question 18. The inflorescence of Acacia is to be distinguished as a:

1. Spike
2. Spikelet
3. Cymose head
4. Raceme.

Answer: 3. Cymose head

Question 19. The peduncle is :

1. Floral axis
2. Inflorescence axis
3. Thalamus
4. Bract.

Answer: 2. Inflorescence axis

NEET Questions Morphology Of Flowering Plants Question 20. Inflorescence with a female flower in the middle and male flowers all around surrounded by a cup-like structure is known as :

1. Catkin
2. Cyathium
3. Verticillaster
4. Capitulum.

Answer: 2. Cyathium

21. A brightly colored bract-like covering associated with the banana the inflorescence is called :

1. Spathe
2. Scape
3. Spiral
4. Scapigeron.

Answer: 1. Spathe

Question 22. Inflorescence is :

1. Number of flowers present on an axis
2. Arrangement of flowers on an axis
3. Method of the opening of flowers
4. Type of flowers bome on the peduncle.

Answer: 2. Arrangement of flowers on an axis

Question 23. In monocots male gametophyte is :

1. Megaspore
2. Nucellus
3. Microspore
4. Tetrad.

Answer: 3. Microspore

Question 24. Inflorescence of mulberry is :

1. Catkin
2. Raceme
3. Spadix
4. Capitulum.

Answer: 1. Catkin

Morphology of Flowering Plants MCQ With Answers  Question 25. A catkin of unisexual flowers is found in :

1. Mulberry
2. Wheat
3. Onion
4. Fig.

Answer: 1. Mulbeny

Question 26. The inflorescence of wheat is :

1. Spike
2. Spikelet
3. Spike of spikelets
4. Panicle of spikelets.

Answer: 3. Spike of spikelets

Question 27. Flower is a :

1. Modified cone
2. Modified spike
3. Modified branch system
4. Modified reproductive shoot.

Answer: 4. Modified reproductive shoot.

Question 28. Flowers are always present in :

1. Cryptogams
2. Pteridophytes
3. Angiosperms
4. Bryophytes.

Answer: 3. Angiosperms

Question 29. The floral formula represents :

1. Number and arrangement of floral parts
2. Number of flowers in an inflorescence
3. Type of flowers in a family
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Number and arrangement of floral parts

Morphology of Flowering Plants MCQ With Answers  Question 30. Flowers devoid of sepals and petals are called as :

1. Florets
2. Monothecous
3. Achlamydeous
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Achlamydeous

Question 31. Unisexual flowers are also known as :

1. Diclinous
2. Uniparous
3. Unitemic
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Diclinous

Question 32. In the case of the superior ovary, the thalamus is :

1. Superior
2. Epigynous
3. Hypogynous
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Hypogynous

Question 33. The arrangement of sepals and petals in a bud condition is also called :

1. Inflorescence
2. Aestivation
3. Venation
4. Placentation.

Answer: 2. Aestivation

Question 34. Which type of inflorescence occurs in Ficus?

1. Verticillaster
2. Hypanthodium
3. Cymose
4. Racemose.

Answer: 2. Hypanthodium

Morphology of Flowering Plants MCQ With Answers  Question 35. Spike with unisexual flowers or catkin occurs in :

1. Mulberry
2. Grass
3. Wheat
4. Callistemon.

Answer: 1. Mulberry

Question 36. An edible inflorescence is :

1. Raphanus sativus
2. Brassica oleracea
3. Brassica rapa
4. Mustard.

Answer: 2. Brassica oleracea

Question 37. The smallest flowering plant is :

1. Woffia
2. Polyalthia
3. Rffiesia
4. Mimosa.

Answer: 1. Woffia

Question 38. A bi-or tricarpellary syncarpous unilocular ovary having one ovule at the base represents the placentation of the type :

1. Parietal
2. Marginal
3. Free central
4. Basal.

Answer: 4. Basal.

Question 39. Umbel inflorescence occurs in :

1. Coriandrum
2. Colocasia
3. Musa
4. Sunflower.

Answer: 1. Coriandrum

Morphology of Flowering Plants NEET Questions Question 40. A plant is termed monoecious if it bears :

1. Both male and female flowers
2. Either male or female flowers
3. Male, female, and bisexual flowers
4. Male, female, and neutral flowers.

Answer: 1. Both male and female flowers

Question 41. Monadelphous stamens occur in :

1. Lady’s Finger
2. Hibiscus
3. Gossypium
4. All of the above

Answer: 4. All of the above

Question 42. From the life cycle point of view, the most important part of a plant is :

1. Flower
2. Leaf
3. Stem
4. Root.

Answer: 1. Flower

Question 43. The ovule is attached to the placenta by :

1. Petiole
2. Pedicel
3. Funiculus
4. Hilum.

Answer: 3. Funiculus

Morphology of Flowering Plants NEET Questions Question 44. In a flower the placenta is a tissue :

1. In the corolla tube where filaments are attached
2. In other lobes where pollens are attached
3. In the ovary where the ovules are attached
4. On the thalamus where floral whorls are attached.

Answer: 3. In the ovary where the ovules are attached

Question 45. Which of the following has male and female flowers on different plants :

1. Ranunculus
2. Carrica papaya
3. Caesalpinia
4. Cotton.

Answer: 2. Carrica papaya

Question 46. The term tetradynamous is applied when there are :

1. 6-Stamens-2 long and 4 shorl
2. 4 Stamens-2 long and 2 short
3. 6 Stamens-2 short in the outer whorl and 4 long in the inner whorl
4. 6 Stamens-2 short and 4 long

Answer: 3. 6 Stamens-2 short in the outer whorl and 4 long in the inner whorl

Question 47. The vexillum, wings, and keel in pea flowers constitute :

1. Calyx
2. Corolla
3. Androecium
4. Gynaecium.

Answer: 2. Corolla

NEET Questions Morphology Of Flowering Plants Question 48. Staminodes are found in :

1. Malvaceae
2. Liliaceae
3. Caesalpinoideae
4. Mimosoideae.

Answer: 3. Caesalpinoideae

Question 49. A monoecious anther is :

1. A sterile stamen
2. A stamen with two lobes
3. Another with one lobe
4. Fused in all parts.

Answer: 3. Anther with one lobe

Question 50. A stalk-bearing androecium and gynoecium are called :

1. Anthropocene
2. Andropore
3. Sporangiophore
4. Gynandrophore.

Answer: 4. Gynandrophore.

Question 51. What is the technical term used for a sterile stamen?

1. Spur
2. Staminode
3. Stallion
4. Staminate.

Answer: 2. Staminode

NEET Questions Morphology Of Flowering Plants Question 52. Glumes are modified :

1. Leaves
2. Bracts
3. Calyx
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Bracts

Question 53. Anemophilous Plants have :

1. Small petals and stick pollen
2. No petals and light pollen
3. Colored petals and large pollen
4. Colored petals and heavy pollen.

Answer: 2. No petals and light pollen

Question 54. Diadelphous condition is present on :

1. Citrus
2. Bombyx
3. Pisum
4. Brassica.

Answer: 3. Pisum

Question 55. Number of female flowers in a cyathium is :

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. Several.

Answer: 1. 1

Question 56. Cleistogamous flowers are found in :

1. Ficus bengalensis
2. Commelina benghalensis
3. Adina portfolio
4. Anthoc ephalus cadamba.

Answer: 2. Commelina benghalensis

Question 57. The inflorescence in the family Compositae is :

1. Capitulum
2. Spadix
3. Umbel
4. Catkin.

Answer: 1. Capitulum

Question 58. Superficial placentation is seen in :

1. Cosmos
2. Calotropis
3. Nymphaea
4. Brassica.

Answer: 3. Nymphaea

Morphology of Flowering Plants MCQ With Answers Question 59. Spadix inflorescence occurs in :

1. Mulberry
2. Banana
3. Coriander
4. Delonix.

Answer: 2. Banana

Question 60. The ovule is attached to the funiculus at the point called :

1. Pedicel
2. Petiole
3. Anthropocene
4. Hilum.

Answer: 4. Hilum.

Question 61. When stamens are adnate to perianth leaves it is known AS:

1. Episepalous
2. Epipetalous
3. Gynandrous
4. Epiphyllous.

Answer: 4. Epiphyllous.

Question 62. The longest stigma is found in :

1. Zea mays
2. Dioscorea
3. Date palm
4. Bamboo.

Answer: 1. Zea mays

Question 63. A flower is said to be actinomorphic if it can be divided in two :

1. Similar halves by a single vertical section.
2. Exactly equal halves by any vertical section through the center
3. Halves having sepals and petals in equal numbers
4. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’.

Answer: 2. Exactly equal halves by any vertical section through the center

Morphology of Flowering Plants MCQ With Answers Question 64. Perianth is found in a flower in which :

1. Calyx and corolla are not distinguishable
2. Stamens are leaf-like
3. Corolla is leaf-like but calyx is coloured
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Corolla is leaf-like but calyx is coloured

Question 65. Hypanthodium is :

1. Thalamus
2. Fruit
3. Inflorescence
4. Ovary.

Answer: 3. Inflorescence

Question 66. Persistent calyx forms a dry bladder-like enclosing edible berry in :

1. Nicotiana
2. Solanum
3. Physalis
4. Capsicum.

Answer: 3. Physalis

Question 67. The colored structures associated with the flowers of Poinsettia (dogwood) are :

1. Petals
2. Bracts
3. Perianth
4. Carpels.

Answer: 2. Bracts

Question 68. A bisexual flower that never opens in its lifespan is called:

1. Heterogamous
2. Homogamous
3. Cleistogamous
4. Dichogamous.

Answer: 3. Cleistogamous

Question 69. Hypanthodium inflorescence is found in :

1. Coriander
2. Sunflower
3. Cauliflower
4. Fig.

Answer: 4. Fig.

Question 70. Stamens with free anthers but filaments fused into several groups are:

1. Polyadelphous
2. Diadelphous
3. Monadelphous
4. Syngenesious

Answer: 1. Polyadelphous

Question 71. In the flowering plants, angiosperms, an ovule represents:

1. Megasporophyll
2. Megasporangium
3. A megaspore
4. A megaspore mother cell.

Answer: 2. Megasporangium

Morphology of Flowering Plants MCQ With Answers Question 72. An orthotropous ovule is one in which the micropyle and chalazaarc’.

1. Oblique of funiculus
2. At the right angle to the funiculus
3. Parallel to funiculus
4. In the straight line of funiculus.

Answer: 4. In the straight line of funiculus.

Question 73. Pappus is a modification of :

1. Calyx
2. Corolla
3. Stamens
4. Gynoecium.

Answer: 1. Calyx

Question 74. Gynandrophore is found in:

1. Malverstrum
2. Brassica campestris
3. Gynadropsis
4. Allium cepa.

Answer: 3. Gynadropsis

Question 75. Diadelphous slamens occur in :

1. Gramineae
2. Cucurbitaceae
3. Papilionatae
4. Malvaceae.

Answer: 4. Malvaceae.

Question 76. Synandrous refers to the fusion of:

1. Filaments only
2. Anthers only
3. Filaments and anthers
4. Anthers and gynoecium.

Answer: 3. Filaments and anthers

Question 77. In synanthropic condition :

1. Anthers of a flower are fused but the filaments are free
2. Filaments of androecium are used but anthers are free
3. Filaments and anthers are fused
4. Anthers filaments and gynoecium are fused.

Answer: 1. Anthers of a flower are fused but the filaments are free

Question 78. In a flowering plant the largest number of haploid cells occur in :

1. Ovule
2. Microsporangia
3. Root tip
4. Cambium.

Answer: 2. Microsporangia

Question 79. Which of the following is a polycarpic plant?

1. Pea
2. Agave
3. Pear
4. Bamboo.
5. Agave

Answer: 3. Bamboo.

Question 80. Syngenesious condition is found in :

1. Acacia
2. Peruniu
3. Sunflower
4. Hibiscus.

Answer: 3. Sunflower

Enhancement In Food Production MCQ For NEET Biology

Question 1. Maximum contrilnilion to the total milk production of our country comics from:

1. Cows
2. Buffaloes
3. Camels
4. Goat.

Answer: 2. Buffaloes

Question 2. Murrah is a breed of:

1. Cow
2. Sheep
3. Buffaloes
4. Goat

Answer: 3. Buffaloes

Question 3. Lac is a:

1. Plant product
2. Mineral product
3. Synthetic product
4. Animal product.

Answer: 4. Animal product.

Question 4. Aquaculture includes:

1. Freshwater fishing
2. Brackish water fishes
3. Marine fishery
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Enhancement of Food Production MCQs Question 5. Which of the following species is specially domesticated and reared for high economic importance?

1. Apis indica
2. Apis mellifera
3. Apis dorsata
4. Apis florea.

Answer: 1. Apis Indica

Question 6. Cryopreservation is:

1. Preservation of living beings in chemicals
2. Preservation at very low temperature
3. Preservation through exposure to irradiation
4. Preservation at high temperature.

Answer: 2. Preservation at very low temperature

Question 7. Cryopreservation is useful for:

1. Preservation of semen
2. Very young fetuses
3. Living cells and body parts
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 8. Exotic breeds:

1. Require specific environment
2. Hardy and high-yielding
3. Are sturdy
4. Take less food.

Answer: 1. Require specific environment

Enhancement of Food Production MCQs Question 9. Exotic breeds are:

1. Used for cross-breeding
2. Allowed to multiply and replace local breeds
3. Easy to manage
4. Resistant to local pests and pathogens.

Answer: 1. Used for cross-breeding

Question 10. Infertility of local breeds of cattle can be overcome by the use of:

1. Cross-breeding with exotic breeds
2. Good nourishment
3. Stilbesterol
4. Gonadotropin.

Answer: 4. Gonadotropin.

Question 11. Stilbesterol is used for:

1. Induction of lactation
2. Artificial insemination
3. Super-ovulation
4. Cryopreservation.

Answer: 1. Induction of lactation

Question 12. A surrogate mother is:

1. Mother without lactation
2. Future mother with embryo implanted from another
3. Carrying several embryos at one time
4. Artificially inseminated female

Answer: 2. Future mother with embryo implanted from another

Question 13. Artificial insemination is better than natural insemination in cattle because

1. Semen of good bulls can be provided everywhere
2. There is no likelihood of contagious diseases
3. It is economical
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. It is economical

Enhancement of Food Production MCQs Question 14. A milch breed of cow is:

1. Haryana
2. Malvi
3. Kankrcj
4. Hallikcr.

Answer: 1. Haryana

Question 15. A draught breed of cattle is:

1. Red Sindhi
2. Gir
3. Malvi
4. Haryana.

Answer: 3. Malvi

Question 16. An exotic breed of cow is:

1. Ongolc
2. Friesian
3. Hallikcr
4. Deoni.

Answer: 2. Friesian

Question 17. Hybrid breed of cattle is:

1. Sunandini
2. Holstein
3. Brown Swiss
4. Kankrcj.

Answer: 1. Sunandini

Question 18. The gestation period for buffalo is:

1. 9 months
2. 14 months
3. 10 months
4. 21-22 months.

Answer: 3. 10 months

Question 19. Cows and buffaloes remain in heat for:

1. 24-36 hours
2. 36-48 days
3. 7-10 days
4. 15-20 days.

Answer: 1. 24-36 hours

Enhancement of Food Production MCQs Question 20. Bhutia is a breed of:

1. Chicken
2. Goat
3. Sheep
4. Horse.

Answer: 4. Horse

Question 21. Ship of the desert is:

1. Elephant
2. Camel
3. Sheep
4. Goat.

Answer: 2. Camel

Question 22. The animal most useful on difficult terrain

1. Mule
2. Yak
3. Camel
4. Elephant.

Answer: 1. Mule

Question 23. Bactrian camel is characterized by:

1. Two humps and a long neck
2. Two humps and long limbs
3. Two humps and a thick coat
4. Single hump and thick coat.

Answer: 3. Two humps and a thick coat

Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production MCQ Question 24. A beast of burden that needs little care is:

1. Pig
2. Donkey
3. Mule
4. Yak.

Answer: 2. Donkey

Question 25. The largest land animal is:

1. Camel
2. Elephant
3. Rhino
4. Python.

Answer: 2. Elephant

Question 26. Elephants are sought after for:

1. Skin
2. Hair
3. Meat
4. Ivory.

Answer: 4. Ivory.

Question 27. The earliest animal to be domesticated was:

1. Goat
2. Dog
3. Horse
4. Cat.

Answer: 2. Dog

Question 28. The most used domesticated animal by Eskimos is:

1. Cow
2. Sheep
3. Goat
4. Husky.

Answer: 4. Husky.

Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production MCQ Question 29. Huskies are:

1. Yaks
2. Donkeys
3. Thick coated dogs
4. Water buffaloes.

Answer: 3. Thick coated dogs

Question 30. The best source for dietary protein for a vegetarian is:

1. Soya Bean
2. Gram
3. Groundnut
4. Milk.

Answer: 4. Milk.

Question 31. Zebu cattle are:

1. Water Buffalo
2. Indian Buffalo
3. Cow
4. Sheep

Answer: 3. Cow

Question 32. Cow Water Buffalo is

1. European breed of buffalo that prefers living in water for most of the day
2. Buffalo-like animals living in rivers
3. Llama
4. Buffalo.

Answer: 4. Buffalo.

Question 33. Which is the real product of Honey bee:

1. Honey
2. Pollen
3. Beeswax
4. Propolis.

Answer: 3. Beewax

Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production MCQ Question 34. The hatching net is called:

1. Nursery kind
2. Production pond
3. Stocking pond
4. Hapa.

Answer: 4. Hapa.

Question 35. Spawning in fishes can be induced by:

1. TSH
2. Thyroxine
3. FSH and LH
4. STH.

Answer: 3. FSH and LH

Question 36. The percentage of proteins in the fish meal is:

1. 15-20%
2. 25-50%
3. 40-50%
4. 55-70%.

Answer: 4. 55-70%.

Question 37. The rearing and breeding of fish in ponds, tanks, and artificial reservoirs are called

1. Aquaculture
2. Fishing
3. Pisciculture
4. Apiculture.

Answer: 3. Pisciculture

Question 38. Composite fish farming is called

1. Polyculture
2. Pisciculture
3. Monoculture
4. None of these.

Answer: 1. Polyculture

Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production MCQ Question 39. Pisciculture has a bright future in India due to:

1. Considerable demand
2. Good response of native fishes to culture
3. Abundance of cultivable waters
4. All of these.

Answer: 4. All of these.

Question 40. Silk, honey, and lac are:

1. Secretory substances of insects
2. Secretory substances of plants
3. Artificial chemicals
4. All of the above.

Answer: 3. Artificial chemicals

Question 41. Match the terms in Column A with suitable terms in Column B.

1. (1—D) (2—F), (3—G), (4—C), (5—A), (6—B), (7—E)
2. (1—D). (2—F), (3—A), (4—C), (5—B), (6—E), (7—C)
3. (1—D), (2-F), (3—A), (4—G), (5—C), (6—B), (7—E)
4. (1—D), (2—F), (3—G), (4—C), (5—B), (6—A), (7—E)

Answer: 3. (1—D), (2-F), (3—A), (4—G), (5—C), (6—B), (7—E)

MCQs on Enhancement of Food Production Question 42. The draught breeds of cattle include:

1. Malvi, Nageri and Hallikar
2. Malvi, Nageri and Ongole
3. Nageri, Ongole and Haryana
4. All the above.

Answer: 1. Malvi, Nageri and Hallikar

Question 43. The method maximum used in cattle breeding is:

1. Random breeding
2. Artificial insemination
3. Controlled breeding
4. Superovulation and embryo transplant.

Answer: 2. Artificial insemination

Question 44. Rinderpest is the disease of:

1. Cattle
2. Poultry
3. Fish
4. Camel.

Answer: 1. Cattle

Question 45. Which of the following countries has the maximum average annual milk yield per cow?

1. United Kingdom
2. U.S.A.
3. Denmark
4. India.

Answer: 2. U.S.A.

Question 46. Which of the following countries has a minimum average annual milk yield per cow?

1. India
2. Pakistan
3. Netherlands
4. England.

Answer: 1. India

Question 47. Which of the following diseases in poultry is caused by nutritional deficiency?

1. Perosis
2. Fowl pox
3. Coryza
4. Aspergillosus.

Answer: 1. Perosis

MCQs on Enhancement of Food Production Question 48. Ranikhet or New Castle Disease ‘of poultry is caused by:

1. Bacteria
2. Virus
3. Fungus
4. None of these.

Answer: 2. Virus

Question 49. The animal close to human beings which is cloned by an American scientist Dr. Don Wolf 1996 is:

1. Gorilla
2. Chimpanzee
3. Gibbon
4. Monkey.

Answer: 4. Monkey.

Question 50. Ambergris is the secretion from the intestine used in the manufacture of perfumes and other cosmetics:

1. Tachyglossus- Echidna
2. Physeter-Sperm whale
3. Musk-Deer
4. Kangaroo-Macropus.

Answer: 2. Physeter-Sperm whale

Question 51. Parthenogenesis is commonly round in:

1. Ants, boos, and wasps
2. Ascaris, oarlliwonn, and liver fluke
3. Frogs, fishes, and foxes
4. Starfish, Jellyfish, and cuttlefish.

Answer: 1. Ascaris, oarlliwonn, and liver fluke

Question 52. The length of silk fiber which surrounds a cocoon is about:

1. 800 to 1200 yards
2. 8000 to 12000 yards
3. 800 to 1200 feet
4. 8000 to 12000 meters.

Answer: 1. 800 to 1200 yards

MCQs on Enhancement of Food Production Question 53. The technique of silk production from the cocoons of silkworms was first known to:

1. India
2. China
3. United Kingdom
4. U.S.A.

Answer: 2. China

Question 54. Maximum cocoon and raw silk production is in:

1. China
2. Japan
3. U.S.S.R.
4. Brazil.

Answer: 1. China

Question 55. Central Silk Research and Training Institute (CSRTI) is located at:

1. Assam
2. Bahrampur
3. Tarai region
4. Shanthivials (Mysore).

Answer: 4. Shanthivials (Mysore).

Question 56. Most commercial silkworm strains are:

1. Uni-voltine
2. Vi-colline
3. Multi-volcanic
4. All of these.

Answer: 2. Vi-colline

MCQs on Enhancement of Food Production Question 57. The larval form of the silk moth is called:

1. Naiad
2. Maggot
3. Caterpillar
4. Wriggler.

Answer: 3. Caterpillar

Question 58. Eri silk is produced by:

1. Bombyx mori
2. Atticus ricin
3. Anthenea roylre
4. Anthenea paphia.

Answer: 2. Attcicus ricin

Question 59. Passive, non-locomotory, and non-feeding stages in the life history of the Silk moth are:

1. Caterpillar
2. Imago
3. Nymph
4. Pupa.

Answer: 4. Pupa.

Question 60. Nosemia sp. a protozoan produces diseases in:

1. Silk moth
2. Honey bee
3. Both silk moth and honey bee
4. Lac insect.

Answer: 3. Both silk moth and honey bee

NEET Biology Strategies for Enhancement in Food  Question 61. Which type of silk is obtained from Bombyx mori?

1. Reeled silk
2. Muga silk
3. Arandi silk
4. Tasar silk.

Answer: 1. Reeled silk

Question 62. Silk glands of silkworms are modified:

1. Crop glands
2. Salivary glands
3. Gastric glands
4. Intestinal glands

Answer: 2. Salivary glands

Question 63. Hinny Finny is a crossbreed between

1. Male donkey and female horse
2. Female donkey and male horse
3. Male mule and female horse
4. None of these.

Answer: 2. Male mule and female horse

Question 64. Match the terms of Column A with suitable terms in column B.

1. (1-C), (2-B), (3-E), (4-D), (5-A)
2. (1—C), (2—A), (3—E), (4—D), (5-B)
3. (1—C), (2—A), (3—E), (4—B), (5—D)
4. (1—E), (2—E), (3—B), (4—A), (5—D).

Answer: 3. (1—C), (2—A), (3—E), (4—B), (5—D)

NEET Biology Strategies for Enhancement in Food  Question 65. Poultry includes:

1. Fowl, duck, tortoise, and turkey
2. Fowl, duck, pigeon, and tortoise
3. Duck, fowl, tortoise and turtle
4. Fowl, duck, turkey, and pigeon.

Answer: 4. Fowl, duck, turkey, and pigeon.

Question 66. The percentage of proteins in the egg white is:

1. 12%
2. 35%
3. 64%
4. 70%.

Answer: 3. 64%

Question 67. The main protein type found in egg white is:

1. Ovalbumin
2. Canalbumin
3. Phosvitin
4. Lipovitellin.

Answer: 1. Ovalbumin

Question 68. Central Food Technological Research Institute is located at:

1. Izatnagar
2. Lucknow.
3. Dehradun
4. Mysore.

Answer: 4. Mysore

Question 69. Which one of the following is our indigenous breed of chicken?

1. Plymouth Rock
2. White Leghorn
3. Aseel
4. Rhode Island Red.

Answer: 3. Aseel

NEET Biology Strategies for Enhancement in Food  Question 70. A hybrid variety produced, having more meat-producing capacity, in chickens is:

1. Broilers
2. Plymouth rock
3. White Romish
4. New Hemisphere.

Answer: 1. Broilers

Strategies For Enhancement In Food Production Animal Sources Questions From Competitive Examinations

Question 1. Which of the following lias have been recently used for increasing the productivity of super milk cows:

1. Artificial insemination by a pedigree bull only
2. Superovulation of a high-production cow only
3. Embryo transplantation only
4. A combination of superovulation, artificial insemination, and embryo transplantation into a carrier cow (surrogate mother).

Answer: 4. A combination of superovulation, artificial insemination, and embryo transplantation into a carrier cow (surrogate mother).

Question 2. The name of the sheep that was cloned for the first time is:

1. Dolly
2. Polly
3. Molly
4. Holly.

Answer: 3. Molly

Question 3. Inland fisheries is referred to as:

1. Culturing fish in freshwater
2. Trapping and capturing fish from seacoast
3. Deep sea fishing
4. Extraction of oil from fish.

Answer: 1. Culturing fish in freshwater

Question 4. On the basis of utility. Nagapuri buffaloes are categorized as:

1. Grazers
2. Dual purpose
3. Draught cattle
4. Milkers.

Answer: 4. Milkers.

Question 5. Natural silk contains:

1. Potassium
2. Phosphorus
3. Nitrogen
4. Magnesium.

Answer: 3. Nitrogen

Enhancement of Food Production MCQs Question 6. In India the best aquarium is located at:

1. Z.S.I. Kolkata
2. Tarapur, Mumbai
3. Chennai
4. Vishakhapatnam.

Answer: 2. Chennai

Question 7. Pearl oyster belongs to class:

1. Gastropoda
2. Pelecypoda
3. Scaphopoda
4. Amphineura.

Answer: 2. Pelecypoda

Question 8. Lac is produced as:

1. Feces of lac body
2. Secretion from body
3. Excretion from body
4. Excess from oozing out of the body.

Answer: 2. Secretion from body

Question 9. Which one is the best silk?

1. Eri silk
2. Mulberry silk
3. Tasar silk
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Mulberry silk

Question 10. Lac is produced from

1. Only males
2. Only females
3. More females than males
4. More males than females.

Answer: 2. Only females

Enhancement of Food Production MCQs Question 11. The silkworm spins its cocoon:

1. From inside to outside
2. Outside to inside
3. Random
4. Inside.

Answer: 2. Outside to inside

Question 12. The three major carps. -Cattle, Labeo, and Cirhinus grown in the same pond are due to:

1. There is no competition among them for food material
2. Their feeding habits are different
3. They live in different habitats
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. There is no competition among them for the food material

Question 13. The Indian tiger prawn is:

1. Pennons implicit
2. Penacus monodon
3. Macrobradmm
4. Palaemon.

Answer: 2. Penacus monodon

Question 14. Shagreen is obtained from:

1. Dried skin of shark
2. Skin of codfish
3. Air bladder of fishes
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Dried skin of shark

Question 15. Ishingless is obtained from:

1. Liver of frog
2. Scales of fishes
3. Air bladder of fishes
4. The skin of a shark.

Answer: 3. Air bladder of fishes

Question 16. Lac is:

1. Excretion of lac insect
2. Dead body of lac insect
3. Body secretion of lac insect
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Body secretion of lac insect

Question 17. It is now possible to breed plants and animals with desired characteristics through:

1. Ikebana technique
2. Tissue culture
3. Genetic Engineering
4. Chromosome Engineering.

Answer: 3. Genetic Engineering

Question 18. The large distribution of clean quality milk all the world over can be said to be due to the great work of:

1. Robert Koch
2. Leeuwenhoek
3. Louis Pasteur
4. Blackman.

Answer: 3. Louis Pasteur

Enhancement of Food Production MCQs Question 19. In lac insect, lac is produced from:

1. Abdominal glands
2. Salivary glands
3. Skin glands of the abdomen
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Skin glands of the abdomen

Question 20. The honey bees exhibit a type of dance to communicate the location of food. This is known as:

1. Tap dance
2. Round dance and waggling dance
3. Breakdance
4. Waggle dance.

Answer: 4. Waggle dance.

Question 21. Arhenotoky is a type of:

1. Parthenogenesis found in honey bees, wasps and ants
2. Parthenogenesis found in every insect
3. Parthenogenesis found in mosquitoes
4. Parthenogenesis is found in butterflies.

Answer: 1. Parthenogenesis found in honey bees, wasps and ants

MCQs on Enhancement of Food Production Question 22. Which among the following is the real product of honey bees?

1. Pollen
2. Bee wax
3. Honey
4. Propolis.

Answer: 4. Propolis

Question 23. Which one of the following is the source of silk?

1. Eggs
2. Caterpillar
3. Cocoon
4. Pupa.

Answer: 3. Cocoon

Question 24. Which one of the following mollusca groups is primarily used in the pearl formation?

1. Monoplacophorans
2. Cephalopods
3. Gastropods
4. Pelecypods.

Answer: 4. Pelecypods.

Question 25. The main composition of lac is:

1. Glue, pigment, and sugar
2. Wax, pigment, and glue
3. Resin, pigment, wax, and glue
4. Resin, sugar, and wax.

Answer: 3. Resin, pigment, wax, and glue

MCQs on Enhancement of Food Production Question 26. The main product of poultry is:

1. Eggs
2. Chicken
3. Meat
4. Eggs and meat.

Answer: 1. Eggs

Question 27. The insect that is not found in the wild state is:

1. Lac insect
2. Cochineal insect
3. Honey bee
4. Silk moth.

Answer: 2. Cochineal insect

Question 28. The scientific name of the lac insect is:

1. Tachardia lacca
2. Bombyx mori
3. Cimex lectularis
4. Pediculus pithiris.

Answer: 1. Tachardia lacca

Question 29. The milch breeds of cattle are?

1. Mallikar, Nageri and Malvi
2. Gir, Sahiwal and Deoni
3. Kankrej, Haryanna and Ongole
4. Tharparkar and Kangayam.

Answer: 2. Gir, Sahiwal and Deoni

Question 30. Common wild rock honey bees are:

1. Apis mellifera
2. Apis indica
3. Apis dorscita
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Apis dorscita

Question 31. The tassar silk moth belongs to the family:

1. Bombycidae
2. Stumidae
3. Hymenoptera
4. Diptera.

Answer: 2. Stumidae

Question 32. The Indian carp is:

1. Scoliodon
2. Labeo
3. Torpedo
4. Pristis.

Answer: 2. Labeo

Question 33. Gambusia is a:

1. Predator on mosquito larvae
2. Pest of fishes
3. Parasite on crab
4. Pathogenic protozoan.

Answer: 1. Predator on mosquito larvae

NEET Biology Strategies for Enhancement in Food  Question 34. Silk glands are modified:

1. Salivary glands
2. Anal glands
3. Colleterial glands
4. Mushroom glands.

Answer: 1. Salivary glands

Question 35. The largest silk-producing state of India is:

1. Karnataka
2. Bihar
3. Assam
4. West Bengal.

Answer: 1. Karnataka

Question 36. Pearl-producing Indian species are:

1. Pinctada indica
2. Ostrea indica
3. Pinctada vulgaris
4. Ostrea vulgaris.

Answer: 3. Pinctada vulgaris

Question 37. The world’s highly prized wool-yielding ‘Pashmina breed’ is:

1. Sheep
2. Goat
3. Goat-sheep cross
4. Kashmir sheep-afghan sheep cross.

Answer: 2. Goat

Question 38. Match the breeds of cattle given under Column A with the place of their origin listed under Column B. Choose the answer that gives the correct combination of alphabets of the two columns.

1. 1 = B, 2 = D, 3 = E. 4 = A
2. 1 = D, 2 = C, 3 = E, 4 = A
3. 1 = B, 2 = D, 3 = A, 4 = E
4. 1 = D, 2 = E, 3 = A, 4 = C.

Answer: 2. 1 = D, 2 = C, 3 = E, 4 = A

Question 39. Which of the following is the sequence of cultivation of fish?

1. Fry—fingerlings—spawn—Adult
2. Spawn—fry—fingerlings—adult
3. Adult—spawn—fingerlings—fry
4. Fingerlings—fry—spawn—adult.

Answer: 3. Adult—spawn—fingerlings—fry

NEET Biology Strategies for Enhancement in Food  Question 40. The amount of protein per 100 g (without water, approximately 2 eggs) is:

1. 11.9
2. 20.1
3. 16
4. 45

Answer: 2. 20.1

Question 41. MOET is a method of:

1. Fish cultivation
2. Cloning in sheep
3. Hybridization in cattle
4. Birth control in humans

Answer: 3. Hybridization in cattle

Question 42. When a cross is made between two species of the same genus, then the cross is known as

1. Intraspecific hybridization
2. Interspecific hybridization
3. Intergeneric hybridization
4. Intervarietal hybridization.

Answer: 2. Interspecific hybridization

Question 43. Which one of the following types of silk is being produced extensively in South India?

1. Eri
2. Mulberry
3. Tussar
4. Muga.

Answer: 3. Tussar

Question 44. Mating between two individuals differing in genotype produces a genetic variation called

1. Domestication
2. Incubation
3. Hybridization
4. Mutation.

Answer: 3. Hybridization

Question 45. Which of the following organisms is useful for us?

1. Musca
2. Bombyx
3. Pheretima
4. Periplaneta.

Answer: 2. Bombyx

Question 46. Which of the statements about breeding is wrong?

1. By inbreeding purelines cannot be evolved.
2. Continued inbreeding, especially close inbreeding reduces fertility and productivity.
3. Cross-breeding allows the desirable qualities of two different breeds to be combined.
4. Inbreeding exposes harmful recessive genes that are eliminated by selection.
5. A single outcross often helps to overcome inbreeding depression.

Answer: 2. Continued inbreeding, especially close inbreeding reduces fertility and productivity.

Question 47. Compared to a bull a bullock is docile because of:

1. Higher levels of cortisone
2. Lower levels of blood testosterone
3. Lower levels of adrenalin/noradrenalin in its blood
4. Higher levels of thyroxine.

Answer: 2. Lower levels of blood testosterone

NEET Biology Gene Expression Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Co-repressor is a:

1. Protein
2. Metabolite
3. Hormone
4. Enzyme.

Answer: 2. Metabolite

Question 2. Reverse transcription was discovered by :

1. Watson and Crick
2. Porter
3. Wilkins
4. Temin.

Answer: 4. Temin.

Question 3. In the operon concept, the regulator gene regulates chemical reactions in the cell by :

1. Inhibiting transcription of mRNA
2. Inactivating enzymes in the reaction
3. Inhibiting the substrate in the reactions
4. Inhibiting the migration of tn-RNA in cytoplasm.

Answer: 1. Inhibiting transcription of mRNA

Question 4. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

1. Genetic code is ambiguous.
2. Genetic code is degenerate.
3. Genetic code is universal.
4. Genetic code is non-overlapping.

Answer: 2. Genetic code is degenerate.

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

MCQs on Regulation Of Gene Expression In Eukaryotes Question 5. In E. coli according to the operon concept, an operator gene combines with:

1. Inducer gene to switch on
2. Regulator protein to “switch on” structural gene transcription
3. Regulator gene to “switch off’ structural gene transcription
4. Regulator protein to switch off structural gene transcription.

Answer: 3. Regulator gene to “switch off’ structural gene transcription

Question 6. Exons and introns arc parts of :

1. DNA
2. RNA
3. mRNA
4. Circular DNA.

Answer: 1. DNA

Question 7. Eukaryotes have :

1. One promoter in gene structure
2. Two promoters in gene structure
3. No promoter gene
4. Many promoters in gene structure.

Answer: 3. No promoter gene

Question 8. In Rous sarcoma virus:

1. DNA → RNA→ Protein
2. RNA → DNA → Protein
3. RNA →DNA → RNA→ Protein
4. DNA → RNA → RNA → Proleins.

Answer: 4. DNA → RNA → RNA → Proleins

Question 9. Presence of F factor in bacteria :

1. Indicates it as male
2. Female
3. Fast factor
4. Free factor

Answer: 1. Indicates it as male

Question 10. The viral genes are expressed by :

1. Lytic processes
2. Lysogenic
3. Both 1 and 2
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Both 1 and 2

MCQs on Regulation Of Gene Expression In Eukaryotes Question 11. Which of the following is not a carcinogen?

1. X-rays
2. Virus
3. HNO₂
4. Starch.

Answer: 4. Starch

Question 12. According to the operon concept, the regulator gene forms.

1. An inducer
2. A repressor
3. A small peptide
4. A general inhibitor,

Answer: 2. A repressor

Question 13. Which virus has a double-stranded RNA?

1. Rheovirus
2. Φ×174
3. T₂ phage
4. TMV

Answer: 1. Rheovirus

Question 14. In the lysogenic cycle, the virus is:

1. Virulent
2. Temperate
3. Harmless to the host cell
4. Reproduces slowly.

Answer: 2. Temperate

Question 15. In bacteria, the exchange of genetic material between two different cells is brought by the process of:

1. Transformation
2. Transduction
3. Conjugation
4. All of the above

Answer: 4. All of the above

Question 16. Phage host represents :

1. Virion protein coat
2. Virion nucleic acid
3. Virion protein and nucleic acid
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Virion protein coat

MCQs on Regulation Of Gene Expression In Eukaryotes Question 17. The regulated unit of genetic material is called :

1. Operator gene
2. Regulator
3. Operon
4. Promoter gene.

Answer: 3. Operon

Question 18. A retrovirus is:

1. TMV
2. HIV
3. Papillomavirus
4. Both 2 and 3

Answer: 2. HIV

Question 19. Bacteriophages are :

1. Modified bacteria
2. Primitive bacteria
3. Viruses infecting bacteria
4. Viruses infecting cyanobacteria.

Answer: 3. Viruses infecting bacteria

Question 20. Provirus differs from prophage about:

1. Integration of RNA with host DNA
2. Integration of genetic DNA with host DNA
3. Integration of copy DNA of retrovirus with host DNA
4. None of above

Answer: 3. Integration of copy DNA of retrovirus with host DNA

Question 21. Which virus has a rod-shaped structure 7

1. Rlieo viruses
2. Φ×174
3. T phage
4. TMV.

Answer: 4. TMV

Question 22. Tryptophan Operon is:

1. Repressible system
2. Inducible
3. Controlled by regulator gene
4. Made of 3 structural genes.

Answer: 1. Repressible system

MCQs on Regulation Of Gene Expression In Eukaryotes Question 23. The presence of F-Factor in bacteria helps as :

1. Fertility factor
2. Female
3. Fast factor
4. Free factor.

Answer: 1. Fertility factor

Question 24. Exons and Introns are parts of;

1. DNA
2. mRNA
3. RNA
4. None of the above

Answer: 1. DNA

Gene Regulation Recommended MCQs  Question 25. Eukaryotes have:

1. One glue per cell
2. Ten genes per cell
3. Hundred genes per cell
4. Thousand genes per cell.

Answer: 4. Thousand genes per cell.

Question 26. Oncogenic viruses are harmful in :

1. Provirus stage
2. Lytic phase
3. Prophage stage
4. Hybrid stage,

Answer: 1. Provirus stage

Question 27. Which of the following viruses have been extensively used to fuse cells in tissue culture :

1. Sendai virus
2. T₂ viruses
3. Phage lambda
4. TMV,

Answer: 1. Sendai virus

Question 28. Jumping genes in maize were discovered by :

1. H.G. Khorana
2. Beadle
3. Barbara McClintock
4. Jacob.

Answer: 3. Barbara McClintock

Gene Regulation Recommended MCQs  Question 29. Thalassemia is an example of:

1. Mutation
2. Silent mutation
3. Frameshift mutation
4. Genetic disorders.

Answer: 3. Frameshift mutation

Question 30. Who found the occurrence of sexuality in bacteria ‘!

1. Lederberg and Tatum
2. Beadle and Tatum
3. Sutton and Boveri
4. Briggs and Kings.

Answer: 1. Lederberg and Tatum

Question 31. Operon consists of the following :

1. Regulator and repressor
2. Regulator, structural, and operator
3. Regulator, structural, operator, and promoter
4. Regulator and operator.

Answer: 3. Regulator, structural, operator, and promoter

Question 32. Restriction enzymes are used in genetic engineering because :

1. They can cut DNA at specific base sequences.
2. They are proteolytic enzymes which can degrade harmful proteins.
3. They are nucleases that cut DNA at various sites
4. They can join different DNA fragments.

Answer: 1. They can cut DNA at specific base sequence

Question 33. Wild-type E.cali cells are growing in a normal medium with glucose. They are transferred to a medium containing only lactose as the sugar. Which one of the following changes takes place?

1. The lac operon is repressed
2. All operons are induced
3. E.coli cells stop dividing
4. The lac operon is induced.

Answer: 4. The lac operon is induced

Gene Regulation Recommended MCQs  Question 34. An environmental agent that triggers transcription from an operon is a :

1. Derepressor
2. Inducer.
3. Regulator
4. Controlling element.

Answer: 2. Inducer

Question 35. The lac operon is an example of:

1. Arabinose operon
2. Inducible operon
3. Repressive operon
4. Overlapping genes,

Answer: 2. Inducible operon

Question 36. In split genes, the coding sequences are called :

1. Cistrons
2. Operons
3. Exons
4. Introns.

Answer: 3. Exons

Question 37. In the case of cyanobacteria :

1. DNA → RNA → Protein
2. RNA → DNA → Protein
3. RNA → DNA → RNA → Protcin
4. DNA → RNAH → RNA → Proteins.

Answer: 1. DNA → RNA → Protein

Question 38. A retrovirus is :

1. TMV
2. HIV
3. Rheo virus
4. Both 2 and 3

Answer: 4. Both 2 and 3

Question 39. The sequence of structural genes of Lac operon is :

1. Lac Z, Lac Y, Lac A
2. Lac Y, Lac Z, Lac A
3. Lac A, Lac Z, Lac Y
4. Lac A, Lac Y, Lac Z.

Answer: 1. Lac Z, Lac Y, Lac A

Gene Regulation Recommended MCQs  Question 40. Which virus has a single-stranded DNA :

1. Rhevirus
2. Φ×174 virus
3. T2 phage
4. TMV.

Answer: 2. Φ×174 virus

Question 41. In the lytic cycle, the virus is :

1. Virulent
2. Temperate
3. Harmless to the host cell
4. Reproduces slowly.

Answer: 1. Virulent

Question 42. Resistance to antibiotics is a genetic trait that spreads naturally from one type of bacterium to :

1. Another bacterium of the same strain
2. Enkaryolic cells of all types
3. Almost any other type of bacterium
4. Any other cell containing copy DNA.

Answer: 3. Almost any other type of bacterium

Gene Regulation in Eukaryotes NEET Questions Question 43. Reverse transcriptase is :

1. RNA-dependent DNA polymerase
2. RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
3. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
4. DNA-dependent DNA polymerase

Answer: 2. RNA-dependent RNA polymerase

Question 44. Transduction in bacteria is mediated by :

1. Cosmids
2. Phage vectors
3. Plasmid vectors
4. F-factors.

Answer: 2. Phage vectors

Question 45. The nuclease enzyme which begins its attack from a free end of a polynucleotide :

1. Endonuclease
2. Kinase
3. Exonuclease
4. Polymerase.

Answer: 3. Exonuclease

Question 46. Normally, the DNA molecule has A-T, and G-C pairing. However, these bases can exist in alternative, valency consistent status, owing to rearrangement called :

1. Tautomerization
2. Base analogue
3. Frameshift mutation
4. Point mutation

Answer: 3. Frameshift mutation

Question 47. The fertility factor or F⁺ factor that plays a key role in conjugation is a:

1. Retrovirus
2. Plasmid
3. Viroid
4. Lysogenic phage

Answer: 2. Plasmid

Question 48. When DNA is exchanged between two bacteria via cytoplasmic bridges, the process is called :

1. Transformation
2. General transduction
3. Restricted transduction
4. Conjugation.

Answer: 4. Conjugation

Gene Regulation in Eukaryotes NEET Questions Question 49. When a bacteriophage, in its lytic phage, carries some of the bacterium’s partially digested chromosome with it to another host cell, the process is called :

1. Transformation
2. General transduction
3. Restricted transduction
4. Conjugation

Answer: 2. General transduction

Question 50. In general, bacterial genes are regulated at the time of:

1. Transcription
2. Translation
3. Post translation
4. Post transcription.

Answer: 1. Transcription

Question 51. The activity of a repressor depends on whether :

1. The repressor is positioned next to the operon
2. The repressor is positioned next to the promoter
3. A key substance in the metabolic pathway is present
4. There is enough RNA polymerase present.

Answer: 2. The repressor is positioned next to the promoter

Question 52. In gene therapy, DNA is inserted in a cell to compensate for :

1. The absence of plasmid
2. Mutant alleles
3. Holes in the DNA made by viruses
4. The lack of copy DNA.

Answer: 2. Mutant alleles

Question 53. In the lac operon structural gene ‘Z’ is responsible for the synthesis of the enzyme :

1. β-galactosidase
2. Galactosidase permease
3. Galactosidase transacetylase.

Answer: 1. β-galactosidase

Gene Regulation in Eukaryotes NEET Questions Question 54. In the genetic code dictionary, how many codons are used to code for all the 20 amino acids?

1. 64
2. 61
3. 60
4. 20.

Answer: 2. 61

Question 55. Replication of DNA occurs during the S-phase of interphase Okazaki fragments are joined in a correct sequence by:

1. DNA polymerase I
2. DNA ligase
3. Primase and helicase
4. RNA polymerase.

Answer: 2. DNA ligase

Question 56. Which of the following makes use of RNA as a template to synthesize DNA?

1. DNA polymerase
2. RNA polymerase
3. Reverse transcriptase
4. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase.

Answer: 3. Reverse transcriptase

Question 57. Which one of the following triplet codes is correctly matched with its specificity for an amino acid in protein synthesis or as a start or stop signal?

1. UUU – Stop
2. UGU Lencino
3. UAC – Tyrosine
4. UCG – Start.

Answer: 2. UGU Lencino

Question 58. How many genes are present on chromosomes Y and A respectively :

1. 2869,231
2. 232, 2968
3. 231,2968
4. 2968,231.

Answer: 3. 231,2968

Gene Regulation in Eukaryotes NEET Questions Question 59. UTR is present on :

1. MRNA at one end
2. 3′ end of tRNA
3. 5′ and 3′ end of mRNP
4. 3′ end 5′ end of tRNA.

Answer: 3. 5′ and 3′ end of mRNP

Regulation of Gene Expression in Eukaryotes MCQ Question 60. Which of the following is a ‘dual function’?

1. AUG
2. UUU
3. GUA
4. CCC.

Answer: 1. AUG

Question 61. The base sequence for a nucleic acid segment is given as GAG AGG GGA CCA. From this it can be concluded that it is a segment of:

1. DNA strand
2. mRNA
3. t-RNA strand
4. Data is not sufficient.

Answer: 4. Data not sufficient

Question 62. Which of the following does not follow the central dogma of molecular biology?

1. mUcor
2. Chlamydomonas
3. HIV
4. Mycobacterium.

Answer: 3. HIV

Question 63. The largest gene in humans is

1. Oncogene
2. Tumor suppress gene
3. Dystrophin
4. Insulin.

Answer: 3. Dystrophin

Question 64. In a DNA molecule, adenine is 15% what would be % the age of Guanine?

1. 15%
2. 30%
3. 35%
4. 85%.

Answer: 3. 35%

Regulation of Gene Expression in Eukaryotes MCQ Question 65. The length of DNA with 23 base pairs is :

1. 78.4 A°
2. 78.2
3. 78 A°
4. 74.8A°

Answer: 2. 78.2

Question 66. Which of the following have ds RNA?

1. TMV
2. Ribozyme
3. SnRNA
4. Rheovirus.

Answer: 4. Rheovirus

Question 67. Regulation of lac operon by repressor is referred to as :

1. +ve regulation
2. – ve regular
3. Repressible
4. Anabolic.

Answer: 2. – ve regular

Question 68. The accessibility of the promoter region of prokaryotic DNA is many cases regulated by the interaction of proteins with a sequence termed operator. The operator region is adjacent to :

1. Structural gene
2. Regulator gene
3. Promoter element
4. Gene ‘a’.

Answer: 3. Promoter element

Question 69. At the time of organogenesis, genes regulate the process at different levels and a different times due to the:

1. Promoter
2. Regulator
3. Intron
4. Exon.

Answer: 4. Exon

Question 70. In Negative operon :

1. Co-repressor binds with repressor
2. Co-repressor does not bind with the repressor
3. Corepressor binds with inducer.
4. cAMP hurts lac operon

Answer: 1. Co-repressor binds with repressor

Regulation of Gene Expression in Eukaryotes MCQ Question 71. Restriction enzymes:

1. Are endonucleases that cleave DNA at specific sites
2. Make DNA complementary to an existing DNA or RNA
3. Cut or join DNA fragments
4. Are required in vectorless direct gene transfer.

Answer: 1. Are endonucleases which cleave DNA at specific sites

Question 72. The process of introduction of foreign genes for improving genotype is called :

1. Tissue culture
2. Vernalization
3. Genetic engineering
4. Eugenics.

Answer: 4. Eugenics

Question 73. The diagram shows an important concept in the genetic implication of DNA. Fill in the blanks A to C.

1. A – translation B – transcription C – Erevin Chargaff
2. A – transcription B – translation C – Francis Crick
3. A – translation B – extension C – Rosalind Franklin
4. A – transcription B – replication C – James Watson

Answer: 2. A – transcription B – translation C – Francis Crick

Question 74. Which one of the following conditions though harmful in itself, is also a potential saviour from all mosquito-borne infectious diseases?

1. Pernicious anemia
2. Leukaemia
3. Thalassaemia
4. Sickle cell anemia.

Answer: 4. Sickle cell anemia

Question 75. In E. coli, during lactose metabolism repressor binds to :

1. Regulator gene
2. Promoter gene
3. Operator gene
4. Structural gene.

Answer: 2. Promoter gene

MCQs on Regulation Of Gene Expression In Eukaryotes Question 76. The genes are responsible for the growth and differentiation of living organisms through the regulation of :

1. Translation
2. Transcription
3. Transduction
4. Both 1 and 2

Answer: 3. Transduction

Question 77. Which of the following is specifically used in genetic engineering?

1. Ligase
2. Gyrase
3. Restriction endonuclease
4. DNA polymerase.

Answer: 3. Restriction endonuclease

Question 78. Restriction endonucleases :

1. Are present in mammalian cells for degradation of DNA when the cell dies
2. Are used in genetic engineering for ligating two DNA molecules
3. Are used for in vitro DNA synthesis
4. Are synthesized by bacteria as part of their defense

Answer: 4. Are synthesized by bacteria as part of their defense

Question 79. Cancer cells are more easily damaged by radiation than normal cells because they are :

1. Starved of mutation
2. Undergoing rapid division
3. Different in structure
4. Non-dividing.

Answer: 2. Undergoing rapid division

Question 80. DNA fingerprinting refers to :

1. Molecular analysis of profiles of DNA samples
2. Analysis of DNA sample using imprinting device
3. Techniques used for molecular analysis of different specimens of DNA
4. Techniques used for identification of fingerprints of

Answer: 4. Techniques used for the identification of fingerprints of

Question 81. What kind of evidence suggested that man is more closely related to chimpanzees than to other hominoid apes?

1. Evidence from DNA from sex chromosomes only
2. Comparison of chromosomal morphology only
3. Evidence from fossil remains and the fossil mitochondrial DNA alone
4. Evidence from DNA extracted from sex chromosomes, autosomes, and mitochondria.

Answer: 4. Evidence from DNA extracted from sex chromosomes, autosomes, and mitochondria

Question 82. In transgenics, expression of transgene in target tissue is determined by :

1. Enhancer
2. Promoter
3. Transgene
4. Reporter.

Answer: 4. Reporter

MCQs on Regulation Of Gene Expression In Eukaryotes Question 83. The Ti plasmid is often used for making transgenic plants. This plasmid is found in :

1. Azotobacter
2. Rhizobium of the roots of leguminous plants
3. Agrobacterium
4. yeast as a 2μm plasmid.

Answer: 3. Agrobacterium

Question 84. Which enzyme/s will be produced in a cell in which there is a nonsense mutation in the lac Y gene?

1. Lactose permease
2. Transacetylase
3. Lactose permease and transacetylase
4. β-galactosidase.

Answer: 4. β-galactosidase.

Question 85. Supercoiled DNA can be traced in :

1. Prokaryotes and eukaryotes
2. Eukaryotes only
3. Prokaryotes only
4. None of these

Answer: 1. Prokaryotes and eukaryotes

Question 86. Phosphorus is present in :

1. Protein
2. DNA
3. RNA
4. Both DNA and RNA.

Answer: 4. Both DNA and RNA

Question 87. In a given DNA segment ATG, ACC, AGG, ACC, CCA, ACA, the first base gets mutated. The effect of this on coding by this DNA segment will result in :

1. A complete change in the type as well as a sequence of amino acids
2. Change in the first amino acid only
3. One amino acid less in the protein
4. No change in the sequence
5. No coding.

Answer: 2. One amino acid less in the protein

MCQs on Regulation Of Gene Expression In Eukaryotes Question 88. Okazaki fragments are joined in a correct sequence by :

1. DNA polymerase I
2. DNA ligase
3. RNA polymerase
4. Primase
5. Heliease.

Answer: 2. DNA ligase

Question 89. In the lac operon, the structural genes are switched off when :

1. The repressor binds to the operator
2. Repressor binds to the promoter
3. The repressor binds to the regulator
4. Repressor binds to the inducer
5. The repressor binds to the allolactose.

Answer: 1. The repressor binds to the operator

Question 90. In the lac operon structural gene V is responsible for the synthesis of the enzyme :

1. β-galactosidase
2. Galactosidase permease
3. Galactosidase transacetylase
4. None of these.

Answer: 1. β-galactosidase

Question 91. When lactose is added to the culture of E.coli, a few of its molecules get into the cells with the help of:

1. Galactosidase
2. Permease
3. Lactase
4. Transacetylase.

Answer: 2. Permease

Gene Regulation Recommended MCQs Question 92. During transcription, holoenzyme RNA polymerase binds to a DNA sequence and the DNA assumes a saddle Ike structure at that point. What is that sequence called?

1. TATA box
2. AAAT box
3. GGTT box
4. CAAT box

Answer: 1. TATA box

Question 93. In the lac operon model, lactose molecules function a is :

1. Inducers that bind with the operator gene
2. Repressors that bind with the operator gene
3. Inducers that bind with the repressor protein
4. Compressors that bind with repressor protein.

Answer: 3. Inducers that bind with the repressor protein

Question 94. Protein synthesis in an animal cell occurs :

1. Only on the ribosomes present in the cytosol
2. Only on ribosomes attached to the nuclear envelope and endoplasmic reticulum
3. On ribosomes present in the nucleolus as well as in the cytoplasm
4. No ribosomes are present in the cytoplasm as well as in mitochondria.

Answer: 4. No ribosomes present in the cytoplasm as well as in mitochondria

Question 95. E.coli cells with a mutated z gene of the lac operon cannot grow in a medium containing only lactose as the source of energy because :

1. In the presence of glucose, E.coli cells do not utilize lactose
2. They cannot transport lactose from the medium into the cell
3. The lac operon is constitutively active in these cells
4. They cannot synthesize functional beta-galactosidase.

Answer: 4. They cannot synthesize functional beta-galactosidase

Question 96. Which one of the following makes use of RNA as a template to synthesize DNA?

1. Reverse transcriptase
2. DNA dependant RNA polymerase
3. DNA polymerase
4. RNA polymerase.

Answer: 1. Reverse transcriptase

Question 97. Differentiation of organs and tissues in a developing organism is associated with:

1. Differential expression of genes
2. Lethal mutations
3. Deletion of genes
4. Developmental mutations.

Answer: 1. Differential expression of genes

Gene Regulation Recommended MCQs Question 98. Intron transcripts in heterogenous nuclear RNA (hn- RNA) are removed and exon transcripts are joined together under the direction of protein complexes. These complexes are :

1. Polysomes
2. Cdk complex
3. Spliceosomes
4. Endopeptidases.

Answer: 3. Spliceosomes

Question 99. In regulation of gene expression in prokaryotes :

1. Lactose acts as the suppressor for gene expression
2. Tryptophan acts as the inducer of gene expression
   
3. The regulator gene is the one that produces the repressor molecule

1. 1 alone correct
2. alone correct
3. 3 alone correct
4. 2 and 3 are correct.

Answer: 3. 3 alone correct

Question 100. The sequence of structural genes in the lac operon concept is :

1. Lac A, lac Z, lac Y
2. Lac A, lac Y, lac Z
3. Lac Y, lac Z, lac A
4. Lac Z, lac Y, lac A.

Answer: 4. Lac Z, lac Y, lac A.

Gene Regulation in Eukaryotes NEET Questions Question 101. All genes located on the same chromosome :

1. Form different groups depending on their relative distance
2. Form one linkage group
3. Will not form any linkage groups.
4. Form interactive groups that affect the phenotype

Answer: 2. Will not form any linkage groups.

Question 102. Conditions of a karyotype 2 n+1 and 2n ± 2 are called:

1. Aneuploidy
2. Polyploidy
3. Allopolyploidy
4. Monosomy.

Answer: 1. Aneuploidy

Question 103. Distance between the genes and advantage of recombination shows :

1. A direct relationship
2. An inverse relationship
3. A parallel relationship
4. No relationship.

Answer: 2. An inverse relationship

Question 104. If genetic disease is transferred from a phenotypically normal but carrier female to only some of the male progeny, the disease is :

1. Autosomal dominant
2. Autosomal recessive
3. Sex-linked dominant
4. Sex-linked recessive.

Answer: 4. Sex-linked recessive.

Question 105. In sickle cell anaemia glutamic acid is replaced by valine. Which one of the following triplets codes for valine?

1. G G G
2. A A G
3. GAA
4. GUG.

Answer: 4. GUG.

Question 106. A person having genotype IA IB would show the blood group as AB. This is because of:

1. Pleiotropy
2. Co-dominance
3. Segregation
4. Incomplete dominance.

Answer: 2. Co-dominance

Gene Regulation in Eukaryotes NEET Questions Question 107. ZZ / ZW type of sex determination is seen in :

1. Platypus
2. Snails
3. Cockroach
4. Peacock.

Answer: 4. Peacock.

Question 108. A cross between two tall plants resulted in offspring having few dwarf plants. What would be the genotypes of both the parents?

1. TT and Tt
2. Tt and Tt
3. TT and TT
4. Tt and tt.

Answer: 2. Tt and Tt

Question 109. In a dihybrid cross, if you get a 9:3:3:1 ratio it denotes that:

1. The alleles of two genes interact with each other
2. It is a multigenic inheritance
3. It is a case of multiple alleles
4. The alleles of two genes segregate independently.

Answer: 4. The alleles of two genes are segregating independently.

Question 110. Which of the following will not result in variations among siblings?

1. Independent assessment of genes
2. Crossing over
3. Linkage
4. Mutation.

Answer: 3. Linkage

Question 111. Mendel’s law of independent assortment holds good for genes situated on the :

1. Non-homologous chromosomes
2. Homologous chromosomes
3. Extranuclear genetic element
4. Same chromosome.

Answer: 1. Non-homologous chromosomes

Gene Regulation in Eukaryotes NEET Questions Question 112. Occasionally, a single gene may express more than one effect. The phenomenon is called :

1. Multiple allelism
2. Mosaicism
3. Pleiotropy
4. Polygeny.

Answer: 3. Pleiotropy

Question 113. In a certain taxon of insects, some have 1 7 chromosomes and the others have 18 chromosomes. The 17 and 18 chromosome-bearing organisms are :

1. Males and females, respectively
2. Females and males, respectively
3. All males
4. All females.

Answer: 1. Males and females, respectively

Question 114. The inheritance pattern of a gene over generations among humans is studied by the pedigree analysis. The character studied in the pedigree analysis is equivalent to :

1. Quantitative trait
2. Mendelian trait
3. Polygenic trait
4. Maternal trait.

Answer: 2. Mendelian trait

Question 115. It is said that Mendel proposed that the factor controlling any character is discrete and independent. This proposition was based on the :

1. Results of F₃ generation of a cross.
2. Observations that the offspring of a cross made between the plants having two contrasting characters show only one character without any blending.
3. Self-pollination of F₁ offspring
4. Cross-pollination of parental generations.

Answer: 2. Observations that the offspring of a cross made between the plants having two contrasting characters show only one character without any blending.

Question 116. Two genes ‘A’ and ‘B’ are linked. In a dihybrid cross involving these two genes, the F₁ heterozygote is crossed with the homozygous recessive parental type (aa bb). What would be the ratio of offspring in the next generation?

1. 1 : 1: 1: 1
2. 9 : 3 : 3: 1
3. 3:1
4. 1: 1.

Answer: 1. 1: 1 : 1: 1

Question 117. In the F₂ generation of a Mendelian dihybrid cross the number of phenotypes and genotypes are :

1. Phenotypes – 4; genotypes – 16
2. Phenotypes – 9; genotypes – 4
3. Phenotypes – 4; genotypes – 8
4. Phenotypes – 4; genotypes – 9

Answer: 4. Phenotypes – 4; genotypes – 9

Regulation of Gene Expression in Eukaryotes MCQ Question 118. The mother and father of a person with the ‘O’ blood group have ‘A’ and ‘B’ blood groups respectively. What would be the genotype of both mother and father?

1. The mother is homozygous for the ‘A’ blood group and the father is heterozygous for ‘B’.
2. Mother is heterozygous for ‘A’ blood group and father is homozygous for ‘B’
3. Both mother and father are heterozygous for the ‘A’ and ‘B’ blood groups, respectively
4. Both mother and father are homozygous for the ‘A’ and ‘B’ blood groups, respectively.

Answer: 3. Both mother and father are heterozygous for the ‘A’ and ‘B’ blood groups, respectively

Question 119. In a DNA strand, the nucleotides are linked together by:

1. Glycosidic bonds
2. Phosphodiester bonds
3. Peptide bonds
4. Hydrogen bonds.

Answer: 2. Phosphodiester bonds

Question 120. A nucleoside differs from a nucleotide. It lacks the

1. Base
2. Sugar
3. Phosphate group
4. Hydroxyl group.

Answer: 3. Phosphate group

Question 121. Both deoxyribose and ribose belong to a class of sugars called :

1. Trioses
2. Hexoses
3. Pentoses
4. Polysaccharides.

Answer: 3. Pentoses

Question 122. The fact that a purine base is always paired through hydrogen bonds with a pyrimidine base leads to, in the DNA double helix :

1. The antiparallel nature
2. The semi-conservative nature
3. Uniform width throughout DNA
4. Uniform length in all DNA.

Answer: 3. Uniform width throughout DNA

Question 123. The net electric charge on DNA and histones is :

1. Both positive
2. Both negative
3. Negative and positive, respectively
4. Zero

Answer: 3. Negative and positive, respectively

Regulation of Gene Expression in Eukaryotes MCQ Question 124. The promoter site and the terminator site for transcription are located at :

1. 3’ (downstream) end and 5’ (upstream) end, respectively of the transcription unit
2. 5’ (upstream) end and 3’ (downstream) end, respectively of the transcription unit
3. The 5’ (upstream) end
4. The 3’ (downstream) end.

Answer: 2. 5’ (upstream) end and 3’ (downstream) end, respectively of the transcription unit

Question 125. Which of the following statements is the most appropriate for sickle cell anemia?

1. It cannot be treated with iron supplements
2. It is a molecular disease
3. It confers resistance to acquiring malaria
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above

Question 126. One of the following is true concerning AUG

1. It codes for methionine only
2. It is also an initiation codon
3. It codes for methionine in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above

Question 127. The first genetic material could be :

1. Protein
2. Carbohydrates
3. DNA
4. RNA

Answer: 4. RNA

Question 128. About mature ntRNA in eukaryotes :

1. Exons and introns do not appear in the mature RNA
2. Exons appear but introns do not! appear in the mature RNA
3. Introns appear but exons do not appear in the mature RNA
4. Both exons and introns appear in the mature RNA.

Answer: 2. Exons appear but introns do not! appear in the mature RNA

Question 129. The human chromosomes with the highest and least number of genes in them are respectively :

1. Chromosome 21 and Y
2. Chromosome 1 and X
3. Chromosome 1 and Y
4. Chromosome X and Y.

Answer: 3. Chromosome 1 and Y

Question 130. Who amongst the following scientists had no contribution in the development of the double helix model for the structure of DNA?

1. Rosalind Franklin
2. Maurice Wilkins
3. Erwin Chargaff
4. Meselson and Stahl.

Answer: 4. Meselson and Stahl.

Question 131. DNA is a polymer of nucleotides that are linked to each other by a 3″-5’ phosphodiester bond. To prevent the polymerization of nucleotides, which of the following modifications would you choose?

1. Replace purine with pyrimidines
2. Remove/Replace 3″ OH group in deoxyribose
3. Remove/Replacc 2’ OH group with some other group in deoxyribose
4. Both ‘2’ and ‘3’.

Answer: 2. Remove/Replace 3″ OH group in deoxyribose

Question 132. Discontinuous synthesis of DNA occurs in one strand, because :

1. DNA molecule being synthesized is very long
2. DNA-dependent DNA polymerase catalyzes polymerization only in one direction (5’- 3’)
3. It is a more efficient process
4. DNA ligase has to have a role.

Answer: 2. DNA-dependent DNA polymerase catalyzes polymerization only in one direction (5’-3’)

Regulation of Gene Expression in Eukaryotes MCQ Question 133. Which of the following steps in transcription is catalyzed by RNA polymerase?

1. Initiation
2. Elongation
3. Termination
4. All of the above.

Answer: 2. Elongation

Question 134. Control of gene expression takes place at the level of:

1. DNA-replication
2. Transcription
3. Transition
4. None of the above

Answer: 2. Transcription

Question 135. Regulatory proteins are the accessory proteins that interact with RNA polymerase and affect its role in transcription. Which of the following statements is correct about regulatory protein?

1. They only increase expression
2. They only decrease expression.
3. They interact with RNA polymerase but do not affect the expression
4. They can act both as activators and as repressors

Answer: 4. They can act both as activators and as repressors

Question 136. Which was the last human chromosome to be completely sequenced :

1. Chromosome 1
2. Chromosome 11
3. Chromosome 21
4. Chromosome X.

Answer: 1. Chromosome 1

Question 137. Which of the following are the functions of RNA?

1. It is a carrier of genetic information from DNA to ribosomes synthesizing polypeptides
2. It carries amino acids to ribosomes
3. It is a constituent component of ribosomes
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 138. While analyzing tire DNA of an organism a total number of 5386 nucleotides were found out of which the proportion of different bases was: Adenine = 29%, Guanine = 17%, Cytosine = 32%. Thymine = 17%. Considering Chargaffs rule it can be concluded that:

1. It is a double-stranded circular DNA
2. It is a single-stranded DNA
3. It is a double-stranded linear DNA
4. No conclusion can be drawn.

Answer: 2. It is single-stranded DNA

Question 139. In some viruses, DNA is synthesized by using RNA as a template. Such a DNA is called :

1. A-DNA
2. B-DNA
3. cDNA
4. DNA.

Answer: 3. cDNA

Question 140. IfMeselson and Stahl’s experiment is continued for four generations in bacteria, the ratio of 15_N-/15_N: 15_N/14_N/: 1 4_N/ 14_N containing DNA in the fourth generation would be :

1. 1:1:0
2. 1:4:0
3. 0:l:3
4. 0:1:7.

Answer: 4. 0:1:7

Question 141. If the sequence of nitrogen bases of the coding strand of DNA in a transcription unit is: 5’ – ATG A ATG-3’, the sequence of bases in its RNA transcript would be :

1. 5’ – AUG A AUG-3’
2. 5’-UACUUAC-3’
3. 5’ – CAUUCAU-3’
4. 5’ – G U A A G U A – 3’.

Answer: 1. 5’ – AUG A AUG-3’

Question 142. The RNA polymerase holoenzyme transcribes :

1. The promoter, structural gene, and the terminator region
2. The promoter, and the terminator
3. The structural gene and the terminator regions
4. The structural gene only.

Answer: 3. the structural gene and the terminator regions

Question 143. If the base sequence of a codon mmRNA is 5’-AUC- 3’, the sequence of tRNA pairing with it must be :

1. 5’ – UAC – 3’
2. 5’ – CAU – 3’
3. 5’ -AUG -3’
4. 5’ – GUA – 3’

Answer: 2. 5’ – CAU – 3’

Question 144. The amino acid attaches to the tRNA at its :

1. 5’-end
2. 3’-end
3. Anti codon site
4. DHU loop

Answer: 2. 3’-end

Question 145. To initiate translation, the mRNA first binds to :

1. The smaller ribosomal sub-unit,
2. The larger ribosomal sub-unit
3. The whole ribosome
4. No such specificity exists.

Answer: 1. The smaller ribosomal sub-unit,

Question 146. In E.coli, the lac operon gets switched on when :

1. lactose is present and it binds to the repressor
2. The repressor binds to the operator
3. RNA polymerase binds to the operator
4. Lactose is present and it binds to RNA polymerase.

Answer: 1. lactose is present and it binds to the repressor

Question 147. Which of the following statements are correct?

1. RNA polymerase 1 transcribes rRNAs
2. RNA polymerase 2 transcribes snRNAs
3. RNA polymerase 3 transcribes hnRNA
4. RNA polymerase 2 transcribes hnRNA.

1. 1 and 2 correct
2. 1 and 3 are correct
3. 1, 2, and 4 are correct
4. 2 and 3 are correct
5. 1 and 4 are correct.

Answer: 5. 1 and 4 are correct.

Question 148. In Hershey and Chase experiments, radioactive ³²P was used to culture bacteriophages which resulted in radioactive :

1. ViralDNA
2. Bacterial capsule
3. Viral proteins
4. Plasma membrane of bacteria.

Answer: 1. ViralDNA

Question 149. The inducer for switching ‘on’ the lac operon in bacteria is:

1. Presence of lactose
2. Number of bacteria
3. Presence of structural genes in the bacteria
4. Presence of sucrose
5. Presence of RNA polymerase

Answer: 1. Presence of lactose

Question 150. Select the incorrect statement (s):

1. Six codons do not code for any amino acid.

2. Codon is read in mRNA in a continuous fashion

3. Three condoms function as stop codons

4. The initiator codon AUG codes for methionine.

1. 1,2 and 4 are incorect
2. 1, 2 and 3 are incorect
3. 2, 3 and 4 are incorect
4. 2 alone is correct
5. 1 alone is incorrect.

Answer: 5. 1 alone is incorrect.

Gene Regulation Recommended MCQs Question 151. The collection of cloned DNA segments obtained from the complete genome is called :

1. DNA library
2. Genomic bank
3. Gene bank
4. Both 2 and 3

Answer: 4. Both 2 and 3

Question 152. In the operon model, the regulator gene functions as :

1. Regulator
2. Inhibitor
3. Repressor
4. Stimulator.

Answer: 3. Repressor

Question 153. Genes involved in turning on and off of structural genes are:

1. Operator genes
2. Regulator genes
3. Redundant genes
4. Promoter genes.

Answer: 2. Regulator genes

Question 154. Lac operon is related to :

1. Synthesis of enzymes for lactose catabolism
2. Synthesis of enzymes for lactose anabolism
3. Synthesis of lac by lac insects
4. Degradation of lac by lac insects.

Answer: 1. Synthesis of enzymes for lactose catabolism

Question 155. According to the operon concept, the regulator gene regulates chemical reactions in the cell by :

1. Inactivating enzyme in the reaction
2. Inhibiting the substrate in the reaction
3. Inhibiting transcription of m-RNA
4. Inhibiting the migration of mRNA into the cytoplasm.

Answer: 3. Inhibiting transcription of m-RNA

Question 156. The modem concept of a gene is that it is :

1. A segment of DNA
2. A segment of chromosome
3. A functional unit of DNA
4. All of these

Answer: 3. A functional unit of DNA

Question 157. SV 40 has five genes but the type of proteins synthesized by it is more than twice the number of genes present in it. It shows the presence of:

1. Contained genes
2. Split genes
3. Overlapping genes
4. Degenerate genes.

Answer: 3. overlapping genes

Question 158. Provirus differs from prophage about:

1. Integration of RNA with host DNA
2. Integration of genetic DNA with host DNA
3. Integration of copy DNA of retrovirus with host DNA
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Integration of copy DNA of retrovirus with host DNA

Question 159. Which virus has a rod-shaped structure?

1. Rheo viruses
2. Φ× 174
3. T phage
4. TMV.

Answer: 4. TMV.

Question 160. Tryptophan Operon is :

1. Repressible system
2. Inducible
3. Controlled by regulator gene
4. Made of 3 structural genes.

Answer: 1. Repressible system

NEET Biology Cell Structure and Function MCQs

Question 1. Engulfing of food materials or foreign bodies is called:

1. Pinocytosis
2. Pinocytosis and phagocytosis
3. Mitosis
4. Phagocytosis.

Answer: 4. Phagocytosis.

Question 2. The total thickness of the plasma membrane proposed by Robertson is:

1. 5Å to 20Å
2. 20Å to 35Å
3. 50Å to 75Å
4. 75Å to 100Å

Answer: 4. 75Å to 100Å

Question 3. The main function of the plasma membrane is to :

1. Regulate the flow of material into and outside the cell
2. Maintain the cell shape and size
3. Control all cellular activities
4. Store cell material.

Answer: 1. Regulate the flow of material into and outside the cell

Question 4. In a fluid mosaic model of the cell membrane, the extrinsic proteins are :

1. Attached to intrinsic proteins but can be separated easily
2. Superficially present but cannot be separated easily
3. Superficially present and can be easily separated
4. Attached to intrinsic proteins but cannot be separated easily.

Answer: 3. Superficially present and can be easily separated

Question 5. The one end of the phospholipid in the cell wall of plants is hydrophobic, which means:

1. It has no affinity for metabolites
2. It has no affinity for water
3. It has no affinity for solutes
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. It has no affinity for water

Question 6. Amoeba, a single-celled organism, has a specialized structure called a contractile vacuole whose function is to collect excess water frorn the cell and discharge the water into the environment. From this infor-mation you can deduce that amoeba live in an environment that is (hypotonic) to the interior solution of amoeba. Thus, you would expect to find amoebas living in :

1. A freshwater pond
2. The ocean
3. Great salt lake
4. A bottle of unpasteurized milk.

Answer: 1. A freshwater pond

Question 7. We know that the Golgi body discharges substances from the cell by fusing of vesicles with the plasma membrane and subsequent opening of what was the interior of the vesicle to the outside environment. This is an example of:

1. Exocytosis
2. Endocytosis
3. Active transport
4. Facilitated diffusion.

Answer: 1. Exocytosis

Question 8. The selective transfer of particles through the cell membrane is an important factor in the process of:

1. Cytoplasmic streaming
2. Homeostasis
3. Nuclear transfer
4. Mechanical digestion.

Answer: 2. Horneostasis

Question 9. The plasma membrane consists of three layers arranged :

1. Protein layer, phospholipid layer, and protein layer
2. The phospholipid and two protein layers
3. The two protein layers and the phospholipid layer
4. The protein layer, the phospholipid layer, and the fat layer.

Answer: 1. Protein layer, phospholipid layer, and protein layer

Question 10. The bordered pits are characteristics of:

1. Ferns
2. Gymnosperms
3. Angiosperms
4. Cycads.

Answer: 2. Angiosperms

Question 11. The torus of simple and bordered pits is made up of :

1. Suberin
2. Glttcose
3. Cutin
4. Phospholipids.

Answer: 1. Suberin

Question 12. Membrane functions are carried out by :

1. Carbohydrates
2. Lipids
3. Metalion
4. Proteins.

Answer: 4. Proteins

Question 13. The integrity of the membrane is maintained by :

1. Ionic bonds
2. Covalent bonds
3. Hydrophilic action
4. Hydrophobic attractions.

Answer: 3. Hydrophilic action

Question 14. According to the fluid mosaic model, the fluidity of a cell membrane is due to :

1. Lipid
2. Proteins
3. Glycoproteins
4. Glycolipids.

Answer: 1. Lipid

Question 15. Regarding cellular membranes one of the following is incorrect?

1. Membranes are selectively permeable but a solute’s electrical polarity and other physical characteristics may affect its ability to enter or leave.
2. Water-soluble substances pass through more rapidly than lipids and lipid-soluble substances.
3. Generally smaller molecules pass through cellular membrane more readily than larger molecules.
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Water-soluble substances pass through more rapidly than lipids and lipid-soluble substances.

Question 16. The counter pressure exerted by the cell wall tends to oppose :

1. Turgor pressure
2. Osmotic pressure
3. Solvent pressure
4. Diffusion pressure.

Answer: 1. Turgor pressure

Question 17. Ion channels have been discovered by :

1. Singer and Nicholson
2. Nehar and Sakmann
3. Gamier
4. Robinson and brown.

Answer: 2. Nehar and sakmann

Question 18. The most abundant lipid in a cell membrane is:

1. Phospholipid
2. Cholesterol
3. Steroid
4. Cutin.

Answer: 1. Phospholipid

Question 19. Glycoproteins are known to play an important role in cell recognition. The specificity of this recognition is provided by:

1. Lipid portion of glycoproteins
2. Lipids are in the least proportion
3. Oligosaccharide portion of glycoprotein
4. Proteins are in the least proportion.

Answer: 3. Oligosaccharide portion of glycoprotein

Question 20. According to the fluid mosaic model, which one is true?

1. Oligosaccharides and lipids are held by non-covalent interaction
2. Components of the plasma membrane can be dispersed by detergents
3. Lipids and proteins are amphoteric
4. Polar groups of proteins are directed towards the lipid bilayer.

Answer: 4. Polar groups of proteins are directed towards the lipid bilayer.

Question 21. When a group of cells is placed in a salt solution whose concentration is more than their cell sap :

1. The cytoplasm with its plasma membrane expands
2. The cytoplasm with its plasma membrane shrinks up
3. The cytoplasm comes out through the plasma membrane
4. The cytoplasm remains in position.

Answer: 2. The cytoplasm with its plasma membrane shrinks up

Question 22. Which of the following structures of the cell is dead?

1. Cell wall
2. Nucleus
3. Plasma membrane
4. Mitochondria.

Answer: 1. Cell wall

Question 23. An Electron microscope has revealed that the cell wall is made up of several layers of :

1. Cavities
2. Microfibrils
3. Plasmodesmata
4. Myonemes.

Answer: 2. Microfibrils

Question 24. Plasmalemma prevents escape of na+ and k+ to :

1. Disrupt neighboring cells through desmosomes
2. Maintain electrostatic neutrality of cells
3. Maintain cell sap
4. All of the above.

Answer: 1. Cause disruption in neighboring cells through desmosomes

Question 25. The cell wall is a permeable membrane can be best deducted from the passage of water and mineral salts from:

1. The root hair into cortical cell
2. The pericycle cells into the tracheal elements
3. The cortical cells are into tracheal elements
4. The soil into the root hair.

Answer: 4. The soil into the root hair.

Question 26. In the fluid mosaic membrane model, the phospholipid bilayer:

1. Is sandwiched between two protein layers
2. Have proteins embedded in it
3. Lies on top of a single protein
4. Is covered by a single protein.

Answer: 2. Has proteins embedded in it

Question 27. The structure in the ce1l bounded by the single membrane is :

1. Chloroplast
2. Peroxisome
3. Ribosome
4. Mitochondria.

Answer: 2. Peroxisome

Question 28. Plasma membranes of adjacent cells become thicker at certain regions. They are called :

1. Desmosomes
2. Terminal bars
3. Infoldings
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Desmosomes

Question 29. The middle lamella is made up of :

1. Protein
2. Cellulose
3. Calcium and magnesium pectate
4. Lignin.

Answer: 3. Calcium and magnesium pectate

Question 30. The cell wall in plants is composed of :

1. Chitin
2. Lipids
3. Xylan
4. Cellulose.

Answer: 4. Cellulose.

Question 31. The cellulose layer during the formation of the cell wall is secreted by the outer cytoplasm as :

1. Primary wall
2. Secondary wall
3. Tertiary wall
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Primary wall

Question 32. All membrane processes, such as pumping and channeling of molecules are carried out by :

1. Lipids
2. Carbohydrates
3. Nucleic acids
4. Proteins.

Answer: 4. Proteins.

Question 33. Plant cells can usually be distinguished from animal cells because only plant cells possess:

1. Cell wall and mitochondria
2. Goigi bodies and central vacuole
3. Celt wall and central vacuole
4. Chromosome and mitochondria.

Answer: 3. Celt wall and central vacuole

Question 34. If you were given a non-polar- membrane, which of the following would you expect to diffuse through it with the most ease :

1. CO2 phenylalanyl
2. Glycine
3. Lead atom
4. Proteins.

Answer: 1. CO2 phenylalanyl

Question 35. Membranes are found within :

1. Cytoplasm, chloroplasts and mitochondria
2. Chromosomes, nuclei, and mitochondria
3. Cytoplasm, nuclei, and starch grains
4. Chromosomes, chloroplasts, and starch grains.

Answer: 1. Cytoplasm, chloroplasts and mitochondria

Question 36. Which of these factors affects the movement of substances through the plasma membrane?

1. Permeability of the membrane
2. Size of diffusing particles
3. Membrane proteins
4. A1l the above.

Answer: 4. A1l the above.

Question 37. Endocytosis refers to :

1. Phagocytosis
2. Pinocytosis
3. Phagocytosis and pinocytosis
4. Mitosis.

Answer: 3. Phagocytosis and pinocytosis

Question 38. The plasma membrane is selectively permeable. It shorts maximum permeability to:

1. K+
2. Nh4+
3. Na+
4. Ca++

Answer: 1. Nh4+

Question 39. Pinocytosis and active transport are similar because both processes:

1. Depends directly upon cyclosis within a cell
2. Require the expenditure of energy
3. Are types of circulation
4. Increase the absorbing surface of- cell.

Answer: 2. Require the expenditure of energy

Question 40. Most living cells acquire unwanted compounds either by absorption from their surroundings or as by-products of chemical activities. Cells would die if such compounds are accumulated in the cytoplasm or nucleus. Hence mechanisms have evolved to affect their removal. It is accomplished by developing a system of:

1. Membranes such as endoplasmic reticulum
2. Pores in the mernbrane of nucleus
3. Semipermeable cell membrane surrounding the nucleus
4. Vacuoles.

Answer: 2. Pores in the membrane of the nucleus

Question 41. The term osmosis refers to the diffusion of :

1. Energy
2. Water
3. Glucose
4. Positive electric charges.

Answer: 2. Water

Question 42. The function of the intracellular membrane is to:

1. Establish several compartments within the cell
2. Provide the neat spatial organization of enzymes and pigments
3. Provide a system of channels for the distribution of nutrients within cell
4. All the above

Answer: 4. All the above

Question 43. Amphipathy means:

1. Presence of hydrophobic and hydrophilic groups in the same molecules.
2. Hydrophobic
3. Hydrophilic
4. Isotonic.

Answer: 1. Presence of hydrophobic and hydrophilic groups in the same molecules.

Question 44. An import of energy is required for which of the following:

1. Diffusion
2. Osmosis
3. Facilitated diffusion
4. Active transport.

Answer: 4. Active transport.

Question 45. Microvilli are :

1. Finger-like projections on cell surface responsible for ultra absorption of liquids.
2. Finger-like projections of nuclear membrane responsible for obtaining nutrients for the nucleus
3. Hair-like structures on the cell surface responsible for the sense of touch
4. Secondary finger-like projection on the intestinal villi.

Answer: 1. Finger-like projections on cell surface responsible for ultra absorption of liquids.

Question 46. The simplest and most common mechanism by which substances move across the cell wall is:

1. Active transport
2. Metabolically coupled transport
3. Diffusion
4. Osmosis.

Answer: 3. Diffusion

Question 47. Continuity of cytoplasm from cell to cell is maintained through:

1. Middle lamella
2. Plasmodesmata
3. Endoplasmic reticulum
4. Cell membrane system.

Answer: 2. Plasmodesmata

Question 48. Which pair of structures are usually found in both plant and animal cells?

1. Cell membrane and nucleolus
2. Cell membrane and cell wall
3. Nucleolus and chloroplast
4. Nucleus and cell wall.

Answer: 1. Cell membrane and nucleolus

Question 49. Tonoplast is a differentially permeable membrane surrounding the:

1. Mitochondria
2. Cytoplasm
3. Vacuole
4. Nucleus.

Answer: 3. Vacuole

Question 50. Singer and Nicholson model of plasma membrane differs from Robertson’s model in the :

1. Arrangement of lipid layers
2. Arrangement of proteins
3. Absence of proteins in the Singer model
4. Number of lipid layers.

Answer: 2. Arrangement of proteins

Question 51. Which of the following does not pass across membranes by simple diffusion?

1. O2
2. H+
3. Co2
4. H2O.

Answer: 2. CO2

Question 52. All are membrane-bound cell organelles except:

1. Sphaerosome
2. Lysosome
3. Ribosomes
4. Chloroplast.

Answer: 3. Ribosomes

Question 53. Sialic acid is a constituent of:

1. Cell membrane
2. Cell wall
3. Tonoplast
4. Chromosome.

Answer: 2. Cell wall

Question 54. Beetroot does not lose color in freshwater This is because :

1. The plasma membrane is permeable
2. The plasma membrane is impermeable to pigment
3. The plasma membrane and cell wall are permeable
4. Both the plasma membrane and cell wall are impermeable.

Answer: 2. Plasma membrane is impermeable to pigment

Question 55. Cellulosic cell walls can be specifically stained by

1. Zinc chloride
2. Phloroglucinol
3. Methyl blue
4. Sudan 4.

Answer: 1. Zinc chloride

Question 56. The plan of cell wall formation is determined by:

1. Golgi bodies
2. Er
3. Microtubules
4. Nucleus.

Answer: 1. Golgi bodies

Question 57. Which of the following is not a form of endocytosis?

1. Monocytosis
2. Phagocytosis
3. Pinocytosis
4. Receptor-mediated cytosis.

Answer: 1. Monocytosis

Question 58. The process by which a cell secretes macromolecules by fusing a transport vesicle to a plasma membrane is:

1. Pinocytosis
2. Endocytosis
3. Phagocytosis
4. Exocytosis.

Answer: 4. Exocytosis.

Question 59. Membrane potential is caused by unequal distribution

1. Ions
2. Isotopes
3. Fatty acids
4. Glucose

Answer: 1. Ions

Question 60. The cell wall is the secretion of:

1. Middle lamella
2. Plasmalemma
3. Cytoplasm
4. Plasmodesmata

Answer: 3. Cytoplasam

Question 61. The cell wall is thin in :

1. Xylem
2. Collenchyma
3. Cytoplasm
4. Parenchyma.

Answer: 4. Parenchyma.

Question 62. Animal cells do not have cell walls because:

1. They are adapted to move their body
2. They have muscles and nerves
3. They have to change the size of their body during locomotion
4. All correct.

Answer: 4. All correct.

Question 63. The smallest structural unit of the cell wall is :

1. Fibril
2. Microfibril
3. Micelle
4. Middle lamella.

Answer: 3. Micelle

Question 64. Unripe fruits are hard, due to :

1. Tannins in the cell wall
2. Middle lamella
3. Plasmodesmata
4. All of these.

Answer: 2. Middle lamella

Question 65. The cell wall in bacteria and cyanobacteria is made up of :

1. Murein or mucopeptide
2. Peptidoglycan and amino sugars
3. Cellulose
4. Chitin.

Answer: 2. Peptidoglycan and amino sugars

Question 66. The hemicellulose in the cell wall acts as :

1. Filler substance
2. Binding microfibril
3. Strengthening cellulose
4. All of these.

Answer: 2. Binding microfibril

Question 67. A micelle is made up of :

1. 250 Microfibril
2. 100 Cellulose chains
3. 20 Macrofibrils
4. 3000 Cellulose chains.

Answer: 2. 100 Cellulose chains

Question 68. Mineral elements of the middle lamella are/are :

1. Calcium pectate
2. Magnesium picrate
3. Manganese
4. Both 1 and 2.

Answer: 4. Both 1 and 2.

Question 69. The cell wall of the fungus contains :

1. Pectin and cellulose
2. Cellulose and chitin
3. Chitin and pectin
4. Chitin and silica.

Answer: 2. Cellulose and chitin

Question 70. Torus is related to:

1. Bordered pits in the cell wall
2. Receptacle of lotus
3. Both correct
4. Both wrong.

Answer: 3. Both correct

Question 71. Symplast:

1. Is the living component of the cell
2. Consists of cytoplasm and cell membrane
3. Both correct
4. Only 2 Is correct.

Answer: 3. Both correct

Question 72. The cell wall is absent in some plant cells like:

1. Zoospores
2. Gametes
3. Pplo
4. All correct.

Answer: 4. All correct.

Question 73. Intussusception is shown by a primary cell wall. It is :

1. Deposition of cell wall materials from inside to cause growth
2. Deposition of wall materials from outside as layers
3. Hardening of cell wall
4. None of these.

Answer: 1. Deposition of cell wall materials from inside to cause growth

Question 74. A pit is an unthickened area in the cell wall. It lacks:

1. Primary wall
2. Middle lamella
3. Secondary wall
4. Cell wall and cell membrane.

Answer: 3. Secondary wall

Question 75. The term cell membrane was given by :

1. Nageli
2. Singer and Nicholson
3. Robertson
4. Plower.

Answer: 1. Nageli

Question 76. The main amino acids in the cell membrane are :

1. Arginine and lysine
2. Arginine and leucine
3. Arginine and tryptophan
4. Arginine and glycine.

Answer: 1. Arginine and lysine

Question 77. Carbohydrate molecules attached to lipid and protein molecules from glycocalyx (extraneous coat). These carbohydrates are usually :

1. Monosaccharides
2. Polysaccharides
3. Oligosaccharides
4. Starches.

Answer: 3. Oligosaccharides

Question 78. Fluid mosaic model explains :

1. A bilipid layer in between 2 protein layers
2. A layer of proteins on one side and a bilayer of lipids on the other side
3. 2 Lipid layers and 1 protein layer
4. A phospholipid layer with proteins between and on both sides of the lipid layer.

Answer: 4. A phospholipid layer with proteins between and on both sides of the lipid layer.

Question 79. Cellular recognition and adhesion are facilitated by components in plasmalemma. These are :

1. Lipids
2. Proteins
3. Both a and b
4. Glycolipids and glycoproteins.

Answer: 4. Both a and b

Question 80. The plasma membrane of an animal cell is composed of:

1. Lipids, proteins, oligosaccharides
2. Lipids, proteins, proteins, polysaccharides
3. Lipids, proteins, disaccharides
4. Lipids, proteins, monosaccharides.

Answer: 1. Lipids, proteins, oligosaccharides

Question 81. Na+- k+ pump is found in membranes of many cells like nerve cells. It works against an electrochemical gradient and involves an integral protein ATPase. For each molecule of ATP used :

1. 3 Ions of na+ are pumped out and two k+ ions are taken
2. 3 Ions of na+ are taken in and 2k+ are pumped out
3. 2 Ions of na+ are thrown and 3k+ are absorbed
4. 3 Ions of Na+ are pumped out.

Answer: 1. 3 Ions of na+ are pumped out and two k+ ions are taken

Question 82. The cell membrane shows maximum permeability :

1. K+
2. Nh4+
3. Na+
4. Ca++.

Answer: 1. K+

Question 83. Who among the following proposed unit membrane model for cell membrane?

1. Davson and Danielle
2. Robertson
3. Singer and Nicholson
4. Metchnikoff.

Answer: 2. Robertson

Question 84. The cell membrane is absent in :

1. Sperm
2. Bacteria
3. Lysosomes
4. None of these.

Answer: 4. None of these.

Question 85. Which process requires energy?

1. Bulk transport
2. Pinocytosis
3. Exocytosis
4. All of these.

Answer: 4. All of these.

Question 86. Pinocytosis was first reported by Edward in Amoeba. It is absent in:

1. Bacteria
2. Blue-green algae
3. Prokaryotes
4. All of these.

Answer: 4. All of these.

NEET Biology Plant Anatomy Multiple Choice Questions And Answers

Question 1. Meristematic cells have:

1. Large prominent nucleus and dense cytoplasm
2. No intercellular spaces
3. Rounded shape
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 2. The cells or tissues of plants which have lost the power of division are called:

1. Meristematic
2. Permanent
3. Protoderm
4. Promeristem.

Answer: 2. Permanent

Question 3. Promeristems can be distinguished from primary meristems by:

1. Their apical position
2. By their power of active division
3. The presence of a large prominent nucleus
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 4. The undifferentiated cells are present in:

1. Maple tree root system
2. Sepals of geranium flower
3. Cambium of oak
4. Root of Raphanus.

Answer: 3. Cambium of oak

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Important MCQs On Plant Anatomy Question 5. The tip of the root apical meristem is capped by the histogen, known as:

1. Dermatogen
2. Periblem
3. Calyptrogen
4. Plerome.

Answer: 3. Calyptrogen

Question 6. Meristematic cells are:

1. Thin-walled, isodiametric, nucleate and less protoplasmic
2. Thin-walled, isodiametric, nucleate and densely protoplasmic
3. Thick-walled, isodiametric, non-nucleate and densely protoplasmic
4. Thick-walled, isodiametric, nucleate and less protoplasmic.

Answer: 2. Thin-walled, isodiametric, nucleate and densely protoplasmic

Question 7. The root apical meristem is subterminal because it:

1. Is covered by root hairs
2. Is covered by the root cap
3. Has many corpus cells
4. Is covered by tunica cells.

Answer: 2. Is covered by the root cap

Question 8. Cork cambium is a:

1. Promeristem
2. Lateral meristem
3. Intercalary meristem
4. Ground meristem.

Answer: 2. Lateral meristem

Question 9. Primary vascular tissues are derived from:

1. Protoderm
2. Procambium
3. Ground meristem
4. Calyptrogen.

Answer: 2. Procambium

Anatomy of Flowering Plants NEET Questions Question 10. The epidermis in the stem is produced from:

1. Protoderm
2. Procambium
3. Ground meristem
4. Calyptrogen.

Answer: 1. Protoderm

Question 11. The pith in the stem is derived from:

1. Protoderm
2. Procambium
3. Ground meristem
4. Plate meristem.

Answer: 3. Ground meristem

Question 12. Epiblema in roots is derived from :

1. Protoderm
2. Procambium
3. Ground meristem
4. Calyptrogen.

Answer: 1. Protoderm

Question 13. The histogen concept was proposed by:

1. Schmidt
2. Nageii
3. Hanstein
4. Strassburger

Answer: 3. Hanstein

Question 14. The lateral meristem is responsible for:

1. Increasing height
2. Increasing thickness
3. Increasing tissue
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Increasing thickness

Question 15. The tissue is made up of thin-walled rectangular cells responsible for the secondary growth:

1. Cortex
2. Xylem
3. Cambium
4. Pith.

Answer: 3. Cambium

Anatomy of Flowering Plants NEET Questions Question 16. Root cap in dicots is formed from:

1. Ground meristem
2. Procambium
3. Protoderm
4. Calyptrogen.

Answer: 4. Calyptrogen.

Question 17. Intercalary meristems are derived from:

1. Permanent tissue
2. Secondary meristem
3. Lateral meristem
4. Apical meristem.

Answer: 4. Apical meristem.

Plant Anatomy MCQs Question 18. Secondary meristems are derived from:

1. Apical meristem
2. Intercalary meristem
3. Lateral meristem
4. Permanent tissues.

Answer: 4. Permanent tissues.

Question 19. The vascular cambium of the root is an example of meristem:

1. Apical meristem
2. Intercalary meristem
3. Secondary meristem
4. Root apical meristem.

Answer: 3. Secondary meristem

Question 20. Tunica corpus theory was proposed by:

1. Hanstein
2. Schmidt
3. Nageli
4. Hofmeister.

Answer: 2. Schmidt

Important MCQs on Anatomy of Flowering Plants Question 21. Dermatogen is tissue formed by apical meristem and it develops into:

1. Pith
2. Vascular bundles
3. Epidermis
4. Cortex.

Answer: 3. Epidermis

Question 22. Grass stem elongates by the activity of:

1. Cambium
2. Intercalary meristem
3. Apical meristem
4. Primary meristem.

Answer: 2. Intercalary meristem

Question 23. The concept envisaging three distinct zones of cells of new tissue builders at the stem and root apices is known as:

1. Meristem theory
2. Histogen theory
3. Dermatogen theory
4. Tunica colpus theory.

Answer: 2. Histogen theory

Question 24. Which of the following clogs the cavity of the xylem vessels?

1. Tyloses
2. Cystoliths
3. Hydathode
4. Raphides.

Answer: 1. Tyloses

Important MCQs on Anatomy of Flowering Plants Question 25. Carnbium which produces cork is known as:

1. Phelloderm
2. Phellogen
3. Phellern
4. Periblem.

Answer: 3. Phellern

Question 26. When we peel the skin of a potato tuber, we remove:

1. Epidermis
2. Periderm
3. Cuticle
4. Sapwood

Answer: 2. Periderm

Question 27. In which meristem do you see cell divisions occurring in all planes?

1. Lile meristem
2. Plate meristem
3. Lateral meristem
4. Ground meristem.

Answer: 4. Ground meristem.

Question 28. Which is the first wall layer formed by dividing plant cells and occurring between subsequently formed cell walls of daughter cells?

1. Primary wall
2. Secondary wall
3. Middle lamella
4. Cellulose layer.

Answer: 3. Middie lamella

Important MCQs on Anatomy of Flowering Plants Question 29. The fascicular cambium in a dicotyledonous stem is a meristematic tissue referred to as :

1. Apical
2. Lateral
3. Primary
4. Intercalary.

Answer: 2. Lateral

Question 30. Which new tissues of the plant body originate in the apical meristems?

1. Parenchyma
2. Collenchyma
3. Sclerenchyma
4. Secondary.

Answer: 1. Parenchyma

Question 31. Intercalary meristems are present in the following:

1. Nodai region
2. Internodal region
3. Bryophytes
4. The nodal region is close to the base of the plant.

Answer: 1. Nodai region

Question 32. The basic differences between a vessel and a tracheid are:

1. Types of pits
2. Size and types of pits
3. Perforations on end walls
4. Length wall thickness and lignification.

Answer: 3. Perforations on end walls

Important MCQs on Anatomy of Flowering Plants Question 33. Which is not true about the sclereids?

1. These are parenchymatous cells with thick lignified cell wall
2. They are elongated and flexible and their ends are tapering
3. Generally, they are found in the rind of drupe fruits and pulp of guava and pear
4. They are also called stone cells.

Answer: 2. They are elongated and flexible and their ends are tapering

Question 34. Primary growth of a tree:

1. Occurs through the activities of apical meristems
2. Occurs through the activity of a vascular cambium
3. Occurs through the activity of the root cap
4. Occurs only in the first year of the tree’s life.

Answer: 1. Occurs through the activities of apical meristems

Question 35. Secondary xylem and phioem are laid down by:

1. Apical meristems
2. Axillary meristems
3. Vascular cambium
4. Cork cambium.

Answer: 3. Vascular cambium

Question 36. Which of the following would not secrete a cuticle?

1. Leaf epidermis
2. Stem epidermis
3. Root epidermis
4. Xerophytes.

Answer: 3. Root epidermis

Question 37. One year’s growth in length of a young woody shoot is the distance between successive:

1. Rings of bud scale scars
2. Leal scars
3. Branches
4. Axillary buds.

Answer: 1. Leal scars

Question 38. Anatomically jute fibres are:

1. Vertical fibres
2. Pith fibres
3. Xylem fibres
4. Phloem fibres.

Answer: 4. Phloem fibres.

Question 39. Xylem that is not conducting water is called:

1. Heartwood
2. Sapwood
3. Springwood
4. Summerwood.

Answer: 1. Heartwood

Important MCQs On Plant Anatomy Question 40. Intercalary meristem is seen in:

1. Maize
2. Ficus
3. Cabbage
4. Cucurbita.

Answer: 1. Maize

Question 41. Tunica and corpus organization occurs in:

1. Lateral meristem
2. Root apex
3. Shoot apex
4. Intercalary meristem.

Answer: 3. Shoot apex

Question 42. Tree trunk increases in girth because of the cell division activity in:

1. Epidermal tissues
2. Supporting tissues
3. Meristematic tissues
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Meristematic tissues

Question 43. In the root, the maximum growth occurs:

1. In the presence of high-temperature
2. In the presence of light
3. At the apex
4. Behind the apex.

Answer: 4. Behind the apex.

Question 44. Chlorenchyma cells are:

1. Chlorophyll-containing sclerenchyma cells
2. Chlorophyll-containing epidermis
3. Chlorophyll-containing parenchyma
4. Chlorophyll-containing phloem.

Answer: 3. Chlorophyll-containing parenchyma

Plant Anatomy MCQs Question 45. Sclerenchyma cells are mostly:

1. Living cells
2. Dead cells
3. Pat of xylem vessels
4. Part of pericycle.

Answer: 2. Dead cells

Question 46. Abnormal secondary growth due to accessory cambia is found in:

1. Helianthus
2. Cucurbita
3. Dracaena
4. Maize.

Answer: 3. Dracaena

Question 47. Secondary meristems are set apart from primary meristems in that they:

1. Are responsible for secondary growth
2. Increase the size of the state
3. From the cork and secondary vascular tissue
4. Always arise in permanent tissue.

Answer: 4. Always arise in permanent tissue.

Question 48. In amphiphilic siphonostele, phloem is:

1. Internal to xylem
2. External to xylem
3. Surrounded by xylem
4. On both sides of the xylem.

Answer: 4. On both sides of the xylem.

Plant Anatomy MCQs Question 49. The science of dendrochronology is applied to determine:

1. The age of trees
2. Date of archaeological objects
3. Ecological succession of trees
4. Tree-like concept of evolution.

Answer: 1. The age of trees

Question 50. Cork of commercial value is obtained from:

1. Quercus
2. Mango
3. Pines
4. Cedrus deodara.

Answer: 1. Quercus

Question 51. The first event during the secondary growth of dicot root is the division of:

1. Cambial initial between xylem and phloem
2. Pericyclic cells external to primary xylem
3. Conjunctive cells form circular cambium
4. Parenchyma cells are internal to the primary phloem.

Answer: 3. Conjunctive cells to form circular cambium

Question 52. Collenchyma mainly forms:

1. Hypodermis
2. Epidermis
3. Phloem
4. Inner cortex.

Answer: 1. Hypodermis

Question 53. Xylem and phloem in plants are concerned with conduction like arteries and veins. Yet unlike the arteries and veins, together they cannot be termed a circulatory system because:

1. No liquid moves through these elements
2. Gases are not transported by these tissues
3. Plants lack the heart to pump
4. Movement is not in a circular manner from one to the other.

Answer: 4. Movement is not in a circular manner from one to the other.

Question 54. Xylem parenchyma occurring in association with vessels is known as:

1. Paratracheal xylem parenchyma
2. Apotracheal xylem parenchyma
3. Syntracheal xylem parenchyma
4. Associated xylem parenchyma.

Answer: 1. Paratracheal xylem parenchyma

Plant Anatomy MCQs Question 55. Angular collenchyma is found in:

1. Althea
2. Cucurbita
3. Lactuca
4. Salvia.

Answer: 2. Cucurbita

Question 56. Youngest layer of secondary xylem is adjacent to:

1. Cortex
2. Pith
3. Cambium
4. Pericycle.

Answer: 3. Cambium

Question 57. External protective tissue of plants are:

1. Pericycle and cortex
2. Epidermis and cork
3. Cork and pericycle
4. Cortex and epidermis.

Answer: 2. Epidermis and cork

Question 58. Angiosperms have:

1. Tracheids only
2. Vessels absent
3. Vessels present
4. Sieve tubes are absent.

Answer: 3. Vessels present

Question 59. Fusiform initials form:

1. Tracheary elements
2. Phloem parenchyma
3. Vascular rays
4. Ray parenchyma.

Answer: 1. Tracheary elements

Question 60. Which of the following lies in between the bark and wood of a tree trunk?

1. Cork cambium
2. Phloem
3. Vascular cambium
4. Primary cortex.

Answer: 3. Vascular cambium

Question 61. Plant fibres can originate from:

1. Phloem, xylem, epidermis and sclerenchyma tissues
2. Xylem, epidermis and sclerenchyma tissues
3. Phloem, xylem and sclerenchyma tissues
4. Xylem, phloem and epidermis tissues.

Answer: 1. Phloem, xylem, epidermis and sclerenchyma tissues

Question 62. Sieve tubes are best suited for translocation because they:

1. Possess no end wall
2. Are broader than long
3. Possess a broad lumen and perforated wall end
4. Possess bordered pits.

Answer: 3. Possess a broad lumen and perforated wall end

Important MCQs on Anatomy of Flowering Plants Question 63. Promeristem is found in:

1. Embryo
2. Root apex
3. Shoot apex
4. All of the above.

Answer: 1. Embryo

Question 64. Which of the following do not have a nucleus but are still living?

1. Sieve tubes
2. Trachea.
3. Companion cell
4. Phloem fibres.

Answer: 1. Sieve tubes

Question 65. Abundant root hairs are present in:

1. Eichhornia
2. Hydrilla
3. Commelina
4. Pistia.

Answer: 1. Eichhornia

Question 66. The cell layer located at the periphery in the cross-section of the root is called:

1. Endodermis
2. Epiblema
3. Pericycle
4. Xylem.

Answer: 2. Epiblema

Question 67. Lateral roots arise from the:

1. Endodermis
2. Epidermis
3. Pericycle
4. Pith.

Answer: 3. Pericycle

Question 68. The endodermis is the innermost layer of the:

1. Xylem
2. Phloem
3. Cortex
4. Cambium.

Answer: 3. Cortex

Question 69. Casparian strips occur in:

1. Endodermis
2. Epidermis
3. Pericycle
4. Cortex.

Answer: 1. Endodermis

Question 70. Radial vascular bundles occur in:

1. Stems
2. Dicot stem
3. Monocot stem
4. Monocot root.

Answer: 4. Monocot root.

Important MCQs on Anatomy of Flowering Plants Question 71. Well-developed pith is found in:

1. Monocot root and monocot stem
2. Monocot root and dicot stem
3. Monocot stem and dicot root
4. Dicot root and dicot stem.

Answer: 2. Monocot root and dicot stem

Question 72. Protoxylem lacunae are characteristic features of:

1. Climbers
2. Underground stem
3. Vascular bundles of the stem of grasses
4. Cladode.

Answer: 3. Vascular bundles of the stem of grasses

Question 73. The centrifugal arrangement of the xylem is called:

1. Monarch
2. Diarch
3. Polyarch
4. Exarch.

Answer: 4. Exarch.

Question 74. The xylem in the monocot root is:

1. Monarch
2. Diarch
3. Triarch
4. Polyarch.

Answer: 4. Polyarch.

Question 75. Cortex in the monocot root constitutes:

1. Parenchymatous cells
2. Collenchymatous cells
3. Sclerenchymatous cells
4. Companion cells.

Answer: 1. Parenchymatous cells

Question 76. Root hairs are:

1. Acellular
2. Unicellular
3. Multicellular
4. Multicellular and unicellular.

Answer: 2. Unicellular

Question 77. Monocot root differs from dicot root in having:

1. Scattered vascular bundles
2. Well developed pith
3. Endarch vascular bundles
4. Open vascular bundles.

Answer: 2. Well-developed pith

Question 78. The main function of xylem is:

1. Protection
2. Storage of food
3. Conduction of water and minerals
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Conduction of water and minerals

Question 79. Vascular cambium in dicot root develops from:

1. Endodermis
2. Pericycle
3. Conjunctive parenchyma
4. Both (2) and (3).

Answer: 4. Both (2) and (3).

Important MCQs on Anatomy of Flowering Plants Question 80. Vessels are characteristic of:

1. Angiosperms only
2. Gymnosperms only
3. Pteridophytes only
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Angiosperms only

Question 81. Root hair arises from:

1. Pericycle
2. Endodermis
3. Cortex
4. Epiblema.

Answer: 4. Epiblema.

Question 82. Tyloses are found in:

1. Secondary xylem
2. Secondary phloem
3. Callus tissue
4. Cork cells.

Answer: 1. Secondary xylem

Question 83. After secondary growth, the copies in the dicot root:

1. Remains intact
2. Is completely sloughed away
3. Is largely lost
4. Is converted to cork.

Answer: 3. Is largely lost

Question 84. Monocot root differs from dicot root in:

1. Showing no secondary growth
2. No hairs
3. No cambium
4. All the above.

Answer: 3. No cambium

Question 85. Exarch xylem is found in:

1. Root
2. Stem
3. Leal
4. Rachis.

Answer: 1. Root

Plant Anatomy MCQs Question 86. Stem and flrots olqucifeme grow due to actiraty of:

1. Cortex
2. Cambium
3. Phloem
4. Endoderm.

Answer: 2. Cambium

Question 87. Pith is absent or reduced in:

1. Dicot root
2. Dicot stem
3. Monocot stem
4. Monocot root.

Answer: 1. Dicot root

Question 88. Two to five xylem bundles are found in:

1. Monocot root
2. Monocot stem
3. Dicot stem
4. Dicot root.

Answer: 4. Dicot root.

Question 89. Maximum amount of growth in roots occurs due to :

1. Auxins
2. Root cap region
3. Presence of light
4. Darkness.

Answer: 1. Auxins

Question 90. The tip of the root apical meristem is covered by a root pocket in:

1. Brassica
2. Eichhornia
3. Petunia
4. Wheat.

Answer: 2. Eichhornia

Question 91. Raphides are:

1. Starch
2. Silica
3. Calcium carbonates
4. Calcium oxalate.

Answer: 4. Calcium oxalate.

Question 92. Raphides are found in:

1. Citrus
2. Colocasia or monocots
3. Nerium
4. Mango.

Answer: 2. Colocasia or monocots

Plant Anatomy MCQs Question 93. If the heartwood region of the plant is removed or decays:

1. The root will die first
2. Shoot will die first
3. Root and shoot die together
4. Neither root nor shoot till die.

Answer: 4. Neither root nor shoot till die.

Question 94. In the dicot stem the vascular bundles are:

1. Not found at all
2. Closed and show sclerenchymatous bundle sheath
3. Arranged in a ring
4. Are scattered in the ground tissue.

Answer: 3. Arranged in a ring

Question 95. In a dicot stem, the vascular bundle is:

1. Concentric
2. Collateral
3. Excentric
4. Radial.

Answer: 2. Collateral

Question 96. The most common type of ground tissue is:

1. Epidermis
2. Collenchyma
3. Parenchyma
4. Sclerenchyma.

Answer: 3. Parenchyma

Question 97. Mark the openings on a tree trunk for respiration:

1. Stomata
2. Hydathode
3. Lenticels
4. Cracks.

Answer: 3. Lenticels

Question 98. In monocots vascular bundles are:

1. Open
2. Closed
3. Bicollateral
4. Radial.

Answer: 2. Closed

Plant Anatomy MCQs Question 99. Growth rings determine:

1. Age
2. Length
3. Breadth
4. Number of branches of a plant.

Answer: 1. Age

Question 100. Vascular bundles are arranged in a ring in:

1. Dicot stem
2. Dicot root
3. Monocot stem
4. Monocot leaf.

Answer: 1. Dicot stem

Evolution MCQs For NEET Biology With Answers

Question 1. Which one is the common point in Lamarckism and Darwinism?

1. Origin of the idea of organic evolution
2. Continuity of germplasm.
3. Mutation
4. The idea of evolution.

Answer: 4. The idea of evolution.

Question 2. Genetic drift is on account of:

1. Variation
2. Mutation
3. Increase in population
4. No change in population.

Answer: 3. Increase in population

Question 3. Reproductive isolation between segments of a single population is termed:

1. Allopatry
2. Population divergence
3. Sympatry
4. Disruptive isolation.

Answer: 3. Sympatry

Evolution – NEET Questions Question 4. The present Giraffe has a long neck as compared to its ancestors. According to the present-day view could be due to the:

1. Natural selection
2. Isolation
3. Speciation
4. Inheritance of acquired characters.

Answer: 1. Natural selection

Question 5. The appearance of ancestral characters in the new bombs, such as the tail, multiple mammae etc. is known as:

1. Homologous
2. Analogous
3. Atavism
4. Vestigial.

Answer: 3. Atavism

Question 6. Nowadays Lamarckian theory is being reviewed in the light of the modern concept of evolution under the heading Neo-Lamarckism. Who proved that the genes are influenced by physical and chemical factors so that they bring remarkable changes to the offspring

1. Tower
2. Harrison
3. Hoffman
4. Both 1 and 2.

Answer: 4. Both 1 and 2.

Question 7. According to the Neo-Lamarckism:

1. Acquired characters influence the somatic cells
2. Acquired characters influence the chromosomes or genes
3. Somatic characters are not inherited while characters of gametes are inherited by the offspring
4. All the above three.

Answer: 2. Acquired characters influence the chromosomes or genes

Question 8. One of the following is most essential of evolution:

1. Mutation
2. Hereditary characters
3. Adaptations
4. Nature.

Answer: 1. Mutation

Evolution – NEET Questions Question 9. Changes in genetic characters on accumulation, leading to the formation of new individuals is characteristics of:

1. Non-directional
2. Genetic drift
3. Divergent evolution
4. Macroevolution.

Answer: 3. Divergent evolution

Question 10. Radiations with successful adaptations in the case of insects over a major period are a result of the:

1. Microevolution
2. Genetic divergence
3. Mega evolutions
4. Macroevolution.

Answer: 4. Macroevolution.

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 11. The term used for similarity in organ structure seen in great diversity is:

1. Homology
2. Analogy
3. Symmetrical
4. Identical.

Answer: 1. Homology

Question 12. Darwinism fails to explain:

1. Usefulness of all organs
2. Retrogression
3. Progression
4. Presence of vestigial organs.

Answer: 4. Presence of vestigial organs.

Question 13. Fishes to mammals have a similar structure with respect to:

1. Forebrain alone
2. Midbrain alone
3. Hindbrain alone
4. All three regions.

Answer: 4. All three regions.

Question 14. Balancing selection promotes:

1. Homozygotes
2. Heterozygotes
3. Polyploids
4. Recessive traits alone.

Answer: 2. Heterozygotes

Evolution MCQ for NEET Question 15. Cladogenesis refers to:

1. Convergence of different genetic lines
2. Divergence of genetic lines from a common ancestor
3. Independent evolution
4. Formation of new species.

Answer: 2. Divergence of genetic lines from a common ancestor

Question 16. Allopatric speciation is due to:

1. Mutation
2. Geographical separation of population
3. Migration of members of a species from one to another population
4. Hybridization between closely related species.

Answer: 2. Geographical separation of population

Question 17. The most complex cellular structures are found in:

1. Bacteria
2. Algae
3. Protozoa
4. Fungi.

Answer: 3. Protozoa

Question 18. The oldest fossil of a mammal is from the:

1. Permian period
2. Jurassic period
3. Triassic period
4. Cretaceous period.

Answer: 3. Triassic period

Question 19. Successful adaptation simply means:

1. An increase in fitness
2. Moving to a new place
3. Producing viable offsprings
4. Evolving new characteristics.

Answer: 3. Producing viable offspring

Question 20. The unit of evolution is now known to be the:

1. Individual
2. Family
3. Population
4. Species.

Answer: 3. Population

Evolution MCQ for NEET  Question 21. The unit of natural selection is the:

1. Individual
2. Family
3. Population
4. Species.

Answer: 1. Individual

Question 22. The total collection of genes at any one time in a unit of evolution is called the:

1. Genotype
2. Gene pool
3. Multiple allelic groups
4. Demotype.

Answer: 2. Gene pool

Question 23. A change in the relative abundance of an allele (the allelic frequency) within a population, over a succession of generations is called:

1. Micro-evolution or adaptive evolution
2. Macro-evolution or speciation
3. Co-evolution
4. Phylogenetic evolution.

Answer: 1. Micro-evolution or adaptive evolution

Question 24. Micro-evolution can be measured by comparing observed allelic frequencies with those predicted by:

1. Chance
2. Hardy Weinberg equation
3. Mendelian ratios
4. All known environmental factors.

Answer: 2. Hardy Weinberg equation

Question 25. A potential danger to a population that has been greatly reduced in number is the following:

1. Loss of genetic viability
2. The tendency towards assortative mating
3. Reduced gene flow
4. Hardy Weinberg disequilibrium.

Answer: 1. Loss of genetic viability

Question 26. All alleles originate from:

1. Mutations
2. Cross-overs
3. Gene flow
4. Non-disjunctions.

Answer: 1. Mutations

NEET MCQ Questions With Answers Question 27. A beneficial allele increases more rapidly in frequency if it is:

1. Recently mutated
2. Rare
3. Dominant
4. Recessive.

Answer: 3. Dominant

Question 28. Sympatric speciation occurs most commonly in:

1. Mammals
2. Fishes
3. Amphibians
4. Birds.

Answer: 2. Fishes

Question 29. Reproductive isolation in sympatric speciation develops without a:

1. Change in chromosome number
2. Barrier to mating
3. Geographical barrier
4. The barrier to gene flow.

Answer: 3. Geographical barrier

Question 30. Darwin found that South American fossils are most similar to:

1. Australian fossils
2. Asian fossils
3. Living species of South America
4. Living species of North America.

Answer: 3. Living species of South America

Question 31. Darwin believed that a Giraffe has a long neck because:

1. A creator designed it that way
2. Catastrophes eliminated short-necked form
3. Its ancestors stretched their necks to get food
4. Ancestral Giraffes with slightly longer necks than others got more food and left more surviving offspring.

Answer: 4. Ancestral Giraffes with slightly longer necks than others got more food and left more surviving offspring.

NEET MCQ Questions With Answers Question 32. According to Darwin, two different areas within a continent have different species because they have different:

1. Evolutionary mechanism
2. Ancestors
3. Environments
4. Evolutionary times.

Answer: 3. Environments

Question 33. The population of Bi’s ton betularia changed from 1% dark 99% light individuals, 99% dark and 1% light individuals between 1848 to 1898. The selective agent causing the change was:

1. Humans
2. Toxins from smoke
3. Birds
4. Tree bark.

Answer: 3. Birds

Question 34. The most important evidence since Darwin bears on his theory has been the area of:

1. Palaeontology
2. Genetics
3. Comparative anatomy
4. Comparative embryology.

Answer: 2. Genetics

Question 35. Phylogeny describes a species:

1. Morphological similarities with other species
2. Reproductive compatibilities to other species
3. Evolutionary history
4. Geographical distribution.

Answer: 3. Evolutionary history

NEET Biology Evolution MCQs Question 36. Plants and animals of the Galapagos Islands resemble most closely the plants and animals of:

1. North America
2. South America
3. Asia
4. Australia.

Answer: 2. South America

Question 37. Similar traits resulting from similar selection pressures acting on similar gene pools are:

1. Coevolution
2. Convergent evolution
3. Divergent evolution
4. Parallel evolution.

Answer: 4. Parallel evolution.

Question 38. The process of evolution:

1. Is a continuous process
2. Is a discontinuous process
3. Was continuous in the beginning but discontinuous now
4. Was discontinuous.

Answer: 1. Is a continuous process

Question 39. Organic evolution means:

1. Life began in the sea
2. Fossils are old
3. Descent with modifications
4. Man descended from monkeys.

Answer: 3. Descent with modifications

Question 40. Evolution is generally:

1. Progressive
2. Retrogressive
3. Standstill
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Progressive

Question 41. Evolution means:

1. History of race
2. Development of race
3. History and development of race with variations
4. Progressive development of the race.

Answer: 3. History and development of race with variations

NEET Biology Evolution MCQs Question 42. Charles Darwin toured in a ship for 5 years. It was:

1. Vikrant
2. Alexander
3. Phillips
4. Beagle.

Answer: 4. Beagle.

Question 43. The modern theory of organic evolution is based on:

1. Genetic variation
2. Natural selection
3. Isolation
4. All the above three.

Answer: 4. All the above three.

Question 44. Genetic variation arises by:

1. Recombination (crossing over)
2. Chromosomal aberrations
3. Mutation
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 45. Genes mutate by:

1. Substitution of a base
2. Addition of a base
3. Deletion of a base
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 46. The natural selection really means:

1. Struggle for existence
2. Differential reproduction
3. Survival of the fittest
4. Elimination of the unfit.

Answer: 2. Differential reproduction

Question 47. Salutations is the name given to:

1. Lethal variations
2. Blastogcnic variations
3. Continuous variations
4. Discontinuous variations.

Answer: 4. Discontinuous variations.

Question 48. The role of isolation in evolution is:

1. Creation of new species
2. Maintenance of an existing species
3. Evolutionary divergence
4. Extermination of a species.

Answer: 1. Creation of new species

Question 49. Which is the most important factor for the development of a new species?

1. Extensive inbreeding
2. Extensive outbreeding
3. Geographical isolation
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Extensive outbreeding

Question 50. There is more competition for survival between:

1. Different animals of the same niche
2. Some animals of the same niche
3. Different animals of different niche
4. Same animals of different niches.

Answer: 2. Same animals of the same niche

Question 51. Speciation depends on the sum total of adaptive changes preserved by:

1. Natural selection
2. Human conservation
3. Isolation
4. Environment.

Answer: 3. Isolation

Question 52. Separation of a variant population from the original population by a mountain is called:

1. Geographical isolation
2. Ecological isolation
3. Economical isolation
4. Temporal isolation.

Answer: 1. Geographical isolation

Question 53. The propounder of the theory of Natural Selection was:

1. Mendel
2. Darwin
3. De Vries
4. Lamarck.

Answer: 2. Darwin

Question 54. The doctrine of evolution is particularly concerned with:

1. Gradual changes
2. Environmental condition
3. Theory of special creation
4. Spontaneous growth.

Answer: 1. Gradual changes

Question 55. The theory of inheritance of acquired characters was proposed by:

1. Mendel
2. Darwin
3. Lamarck
4. De Vries.

Answer: 3. Lamarck

NEET Biology Evolution MCQs Question 56. Darwin was influenced by one of the following in proposing the theory of his natural selection:

1. Cell theory
2. Mendel’s Laws of Inheritance
3. Overflow of population
4. Malthus’s theory of population.

Answer: 4. Malthus’s theory of population.

Question 57. Organic evolution refers to:

1. Evolution of organs
2. Orderly changes based on plans of the past
3. Drastic changes with no resemblance to the past
4. Orderly changes over long periods.

Answer: 2. Orderly changes based on plans of the past

Question 58. Retrogressive evolution refers to:

1. Elimination of structural diversity
2. Elimination of behavioural traits
3. Reduction in structure of complex but primitive organisms
4. Degeneration of advanced organisms.

Answer: 3. Reduction in structure of complex but primitive organisms

Question 59. The various concepts such as conflict, struggle and survival were first introduced by:

1. Darwin
2. Heraclitus
3. Empedocles
4. Anaximander.

Answer: 1. Darwin

Question 60. De Vries worked on the plant:

1. Pisum
2. Lathyrus
3. Oenothera
4. Mirabilis.

Answer: 3. Oenothera