Sainavle

NEET Biology Evidence Of Evolution Multiple Choice Questions And Answers

Question 1. Homologous organs are:

1. Constructed on a similar plan of organization and embryonic development
2. Morphologically similar
3. Functionally identical
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Constructed on a similar plan of organization and embryonic development

Question 2. Analogous organs are those which are:

1. Structurally identical
2. Functionally similar
3. Both structurally and functionally resemble each other
4. Normally not functional.

Answer: 2. Functionally similar

Question 3. One of the following is not a vestigial organ:

1. Vermiform appendix
2. Wisdom tooth
3. Epiglottis
4. Scalp hair.

Answer: 3. Epiglottis

Evolution Zoology NEET Practice Questions MCQs Question 4. Biogenetic law was given by:

1. Hooke
2. Hymen
3. Haeckel
4. Darwin.

Answer: 3. Haeckel

Question 5. Vestigial organs are those:

1. Which were functional long ago but became non-functional now
2. Rudimentary in development
3. Degenerated now
4. Functional at present but reduced.

Answer: 1. Which were functional long ago but became non-functional now

Question 6. The earliest age in the geological record is:

1. Cenozoic
2. Precambrian
3. Palaeozoic
4. Mesozoic.

Answer: 2. Precambrian

Question 7. The Carboniferous period during which amphibians flourished occurred approximately:

1. 25 million years ago
2. 135 million years ago
3. 345 million years ago
4. 500 million years ago.

Answer: 3. 345 million years ago

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 8. The Permian period, during which most modem orders of insects appeared, occurred approximately:

1. 80 million years ago
2. 135 million years ago
3. 280 million years ago
4. 550 million years ago.

Answer: 3. 280 million years ago

Evolution Zoology NEET Practice Questions MCQs Question 9. Macroevolution is the evolution of:

1. Macromolecules
2. Phylogenetic gaps
3. Major events occurring over geologic time
4. Large organisms.

Answer: 3. Major events occurring over geologic time

Question 10. A structure, such as a feather that evolved in one context and was then used for a completely new function is a:

1. Mystery to macro evolutionists
2. Pre-adaptation
3. Macrostructure
4. Paedomorphs.

Answer: 2. Pre-adaptation

Question 11. Retention in an adult organism of juvenile features of its ancestor is known as:

1. Allometiy
2. Preadaptation
3. Macro-development
4. Paedomorphosis.

Answer: 4. Paedomorphosis.

Question 12. The wings of a bird and the forelegs of the horse are:

1. Analogous organs
2. Homologues
3. Vestigial structure
4. Phylogenetic structure.

Answer: 2. Homologues

Question 13. The pelvis and the leg bones of a snake are:

1. Analogous organs
2. Homologous structures
3. Vestigial structure
4. Phylogenetic structure.

Answer: 3. Vestigial structure

Question 14. The best test of the relatedness of the species is in the similarity of their:

1. Anatomy
2. DNA and proteins
3. Development
4. Courtship behaviour.

Answer: 2. DNA and proteins

Question 15. George Cuvier realized that the history of life is recorded in fossils and believed that replace of one species by another is caused by:

1. Massive number of mutations
2. The wrath of God
3. Extinctions due to catastrophes such as floods
4. Genetic inbreeding.

Answer: 3. Extinctions due to catastrophes such as floods

Question 16. Most fossils are found in:

1. Granite
2. Sedimentary rocks
3. Lava flows
4. Black soil.

Answer: 2. Sedimentary rocks

Evolution Zoology NEET Practice Questions MCQs Question 17. Of all the living species that ever lived approximately how many have gone extinct?

1. Less than 1%
2. 20%
3. 60%
4. More than 99%.

Answer: 4. More than 99%.

Question 18. For the origin of life, most important condition is:

1. H₂O
2. Carbon
3. Nitrogen
4. Free oxygen.

Answer: 1. H₂O

Question 19. The richest source of fossils is:

1. Basalt
2. Granite
3. Lava
4. Sedimentary rocks.

Answer: 4. Sedimentary rocks.

Question 20. The fossil animals which show characters of two different groups of animals are called as:

1. Extinct animals
2. Missing links
3. Vestigial animals
4. None of these.

Answer: 2. Missing links

Question 21. The Haeckel’s theory of recapitulation (Biogenetic Law) means that:

1. All organisms start as an egg
2. Life history of an animal reflects its evolutionary history
3. The progeny of an organism resembles its parents
4. Body parts once lost are regenerated.

Answer: 2. Life history of an animal reflects its evolutionary history

Question 22. Who established the precipitation method of blood tests for finding out the inter-relationship among different animals:

1. Haeckel
2. Foxon
3. L. De Vinci
4. H.F. Nuttal.

Answer: 4. H.F. Nuttal.

Question 23. The connecting link between chordates and non- chordates is:

1. Peripatus
2. Balanoglossus
3. Sphenodon
4. Tachyglossus.

Answer: 2. Balanoglossus

Evidences for Evolution MCQ  Question 24. Which of the following would be easily fossilized?

1. External ear
2. Heart
3. Skin
4. Tooth.

Answer: 4. Tooth.

Question 25. Which of the following is a living fossil?

1. Euglena
2. Balanoglossus
3. Sycon
4. Limulus.

Answer: 4. Limulus.

Question 26. The archaeozoic era is considered as the age of:

1. Protista
2. Marine life
3. Amphibians
4. Fishes.

Answer: 1. Protista

Question 27. Geologically one of the following eras is known as the ‘Age of Reptiles’ or the ‘Golden Age of Dinosaurs.’

1. Palaeozoic
2. Cenozoic
3. Mesozoic
4. Psychozoic.

Answer: 3. Mesozoic

Question 28. Appearance of teeth in the embryos of birds is an example of:

1. Vestigial organs
2. Ontogeny repeats phylogeny
3. Atavism
4. Speciation.

Answer: 2. Ontogeny repeats phylogeny

Question 29. Archaeopteryx is a missing link between:

1. Reptiles and birds
2. Reptiles and mammals
3. Birds and mammals
4. None of these.

Answer: 1. Reptiles and birds

Question 30. Dinosaurs are extinct:

1. Reptiles
2. Mammals
3. Birds
4. Amphibians.

Answer: 1. Reptiles

Question 31. Some of the important evidences of organic evolution are:

1. Occurrence of homologous and vestigial organs
2. Occurrence of analogous and vestigial organs
3. Occurrence of homologous and analogous organs
4. Occurrence of analogous organs only.

Answer: 1. Occurrence of homologous and vestigial organs

Evolution MCQ For NEET Biology With Answers Question 32. Which of the following is not a vestigial organ in man?

1. Vermiform appendix
2. Plica semilunaris
3. Ear muscles
4. Epiglottis.

Answer: 4. Vermiform appendix

Question 33. Which of the following are the examples of analogous structures?

1. Leaves of a plant and cladodes of Ruscus
2. Wings of an insect and wings of bird
3. Hands of man, monkey and kangaroo
4. Both (1) and (2).

Answer: 4. Both (1) and (2).

Question 34. Blood groups A, B, AB and O occur in humans. The blood groups A and B are found in apes but not in monkeys. This suggests that:

1. Humans, monkeys and apes are related
2. Human beings are more closely related to apes
3. Human beings are more closely related to monkeys
4. Human beings are more closely related to apes than to monkeys.

Answer: 4. Human beings are more closely related to apes than to monkeys.

Question 35. Which one of the following is homologous?

1. Tails of scorpion, bird and monkey
2. Stings of bees, scorpions and fangs of monkey
3. Wings of butterflies, flying fish and bird
4. Paddles of whale, antis of man and wings of bat.

Answer: 4. Paddles of whale, antis of man and wings of bat.

Question 36. Which of the following illustrates palaeontological evidence in favour of organic evolution?

1. Archaeopteryx
2. Peppered moth
3. Duck-billed platypus
4. Darwin’s finches.

Answer: 1. Archaeopteryx

Question 37. Evolutionary changes occurring in distantly related organisms are classified as:

1. Parallel evolution
2. Divergent evolution
3. Convergent evolution
4. Macro-evolution.

Answer: 3. Convergent evolution

Evolution MCQ For NEET Biology With Answers Question 38. Which of the following are homologous?

1. Passijlora tendril and Bougainvillea thorn
2. Insect wing and bird wing
3. Tortoiseshell and mollusc shell
4. Sweet potato and Ginger.

Answer: 1. Passijlora tendril and Bougainvillea thorn

Question 39. Which of the following is an extinct animal?

1. Protopterus
2. Columba
3. Archaeopteryx
4. Equus.

Answer: 3. Archaeopteryx

Question 40. A fossil is a:

1. Laboratory preserved animal
2. Dead animals of the past
3. Organic relic of the past
4. Stuffed animal of the past.

Answer: 3. Organic relic of the past

Question 41. Which of the following is the vestigial organ in man?

1. Vermiform appendix
2. Cervical vertebrae
3. Atlas vertebra
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Vermiform appendix

Question 42. Successful adaptation simply means:

1. An increase in fitness
2. Producing viable offspring
3. Evolving new characters
4. Moving to a new place.

Answer: 2. Producing viable offspring

Question 43. The law of superposition is associated with:

1. Vision in arthropods
2. Study of fossils
3. Inheritance
4. All of the above.

Answer: 1. Vision in arthropods

Question 44. How many million years is the age of the oldest rock on earth

1. 3500
2. 20
3. 5000
4. 4500.

Answer: 1. 3500

MCQ Evidences for Evolution Question 45. Fossil of Archaeopteryx is placed in:

1. Moscow
2. New York
3. London
4. Vienna.

Answer: 3. London

Question 46. Which of the following is the most primitive mammal?

1. Spiny anteater
2. Scaly anteater
3. ArmadiWo
4. Seal.

Answer: 1. Spiny anteater

Question 47. Birds of Galapagos island were named as Darwin’s finches by:

1. Wallace
2. Darwin
3. Dr David Lach
4. Empedocles.

Answer: 3. Dr David Lach

Question 48. Which one of the following groups are not analogous organs?

1. Wings of birds and wings of butterflies
2. The eye of octopus and eye of mammals
3. Flippers of penguins and flippers of dolphin
4. Thoms of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurhila
5. Tuberous roots of sweet potato and stem tuber of potato

Answer: 2. The Eye of octopus and the eye of mammal

Question 49. Haeckel’s recapitulation theory was based on:

1. Germ layers
2. Germplasm
3. Genetic variation
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Germ layers

Question 50. The dating of rocks is done by calculating the ratio between which of the following pairs in the igneous rocks associated with sedimentary rocks:

1. Uranium—Lead
2. Potassium-Argon
3. Rubidium —Strontium
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

NEET Biology Origin Of Life Multiple Choice Questions And Answers

Question 1. Life has originated due to:

1. Creation by god
2. Effects of sunshine on mud
3. Spontaneous generation
4. None of the above.

Answer: 4. None of the above.

Question 2. On one of the planets life has originated approximately some:

1. Half billion years ago
2. One billion years ago
3. Two billion years ago
4. Four billion years ago.

Answer: 4. Four billion years ago.

Question 3. The branch of zoology dealing with similarities and differences between individuals related by descent is:

1. Evolution
2. Ecology
3. Eugenics
4. Genetics.

Answer: 1. Evolution

Question 4. The spontaneous generation theory was first refuted by:

1. S.L. Miller
2. F. Redi
3. L. Spallanzani
4. L. Pasteur.

Answer: 2. F. Redi

Origin of Life Recommended MCQs – NEET Questions  Question 5. According to one of the most widely accepted theories, the earth’s atmosphere before any life had originated on this planet consisted of a mixture of:

1. Hydrogen, carbon dioxide, ammonia, oxygen
2. Ozone, methane, oxygen and water vapour
3. Water vapour, hydrogen, ammonia and methane
4. Oxygen, hydrogen, methane and ammonia.

Answer: 3. Water vapour, hydrogen, ammonia and methane

Question 6. Pasteur is famous for

1. Rejection of spontaneous generation theory
2. Cell theory
3. Vaccination
4. Both (1) and (3).

Answer: 4. Both (1) and (3).

Question 7. There is no life on the moon as there is no:

1. Nitrogen
2. Oxygen
3. Carbon
4. Water.

Answer: 4. Water.

Question 8. In the field of discovery of the origin of life, Miller prepared:

1. Ammonia
2. Protein
3. Amino acids
4. Hydrogen.

Answer: 3. Amino acids

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 9. Large colloidal particles containing protein with water molecules are:

1. Microsphere
2. Coacervates
3. Spherules
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 10. The energy source for the origin of life came from:

1. Ultraviolet light
2. Electric charge
3. High temperature
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 11. Which of the following were first formed?

1. Eobionts
2. Coacervates
3. Genes
4. Cells.

Answer: 2. Coacervates

Question 12. The first organisms were:

1. Autotrophs
2. Hctcrotrophs
3. Saprotrophs
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Hctcrotrophs

Question 13. Which of the scientists is associated with the naturalistic theory of the origin of life?

1. Pasteur
2. Oparin
3. Miller
4. Redi.

Answer: 2. Oparin

Question 14. Which is the most accepted theory of the origin of life

1. Theory of special creation
2. Theory of spontaneous generation
3. Oparin-Haldane theory
4. Theory of eternity of life.

Answer: 3. Oparin-Haldane theory

Question 15. Miller synthesized simple amino acids from:

1. H₂, NH₃, HCN and O₂
2. H₂, NH₃, CH₄ and water vapours
3. NH₃, CH₄, HCN
4. H₂, O₂, N₂ and H₂O.

Answer: 2. H₂, NH₃, CH₄ and water vapours

Evolution MCQs Question 16. The theory of special creation envisages the role of:

1. Chemical evolution
2. Abiogenesis
3. Divine intervention
4. Physical accretion.

Answer: 3. Divine intervention

Question 17. The theory of catastrophism considers one of the following as its mainstay:

1. That the earth was periodically devastated by catastrophes causing drastic changes
2. Catastrophic events eliminate life form
3. Does not support the theory of special creation
4. Elimination is the end of all events.

Answer: 1. That the earth was periodically devastated by catastrophes causing drastic changes

Question 18. The branch of Biology dealing with the study of the distribution of organisms in different geographic regions is:

1. Biogeography
2. Ecology
3. Eugenics
4. Genetics.

Answer: 1. Biogeography

Question 19. ‘Origin of Life’ hypothesis was initiated by:

1. Mendel
2. Darwin
3. Oparin
4. Pasteur.

Answer: 3. Oparin

Question 20. The atmosphere of the earth at the time of the origin of life was:

1. Oxidising
2. Reducing
3. Neither oxidising nor reducing
4. Having very low temperature.

Answer: 2. Reducing

Question 21. According to Oparin, the universe was a vast dense cloud of hot gases:

1. 7-10 billion years ago
2. 5-7 billion years ago
3. 6-8 billion years ago
4. 10-15 billion years ago.

Answer: 2. 5-7 billion years ago

Question 22. Which one of the gases was absent at the time of the origin of life?

1. Oxygen
2. Methane
3. Hydrogen
4. Ammonia.

Answer: 1. Oxygen

Question 23. The theory of spontaneous generation of life explains that:

1. God created all life
2. Life originated de novo
3. Scientists created life in laboratories
4. Life begets life.

Answer: 2. Life originated de novo

Question 24. Cuvier suggested which of the following theories:

1. Mutation
2. Theory of special creation
3. Theory of catastrophism
4. Natural selection.

Answer: 3. Theory of catastrophism

Question 25. Who is regarded as the father of evolutionary concepts?

1. Linnaeus
2. Darwin
3. Lamarck
4. Empedocles.

Answer: 4. Empedocles.

Question 26. People who believed in the theory of “Spontaneous creation” assumed that:

1. Organisms arise only from other organisms
2. Organisms arise spontaneously
3. Organisms arise from water
4. Organisms arise spontaneously and also from similar organisms.

Answer: 2. Organisms arise spontaneously

Class 12 Biology MCQ Evolution Origin of Life  Question 27. The principle of sterilization is based upon experiments carried by:

1. I.A. Oparin
2. L.Pasteur
3. F. Redi
4. C. Spallanzani.

Answer: 2. L.Pasteur

Question 28. The idea that the egg of Eve or the sperm of Adam contained minute human was part of:

1. Theory of biogenesis
2. Concept of epigenesis
3. Theory of preformation
4. Theory of recapitulation.

Answer: 3. Theory of preformation

Question 29. The first organisms to appear on Earth were more like plants because:

1. Plants are similar
2. Plants are more
3. Plants do photosynthesis
4. None of these.

Answer: 3. Plants do photosynthesis

Question 30. Who of the following proved that life originated from simple amino acids:

1. Muller
2. Miller and Fisher
3. Oparin
4. de Vries.

Answer: 2. Miller and Fisher

Question 31. In Stanley Miller’s classic experiment:

1. Nucleic acids were formed
2. Ultraviolet radiation was used
3. Oxygen was one of the starting ingredients
4. Amino acids were formed.

Answer: 4. Amino acids were formed.

Question 32. Mitochondria contain particles made up of about 100 polypeptide molecules of several different types. The particles catalyze the production of acetyl Co A and carbon dioxide from pyruvate. When disassembled into the component polypeptides, no enzymatic activity is seen. These particles are examples of:

1. Spontaneous generation
2. Emergent properties of systems
3. The origin of life
4. Informational macromolecules.

Answer: 2. Emergent properties of systems

Question 33. Which of the following is not true of the microspheres studied by Sydney Fox?

1. They are formed by the addition of water to proteinoids
2. They are of uniform size, about 2μm in diameter.
3. Microspheres grow and bud off new microspheres
4. They are bounded by a layer of lipid
5. The boundary of a microsphere shows selective permeability.

Answer: 4. The boundary of a microsphere shows selective permeability.

Question 34. Coacervates maintained their entity with the help of

1. Lipid membrane
2. Protein membrane
3. Lipoprotein membrane
4. Glycoprotein membrane.

Answer: 1. Lipid membrane

Question 35. Nucleotides, porphyrins, polypeptides and other bio-chemicals developed non-enzymatically in early broth due to:

1. Oxygen free atmosphere
2. High temperature
3. Irradiated environment
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 36. Archaespheroides barbertonesis is:

1. Most primitive living prokaryote
2. Cambrian trilobite
3. Precambrian cyanobacterium
4. First eukaryote.

Answer: 3. Precambrian cyanobacterium

Class 12 Biology MCQ Evolution Origin of Life  Question 37. First eukaryotes evolved through:

1. Mutation in prokaryotes
2. Either mutation in prokaryotes or symbiotic association of different prokaryotes
3. Symbiotic association of different prokaryotes
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Either mutation in prokaryotes or symbiotic association of different prokaryotes

Question 38. The modem theory of the origin of life is related to:

1. A.I. Oparin
2. Cuvier
3. Epicurus
4. Lamarck.

Answer: 1. A.I. Oparin

Question 39. The primitive atmosphere of Earth was devoid of:

1. Ammonia
2. Free oxygen
3. Methane
4. Cyanamide.

Answer: 2. Free oxygen

Question 40. According to cosmozoic theory, life comes on Earth from other planets in space in the form of:

1. Spores
2. Seeds
3. Gametes
4. All the above.

Answer: 1. Spores

Question 41. The scientists related to the theory of spontaneous generation and experiments with swan-necked flasks are:

1. Van Helmont
2. Louis Pasteur
3. Miller
4. Haeckel.

Answer: 2. Louis Pasteur

Question 42. Under certain conditions scientists have obtained cell-like structures but not the true organisation of a cell. These are referred to as:

1. Microbes
2. Coacervates
3. Eobionts
4. Protists.

Answer: 2. Coacervates

Question 43. The theory of Pangenesis is related to:

1. Darwin
2. de Vries
3. Cuvier
4. Aristotle.

Answer: 1. Darwin

Question 44. Anaximander believed in the origin of life through:

1. Special creation
2. Spontaneous generation
3. Panspermia
4. Biogenesis.

Answer: 2. Spontaneous generation

Question 45. Spallanzani kept boiled nutrition broth indefinitely in:

1. Covered jars
2. Uncovered jars
3. Sealed flasks
4. Swan-necked flasks.

Answer: 3. Sealed flasks

Question 46. The term proto biogenesis is used for the theory of:

1. Special creation
2. Biochemical origin
3. Panspermia
4. Spontaneous generation.

Answer: 2. Biochemical origin

Origin and Evolution of Life MCQs Test Question 47. The correct sequence of origin of life is:

1. Coacervate, biomolecule, autotroph and heterotroph
2. Biomolecule, coacervate, autotroph and heterotroph
3. Coacervate, autotroph, biomolecule and heterotroph
4. None of the above.

Answer: 4. None of the above.

Question 48. One of the following appeared on the earth with the coming of the plants, and was absent in the past:

1. Carbon dioxide
2. Methane
3. Ammonia
4. Oxygen.

Answer: 4. Oxygen.

Question 49. Conditions of primitive earth were recreated in the laboratory and amino acids and bases were synthesized abiotically by:

1. Miller and Urey
2. Oparin A.I. and Haldane, J.B.S.
3. Oparin and Sydney fox
4. Louis Pasteur.

Answer: 1. Miller and Urey

Question 50. The theory that living organisms on the earth came from outer space is based on the study of:

1. Igneous
2. Sedimentary rocks
3. Meteorites
4. Moon soil.

Answer: 3. Meteorites

Question 51. Life cannot originate from inorganic materials at present because of:

1. High degree of environmental pollution
2. A very high amount of oxygen in the atmosphere
3. Very low atmospheric temperature
4. Absence of raw material.

Answer: 2. A very high amount of oxygen in the atmosphere

Origin and Evolution of Life MCQs Test Question 52. Choose the correct sequence during the formation of chemicals on early Earth:

1. Ammonia, water, nucleic acids and proteins
2. Ammonia, proteins, carbohydrates and nucleic acids
3. Ammonia, nucleic acids, proteins and carbohydrates
4. Proteins, carbohydrates, water and nucleic acids.

Answer: 2. Ammonia, proteins, carbohydrates and nucleic acids

Question 53. “Origin of Life was written by:

1. S.L. Miller
2. A.I. Oparin
3. De Vries
4. Charles Darwin.

Answer: 1. S.L. Miller

Question 54. Origin of life took place in/on:

1. Water
2. Air
3. Mountains
4. Land.

Answer: 2. Air

Question 55. Panspermia are:

1. Yeast
2. Life spores
3. Bacteria
4. Viruses.

Answer: 3. Bacteria

Question 56. Organic compounds first evolved on earth and required for the origin of life were:

1. Urea and amino acids
2. Proteins and nucleic acids
3. Proteins and amino acids
4. Urea and nucleic acids.

Answer: 2. Proteins and nucleic acids

Question 57. “All plants and animals were created and perpetrated themselves without any change”, is the theory of:

1. Genesis
2. Panspermia
3. Abiogenesis
4. Biogenesis.

Answer: 4. Biogenesis.

Origin and Evolution of Life MCQs Test Question 58. Origin of life occurred in:

1. Air
2. Soil
3. Mountains
4. Water.

Answer: 4. Water.

Question 59. The most important compounds for the origin of life were:

1. Nucleotides
2. Nucleic acids
3. Protein
4. Amino acids.

Answer: 1. Nucleotides

Question 60. Earth originated in the past:

1. 1.6 billion yrs.
2. 4.6 billion yrs.
3. 8.6 billion yrs.
4. 86 million yrs.

Answer: 3. 8.6 billion yrs.

NEET Biology Elements Of Heredity Multiple Choices Questions

Question 1. When one member of a pair of allelic genes expresses itself as a whole, it is a case of:

1. Dominance
2. Co-dominance
3. Incomplete dominance
4. None of these.

Answer: 1. Dominance

Question 2. The first generation of a given cross is known as :

1. F₂ generation
2. F₂ generation
3. F₁ generation
4. None of these.

Answer: 3. F₁ generation

Question 3. Gamete is:

1. Diploid sex cell
2. Haploid cell
3. Diploid somatic cell
4. Triploid somatic cell.

Answer: 2.Haploid cell

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 4. The genotype of the individual is :

1. Genetic constitution
2. Genetic setup
3. Both of these
4. None of these.

Answer: 3. Both of these

Principles of Inheritance And Variation NEET Questions Question 5. Fraternal twins air produced when :

1. Two ova are fertilized simultaneously
2. Single fertilised ovum  gets fertilised again
3. Two ova develop paitlicnogcnclically
4. Single ovum fertilized by two sperms.

Answer: 1. Two ova are fertilized simultaneously

Question 6. “Theory of pangenesis” to explain the mechanism of heredity was given by :

1. Mendel
2. Darwin
3. Lamarck
4. Cuvier.

Answer: 2. Darwin

Question 7. The I.Q. of a genius ranges from :

1. 70-80
2. 90-109
3. 110-139
4. 140 and more.

Answer: 1. 70-80

Question 8. The genetic setup is termed as :

1. Dominant
2. Genotype
3. Phenotype
4. Alleles.

Answer: 3. Phenotype

Question 9. It is the ratio of mental age to :

1. Chronological age × 100
2. Chronological age + 100
3. Chronological age — 100
4. Chronological age ÷ 100.

Answer: 1. Chronological age × 100

Principles of Inheritance And Variation NEET Questions Question 10. The sex of an unborn mammal can be predicted by :

1. Placental biopsy
2. Examining the chorion
3. Amniocentesis
4. Examine the mother’s blood.

Answer: 3. Amniocentesis

Question 11. Criminal syndrome :

1. XXY
2. XO
3. XYY
4. XY.

Answer: 3. XYY

Question 12. Gallon is associated with :

1. Eugenics
2. Euthenics
3. Genetics
4. Human genetics.

Answer: 1. Eugenics

Question 13. The term gene refers to :

1. The sequence of amino acid
2. A linkage group
3. A part of tRNA
4. A portion of DNA.

Answer: 4. A portion of DNA.

Question 14. Who connected cytology with genetics :

1. Morgan
2. Sutton
3. Bridges
4. Mendel.

Answer: 4. A portion of DNA.

Principles of Inheritance And Variation NEET Questions Question 15. The total of genes in a population is known as :

1. Gene bank
2. Gene linkage
3. Gene pool
4. Genome.

Answer: 3. Gene pool

Question 16. Which is the wholly genetic trail?

1. Diphtheria
2. Leucoderma
3. Albinism
4. Tuberculosis.

Answer: 3. Albinism

Question 17. The wife is a PTC non-taster and the husband is a PTC taster. Their son is a taster but daughters are non-tasters. This is not a sex-linked trait. Which pedigree is correct ?

Answer: 1

Question 18. Predict from the following chart 

1. Character is dominant and carried by X chromosome
2. Carried by Y chromosome
3. Character is sex-linked recessive
4. Character is recessive autosomal.

Answer: 3. Character is dominant and carried by X chromosome

Question 19. From the pedigree of a family given below, it is clear that the trait is inherited as a dominant autosomal trail. What will be the genotype of the mother and father?

1. Mother is aa and father is Aa
2. Father is AA and mother is aa
3. Father is Aa and mother is Aa
4. None of die above.

Answer: 1. Mother is aa and father is Aa

Question 20. When an individual possesses both alleles of its phenotypically dissimilar parent, it is called:

1. Homozygous
2. Mother is aa and father is Aa
3. Dioecious
4. Monoecious.

Answer: 2. Mother is aa and father is Aa

Question 21. In a pig dominant allele B produces black colour and its recessive allele b produces white. What would be the probable genotype of the offspring when a cross is made between individuals heterozygous for colour?

1. BB
2. Bb
3. bb
4. All of these.

Answer: 4. All of these.

Question 22. When the phenotype and genotypic ratio resemble the E, generation, it is an example of:

1. Incomplete dominance
2. Dihybrid cross
3. Cytoplasmic inheritance
4. Linkage.

Answer: 1. Incomplete dominance

Principles Of Inheritance And Variation MCQ NEET Question 23. Word heredity is derived from the Latin word ‘Hereditas’ which means :

1. Heirship
2. Ancestral property
3. Blood relations
4. All the above.

Answer: 1. Heirship

Question 24. Which of the following explains the law of dominance?

1. The expression of only one of the parental characters in a monohybrid cross in the F( generation
2. The expression of both in the F₂ generation
3. The proportion of 3:1 obtained in the F₂ generation
4. All of above

Answer: 4. All of the above

Question 25. Starch grain size in pea seed is an example of:

1. Incomplete dominance
2. Multiple alleles
3. Pleiotropism
4. Polygenic inheritance

Answer: 1. Incomplete dominance

Question 26. In family. father had traits but their mother did not. All that ‘one and daughter bail this hail The same hail wav lound in some granddaughters, though daughter married lo normal persons.

In this pedigree the genotypes of lather, mother and husbands of daughters am

1. The father is AA, the mother is aa, husband are aa
2. Father is AA, mother is aa, and husbands are AA
3. Father is aa, mother is Aa, husband Aa
4. Father is AA. mother AA, one husband Aa and second husband aa.

Answer: 4. Father is AA. mother AA, one husband Aa and second husband aa.

Principles Of Inheritance And Variation MCQ NEET Question 27. In sweet pea, genes C and P are necessary for colour in flowers. The flowers are white in the absence of either or both the genes. What will be the percentage of coloured flowers in the offspring of the cross Ccpp x ccPp?

1. 25%
2. 50%
3. 75%
4. 100%.

Answer: 1. 25%

Question 28. Polymorphism is mainly due to :

1. Monogenic inheritance
2. Polygenic inheritance
3. Both of the above
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Both of the above

Question 29. Continuous genetic variations are produced by :

1. Independent assortment
2. Mutations
3. Climatic changes
4. Interspecific hybridization.

Answer: 2. Mutations

Question 30. The alleles that produce independent effects in heterozygous conditions are called:

1. Supplementary alleles
2. Codominant alleles
3. Epistatic genes
4. Complementary alleles.

Answer: 1. Supplementary alleles

Question 31. In the following pedigree chart, the mutant trait is shaded black. The gene responsible for the trait is:

1. Dominant and sex-linked
2. Dominant but autosomal
3. Recessive and sex-linked
4. Recessive and autosomal.

Answer: 2. dominant but autosomal

Question 32. In the given pedigree, indicate whether the shaded symbols indicate a dominant or recessive allele.

1. Dominant
2. Recessive
3. Codominant
4. It can be recessive or dominant.

Answer: 3. recessive

Question 33. A dominant lethal gene Is that which

1. Allows nil organotin to survive and to tepfodiite
2. Allows an organism to sin vibe lull does not allow il to reproduce
3. Suppress the sex of the holder organism
4. Kills the organism in which it is present.

Answer: 4. Kills the organism in which it is present.

Biology MCQs with Answers Question 34. In humans, an example of a sex-linked trail is:

1. Sickle-cell anaemia
2. Curly hair
3. Down’s syndrome
4. Data are insufficient.

Answer: 1. Sickle-cell anaemia

Question 35. If the cell of an organism heterozygous for two pairs of genes represented by Aa,  undergoes meiosis, then the possible genotypic combination of gametes will be: 

1. AB, aB, Ah. ab
2. All, ab
3. Aa, Bb
4. Data are insufficient.

Answer: 3. Aa, Bb

Question 36. To determine whether variations of a character in a population were genetically controlled, the most appropriate procedure will be lo :

1. Measure the variations and see if they are continuous or discontinuous
2. Crossing individuals of both extremes and sec if the offspring and  parents show the same range of variations
3. Count the chromosomes and find out the variations in their number in the population
4. Examine the DNA of F| progeny in a cross between AA and aa.

Answer: 2. Crossing individuals of both extremes and sec if the offspring and parents show the same range of variations

Question 37. If Mendel had studied the 7 traits using a plant with 12 chromosomes instead of 14, in what way would his interpretation have been different?

1. He could have mapped the chromosome
2. He would have discovered blending or incomplete dominance
3. He would not have discovered the law of independent assortment
4. He would have discovered sex linkage.

Answer: 3. He would not have discovered the law of independent assortment

Biology MCQs with Answers Question 38. How many different types of genetically different gametes will be produced by a heterozygous plant having the genotype: AAB b Cc?

1. Nine
2. Two
3. Four
4. Six.

Answer: 3. Four

Question 39. Human skin colour is controlled by several gene pairs. Let us assume here that there are just three gene pairs on different chromosomes and that for each pair there are two alleles – an incompletely dominant one that codes for melanin deposition and an incompletely recessive one that codes for no melanin deposition. If a very dark-skinned person marries a very light-skinned woman, what will be the chance that their offspring will have very dark skin?

1. 0
2. 1/4
3. 5/8
4. 9/64
5. 3/64.

Answer: 1. 0

Question 40. The F₂ generation offspring in a plant showing incomplete dominance, exhibits’

1. Variable genotypic and phenotypic ratios
2. A genotypic ratio of 1: 1
3. A phenotypic ratio of 3:1
4. Similar phenotypic and genotypic ratios of 1: 2: 1.

Answer: 4. Similar phenotypic and genotypic ratios of 1: 2: 1.

Question 41. Two pea plants were subjected to cross-pollination. Of the 183 plants produced in the next generation, 94 plants were found to be tall and 89 plants were found to be dwarf. The genotypes of the two parental plants are likely to be :

1. TT and It
2. Tt and Tt
3. Tt and tt
4. TT and TT.

Answer: 3. Tt and tt

Question 42. Gametes are never hybrid? It is a statement of the law of:

1. Dominance
2. Segregation
3. Independent assortment
4. Random fertilization.

Answer: 2. Segregation

Biology MCQs with Answers Question 43. Which is correct about the traits chosen by Mendel?

1. The terminal pod is the dominant
2. The constricted pod is the dominant
3. Green coloured pod is the dominant
4. Tall plants are recessive.

Answer: 3. Green coloured pod is the dominant

Question 44. In a certain plant, red fruit (R) is dominant over yellow fruit (r) and tallness (T) is dominant over shortness (t). If a plant with an RRTt genotype is crossed with a plant rrtt genotype, what will be the percentage of tall plants with red fruits in the progeny?

1. 50%
2. 100%
3. 75%
4. 25%

Answer: 1. 50%

Question 45. Mendel obtained wrinkled seeds in pea due to the deposition of sugars instead of starch. It was due to which enzyme?

1. Amylase
2. Invertase
3. Dataset
4. Absence of starch branching

Answer: 4. Absence of starch branching

Question 46. The ratio of complementary genes is :

1. 9 : 3: 4
2. 12:3:1
3. 9 : 3 : 3: 4
4. 9:7

Answer: 4. 9:7

Question 47. When dominant and recessive allele express itself together, it is called :

1. Co-dominance
2. Dominance
3. Amphidominance
4. Pseudodominance.

Answer: 1. Co-dominance

Question 48. What is correct for blood group ‘O’?

1. No antigens but both a and b antibodies are present
2. An Antigen and b antibody
3. Antigen and antibody are both absent.
4. A and B antigens and a, b antibodies.

Answer: 1. No antigens but both a and b antibodies are present

Question 49. Sickle cell anaemia induces to:

1. Change of Amino Acid in α-chain of haemoglobin
2. Change of Amino Acid in β-chain of Haemoglobin
3. Change of Amino Acid in both a or β chain of Haemoglobin
4. Change of Amino Acid either a or β chain of Haemoglobin

Answer: 2. Change of Amino Acid in the β-chain of Haemoglobin

Question 50. Independent assortment of genes does not take place when :

1. Genes are located on homologous chromosomes
2. Genes are linked and located on the same chromosome
3. Genes are located on non-homologous chromosomes
4. All the above.

Answer: 2. Genes are linked and located on the same chromosome

Multiple Choice Questions on Enzymes – NEET Biology

Question 1. As the temperature changes from 30 to 45’c the rate of enzyme activity will:

1. Decrease
2. First decrease and then increase
3. First increase and then decrease
4. Increase.

Answer: 3. First increase and then decrease

Question 2. Which one inactivates an enzyme by changing the enzyme’s shape?

1. Non-competitive inhibitor
2. Competitive inhibitor.
3. Coenzyme
4. All the above.

Answer: 1. Non-competitive inhibitor

Question 3. A non-proteinic enzyme is :

1. Lysozyme
2. Zymase
3. Papain
4. Rna ase-p.

Answer: 4. Rna ase-p.

Question 4. Which of the following belongs to class 5 of the cubic system of classification of enzymes?

1. Isomerase
2. Ligases
3. Transferase
4. Lyases.

Answer: 1. Isomerase

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

General mechanism of Enzymes NEET MCQs Question 5. Which does inactivate by denaturation in it?

1. Allosteric inhibitor
2. Competitive inhibitor
3. Irreversible inhibitor
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Allosteric inhibitor

Question 6. Most of the enzymes are secreted in an inactive form, otherwise, they will be destroyed.

1. Cell proteins
2. Cell dna
3. Cell mitochondria
4. Cell wall and membrane.

Answer: 1. Cell proteins

Question 7. The fastest enzyme is :

1. Pepsin
2. Trypsin
3. Catalase
4. Carbonic anhydrase.

Answer: 4. Carbonic anhydrase.

Question 8. Buchner isolated

1. Siamese
2. Zymase
3. Zeatinase
4. Ferment.

Answer: 2. Zymase

Question 9. The best example of extracellular enzymes (exoenzymes) is:

1. Nucleases
2. Digestive enzymes
3. Succinic dehydrogenase
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Digestive enzymes

Question 10. Enzymes bring about hydrolysis of esters and peptides are :

1. Transferases
2. Lyases
3. Hydrolases
4. Ligase.

Answer: 3. Hydrolases

General mechanism of Enzymes NEET MCQs Question 11. Examples of amine online are:

1. Arginase
2. Lactase
3. Zymase
4. Lipase.

Answer: 1. Arginase

Question 12. Energy must be added to a chemical reaction to start. This energy is known as the energy of :

1. Entropy
2. Activation
3. Enthalpy
4. Oxidation.

Answer: 2. Activation

Question 13. Which level of ‘x’ represents the usable energy yield?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4.

Answer: 2. 2

Question 14. Which segment of ‘x’ represents the energy of activation?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 4
4. 4

Answer: 1. 1

Question 15. The chemical reaction shown in the world be accelerated by all of the following processes:

1. Heating A and b together
2. Applying pressure to a and b
3. Adding an appropriate catalyst
4. Increase the conc. Of c.

Answer: 4. Increase the conc. Of c.

Enzymes Recommended MCQs NEET Questions Question 16. In most of the metabolic pathways, all needed enzymes are arranged together, in a multienzyme complex within:

1. Solution of atp
2. Membrane
3. Quarternary protein
4. Coenzyme.

Answer: 2. Membrane

Question 17. A non-protein organic part attached firmly to an apoenzyme is called :

1. Cofactor
2. Activator
3. Metallic group
4. Coenzyme.

Answer: 1. Cofactor

Question 18. Which is an enzyme that joins two segments of replicated dna?

1. Ligase
2. Lyase
3. Endonuclease
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Ligase

Question 19. Apoenzyrne and coenzyme collective produce :

1. Holoenzyme
2. Enzyrne-product complex
3. Cofactor
4. Prosthetic group.

Answer: 1. Holoenzyme

Question 20. Minimum number of amino acids to make an enzyme is:

1. 50
2. 150
3. 500
4. 5000.

Answer: 1. 50

Question 21. Fmn and fad are coenzymes derived from :

1. Ascorbic acid
2. Riboflavin
3. Thiamine
4. Pyridoxine.

Answer: 1. Ascorbic acid

Enzymes Recommended MCQs NEET Questions Question 22. Enzymes differ from inorganic catalysts in having:

1. High diffusion rate
2. High-temperature requirement
3. Proteinaceous structure
4. Tendency to become inactivated.

Answer: 3. Proteinaceous structure

Question 23. Active sites of enzymes are composed of :

1. Sugm molecule
2. Metallic ions
3. Organic co-factors
4. Amino acids.

Answer: 4. Amino acids.

Enzyme MCQ for NEET Question 24. Pepsin best works at :

1. Ph 7.00
2. Ph 8.5
3. Ph.00
4. Ph 8.00.

Answer: 3. Ph.00

Question 25. Of the following chemicals, the one that is classified as an enzyme is :

1. Galactose
2. Lipids
3. Manganese dioxide
4. Protease.

Answer: 4. Protease.

Question 26. Ribozyme is :

1. Rna without sugar
2. Rna with extra phosphate
3. Rna having enzymatic activity
4. All of the above.

Answer: 3. Rna having enzymatic activity

Enzymes Recommended MCQs NEET Questions Question 27. Allenzymes:

1. Are amino acids
2. Act best at 60ºc
3. Act best at 7 ph
4. Are proteins.

Answer: 4. Are proteins.

Question 28. At high temperatures, the enzyme is :

1. Denaturated
2. Killed
3. Slightly activated
4. Inactivated.

Answer: 1. Denaturated

Question 29. Inorganic catalyst attached to an enzyme is :

1. Apoenzyme
2. Coenzyme
3. Inhibitor
4. Activator.

Answer: 4. Activator.

Question 30. Enzymes are polymers of :

1. Fatty acids
2. Amino acids
3. Hexose sugar
4. Inorganic phosphate.

Answer: 2. Amino acids

MCQs on Enzymes Question 31. One is not correct :

1. All enzymes are thermolabile
2. All enzymes are biocatalysts
3. All enzymes are proteins
4. All proteins are enzymes.

Answer: 4. All proteins are enzymes.

Question 32. Match the tennis in column 1 with suitable terms in column 2

Which of the following is correct?

1. 1-G, 2-E, 3-A, 4-B, 5-F,6-C
2. 1-G, 2-E, 3-B, 4-C, 5-D, 6-F
3. 1-G, 2-A, 3-D, 4-F, 5-B, 6-A
4. 1-G, 2-E, 3-D, 4-B, 5-4 5-F.

Answer: 3. 1-G, 2-A, 3-D, 4-F, 5-B, 6-A

Question 33. Modulation:

1. Inhibit enzyme activity
2. Stimulate enzyme activity
3. Function as coenzymes
4. Both 1 and 2.

Answer: 4. Both a and b

MCQs on Enzymes Question 34. K. Indicates :

1. Competitive inhibition
2. Denaturation of enzymes
3. Reaction velocity
4. All of these.

Answer: 3. Reaction velocity

Question 35. Which is susceptible to feedback inhibition?

1. Zymogen
2. Zymase
3. Glucokinase
4. Hexokinase.

Answer: 4. Hexokinase.

Question 36. Ribozyme was discovered by :

1. Kuhne
2. Because
3. Cech at all
4. Altman at all

Answer: 3. Cech at all.

Question 37. An enzyme that brings about a change in side group without altered composition:

1. Isomerase
2. Epimease
3. Mutase
4. Esterase.

Answer: 3. Mutase

Question 38. Enzymes functional in cells are:

1. Inducible, constitutive, and repressible
2. Inducible and repressible
3. Inducible only
4. Repressible on1y.

Answer: 1. Inducible, constitutive, and repressible

Question 39. Flavoproteins in cellular oxidation are called:

1. Splitting enzyme
2. Redox enzyme
3. Uricolytic enzyme
4. Yellow enzyme.

Answer: 4. Yellow enzyme.

Enzymes MCQ Objective Questions  Question 40. The presence of enzymes in the urine is called :

1. Enzymuria
2. Enzymopenia
3. Enzymopathy
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Enzymuria

Question 41. Elisa test used in detecting:

1. Antigen
2. Antibody
3. Hormone
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 42. A person suffering from a.tr.d.s is a resident of an area that is exposed to radio waves which test is preferred to detect h.i.v. Infection.

1. R.i.a (radio immune assay)
2. H.i.v. Test.
3. E.l.i.s.a. Test
4. All of the above.

Answer: 3. E.l.i.s.a. Test

Question 43. Which of the following curve profiles show changes in the velocity (v) of an enzyme-catalyzed reactions at different pH values :

Answer: 1. 

Question 44. According to Koshland:

1. The enzyme is never destroyed
2. The enzyme is a rigid molecule
3. The catalytic site of the enzyme is rigid
4. Catalytic sites can be influenced by the presence of substrate.

Answer: 4. Catalytic sites can be influenced by the presence of substrate.

Enzymes MCQ Objective Questions  Question 45. According to Michaelis constant, the value of v is expressed as

1. [Latex]v=\frac{v_{\max } \times(s)}{k_m+(s)}[/latex]
2. [Latex]v=\frac{k_m+(s)}{v_{\max } \times(s)}[/latex]
3. [Latex]\mathrm{v}=\frac{\mathrm{v}_{\max } \times \mathrm{k}_{\mathrm{m}}}{[\mathrm{s}]}[/latex]
4. [Latex]\mathrm{v}=\frac{\mathrm{k}_{\mathrm{m}} \times(\mathrm{s})}{\mathrm{v}_{\max }} .[/Latex]

Answer: 2. [Latex]v=\frac{k_m+(s)}{v_{\max } \times(s)}[/latex]

Question 46. Enzymes catalyzing the hydrolysis of ester and peptide by the addition of water are known as:

1. Transferases
2. Hydrolases
3. Isomerases
4. Oxidation-reduction enzymes.

Answer: 2. Hydrolases

Question 47. Model of fisher implies that;

1. The active site is flexible and adjusts to the substrate
2. The active site requires the removal of PO, group
3. The active site is complementary in shape to that of the substrate
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. The active site is complementary in shape to that of the substrate.

Question 48. C-amp mediated “cascade model” of enzyme regulation was proposed by :

1. Fisher
2. Sutherland
3. Sumner
4. Koshalnd.

Answer: 2. Sutherland

Question 49. The substrate combines more rapidly with the enzyme when:

1. Km is high
2. Km is low
3. Ki is high
4. Ki is low.

Answer: 2. Km is low

Cyanobacteria Blue-Green Algae For NEET Biology

Kail V. Non-Nncgcll distinguished blue preen algae from algae. Name k Aihku ten was given by Klilin nml Morris

Blue-Green Algae Main Features

1. Common forms include unicellular, colonial, filamentous, heterotrichous, Gram-variable, and photosynthetic.
2. The cell wall features an external layer that is gelatinous, viscous, and mucilaginous.
3. The cellular contents are partitioned into two regions: the outer chromatograms containing photosynthetic pigments and the inner colorless cytoplasm.
4. The cell wall consists of two layers, with the inner layer composed of peptidoglycan or mucopolysaccharides derived from amino sugars

Example: Glucosamine and amino acids

Example: Muramic acid and diaminopimelic acid

• Bacteria and cyanobacteria lack mitochondria, genuine vacuoles, and endoplasmic reticulum.
• Hormocyst. Thick-walled hormogonia or multicellular akinetes present in cyanobacteria.
• Sterols are nonexistent in both bacteria and cyanobacteria.
• No membrane-bound chloroplasts or photosynthetic lamellae, such as thylakoid arcs, are typically found in the peripheral cytoplasm.
• The authentic nucleus is lacking. Delicate DNA fibrils are either dispersed throughout the cell or concentrated in the central region. Its chromosome is analogous to a bacterial chromosome.
• Cyanobacteria lack distinct reproductive organs, sexual reproduction, and motile reproductive structures.
• Gas vacuoles are frequently found to modulate buoyancy in aquatic environments.
• Cyanobacteria inhabit nearly all aquatic habitats. The organisms inhabit tropical regions, plains, and are found in soil, freshwater, and marine environments.
• They constitute a component of plankton in lakes and oceans. Certain cyanobacteria inhabit the frigid waters of glaciers, while others thrive in hot springs with temperatures exceeding 85°C.
• Certain blue-green algae exist as symbionts with other organisms. For instance, they frequently constitute the algal components of lichens.

Blue-green Algae NEET Notes

Shapes of Cyanobacteria

Cyanobacteria may be unicellular, colonial, or filamentous. Unicellular forms have single-celled body Examples Synecliococcus, Chroococcus, and Anacystis.

The colonial forms are of two types:

• Dendroid. They are the forms of cyanobacteria in which cells are held together by gelatinous connections example Chamae-siphon.
• Coccoid. They tire unicellular cyanobacteria embedded in a common matrix of mucilage without gelatinous connections, Example Microcystis. Filamentous forms are thread-like multicellular strands in which each filament or strand consists of a sheath of mucilage and one or more cellular strands called trichomes.
• Spirulina has a spirally coiled filament while a branched filament is found in Hapalosiphon.

Filaments that have single trichomes are divided into two types:

1. Homocystous. They have undifferentiated trichomes Example; Oscillatoria and Arthrospira.
2. Heterocystous. They have differentiated trichomes, for Example; Nostoc, and Rivularia.

In Schizothrix more than one trichomes are found in the same sheath of a filament. In Stigonema, a filament may have a few or a multiseriate trichome (in which numerous filaments are associated in a common sheath).

Classification based on morphology, motility, reproduction, and capacity of N2 fixation Cohen Bazire classified cyanobacteria into four groups:

1. Chroococcacean. Examples; Microcystis, Chroococcus, Gloeocapsa, etc.
2. Pseudocapsalean. Example Democarpa
3. Oscillatorian. Example; Oscillatoria.
4. Heterocystous. Examples; Nostoc, Aiiabacita, etc.
5. Among these groups, only Heterocystous has nitrogen-fixing capacity

Cyanobacteria Characteristics NEET Biology

Economic Importance of Cyanobacteria

1. Useful activities.
   1. Nitrogen fixation is done by about 50 species of cyanobacteria. Based on nitrogen fixation there are two types:
   2. Free-living nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria, for Example, Anahaeiui, Nostoc, Aulosira, Stylonenui, Stigonema, Oleotricltia, Calotlirix, TolypotlirLx, etc.
   3. They can fix approximately 15-48 kg of nitrogen per hectare per season. Aulosirafertilissima is the most active nitrogen fixer in Rice fields.
   4. Cslindnvpcrmum is an active nitrogen fixer of Sugarcane and Maize fields.
   5. Tolyptthrix is used as a nitrogen fixer in experimental fields. (hi Symbiotic nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria: Anabaena and Nostoc species are common symbionts in lichens. Anihoceros, Azolla, and Cycas roots in which it can fix nitrogen.
   6. Azolla pinnata has Anabaena azollac in its fronds which is often inoculated to Rice fields for nitrogen fixation.
   7. They provide food for fish and other aquatic animals but Spirulina is regularly collected for human consumption in parts of Africa and India (from Samber Lake of Rajasthani. Nostoc in China, Anabaena in India.
   8. They provide suitable conditions for the growth of other organisms in a hostile environment.
   9. They are used as biofertilizers.
   10. Anabaena and Aulosira do not allow mosquito larvae to grow.
   11. They improve the physical texture of the soil.
2. Harmful activities
   1. Microcystis secretes hydroxylamine which kills aquatic life, birds, and cattle while Anabaena causes gastric trouble in domesticated animals by contaminating the drinking water of these animals.
   2. Microcystis aeruginosa (= Anacystis cyanea), Anabaena flosaquae and Aphanizoinenon flosaquae not only spoil the taste of drinking water but are also toxic to human beings.
   3. They cause depletion of supply to aquatic animals by the formation of blood by Microcystis, Anabaena, and Nostoc.
   4. Anacystis causes corrosion of metallic water pipes.
   5. The growth of algae is controlled by using algicides such as dichlorophen, phylon XI, exalgae, cushion, etc.

Mycoplasma

Cell walls are absent in the simplest and smallest free-living prokaryotes, which are frequently referred to as MLOs (Mycoplasma-like organisms) or PPLOs (Pleuropneumonia-like organisms).

• They are referred to as the “Jokers of the plant kingdom.”Mycoplasma gallispticum is the smallest prokaryote, measuring 0.3 to 0.5 m in size. The following were identified by Roux and Nocard in 1898.
• Nutritionally heterotrophic. Pleuropneumonia is produced in domestic animals, while Witch’s broom is produced in plants.
• Mycoplasma sensitivity. Mycoplasma is a gram-negative bacterium. Penicillin is ineffective against them; however, they are susceptible to other antibiotics, including streptomycin, chloramphenicol, and erythromycin.
• Their resistance to penicillin (and other antibiotics of the same class) may be attributed to the absence of a cell wall.
• This antibiotic disrupts the synthesis of peptidoglycan, a critical component of the bacterial cell wall.
• Reproduction. There is a lack of knowledge regarding mycoplasma reproduction.

However, four types of cellular bodies of Mycoplasma laidlawii have been found. These are:

1. Elementary bodies
2. Secondary bodies
3. Tertiary cell bodies and
4. Quaternary bodies

Elementary bodies reproduce by a process like budding. These grow in size and then again give rise to elementary bodies. In some cases, mycoplasma may reproduce by binary fission. Economic Importance Mycoplasma are always harmful and cause diseases in plants and animals.

Plant diseases. Many plant diseases caused by mycoplasma were earlier considered to be viral diseases before 1967. Since 1967 most of the plant diseases of the yellow group have been reported to be caused by mycoplasma.

These diseases are Little leaf of brinjal Citrus greening Sandal spike Grassy shoot of sugarcane Rice yellow dwarf Colton little leaf or cotton stenosis Sesamum phyllody and several others like Bunty top of papaya Aster yellows.

Role Of Cyanobacteria In Nitrogen Fixation NEET

Potato witch’s

• Pathologies in animals. Mycoplasma is responsible for diseases such as arthritis, various respiratory illnesses, and primary atypical pneumonia (PAP). Mycoplasma liowinis and M.fcrmcntans, among others, are believed to induce infertility in human males.
• In 1909, Howard Taylor Rickets identified novel microbes in the blood of individuals afflicted with Rocky Mountain spotted fever.
• This organism and others of its kind were designated as Rickettsiae, which are today classified as a category of bacteria. The designation Rickettsiae was conferred to pay tribute to the discoverer.

Rickettsiae differ from bacteria in having:

1. Smaller sizes with smaller genomes provide fewer enzymes. Requirement of an exogenous energy supplier for growth.
2. These organisms exist in alternate shapes and hence they are pleomorphic. They have no flagella, pili, capsules, or spores.
3. The cell wall is chemically similar to Gram (-) bacteria, The cytoplasm of Rickettsiae contains both DNA, RNA, and some enzymes.
4. Reproduction is by binary fission. Rickettsial infections usually respond to treatment with tetracyclines or chloramphenicol.

NEET Biology Sense Organ Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. The Human Retina Can Detect Three Basic Colours. Select The Correct Set Of Colours :

1. Blue, Red And Orange
2. Blue, Red And Yellow
3. Blue, Red And Green
4. Blue, Green And Yellow.

Answer: 3. Blue, Red And Green

Question 2. The Charts Helping To Identify If A Person Is Colour Blind Are :

1. Ishihara’S Charts
2. Reprogram
3. Dichromatic Charts
4. Accommodation Charts.

Answer: 1. Ishihara’s Charts

Question 3. In the Human Eye Maximum Refraction Of Light Takes Place In the:

1. Cornea
2. Aqueous Humour
3. Lens
4. Vitreous Humour.

Answer: 1. Cornea

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Sensory Organs MCQ Objective Question Question 4. Which Part Of The Ear Is Common To Both Frogs And Mammalian Ear?

1. Cochlea
2. Eustachian Tube
3. Organ Of Corti
4. Columella Auris.

Answer: 2. Eustachian Tube

Question 5. Algesireceptors Are Sensitive To :

1. Pressure
2. Coldness
3. Chemicals
4. Pain.

Answer: 4. Pain.

Question 6. How Many Semicircular Canals Are Present In The Ear Of Frog And Man?

1. 3, 2
2. 3, 3
3. 3,1
4. 1, 3.

Answer: 2. 3, 3

Question 7. Colliculi In Eutherians :

1. Are Bigger Than Those In Frog
2. Are Two In Number
3. Concerned With Vision And Audition
4. Concerned With Vision And Maintenance Of Equilibrium.

Answer: 3. Concerned With Vision And Audition

Question 8. The Ends Of Bipolar Neurons In Retina Of Man Touch :

1. Choroid Layer And Ganglion Cells
2. Photosensitive Cells And Ganglion Cells
3. Cornea And Retina
4. Blind Spot And Yellow Spot.

Answer: 2. Photosensitive Cells And Ganglion Cells

Question 9. What Will Happen If The Eyes Of A Frog Are Covered With Paper?

1. Frog Will Not Move
2. Frog Will Die Soon
3. Frog Will Move To One Side Only
4. Frog Will Not Do Anything.

Answer: 4. Frog Will Not Do Anything.

Question 10. Which Of These Has the Biggest Eyes In Proportion To Body Size?

1. Horse
2. Camel
3. Elephant
4. Deer.

Answer: 4. Deer

Sensory Organs MCQ Objective Question Question 11. The Outer Coat Of Eye Ball Is Known As :

1. Sclerotic
2. Choroid
3. Retina
4. Vascular Ciliary Layer.

Answer: 1. Sclerotic

Question 12. The Middle Coat Of The Eye Ball Is Vascular And Made Up Of:

1. Smooth Muscles
2. Epithelial Cells
3. Circular Muscles
4. Connective Tissue And Black Pigments.

Answer: 4. Connective Tissue And Black Pigments.

Question 13. Iris Is Made Up Of:

1. Rods And Cones
2. Circular And Radial Muscles
3. Glandular Epithelium
4. Adipose Tissue.

Answer: 2. Circular And Radial Muscles

Question 14. The Rods Of Retina Are Most Closely Associated With :

1. Blind Spot
2. Colour Vision
3. Bright Light Vision
4. Feeble Light Vision.

Answer: 4. Feeble Light Vision.

Question 15. Rods And Cones In Retina Of Vertebrates Eye Differ In Their Function. Indicate The False Statement:

1. Rods Can Be Stimulated By Low Intensity Of Light While Cones Require High Light Intensity For Stimulation
2. Rods Give A Blurred Image Of An Object While Cones Give Its Sharp Visual Details
3. Rods Give Colour Vision While Cones Give Black And White Perception
4. Both 1 And 3.

Answer: 3. Rods Give Colour Vision While Cones Give Black And White Perception

NEET Biology Sense Organ Question 16. Cavity Of Vitreous Chamber Is :

1. Behind The Lens
2. In Front Of Lens
3. Between Choroid And Retina
4. Between Sclerotic And Choroid.

Answer: 1. Behind The Lens

Question 17. Long Eye Ball Relation To Its Refracting Power Is :

1. Long Sight
2. Myopia
3. Astigmatism
4. Hypermetropia.

Answer: 2. Myopia

Question 18. Visual Purple Is Pigment Concerned With :

1. Colour Of Eye
2. Night Blindness
3. Colour Blindness
4. Perception Of Image In Darkness.

Answer: 4. Perception Of Image In Darkness.

Question 19. Rhodopsin Of Eye Will Require :

1. Mango
2. Carrot
3. Wheat
4. Banana.

Answer: 2. Carrot

NEET Biology Sense Organ Question 20. Iodopsin Is Associated With :

1. Hypophysis
2. Cones
3. Goitre
4. Cretinism.

Answer: 2. Cones

Question 21. The Vitreous Humour Differs From The Aqueous Humour In:

1. Being Much More Watery
2. Having A Less Refractive Index
3. Being More Viscous
4. Being More Translucent.

Answer: 3. Being More Viscous

Question 22. The Retina Of Vertebrate Eye Consists Of :

1. Rods Only
2. Cones Only
3. Rods And Cones And Neuroglial Cells
4. Rods And Cones.

Answer: 3. Rods And Cones And Neuroglial Cells

Question 23. In Annual Vision Photochemical Sensitivity Of:

1. Carotene Is Used
2. Keratin Is Used
3. Atp Is Used
4. Cuticle Is Used.

Answer: 1. Carotene Is Used

Question 24. Aperture Controlling Light Passage In the Eye Is :

1. Sclerotic
2. Pupil
3. Blind Spot
4. Iris.

Answer: 2. Pupil

NEET Biology Sense Organ Question 25. The Shape Of Lens In The Eye Of Vertebrate Is Altered By :

1. Iris
2. Vitreous Humour
3. Aqueous Humour
4. Ciliary Muscles.

Answer: 4. Ciliary Muscles.

Question 26. Fovea Centralis In The Human Eye Is Having :

1. Mixture Of Rods And Cones
2. Rods Only
3. Cones Only
4. Nerve Endings Only.

Answer: 3. Cones Only

Question 27. In Vision Light Energy Is :

1. Converted Into Chemical Energy
2. Converted Into Electrical Energy
3. Converted Into Mechanical Energy
4. Converted Into Physical Energy.

Answer: 1. Converted Into Chemical Energy

Question 28. Tapetum Lucidum Layer Is :

1. Jelly-Like
2. Fibrous
3. Crystalline Fibrous
4. Crystalline.

Answer: 4. Crystalline

Questions for NEET Biology Sense Organ Question 29. After Exposure To Bright Light, Some Time Is Needed For Dark Adaptation Because :

1. Rhodopsin Becomes Temporarily Degenerated
2. Rhodopsin Is Bleached By Light And Requires Some Time For Normal Position
3. Rhodopsin Changes To Post-Rhodopsin In Dim Light And This Takes Some Time
4. None Of The Above.

Answer: 1. Rhodopsin Becomes Temporarily Degenerated

Question 30. In Frog’s Eye Sclerotic Is Made Up Of:

1. Bone
2. Muscle And Cartilage
3. Cartilage
4. Fibrous Connective Tissue.

Answer: 4. Fibrous Connective Tissue.

Question 31. The Part Of An Eye Which Acts Like A Diaphragm Of Photographic Camera Is :

1. Pupil
2. Iris
3. Cornea
4. Lens.

Answer: 2. Iris

Question 32. The Wall Of The Eye Is Made Up Of:

1. Four Main Layers
2. Three Main Layers
3. Thirty Main Layers
4. One Layer Only.

Answer: 2. Three Main Layers

Question 33. Focus In The Vertebrate Eye Is Done By :

1. Iris Muscles
2. Ciliary Muscles
3. Muscles Of Eye Ball
4. Retinal Muscles.

Answer: 2. Ciliary Muscles

Questions for NEET Biology Sense Organ Question 34. Tapetum Lucidum  Present :

1. In Retina
2. Cither In Retina Or Clitrfoid
3. In Choroid
4. None Of The Above.

Answer: 2. Cither In Retina Or Clitrfoid

Question 35. Myopia Occurs When The Image or Distant Object Is Focussed :

1. Behind The Retina
2. Above The Retina
3. In Front Of The Retina
4. Below The Retina.

Answer: 3. In Front Of The Retina

Question 36. Astigmatism Is Due To The Irregularities :

1. In The Shape Of Lens And Cornea
2. Of Pigments
3. Of Rods
4. Of Lens.

Answer: 1. In The Shape Of Lens And Cornea

Questions for NEET Biology Sense Organ Question 37. Hypermetropia Occurs When The Image Of Near Objects Is Focussed :

1. Above The Retina
2. Upon The Retina
3. Below The Retina
4. Behind The Retina.

Answer: 4. Behind The Retina.

Question 38. Presbyopia Is Due To The Irregularities :

1. In The Shape Of Lens And Cornea
2. In The Shape Of Lens And Loss Of Its Elasticity
3. In The Shape Of Cornea
4. In The Shape Of Iris.

Answer: 2. In The Shape Of Lens And Loss Of Its Elasticity

Question 39. Night Blindness Is Caused Due To’ The Deficiency Of:

1. Vitamin A
2. Vitamin B
3. Vitamin K
4. Vitamin D.

Answer: 1. Vitamin A

Question 40. Fenestra Vestibuli Amplifies Sound Vibrations By :

1. 2.2 Times
2. 4.5 Times
3. 10 Times
4. 20 Times.

Answer: 1. 2.2 Times

Question 41. Hypoglossal Nerve Is Responsible For The Movement Of Muscles Of:

1. Tongue
2. Ear
3. Eyes
4. Nose

Answer: 1. Tongue

Question 42. Skin Receptors Are Classified Into How Many Categories?

1. Two
2. Five
3. Four
4. Six

Answer: 1. Two

Question 43. The Iris Consists Of Delicate :

1. Ciliary Muscles
2. Roilgh Muscles
3. Soft Muscles
4. Muscles Without Cilia.

Answer: 1. Ciliary Muscles

Sensory Organs MCQ Objective Question Question 44. Short-Sightedness Occurs When The Image Of A Distant Object Is Focussed :

1. On The Back Of The Retina
2. Above The Retina
3. In Front Of The Retina
4. Below The Retina.

Answer: 3. In Front Of The Retina

Question 45. The Function Of Iris Is To :

1. Alter The Size Of Pupil
2. Move The Lens
3. Close The Eyelids
4. Secrete Aqueous Humour.

Answer: 1. Alter The Size Of Pupil

Question 46. Colour Blindness Is :

1. Sex-Linked Genetic Disorder
2. Defect In Lens
3. A Gene Mutation
4. Chromosomal Mutation.

Answer: 1. Sex-Linked Genetic Disorder

Question 47. Colour Blindness Is The Inability To Distinguish Colour Between :

1. Red And Green
2. Red And Yellow
3. Blue And Black
4. Green And Blue.

Answer: 1. Red And Green

Question 48. The Region Of Clearest Vision In Reina Is Yellow Spot Which Is Known As ;

1. Fovea Vvntiabs
2. Canails Cenlialis
3. Macula Lutea
4. Corpus Luteum.

Answer: 3. Macula Lutea

Sensory Organs MCQ Objective Question  Question 49. Stereoscopic Vision Is Found In :

1. Fish
2. Frog
3. Man
4. Snake.

Answer: 3. Man

Question 50. The Hammer Like Ear Ossicle Is:

1. Malleus
2. Incus
3. Stapes
4. Cochlea.

Answer: 1. Malleus

Question 51. Hat Drum Is Not Responsive To Changes Of:

1. Volume Of Sound
2. Position Of The Body
3. Frequency Of Sound Waves
4. Air Pressure In The Pharynx.

Answer: 2. Position Of The Body

Question 52. Semicircular Canals In Internal Ear Are Concerned With :

1. Balance Of The Body
2. Hearing
3. Intelligence
4. Balance And Hearing.

Answer: 4. Balance And Hearing.

Question 53. Which Of These Is Not An Ossicle Of the Middle Ear Of a Frog?

1. Malleus
2. Columella
3. Stapes
4. None Of These.

Answer: 1. Malleus

Question 54. Eustachian Tube In Case Of Man Connects Ear With :

1. Pharynx
2. Oesophagus
3. Bucco-Pharyngeal Cavity
4. Salivary Duct.

Answer: 1. Pharynx

Question 55. The Sound Reaches The Inner Ear From Ear Drum Through Structures Which Are In A Definite Series. The Series Is :

1. Malleus-Incus-Stapes
2. Columella-Stapes
3. Stapes-Malleus-Incus
4. Malleus-Stapes-Incus.

Answer: 1. Malleus-Incus-Stapes

Question 56. The Internal Ear Of Vertebrates Is Filled With A Fluid Called :

1. Endolymph
2. Perilymph
3. Haemolymph
4. Lymph.

Answer: 1. Endolymph

Question 57. The Site From Which The Nerve Impulse For Hearing Originates Is :

1. Ear Ossicle
2. Cochlea
3. Tympanum
4. Auditory Nerve.

Answer: 2. Cochlea

Sensory Organs MCQ Objective Question  Question 58. Lateral Line System Helps In :

1. Detecting Water Current
2. Echolocation
3. Thermoregulation
4. All Of The Above.

Answer: 1. Detecting Water Current

Question 59. Otolith Is Formed Of:

1. Calcium Carbonate
2. Calcium Oxalate
3. Magnesium Carbonate
4. Magnesium Sulphate.

Answer: 1. Calcium Carbonate

Question 60. Sensory Patch Of Ampulla Is Called :

1. Cristae
2. Maculae
3. Otoliths
4. Basilar Papilla

Answer: 1. Cristae

NEET Biology Evolution Of Man Multiple Choice Questions And Answers

Question 1. First Homonids are:

1. Ramapithecus
2. Kcnyapithccus
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Australopithecus.

Answer: 3. Both 1 and 2

Question 2. Who was the first civilized man?

1. Cro-Magnon min
2. Neanderthal man
3. Hcidelbcrgs man
4. Temifier man.

Answer: 2. Neanderthal man

Question 3. The first human fossil probably belonged to:

1. Zizanthropus
2. Australopithecus
3. Pleisanthropus
4. Pilhicanthropus.

Answer: 2. Australopithecus

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Evolution NEET Practice Questions MCQs Question 4. The age of mammals is known as:

1. Cenozoic
2. Mesozoic
3. Palaeozoic
4. Psychozoic.

Answer: 1. Coenozoic

Question 5. The direct ancestral race of modern man was possibly:

1. Cromagnon man
2. Peking man
3. Neanderthal man
4. Java man.

Answer: 1. Cromagnon man

Question 6. Which of the following is not in the direction of the evolution of the human species?

1. Raised orbital ridges
2. Binocular vision
3. Opposable thumb
4. Developed brain.

Answer: 1. Raised orbital ridges

Question 7. Which one of the following eras in the geological time scale corresponds to the Person when life has not originated upon earth?

1. Palaeozoic
2. Mesozoic
3. Cenozoic
4. Azoic.

Answer: 4. Azoic

Question 8. Among the primates listed below which one is the closest relative of modern man:

1. Gorilla
2. Sinanthropus
3. Gibbon
4. Orangutan.

Answer: 2. Sinanthropus

Question 9. The Java man is considered to have existed in:

1. Java only
2. China only
3. Africa
4. Java, China, and Africa.

Answer: 4. Java, China, and Africa.

Evolution NEET Practice Questions MCQs Question 10. Neanderthal man:

1. Resembles modem man
2. Was less advanced than modern man
3. Had a larger brain than modern man
4. Had a much smaller brain than modern man.

Answer: 3. Had a larger brain than modern man

Question 11. The ancestor of the man who first stood erect was:

1. Java man
2. Australopithecus
3. Peking man
4. Cro-magnon.

Answer: 2. Australopithecus

Question 12. Which of (lie following is true for Homo sapiens?

1. Protruded mouth
2. Cranial capacity 1450 cc
3. Canine absent
4. Jail present.

Answer: 2. Cranial capacity 1450 cc

Question 13. The skull of Pithecanthropus erectus was found in:

1. Africa
2. Java
3. America
4. All of the above.

Answer: 2. Java

Question 14. The pre-historic ancestor of man which existed during the Pleistocene era is:

1. Australopithecus
2. Zinjanthropus
3. Neanderthal man
4. Atlantic man.

Answer: 3. Neanderthal man

Question 15. The most recent fossil is of:

1. Cromagnon man
2. Java man
3. African man
4. Peking man.

Answer: 1. Cromagnon man

Evolution NEET Practice Questions MCQs Question 16. The name of the fossil man of Shivalik Hills is:

1. Australopithecus
2. Dryopithecus
3. Sivapithecus
4. Ramapithecus.

Answer: 4. Ramapithecus.

Question 17. The recent ancestors of modern man were:

1. Java ape man and Peking man
2. Peking and Rhodesian man
3. Rhodesian man and Cromagnon man
4. Cromagnon man and Neanderthal man.

Answer: 4. Cromagnon man and Neanderthal man

Question 18. Homo erectus is the zoological name of:

1. Java ape man
2. Peking man
3. Neanderthal man
4. Nutcracker man.

Answer: 1. Java ape man

Question 19. The earliest site where human civilization and crop cultivation started was presumably:

1. Around the Caspian and Mediterranean Sea
2. Around river Nile
3. Chinese river Nile
4. All of the above.

Answer: 1. Around the Caspian and Mediterranean Sea

Question 20. Cromagnon man was:

1. Herbivorous
2. Frugivorous
3. Sanguivorous
4. Carnivorous.

Answer: 4. Carnivorous.

Biology MCQ Origin and Evolution of Man Question 21. Which one of the fossil men stood first?

1. Australopithecus
2. Homo erectus
3. Sinanthropus
4. Gigantopithccus.

Answer: 1. Australopithecus

Question 22. Neanderthal man differs from modern man in the:

1. Receding jaw
2. Protruding jaw
3. Can make good tools
4. Having a stockier body.

Answer: 4. Having a stockier body.

Question 23. Which of these is considered a trend in primate evolution?

1. Development of non-prehensile tail
2. Development of monocular vision
3. Decreased dependence on smell
4. Elimination of clavicle.

Answer: 3. Decreased dependence on smell

Question 24. Which primate existed in the first half of the Eocene epoch (53-58 million years ago)?

1. Prosinnans
2. Prosimians and monkeys
3. Prosimians, monkeys, and apes
4. Prosimians, monkeys, apes and hominids.

Answer: 1. Prosinnans

Question 25. Which of these prosimians are now found only on the island of Madagascar?

1. Lxuinir
2. Loris
3. Galago
4. Bush baby.

Answer: 1. Lxuinir

Biology MCQ Origin and Evolution of Man Question 26. The immortality of soul hypothesis has given rise to the discovery of:

1. Heidelbergensis man
2. Temifier man
3. Ncanderthalensix
4. Homo sapiens.

Answer: 3. Ncanderthalensix

Question 27. The present age is known as:

1. Bronze age
2. Iron age
3. Silver age
4. Golden age.

Answer: 2. Iron age

Question 28. Who discovered the use of the weapon and tools first?

1. Homo hails
2. Handyman
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Homo erectus

Answer: 3. Both 1 and 2

Question 29. Cannibalism is local in:

1. Java man
2. Peking man
3. Cromagnon man
4. Both (1) and (2).

Answer: 4. Both (1) and (2).

Question 30. The cranial capacity of Java ape-man was about:

1. 560 cc
2. 900 cc
3. 1300 cc
4. 1600 cc.

Answer: 2. 900 cc

Biology MCQ Origin and Evolution of Man Question 31. The first fossil of an African ape-man was discovered by:

1. Dr. Leaky
2. E.Dubois
3. Artlicr Keith
4. Raymond Dart.

Answer: 4. Raymond Dart.

Question 32. Peking man is known as:

1. Australopithecus
2. Sinanthropus
3. Pithecanthropus
4. Homo sapiens.

Answer: 2. Sinanthropus

Question 33. Which of the fossil men given below was an expert in making tools, weapons, paintings, etc?

1. Java ape-man
2. Peking man
3. African man
4. Cro-magnon man

Answer: 4. Cro-magnon man

Question 34. The cranial capacity was the largest in one of the following fossils of man:

1. Java ape-man
2. Cromagnon man
3. Neanderthal man
4. Peking man.

Answer: 2. Cromagnon man

Question 35. Continents where most of the primitive men have been discovered:

1. Africa
2. Asia
3. America
4. Australia.

Answer: 1. Africa

Question 36. Which of the following factors is considered best in the evolution of man?

1. Extinction of Reptiles
2. Appearance of Angiospenns
3. Preference for cave life
4. Pleistocene climate.

Answer: 4. Pleistocene climate.

NEET Biology Evolution Of Life MCQ Question Bank Question 37. Pithecanthropus erectus fossil was found in:

1. China
2. Japan
3. Java
4. Texas.

Answer: 3. Java

Question 38. The cranial capacity is nearly 1000 cc of:

1. Java man
2. Neanderthal man
3. Peking man
4. Cromagnon man.

Answer: 1. Java man

Question 39. The man who used stones for the first time was:

1. Cromagnon
2. Neanderthal man
3. Homo erectus
4. Homo habilis.

Answer: 4. Homo habilis.

Question 40. Which of the following is not a characteristic of apes?

1. Movement in the trees by brachiation
2. Movement on the ground by knuckle-walking
3. A wrist that bends backward
4. Highly mobile shoulder joints.

Answer: 3. Wrist that bends backward

NEET Biology Evolution Of Life MCQ Question Bank Question 41. Which of the following is not an anatomical change from ape to Homo sapiens?

1. From locking to non-locking knee joints
2. From a long, thin pelvis to a bowl-like pelvis
3. From opposable thumb to non-opposable thumb
4. From flat to arched feet.

Answer: 1. From locking to non-locking knee joints

Question 42. Tuang Baby is the name of:

1. Australopithecus
2. A. Africanus
3. A. afarensis
4. A. bosei.

Answer: 2. A. Africanus

Question 43. Early True Man was:

1. Peking Man
2. Java Man
3. Neanderthal Man
4. Homo habilis.

Answer: 4. Homo habilis.

Question 44. The dog was domesticated by:

1. Homo sapiens neanderthalensis
2. Homo sapiens fossilis
3. Homo heidelbergensis
4. Homo sapiens sapiens.

Answer: 3. Homo heidelbergensis

Question 45. The name of Mio-Pliocene apes is:

1. Dryopithecus
2. Paranthropus
3. Australopithecus
4. Ramapithecus.

Answer: 1. Dryopithecus

NEET Biology Evolution Of Life MCQ Question Bank Question 46. The maximum size of a modem brain is:

1. 2000 cc
2. 100 cc
3. 1500 cc
4. 2200 cc.

Answer: 3. 1500 cc

Question 47. The name of the earliest human ancestor from India is:

1. Paranthoropus
2. Ramapithecus
3. Australopithecus
4. Dryopithecus.

Answer: 2. Ramapithecus

Question 48. The latest ancestral race of modern man was possibly:

1. Java man
2. Peking man
3. Neanderthal man
4. Cromagnon man.

Answer: 4. Cromagnon man.

Question 49. “Peking Man” was:

1. Australopithecus
2. Sinanthropus
3. Zinjanthropus
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Sinanthropus

Question 50. Which of the following is not correct?

1. About 15 mya, primates called Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus appeared.
2. Homo erectus had a large brain around 900 cm³.
3. The brain capacities were between 650 to 800 cm³ of Homo habilis.
4. Ramapithecus was more ape-like.

Answer: 4. Ramapithecus was more ape-like

Question 51. Dryopithecus was:

1. Early human
2. Human ancestor
3. Ape ancestor
4. Ancestors of both apes and humans

Answer: 4. Ancestor of both apes and humans

Origin and Evolution of Man MCQ Question 52. The earliest man-like primate was:

1. Ramapithecus
2. Australopithecus
3. Homo habilis
4. Homo erectus.

Answer: 1. Ramapithecus

Question 53. The first human fossil belonged to:

1. Zinjanthropus
2. Australopithecus
3. Cromagnon man
4. Homo neanderthalensis.

Answer: 2. Australopithecus

Question 54. Fossils of so-called ‘Java Man’ and ‘Peking Man’ belong to:

1. Homo sapiens
2. Homo erectus
3. Homo habilis
4. None of these.

Answer: 2. Homo erectus

Question 55. Anthropoid apes were ancestors of:

1. Monkeys
2. Apes
3. Homo habilis
4. All the apes.

Answer: 1. Monkeys

Origin and Evolution of Man MCQ Question 56. The brain of Australopithecus measured:

1. 350-450 cm³
2. 1400-1450 cm3³
3. 700-900 cm³
4. 800-1400 cm³

Answer: 1. 350-450 cm³

Question 57. Possession of child-like traits by an adult man is called:

1. Gerontomorphism
2. Orthogenomorphism
3. Pedomorphism
4. Foetomorphism.

Answer: 3. Pedomorphism

Question 58. The ancestor of the man who first stood erect was:

1. Australopithecus
2. Java ape man
3. Peking man
4. Cromagnon.

Answer: 1. Australopithecus

Question 59. Cro-magnon was:

1. Carnivorous
2. Omnivorous
3. Herbivorous
4. Frugivorous.

Answer: 1. Carnivorous

Origin and Evolution of Man MCQ Question 60. The first fossils of prehistoric man were discovered by:

1. E. Lewis
2. Raymond Dart
3. Leaky
4. Eugene Dubois.

Answer: 1. E. Lewis

Question 61. Colored rock paintings were presumably first made by:

1. Cromagnon man
2. Neanderthal man
3. Java ape man
4. Peking man.

Answer: 1. Cromagnon man

Question 62. The earliest man who used tools was:

1. Homo habilis
2. Homo erectus
3. Java man
4. Peking man.

Answer: 1. Homo habilis

Question 63. The characteristics of modern man are:

1. Small teeth without huge canines and slight curvature of the vertebral column
2. A flattened face without muzzle and brow ridges
3. Rounded skull with downward-looking foramen magnum
4. All of these

Answer: 1. Small teeth without huge canines and slight curvature of the vertebral column

Question 64. The first evidence of the ceremonial burial of the dead has been found with fossils of

1. Cromagnon man
2. Java ape man
3. Nemuleillial man
4. Peking man.

Answer: 1. Cromagnon man

Question 65. Loss of pigmentation, slender body, reduced appendages, and absence of visual organs are adaptations in:

1. Cave animals
2. Aquatic animals
3. Ailmreal animals
4. Burrowing animals

Answer: 1. Cave animals

Evolution NEET Practice Questions MCQs Question 66. Modem man, Homo sapiens sapiens began spreading all over the globe some:

1. 10000 years ago
2. 150000 years ago
3. 20000 years ago
4. 25000 years ago

Answer: 1. 10000 years ago

Question 67. According to the geological chronology, man belongs to which era

1. Mesozoic
2. Palaeozoic
3. Piepalaeozoic
4. Coenozoic.

Answer: 4. Coenozoic.

Question 68. “Piltdown man” was:

1. Earlier specimens of fossil bones of a man found in Pilldown
2. Skull of Neanderthal man found in Germany
3. Skull and leg bones of Australopithecus
4. A fake assemblage of bones of the skull.

Answer: 4. A fake assemblage of bones of the skull.

Question 69. A pertinent example where die study of human trials has helped in understanding evolution is:

1. Congenital diseases
2. Eye colour
3. Blood groups
4. Chromosomal variations.

Answer: 3. Blood groups

Question 70. DNA matching has shown human beings to be nearest to:

1. Chimpanzee
2. Gorilla
3. Gibbon
4. Rhesus Monkey.

Answer: 1. Chimpanzee

Question 71. Orthognalhotis face occurs in:

1. Homo sapiens
2. Gorilla
3. Ramapilhecus
4. Homo habilis

Answer: 1. Homo sapiens

Evolution NEET Practice Questions MCQs Question 72. Simian gap is;

1. Distance between two nostrils
2. Small diastema
3. The gap between nostrils and upper lip
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Small diastema

Question 73. Which of the following primates is the closest relative to modern man

1. Orangutan
2. Sinanthropus
3. Gibbon
4. Gorilla.

Answer: 2. Sinanthropus

Question 74. The earliest man-like primate and oldest of man’s ancestors which is in direct line with human evolution is:

1. Oreopilhecus
2. Proconsul africanus
3. Ramapilhecus
4. Australopithecus.

Answer: 2. Proconsul africanus

Question 75. The fossil of the first known ape is:

1. Dryopilhccus
2. Oreopilhecus
3. Propliopithecus
4. Ramapilhecus.

Answer: 3. Propliopithecus

Question 76. Which of the following is the fossil of the first man-ape

1. Australopithecus
2. Ramapilhecus
3. Homo credits
4. Peking man.

Answer: 1. Australopithecus

Evolution NEET Practice Questions MCQs Question 77. Who said that the human body is a walking museum of antiquities

1. Wejsmann
2. Wiedersheim
3. Wollman
4. Wilkins.

Answer: 2. Wiedersheim

Question 78. Who wrote the first book on human origin

1. Aristotle
2. Linnaeus
3. Huxley
4. Darwin.

Answer: 3. Huxley

Question 79. Outwardly directed widely separated nostrils occur in:

1. Gorilla
2. New World Monkeys
3. Loris
4. Apes.

Answer: 2. New World Monkeys

Question 80. The fire was first used for protection and cooking by:

1. Java man
2. Neanderthal man
3. Peking man
4. Cromagnon.

Answer: 2. Neanderthal man

Question 81. The features not in the direction of the evolution of the human species are:

1. Raised orbital ridges
2. Binocular vision
3. Opposable thumb
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Raised orbital ridges

Question 82. In gorillas, great apes, and chimpanzees, the number of chromosomes is:

1. 2N = 46
2. 2N = 44
3. 2N = 48
4. None of these.

Answer: 3. 2N = 48

Question 83. Dryopilhccus occurred:

1. 50 million years ago
2. 50 billion years ago
3. 24 billion years ago
4. 24 million years ago.

Answer: 4. 24 million years ago.

Question 84. What is the brain size of a man?

1. 350-450 cm³
2. 850-950 cm³
3. 1400-1450 cm³
4. 1800-1850 cm³

Answer: 3. 1400-1450 cm³

Question 85. Dubois in 1891 found the fossil of Java ape man. It is:

1. Sinanthropus pekinensis
2. Pithecanthropus erectus
3. Homo rhodesincsis
4. Homo sapiens.

Answer: 2. Pithecanthropus erectus

Question 86. The smallest cranial capacity is that of the:

1. Modern man
2. Cromagnon man
3. Neanderthal man
4. Java man.

Answer: 4. Java man.

Question 87. The smallest cranial capacity is that of the:

1. Modern man
2. Cro-magnon man
3. Neanderthal man
4. Java man.

Answer: 4. Java man.

Question 88. Cranial capacity was highest in:

1. Java man
2. Cromagnon
3. Neanderthal man
4. Peking man.

Answer: 2. Cromagnon

Question 89. Which of the following fossil man possessed a cranial capacity almost equal to that of modern man

1. Neanderthal man
2. Java ape man
3. Peking man
4. Australopithecus alricans.

Answer: 1. Neanderthal man

Question 90. Match the following lists and give the correct answer from the code given below the lists.

Answer: 2

Question 91. Which of the following is correct?

1. Australopithecus is the real ancestor of modern man
2. Cromagnon man’s fossil has been found in Ethiopia
3. Homo erectus is the ancestor of man
4. Neanderthal man is the direct ancestor of Homo sapiens.

Answer: 3. Homo erectus is the ancestor of man

Question 92. The age of the fossil of Dryopithecus on the geological time scale is:

1. 75 x 10⁶ years back
2. 2.5 x 10⁶ years back
3. 25 x 10⁶ years back
4. 50 x 10⁶ years back.

Answer: 3. 25 x 10⁶ years back

Evolution NEET Practice Questions MCQs Question 93. The extinct human who lived 1,00,000 to 40,000 years ago, in Europe. Asia and parts of Africa, with short stature, heavy eyebrows, retreating foreheads, large jaws with heavy teeth, stocky bodies, a lumbering gait, and stooped posture were:

1. Neanderthal human
2. Cro-Magnan humans
3. Ramapithecus
4. Homo habilis.

Answer: 1. Neanderthal human

Question 94. Homo sapiens evolved during

1. Pleistocene
2. Oligocene
3. Pliocene
4. Miocene

Answer: 1. Pleistocene

Question 95. Which of the following is the closest relative of man?

1. Chimpanzee
2. Gorilla
3. Orangutan
4. Gibbon

Answer: 1. Chimpanzee

Question 96. Which of the following is the correct order of the evolutionary history of man?

1. Peking man. Homo sapiens, Neanderthel man, Cromagnon man
2. Peking man. Neanderthal man, Homo sapiens, Cromagnon man
3. Peking man, Hedalberg man, Neanderthal man, Cromagnon man
4. Peking man, Neanderthal man, Homo sapiens, Hedalberg man

Answer: 3. Peking man, Hedalberg man, Neanderthal man, Cromagnon man

Evolution NEET Practice Questions MCQs Question 97. In recent years, DNA sequences of mt-DNA and Y-chromosomes were considered for the study of human evolution, because they:

1. Can be studied from the samples of fossil remains
2. Are small and thus easy to study
3. Are uniparental in origin and do not take part in recombination.
4. Their structure is known in greater detail.

Answer: 2. Are small and thus easy to study

Question 98. Which of the following was the transitional stage between apes and humans:

1. Homo habilis
2. Homo erectus
3. Australopithecus ramidus
4. Australopithecus Africans.

Answer: 3. Australopithecus ramidus

Question 99. Highest cranial capacity is found in:

1. Homo sapiens sapiens
2. Neanderthal man
3. Peking man
4. Cro-magnon man.

Answer: 4. Cro-magnon man.

Question 100. Cromagnon man was:

1. Frugivorous
2. Carnivorous
3. Herbivorous
4. Omnivorous.

Answer: 2. Carnivorous

NEET Biology Nervous System Multiple-Choice Questions

Question 1. Some Cells In Our Body Can Be Over A Foot Long, Are :

1. The Muscle Cells
2. The Bone Cells
3. The Nerve Cells
4. Gland Cells.

Answer: 3. The Nerve Cells

Question 2. Power Of Regeneration Is Lowest In :

1. Brain Cell
2. Liver Cell
3. Bone Cell
4. Muscle Cell.

Answer: 1. Brain Cell

Question 3. Nervous System Is Concerned With Two Important Functions :

1. It Regulates The External Environment And Responds To Internal Environment Through Sense Organs
2. It Regulates The Internal Environment And Responds To the External Environment Through Sense Organs
3. It Regulates The External Environment And Responds To Internal Environment Through Motor Nerve
4. It Regulates The Internal Environment And Responds To the External Environment Through Motor Nerves.

Answer: 4. It Regulates The Internal Environment And Responds To the External Environment Through Motor Nerves.

Question 4. A Neuron Is :

1. Structural And Functional Unit Of The Nervous System
2. Structural And Functional Unit Of The Endocrine System
3. Structural And Functional Unit Of The Muscular System
4. Structural And Functional Unit Of Skeletal System.

Answer: 1. Structural And Functional Unit Of The Nervous System

Important NEET MCQ On Nervous System Question 5. Synapse Is A Term To Denote The :

1. Connection Between Two Arteries
2. Connection Between Two Veins
3. Connection Between Two Neurons
4. Connection Between Two Lungs.

Answer: 3. Connection Between Two Neurons

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 6. The Sympathetic And Parasympathetic Systems Constitute :

1. Reflex Arc
2. Reflex Action
3. Autonomic Nervous System
4. Peripheral Nervous System.

Answer: 3. Autonomic Nervous System

Question 7. The Central Nervous System Includes :

1. Brain And Spinal Cord
2. Spinal Nerves And Spinal Cord
3. Brain And Pineal Body
4. Only the Cerebrum And Medulla Oblongata Of the Brain.

Answer: 1. Brain And Spinal Cord

Question 8. The Central Nervous System; Cranio-Spinal System; Autonomic System And Receptor System In A Vertebrate Collectively Form:

1. Nervous Systempiamater
2. Circulatory And Nervous Systems
3. Reproductive And Nervous Systems
4. Digestive And Sympathetic Systems.

Answer: 1. Nervous Systempiamater

Question 9. The brain In a Frog Is Contained In the Cranium, Enveloped By a Connective Tissue Membrane Called :

1. Cranial Membrane
2. Meninges
3. Pericardium Membrane
4. Pia mater

Answer: 4. Pia mater

Important NEET MCQ On Nervous System Question 10. The Brain Is Surrounded By An Outer Fibrous, Non- Vascular Membrane Called :

1. Pia mater
2. Neuromancer
3. Myomater
4. Dura mater.

Answer: 1. Pia mater

Question 11. The Inner Membrane surrounding the Brain Is :

1. Thin And Cartilaginous Pia mater
2. Thick And Muscular Pia mater
3. Thin And Vascular Pia mater
4. Thin Cardiac Membrane.

Answer: 3. Thin And Vascular Pia mater

Question 12. Pineal Stalk, A Slender Tubular Structure Arises From :

1. Ventral Surface Of Diencephalon
2. Dorsal Surface Of Diencephalon
3. Both Dorsal And Ventral Surfaces Of Diencephalon
4. Antero-Ventral Surface Of Diencephalon.

Answer: 2. Dorsal Surface Of Diencephalon

Question 13. Optic Chiasma Is Formed By The Crossing Over Of Two :

1. Olfactory Nerves
2. Oculomotor Nerves
3. Trochlear Nerves
4. Optic Nerves.

Answer: 4. Optic Nerves.

Question 14. Hypothalamus Forms The Floor And Lower Part Of :

1. Diacoel
2. Optocoel
3. Lateral Ventricle
4. Fourth Ventricle.

Answer: 1. Diacoel

Important NEET MCQ On Nervous System Question 15. Two-Thirds Of Entire Brain Is Made Of:

1. Cerebellum
2. Medulla Oblongata
3. Flocculus
4. Cerebrum (Cerebral Hemisphere).

Answer: 4. Cerebrum (Cerebral Hemisphere)

Question 16. In Mammals, The Two Lobes Of the Cerebral Hemisphere Are Connected By a Large Distinctive Transverse Fibrous Bridge Of White Matter Called:

1. Corpus Spongiosum
2. Corpus Callosum
3. Corpus Commissures
4. Cerebral Connective.

Answer: 2. Corpus Callosum

Question 17. Cell Bodies Of Neurons Bringing Afferent Information Into the Spinal Cord Are Located In the:

1. Dorsal Root Ganglia
2. Ventral Root Ganglia
3. Grey Matter Of Spinal Cord
4. White Matter Of Spinal Cord.

Answer: 1. Dorsal Root Ganglia

Question 18. In the Brain, Crura Cerebri Is A Structure Made Of:

1. Two Large Bands Of Nerve Fibres
2. Four Large Bands Of Nerve Fibres
3. Six Bands Of Nerve Fibres
4. Eight Bands Of Nerve Fibres.

Answer: 1. Two Large Bands Of Nerve Fibres

Question 19. The Roof Of Medulla Oblongata Is Thin And Piamater In This Portion Is Greatly Folded, Richly Vascular, And Pushed Into the Cavity Of the Medulla As :

1. Anterior Choroid Plexus
2. Posterior Choroid Plexus
3. Corpora quadrigemina
4. Optic Thalami

Answer: 2. Posterior Choroid Plexus

Nervous System Recommended MCQs NEET Questions Question 20. The Ventricles Of the Brain And Central Canal Of the Spinal Cord Arc Filled With A Fluid Called :

1. Cerebro-Spinal Fluid
2. Spinal Fluid
3. Cranial Fluid
4. Pericardial Fluid.

Answer: 1. Cerebro-Spinal Fluid

Question 21. Olfactory Lobes Of Human Are :

1. Fully Solid
2. Half Hollow And Half Solid
3. Fully Hollow
4. Become Solid At Puberty.

Answer: 1. Fully Solid

Question 22. Nissl Granules In The Nerve Cell Bodies Are Actually :

1. Deep Staining Mitochondria
2. Lysosomes
3. Coiled Condensed Elements Of Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum
4. Multiple Number Of Golgi Bodies.

Answer: 3. Coiled Condensed Elements Of Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum

Question 23. The Anterior Choroid Plexus Is Located In Or Near The :

1. Diencephalon
2. Optic Lobes
3. Cerebrum
4. Cerebellum.

Answer: 1. Diencephalon

Question 24. The Pineal Body Is Considered As :

1. An Endocrine Gland
2. An Organ Concerned With Voluntary Action
3. An Organ Concerned With Vision
4. A Vestige Of 3rd Eye And Endocrine Gland.

Answer: 4. A Vestige Of 3rd Eye And Endocrine Gland.

Nervous System Recommended MCQs NEET Questions Question 25. If the Cerebral Hemispheres Of the Frog Are Removed, It:

1. Dies Immediately
2. Stops Feeding
3. Dies After Some Time
4. Behaves Normally.

Answer: 2. Stops Feeding

Question 26. In Human Brain, Corpora Quadrigemina Represents :

1. Fore Brain
2. Mid Brain
3. Hind Brain
4. Spinal Cord.

Answer: 2. Mid Brain

Question 27. The Cavity Of Spinal Cord Is Called :

1. Blastocoel
2. Enterocoel
3. Schizocoel
4. Central Canal.

Answer: 4. Central Canal.

Question 28. Brain Develops From :

1. Ectoderm
2. Mesoderm
3. Endoderm
4. Both Ectoderm And Endoderm.

Answer: 1. Ectoderm

Question 29. The Function Of the Central Nervous System :

1. Controls Various Functions Of the Body
2. Directs Various Functions Of Body
3. Controls And Co-Ordinates The Activities Of Body
4. Conducts Impulses From One Part To The Other.

Answer: 3. Controls And Co-Ordinates The Activities Of Body

Nervous System MCQ for NEET Question 30. Corpora Striata Is A Part Of:

1. Cerebellum
2. Pons
3. Cerebrum
4. Fomix.

Answer: 3. Cerebrum

Question 31. Foramen Of Monro In Brain Is An Aperture Between :

1. Diacoel And Metacoel
2. Rhinocoel And Diacoel
3. 3rd And 4th Ventricle
4. Lateral And Third Ventricle.

Answer: 4. Lateral And Third Ventricle.

Question 32. Which Part Of The Brain Controls Muscular Coordination?

1. Cerebrum
2. Cerebellum
3. Medulla Oblongata
4. Diencephalon.

Answer: 2. Cerebellum

Question 33. A Deep Longitudinal Fissure Divides The Cerebrum :

1. Into Six Hemispheres
2. Into Four Hemispheres
3. Into Two Hemispheres
4. Into Eight Hemispheres.

Answer: 3. Into Two Hemispheres

Question 34. The Dendrites Of A Typical Vertebrate Motor Neuron, Compared To The Neuron’s Axon Arc Generally :

1. Longer
2. Larger In Diameter
3. More Branched
4. More Myelinated.

Answer: 3. More Branched

Nervous System MCQ for NEET Question 35. The Parts Of Neurons That Perform Basic Cellular Functions, Such As Protein Synthesis, Are The :

1. Axons
2. Dendrites
3. Somas
4. Synaptic Knobs.

Answer: 3. Somas

Question 36. The Medulla Oblongata Continues As the Spinal Cord Which Runs In The Canal Of The :

1. Vertebral Column
2. Mid-Brain
3. Pituitary
4. Corpus Callosum.

Answer: 1. Vertebral Column

Question 37. It Is Said Injury To the Brain Is Permanent And Nerve Cells Cannot Rfor Exampleenerate. The Reason Is :

1. Absence Of Nucleus
2. Cells Are Very Long
3. They Lack Chromosomes
4. Part Of Chromatin Lies Outside The Nucleus.

Answer: 2. Cells Are Very Long

Question 38. Regulation Of Heart Beat And Respiration Is Controlled By:

1. Cerebrum
2. Cerebellum
3. Medulla
4. Pons Varolii.

Answer: 3. Medulla

Question 39. The Volume Of Blood Supplied To The Brain Per Minute Is:

1. 1000 ml
2. 560 ml
3. 350 ml
4. 400 ml

Answer: 3. 350 ml

Nervous System MCQ for NEET Question 40. The third Ventricle Of a rabbit’s Brain Is Called :

1. Rhinocoel
2. Rhombocoel
3. Diacoel
4. Metacoel.

Answer: 3. Diacoel

Question 41. Learning Is Related To Which Part Of Human Brain?

1. Hypothalamus
2. Medulla
3. Cerebrum
4. Cerebellum.

Answer: 2. Medulla

Question 42. Thermo-Regulatory Centre In The Body Is :

1. Spinal Cord
2. Hypothalamus
3. Cerebellum
4. Pituitary.

Answer: 3. Cerebellum

Question 43. The Ganglion From Which Trigeminal Nerve Arises Is Called :

1. Vagus Ganglion
2. Cervical Ganglion
3. Neuroglia
4. Gasserian Ganglion.

Answer: 4. Gasserian Ganglion

Question 44. The Maximum Number Of Meninges In Animals Is/Are :

1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four.

Answer: 2. Two

MCQ On Nervous system NEET Question 45. Foramen Of Magnadie Is Found In :

1. Optic Lobes
2. Crura Cerebri
3. Medulla Oblongata
4. Iter.

Answer: 3. Medulla Oblongata

Question 46. When Action Potential Jumps From One Node Of Ranvier To The Next, It Is Termed As :

1. Passive Conduction
2. Active Conduction
3. Saltatory Conduction
4. Neurotransmission.

Answer: 3. Saltatory Conduction

Question 47. Match The Type Of Respirator On The Right With Sense Organs Listed On The Left:

1. 1-A  2-B   3-C  4-C   5-D
2. 1-A  2-B   3-D  4-E   5-C
3. 1-B  2-A   3-E  4-C   5-D
4. 1-A  2-B   3-C  4-D   5-C.

Answer: 1. 1-A  2-B   3-C  4-C   5-D

MCQ On Nervous system NEET Question  48. The Sensory Neuron Transmits Patterns Of Action Poiemials That Indicate :

1. The Type Of  Stimulus Received
2. The Intensity Of Stimulus Received
3. The Source Of The Stimulus
4. Both 2 And 3.

Answer: 4. Both 2 And 3.

Question  49. A Receptor That Detects The Position Of Parts Of Tire Body Is Called :

1. A Proprioceptor
2. A Hair Cell
3. A Mechanorcceptor
4. A Muscle Spindle.

Answer: 1. A Proprioceptor

Question  50. Regulatory Control Or Deep Body Temperature, Osmoregulation. Thirst And Hunger Occur In The :

1. Anterior Colliculi
2. Hypothalamus
3. Thalamus
4. Cerebellum.

Answer: 2. Hypothalamus

NEET Biology Growth, Repair Regeneration Ageing And Death Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. The convention of a specialized cell into an unspecialized embryonic type of evil is referred to as :

1. Differentiation
2. Dedifferentiation
3. Transformation
4. Convergence.

Answer: 2. Dedifferentiation

Question 2. Growth of a cell occurs during :

1. M-phase
2. interphase
3. Both i and 2
4. Replication.

Answer: 2. interphase

Question 3. Which one of the following can regenerate its limb if lasts by accident?

1. Crab
2. Adult frog
3. Salamander
4. Tadpole.

Answer: 3. Salamander

NEET MCQs On Ageing and Death Question 4. Regeneration in which animal was discovered for the first time?

1. Sycon
2. Hydra
3. Planaria
4. Phererima.

Answer: 2. Hydra

Question 5. Which one of the following organs has a high degree of power of regeneration?

1. Lungs
2. Kidney
3. L4er
4. Spinal cord.

Answer: 3.L4er

Question 6. Ageing is caused by the disappearance of :

1. Thyroid
2. Thymus
3. Pituitary’
4. Parathyroid.

Answer: 2. Thymus

Question 7. The number of renal glomeruli is reduced to about half in human beings:

1. 50 Yrs. old
2. 70 yrs. old
3. 60 yrs. old
4. 75 yrs. old.

Answer: 4. 75 yrs. old.

Question 8. Senescence means :

1. The period of the life cycle when an animal takes its first breath
2. The time of life cycle when an animal becomes sexually mature
3. The process of growth of body size by mitotic division
4. The process of growing old.

Answer: 4. The process of growing old.

Question 9. It has been observed among kidney donors that the only kidney in the body enlarges and performs the function of a lost kidney. This phenomenon is called :

1. Senescence
2. De-differentiation of kidney
3. Blastema
4. Compensatory’ hypertrophy.

Answer: 3. Compensatory’ hypertrophy.

NEET MCQs On Ageing and Death Question 10.Protein which plays a significant role in ageing is :

1. Elastin
2. Actin
3. Myosin
4. Collagen.

Answer: 4. Collagen.

Question ii. When the reserve food material is utilized in the body, the process is called :

1. Anabolism
2. Degrowth
3. Ageing
4. Growth.

Answer: 2. Degrowth

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 12. The branch of developmental biology which deals with the study of ageing is called :

1. Ornithology
2. ichthyology
3. Gerontology
4. Histology.

Answer: 3. Gerontology

Question 13. During differentiation, cells with the same DNA :

1. Develop similarly
2. D4ide at equal rates
3. Contain different genes
4. Transcribe different genes.

Answer: 4. Transcribe different genes.

Question 14. Capacity for regeneration is maximum in :

1. Sponges
2. Hydra
3. Earthworm
4. Tadpole.

Answer: 2. Hydra

NEET MCQs On Ageing and Death Question 15. The gland that shows atrophy and degenerates with the advancement of age and disappears by middle age is :

1. Thyroid
2. Pituitary
3. Prostate
4. Thymus.

Answer: 4. Thymus

Question 16. The life span of an organism depends on the rate of:

1. Growth
2. Regeneration
3. Repair
4. Ageing.

Answer: 4. Ageing.

Question 17. Growth of higher animal body takes place by the addition of:

1. Protoplasmic substances
2. Apoplasmatic substances
3. Both  1 and 2
4. None of the tires above.

Answer: 3. Both 1 and 2

Question 18. Which of the following shows autotomy?

1. Starfish
2. Prawn
3. Wall lizard
4. All of above

Answer: 4. All of the above

Question 19. A lost leg cannot be regenerated by :

1. Salamander
2. Tadpole larva
3. Crab
4. Adult frog.

Answer: 4. Adult frog.

NEET MCQs On Ageing and Death Question 20. When the whole body is formed from a body segment, it is called :

1. Morphallaxis
2. Epimorphosis
3. Parthenogenesis
4. Epigenesis.

Answer:1. Morphallaxis

Question 21. The Father of gerontology is :

1. Korenchevsky
2. Hayflick
3. Trembley
4. Sachs.

Answer: 1. Korenchevsky

Question 22. A bud-like structure formed at the end of the cut limb of a salamander is:

1. Blastula
2. Blastema
3. Blastumela
4. Plasma.

Answer: 2. Blastema

NEET MCQs On Ageing and Death Question 23. Parafunctional development occurs in :

1. Embryo
2. Foetus
3. infant
4. Adult.

Answer: 1. Embryo

Question 24. Reserve cells in the human body occur in the:

1. Germinal epithelium
2. Bone marrow
3. Stratum germinat4um
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

NEET Biology Basic Features Of Development Multiple Choice Questions.

Question 1. Among the following who is regarded to be the founder of modem mixology?

1. Aristotle
2. Newport
3. Von Baer
4. Spallanzani.

Answer: 3. Von Baer

Question 2. Olhpungs sexual reproduction resembles their parents :

1. Structurally hut not luitctlonnlly
2. Neither structurally nor functionally
3. Both structurally and functionally
4. Only functionally but not structurally.

Answer: 3. Both structurally and functionally

Question 3. Out of these scientists who discovered spermatozoa and called them animalcules?

1. Hippocrates
2. Aristotle
3. Leeuwenhoek
4. Herlwig.

Answer: 3.Leeuwenhoek

Plant Growth and Development Biology NEET Question 4. The study of the development of an organism is termed :

1. Ecology
2. Euphonies
3. Embryology
4. Eugenics.

Answer: 3. Embryology

Question5.Of the following animals which produces the smallest egg?

1. Hummingbird
2. Salmon
3. Blue whale
4. American toad.

Answer: 3. Blue whale

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 6. What gives rise to the gametes in multicellular animals?

1. Zygote
2. Ectoderm
3. Mesoderm
4. Germ cells.

Answer: 4. Germ cells.

Question 7. Which type of cell division takes place in germ cells during gametogenesis?

1. Asexual
2. Meiotic
3. Mitotic
4. Both and.

Answer: 4. Both 1 and 2.

Plant Growth and Development Biology NEET Question 8. Primitive germ cells or spermatogonia are located in the :

1. Basement membrane
2. Layer of germinal epithelium
3. Fibroelastic epithelium
4. Stratified epithelium.

Answer: 4. Stratified epithelium.

Question 9. Spermiogenesis is characterized by :

1. Removal of water from the head of the spermatid
2. Formation of the spiral body of mitochondria
3. Formation of acrosome on file top of nucleus
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 10. Conversion of immotile spermatids into motile spermatozoa is called :

1. Spermiogenesis
2. Hydrolysis
3. Motilism
4. Transformation.

Answer: 1.Spermiogenesis

Question 11. The reproduction begins with the formation of:

1. Ova
2. Bud
3. Sperm
4. Reproductive unit.

Answer: 4. Reproductive unit.

Question 12. During spermatogenesis, meiosis occurs in :

1. Sperm mother cell
2. primary spermatocyte
3. secondary spermatocyte
4. None of the above.

Answer: 4. None of the above.

Question 13. Prlmiliy spemmlocyle irfrn to :

1. Sperm he fore limit nutrition division
2. Sperm nitre the first nutrition division
3. Spermatogonium which ceases divisions and starts growing
4. Primordial sex cell.

Answer: 3. Spermatogonium which ceases divisions and starts growing

Question 14.From one sperm mother cell (primary spermatocyte), the number of sperms produced arc :

1. 4
2. 1
3. 8
4. 16.

Answer: 1.4

Question 15. The spiral sheath of the sperm is formed by :

1. Nucleus
2. Centriole
3. Golgi bodies
4. Mitochondria.

Answer: 4. Mitochondria.

Plant Growth and Development Biology NEET Question 16. Which of the following does not possess flagellum in the sperm?

1. Frog
2. Roundworm
3. Man
4. Sea urchin.

Answer: 2. Roundworm

Question 17. The middle piece of the sperm consists of a compact mass of:

1. Mitochondria
2. Endoplasmic reticulum
3. Golgi bodies
4. Lysosomes.

Answer: 1. Mitochondria

Question 18. A cell formed from cleavage is :

1. Morula
2. Blastomere
3. Blastopore
4. Blastula.

Answer: 4. Blastula.

Question 19. The diploid number of chromosomes is restored by :

1. Fertilization
2. Maturation
3. Reduction division
4. Spermatogenesis.

Answer: 1. Fertilization

Question 20. The head of sperm consists of:

1. Acrosome
2. Acrosome and nucleus
3. Nucleus
4. Mitochondria.

Answer: 2. Acrosome and nucleus

Question 21. Dysmenorrhoea a painful menstruation, is caused by :

1. uterine tumours
2. ovarian cysts
3. Pelvic inflammation
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 22. The sperms produce some enzymes known as “Spermiolysins”. These help in :

1. Viability by sperms
2. Penetration by sperms
3. Movement of sperms
4. Spermatogenesis.

Answer: 2. Penetration by Sperms

Plant Growth and Development NEET Questions Question 23. Fertilizing is emitted from :

1. Polar body
2. Nature ova
3. Immature egg
4. Sperms.

Answer: 2. Nature ova

Question 24. The process of spermatogenesis is under the regulatory influence of:

1. Oxytocin
2. Vasopressin
3. Follicle-stimulating hormone
4. Luteotrophic hormone.

Answer: 3. Follicle-stimulating hormone

Question 25. In frogs lie sperm ceased Imm the testis takes (lie the following milk’ to teaeli urinogenital line :

1. Vasa efferentia. Bidder’s canal,nutrition nephrostome.
2. vasa efferentia, Bidder’s canal and nephrostome
3. Vasa differentia. Bidder’s canal and nephrostome
4. Vasa efferentia. Bidder’s canal and collecting tubule.

Answer: 4. Vasa efferentia. Bidder’s canal and collecting tubule.

Question 26. Oogenesis in Irog lakes place in :

1. Interstitial cells in the ovary
2. Germinal epithelium in the ovary
3. Epithelium in the ovi sac
4. Squamous epithelial cells in the ovary.

Answer: 4. Squamous epithelial cells in the ovary.

Question 27. Oogenesis can be explained as :

1. The process of formation of eggs
2. Growth
3. Ejaculation
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. The process of formation of eggs

Question 28. The process which helps in the formation and maturation of ova is :

1. Morphogenesis
2. Organogenesis
3. Oogenesis
4. Spermatogenesis.

Answer: 3. Oogenesis

Question 29. Vitelline membrane is secreted by and surrounds the :

1. Ova or eggs
2. oogonium
3. Spermatids
4. Oocyte.

Answer: 1. Ova or eggs

Plant Growth and Development NEET Questions Question 30. Albumen around the egg of the frog is secreted by :

1. Egg itself
2. Follicle cells
3. Oviduct
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Oviduct

Question 31. The vitelline membrane of a frog’s egg is :

1. Primary membrane
2. Secondary membrane
3. Tertiary membrane
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Primary membrane

Question 32. An egg containing very little of yolk is called :

1. Microlecithal
2. Meiolecithal
3. Telolecithal
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Microlecithal

Question 33. Insect egg in which yolk is present in the centre is called as :

1. Centrolecithal egg
2. Hexapoda egg
3. Megalecithal egg
4. Telolecithal.

Answer: 1. Centrolecithal egg

Question 34. A jelly layer of the frog is :

1. Primary membrane
2. Secondary membrane
3. Secreted by the egg
4. Tertiary membrane.

Answer: 4. Tertiary membrane.

Question 35. The animal pole of a frog’s egg can be distinguished by :

1. Position of polar body
2. Eccentric nucleus and pigmentation
3. Eccentric nucleus and yolk
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Eccentric nucleus and pigmentation

Question 36. The active cytoplasm and nucleus of a frog’s egg are confined to :

1. Vegetal pole
2. Animal pole
3. Displaced slightly towards the animal pole
4. Eccentrically between the two.

Answer: 2. Animal pole

Plant Growth and Development NEET Questions Question 37. The Yolk of an egg in vertebrates is formed in the:

1. Ovum
2. Lungs
3. Liver
4. Kidney.

Answer: 3. Liver

Question 38. Antifertilizins tire contained in :

1. Spermatozoa
2. Ovary
3. Testis
4. Germinal epithelium.

Answer: 1. Spermatozoa

Question 39. A human embryo begins to implant when it is blastocyst or has approximately 100 cells. How old is the embryo at this time?

1. 12 hours
2. 2 days
3. 6 days
4. 2 weeks.

Answer: 3. 6 days

Question 40. Polar bodies are the products of:

1. Supernumerary sperm
2. Unequal division of the nucleus
3. Unequal division of cytoplasm
4. Cell excretion.

Answer: 3. Unequal division of cytoplasm

Question 41. Eggs which have a sufficiently large amount of yolk and are large-sized are called :

1. Oligolecithal
2. Isolecithal
3. Polylecithal
4. Telolecithal.

Answer: 3.Polylecithal

Question 42. In the egg of a bird, the shell and shell membrane are :

1. Porous to 02 and C02
2. Porous to air only
3. Porous to water only
4. Non-permeable.

Answer: 1. Porous to 02 and C02

Class 11 Biology MCQ – Plant Growth and Development  Question 43. The egg of a frog as it is laid in water is a :

1. Nature ovum
2. Secondary oocyte
3. Fertilized egg
4. Primary oocyte.

Answer: 4. Primary oocyte.

Question 44. Grey crescent is present in :

1. Fertilized egg of frog
2. Eye of frog
3. Brain of rabbit
4. Eye of cockroach.

Answer: 1. Fertilized egg of frog

Question 45. Microlecithal eggs are those which have :

1. A large amount of yolk
2. The average amount of yolk
3. Gastrulation
4. No yolk.

Answer: 3. Gastrulation

Question 46. The phase of embryonic development during which cell movement establishes the three primary germ layers is called :

1. Gastrulation
2. Blastulation
3. Cleavage
4. Inundation.

Answer: 1. Gastrulation

Question 47. Eggs which have no yolk or an extremely small amount of yolk are called :

1. Alecithal
2. Polylecithal
3. Telolecithal
4. Mesolecithal.

Answer: 1. Alecithal

Question 48. Fertilization :

1. Activates the egg
2. Brings fusion of two haploid nuclei
3. Both and
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Both and

Class 11 Biology MCQ – Plant Growth and Development Question 49. The intermixing of two nuclei and later two gizmos”. K known av

1. Syngamy
2. Fertilization
3. Amphimixis
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Fertilization

Question 50. When the two gametes unite to form a zygote, it won’t:

1. Haploid
2. Diploid
3. Triploid
4. Tetraploid.

Answer: 2. Diploid

Question 51. Arrange in the correct sequence the stages of development of the fertilized ovum i.c. blaslula zygote (e) gastnda momla :

1. a. c. b. d
2. b, a, c. d
3. b. d. a. c
4. d. b. a, c.

Answer: 3. b. d. a. c

Question 52. After the sperm enters the egg, the cytoplasm rotates through the:

1. 180°
2. 90°
3. 75°
4. 60°.

Answer: 1. 180°

Question 53. The process that sets in after fertilization is known as:

1. Cleavage
2. Blastulation
3. Gastrulation
4. Neurulation.

Answer: 1. Cleavage

Question 54. Substances released by mature eggs of animals to agglutinate sperms are:

1. Antifertilizin
2. Sperm lysin
3. Fertilizin
4. Cortical granules.

Answer: 3. Fertilizin

Question 55. In teleosts, reptiles and birds, the cleavage pattern is :

1. Equal holoblastic
2. Unequal holoblastic
3. Incomplete meroblastic
4. Complete meroblastic.

Answer: 3. Incomplete meroblastic

Question 56. Cleavage is a type of division in which the fertilized egg?

1. Divides repeatedly without growth
2. Divides repeatedly and grows
3. Does not divide, simply grows
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Divides repeatedly without growth

Class 11 Biology MCQ – Plant Growth and Development Question 57. Cleavage leads to formation of :

1. Blastula
2. Egg
3. Gamete
4. zygote.

Answer: 1.Blastula

Question 58. The ratio of nucleus to cytoplasm at the beginning of cleavage is :

1. very low
2. very high
3. Normal
4. A bit higher than normal.

Answer: 1. very low

Question 59. Grey crescent is the area :

1. At the point of entry of sperm into the ovum
2. Just opposite the site of entry of sperm into the ovum
3. At the animal pole
4. In the middle between the animal and vegetal pole.

Answer: 1. At the point of entry of sperm into the ovum

Class 11 Biology MCQ Question 60. The development of the zygote into an embryo is called as :

1. Embryogenesis
2. Organogenesis
3. Blastogenesis
4. Gametogenesis.

Answer: 1. Embryogenesis

Question 61. When eggs are completely divided, during cleavage, into blastomeres, the type of cleavage is known as :

1. Holoblastic
2. Megaloblastic
3. Meroblastic
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Holoblastic

Question 62. When cleavage luirmv pimc’t through the centre of the animal vegetal axis and hlsccl’i both the poles of the egg, the plane of cleavage is called :

1. Meridional
2. Equatorial
3. Vertical
4. Latitudinal.

Answer: 1. Meridional

Question 63. Spiral cleavage is found in :

1. Synapla
2. Amphibia
3. Nematoda, nnnclida and rotifera etc.
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Nematoda, nuclide rotifera etc.

Question 64. Which of these is the first phase of development during embryogenesis?

1. Differentiation
2. Organogenesis
3. Fertilization
4. Gastrulation.

Answer: 3. Fertilization

Class 11 Biology MCQ Question 65. After the main organs of the embryo and its embryonic membranes are formed, then the mammalian embryo is called :

1. Foetus
2. Morula
3. Gastrula
4. Endometrium.

Answer: 1. Foetus

Question 66. The external stimulus which induces cleavage in an unfertilized ovum is called :

1. Fertilization
2. Chemotaxis
3. Paedogenesis
4. Neoteny.

Answer: 1. Fertilization

Question 67. In birds, cleavage is:

1. Discoidal
2. Superficial
3. Complete
4. Absent.

Answer: 1. Discoidal

Question 68. An avian blastula is called :

1. Blastocyst
2. Trophoblastic
3. Blastoderm
4. Foetal blastula.

Answer: 1. Blastocyst

Class 11 Biology MCQ Question 69. A zygote develops into a mature organism by undergoing :

1. Cleavage
2. Fertilization
3. Conjugation
4. Reduction division.

Answer: 1. Cleavage

Question 70. The solid ball of cells produced during cleavage is :

1. Gastrula
2. Blastula
3. Morula
4. Polar body.

Answer: 3. Morula

Question 71. Clustering is a protein present in the sperm head of some :

1. Salmon fish
2. Birds
3. Mammals
4. Frog.

Answer: 1. Salmon fish

Question 72. Blastodisc or germinal disc refers to the protoplasm of the egg, this is restricted to a small area in :

1. Amphibian egg
2. Avian egg
3. Ascidian egg
4. Mammalian egg.

Answer: 4. Mammalian egg.

Question 73. The type of cleavage shown by centrolecithal eggs is :

1. Superficial meroblastic
2. Discoidal meroblastic
3. Holoblastic cleavage
4. Both and.

Answer: 1. Superficial meroblastic

Question 74. When the cleavage furrow extends from the animal pole to the vegetal pole and does not bisect the egg equally into two blastomeres, the plane of cleavage is :

1. Meridional
2. Equatorial
3. Latitudinal
4. vertical.

Answer: 4. vertical.

Question 75. During the development of the human foetus, the blood tissue ‘ starts developing in the 15th week. It starts with the development of :

1. Blood plasma
2. Blood platelets
3. RBC and WBC
4. Blood islands.

Answer: 4. Blood islands.

Class 11 Biology MCQ  Question 76. The third cleavage in a frog’s egg. is :

1. Latitudinal
2. Horizontal Equtilorial
3. Meridional
4. Horizontal.

Answer: 1. Latitudinal

Question 77. As a result of cleavages, if blastomeres are symmetrically placed mound the polar axis, the type of cleavage is known as :

1. Spiral
2. Discoidal
3. TO biradial
4. Radial.

Answer: 4. Radial.

Question 78. Oblique cleavages in egg produce a symmetry known as:

1. Spiral
2. Biradial
3. Bilateral
4. Radial.

Answer: 3. Bilateral

Question 79. In frog’s egg symmetry wise the type of cleavage is :

1. Siradial
2. Spiral
3. Bilateral
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Siradial

Class 11 Biology MCQ  Question 8O. Gastrulation in ampliioxus is by :

1. Convergence
2. Emboly and epiboly
3. Divergence
4. Epiboly and involution.

Answer: 2. Emboly and epiboly

Question 81. Complete holoblastic cleavage occurs in :

1. Centrolecilhal eggs
2. Telolecithal eggs
3. Macrolecithal eggs
4. Microlecithal eggs.

Answer: 4. Microlecithal eggs.

Question 82. Superficial cleavage occurs in the egg of:

1. Toad
2. Frog
3. Hen
4. Cockroach.

Answer: 3. Hen

Question 83. Spiral cleavage occurs in :

1. Ampliioxus
2. Insects
3. Molluscs
4. Reptiles.

Answer: 3. Molluscs

Question 84. Discoidal meroblastic cleavage is characteristic of:

1. Insects
2. Mammals
3. Amphibians
4. Birds.

Answer: 4. Birds.

Question 85. The blastodisc of a chicken egg is equivalent to:

1. Egg nucleus
2. zygote
3. Blastula
4. Morula.

Answer: 3. Blastula

Class 11 Biology MCQ  Question 86. How many cleavages are completed in the celled stage of a frog’s egg?

1. Three
2. Five
3. Eight
4. Sixteen.

Answer: 2. Five

Question 87. In frogs, micromeres contain :

1. A large amount of yolk
2. The normal amount of yolk
3. A little amount of yolk
4. No yolk.

Answer: 4.No yolk.

Question 88. In an isolecithal egg, one would expect :

1. Meroblastic cleavage
2. Unequal holoblastic cleavage
3. Equal holoblastic cleavage
4. None of The above.

Answer: 1. Meroblastic cleavage

Question 89. A ball of cells with an enteric cavity is called :

gastrula

Iliscoblastula

Morula

Gaslrula.

Answer: 4. Gaslrula.

Question 90. The unit cell of the blastula is:

1. Micromerc
2. Mcgamerc
3. Blastomere
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Blastomere

Question 91. The blastula in mammals is referred to as :

1. Blastoderm
2. Blastodisc
3. Blastocyst
4. Coeloblastula.

Answer: 3. Blastocyst

Question 92. The primary organizer in Frog is :

1. yolk plug
2. ventral lip of blastopore
3. The dorsal lip of the blastopore
4. Lateral lip of blastopore.

Answer: 3. Dorsal lip of blastopore

Question 93. Blastopore is an aperture found in :

1. Blastula
2. Morula
3. Gastrula
4. Neurula.

Answer: 3. Gastrula

Question 94. In frogs, presumptive ectodermal cells show :

1. Emboly
2. Invagination
3. Epiboly
4. Convergence.

Answer: 3. Epiboly

Question 95. In the vertebrates, blastopore marks the region of the future :

1. Mouth
2. Nostril
3. Anus
4. Salivary glands.

Answer: 3. Anus

Question 96. Amoeba reproduces by:

1. Binary fission
2. Budding
3. Fragmentation
4. Sporulation.

Answer: 1. Binary fission

Question 97. The period of development which is passed within the egg or the womb of the mother is called :

1. Post-natal
2. Embryonic
3. Natal
4. Extra-embryonic.

Answer: 2. Embryonic

Class 11 Biology MCQ  Question 98. When the offspring are developed by budding or fragmentation, the process is called :

1. Embryogenesis
2. Organogenesis
3. Gametogenesis
4. Blastogenesis.

Answer: 4. Blastogenesis.

Question 99. Malarial parasites multiply by the process of:

1. Budding
2. Fragmentation
3. Multiple fission
4. Binary fission.

Answer: 3. Multiple fission

Question 100. The constancy of the chromosomes is brought about by a special type of nuclear division is known as :

1. Mitosis
2. Meiosis
3. Amitosis
4. Parthenogenesis.

Answer: 2. Meiosis