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NEET Biology Cell Structure and Function MCQs

Question 1. Engulfing of food materials or foreign bodies is called:

1. Pinocytosis
2. Pinocytosis and phagocytosis
3. Mitosis
4. Phagocytosis.

Answer: 4. Phagocytosis.

Question 2. The total thickness of the plasma membrane proposed by Robertson is:

1. 5Å to 20Å
2. 20Å to 35Å
3. 50Å to 75Å
4. 75Å to 100Å

Answer: 4. 75Å to 100Å

Question 3. The main function of the plasma membrane is to :

1. Regulate the flow of material into and outside the cell
2. Maintain the cell shape and size
3. Control all cellular activities
4. Store cell material.

Answer: 1. Regulate the flow of material into and outside the cell

Question 4. In a fluid mosaic model of the cell membrane, the extrinsic proteins are :

1. Attached to intrinsic proteins but can be separated easily
2. Superficially present but cannot be separated easily
3. Superficially present and can be easily separated
4. Attached to intrinsic proteins but cannot be separated easily.

Answer: 3. Superficially present and can be easily separated

Cell Structure And Function Mcq For Neet

Question 5. The one end of the phospholipid in the cell wall of plants is hydrophobic, which means:

1. It has no affinity for metabolites
2. It has no affinity for water
3. It has no affinity for solutes
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. It has no affinity for water

Question 6. Amoeba, a single-celled organism, has a specialized structure called a contractile vacuole whose function is to collect excess water frorn the cell and discharge the water into the environment. From this infor-mation you can deduce that amoeba live in an environment that is (hypotonic) to the interior solution of amoeba. Thus, you would expect to find amoebas living in :

1. A freshwater pond
2. The ocean
3. Great salt lake
4. A bottle of unpasteurized milk.

Answer: 1. A freshwater pond

Question 7. We know that the Golgi body discharges substances from the cell by fusing of vesicles with the plasma membrane and subsequent opening of what was the interior of the vesicle to the outside environment. This is an example of:

1. Exocytosis
2. Endocytosis
3. Active transport
4. Facilitated diffusion.

Answer: 1. Exocytosis

Question 8. The selective transfer of particles through the cell membrane is an important factor in the process of:

1. Cytoplasmic streaming
2. Homeostasis
3. Nuclear transfer
4. Mechanical digestion.

Answer: 2. Horneostasis

Neet Mcqs On Cell Organelles With Answers

Question 9. The plasma membrane consists of three layers arranged :

1. Protein layer, phospholipid layer, and protein layer
2. The phospholipid and two protein layers
3. The two protein layers and the phospholipid layer
4. The protein layer, the phospholipid layer, and the fat layer.

Answer: 1. Protein layer, phospholipid layer, and protein layer

Question 10. The bordered pits are characteristics of:

1. Ferns
2. Gymnosperms
3. Angiosperms
4. Cycads.

Answer: 2. Angiosperms

Question 11. The torus of simple and bordered pits is made up of :

1. Suberin
2. Glttcose
3. Cutin
4. Phospholipids.

Answer: 1. Suberin

Question 12. Membrane functions are carried out by :

1. Carbohydrates
2. Lipids
3. Metalion
4. Proteins.

Answer: 4. Proteins

Question 13. The integrity of the membrane is maintained by :

1. Ionic bonds
2. Covalent bonds
3. Hydrophilic action
4. Hydrophobic attractions.

Answer: 3. Hydrophilic action

Question 14. According to the fluid mosaic model, the fluidity of a cell membrane is due to :

1. Lipid
2. Proteins
3. Glycoproteins
4. Glycolipids.

Answer: 1. Lipid

Question 15. Regarding cellular membranes one of the following is incorrect?

1. Membranes are selectively permeable but a solute’s electrical polarity and other physical characteristics may affect its ability to enter or leave.
2. Water-soluble substances pass through more rapidly than lipids and lipid-soluble substances.
3. Generally smaller molecules pass through cellular membrane more readily than larger molecules.
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Water-soluble substances pass through more rapidly than lipids and lipid-soluble substances.

Question 16. The counter pressure exerted by the cell wall tends to oppose :

1. Turgor pressure
2. Osmotic pressure
3. Solvent pressure
4. Diffusion pressure.

Answer: 1. Turgor pressure

Cell Structure And Function Neet Previous Year Questions

Question 17. Ion channels have been discovered by :

1. Singer and Nicholson
2. Nehar and Sakmann
3. Gamier
4. Robinson and brown.

Answer: 2. Nehar and sakmann

Question 18. The most abundant lipid in a cell membrane is:

1. Phospholipid
2. Cholesterol
3. Steroid
4. Cutin.

Answer: 1. Phospholipid

Question 19. Glycoproteins are known to play an important role in cell recognition. The specificity of this recognition is provided by:

1. Lipid portion of glycoproteins
2. Lipids are in the least proportion
3. Oligosaccharide portion of glycoprotein
4. Proteins are in the least proportion.

Answer: 3. Oligosaccharide portion of glycoprotein

Question 20. According to the fluid mosaic model, which one is true?

1. Oligosaccharides and lipids are held by non-covalent interaction
2. Components of the plasma membrane can be dispersed by detergents
3. Lipids and proteins are amphoteric
4. Polar groups of proteins are directed towards the lipid bilayer.

Answer: 4. Polar groups of proteins are directed towards the lipid bilayer.

Question 21. When a group of cells is placed in a salt solution whose concentration is more than their cell sap :

1. The cytoplasm with its plasma membrane expands
2. The cytoplasm with its plasma membrane shrinks up
3. The cytoplasm comes out through the plasma membrane
4. The cytoplasm remains in position.

Answer: 2. The cytoplasm with its plasma membrane shrinks up

Question 22. Which of the following structures of the cell is dead?

1. Cell wall
2. Nucleus
3. Plasma membrane
4. Mitochondria.

Answer: 1. Cell wall

Question 23. An Electron microscope has revealed that the cell wall is made up of several layers of :

1. Cavities
2. Microfibrils
3. Plasmodesmata
4. Myonemes.

Answer: 2. Microfibrils

Question 24. Plasmalemma prevents escape of na+ and k+ to :

1. Disrupt neighboring cells through desmosomes
2. Maintain electrostatic neutrality of cells
3. Maintain cell sap
4. All of the above.

Answer: 1. Cause disruption in neighboring cells through desmosomes

Cell Structure And Function Neet Previous Year Questions

Question 25. The cell wall is a permeable membrane can be best deducted from the passage of water and mineral salts from:

1. The root hair into cortical cell
2. The pericycle cells into the tracheal elements
3. The cortical cells are into tracheal elements
4. The soil into the root hair.

Answer: 4. The soil into the root hair.

Question 26. In the fluid mosaic membrane model, the phospholipid bilayer:

1. Is sandwiched between two protein layers
2. Have proteins embedded in it
3. Lies on top of a single protein
4. Is covered by a single protein.

Answer: 2. Has proteins embedded in it

Question 27. The structure in the ce1l bounded by the single membrane is :

1. Chloroplast
2. Peroxisome
3. Ribosome
4. Mitochondria.

Answer: 2. Peroxisome

Question 28. Plasma membranes of adjacent cells become thicker at certain regions. They are called :

1. Desmosomes
2. Terminal bars
3. Infoldings
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Desmosomes

Question 29. The middle lamella is made up of :

1. Protein
2. Cellulose
3. Calcium and magnesium pectate
4. Lignin.

Answer: 3. Calcium and magnesium pectate

Question 30. The cell wall in plants is composed of :

1. Chitin
2. Lipids
3. Xylan
4. Cellulose.

Answer: 4. Cellulose.

Question 31. The cellulose layer during the formation of the cell wall is secreted by the outer cytoplasm as :

1. Primary wall
2. Secondary wall
3. Tertiary wall
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Primary wall

Cell Organelles And Their Functions Mcq Neet 

Question 32. All membrane processes, such as pumping and channeling of molecules are carried out by :

1. Lipids
2. Carbohydrates
3. Nucleic acids
4. Proteins.

Answer: 4. Proteins.

Question 33. Plant cells can usually be distinguished from animal cells because only plant cells possess:

1. Cell wall and mitochondria
2. Goigi bodies and central vacuole
3. Celt wall and central vacuole
4. Chromosome and mitochondria.

Answer: 3. Celt wall and central vacuole

Question 34. If you were given a non-polar- membrane, which of the following would you expect to diffuse through it with the most ease :

1. CO2 phenylalanyl
2. Glycine
3. Lead atom
4. Proteins.

Answer: 1. CO2 phenylalanyl

Question 35. Membranes are found within :

1. Cytoplasm, chloroplasts and mitochondria
2. Chromosomes, nuclei, and mitochondria
3. Cytoplasm, nuclei, and starch grains
4. Chromosomes, chloroplasts, and starch grains.

Answer: 1. Cytoplasm, chloroplasts and mitochondria

Question 36. Which of these factors affects the movement of substances through the plasma membrane?

1. Permeability of the membrane
2. Size of diffusing particles
3. Membrane proteins
4. A1l the above.

Answer: 4. A1l the above.

Question 37. Endocytosis refers to :

1. Phagocytosis
2. Pinocytosis
3. Phagocytosis and pinocytosis
4. Mitosis.

Answer: 3. Phagocytosis and pinocytosis

Question 38. The plasma membrane is selectively permeable. It shorts maximum permeability to:

1. K+
2. Nh4+
3. Na+
4. Ca++

Answer: 1. Nh4+

Question 39. Pinocytosis and active transport are similar because both processes:

1. Depends directly upon cyclosis within a cell
2. Require the expenditure of energy
3. Are types of circulation
4. Increase the absorbing surface of- cell.

Answer: 2. Require the expenditure of energy

Question 40. Most living cells acquire unwanted compounds either by absorption from their surroundings or as by-products of chemical activities. Cells would die if such compounds are accumulated in the cytoplasm or nucleus. Hence mechanisms have evolved to affect their removal. It is accomplished by developing a system of:

1. Membranes such as endoplasmic reticulum
2. Pores in the mernbrane of nucleus
3. Semipermeable cell membrane surrounding the nucleus
4. Vacuoles.

Answer: 2. Pores in the membrane of the nucleus

Cell Organelles And Their Functions Mcq Neet 

Question 41. The term osmosis refers to the diffusion of :

1. Energy
2. Water
3. Glucose
4. Positive electric charges.

Answer: 2. Water

Question 42. The function of the intracellular membrane is to:

1. Establish several compartments within the cell
2. Provide the neat spatial organization of enzymes and pigments
3. Provide a system of channels for the distribution of nutrients within cell
4. All the above

Answer: 4. All the above

Question 43. Amphipathy means:

1. Presence of hydrophobic and hydrophilic groups in the same molecules.
2. Hydrophobic
3. Hydrophilic
4. Isotonic.

Answer: 1. Presence of hydrophobic and hydrophilic groups in the same molecules.

Question 44. An import of energy is required for which of the following:

1. Diffusion
2. Osmosis
3. Facilitated diffusion
4. Active transport.

Answer: 4. Active transport.

Question 45. Microvilli are :

1. Finger-like projections on cell surface responsible for ultra absorption of liquids.
2. Finger-like projections of nuclear membrane responsible for obtaining nutrients for the nucleus
3. Hair-like structures on the cell surface responsible for the sense of touch
4. Secondary finger-like projection on the intestinal villi.

Answer: 1. Finger-like projections on cell surface responsible for ultra absorption of liquids.

Question 46. The simplest and most common mechanism by which substances move across the cell wall is:

1. Active transport
2. Metabolically coupled transport
3. Diffusion
4. Osmosis.

Answer: 3. Diffusion

Question 47. Continuity of cytoplasm from cell to cell is maintained through:

1. Middle lamella
2. Plasmodesmata
3. Endoplasmic reticulum
4. Cell membrane system.

Answer: 2. Plasmodesmata

Question 48. Which pair of structures are usually found in both plant and animal cells?

1. Cell membrane and nucleolus
2. Cell membrane and cell wall
3. Nucleolus and chloroplast
4. Nucleus and cell wall.

Answer: 1. Cell membrane and nucleolus

Question 49. Tonoplast is a differentially permeable membrane surrounding the:

1. Mitochondria
2. Cytoplasm
3. Vacuole
4. Nucleus.

Answer: 3. Vacuole

Question 50. Singer and Nicholson model of plasma membrane differs from Robertson’s model in the :

1. Arrangement of lipid layers
2. Arrangement of proteins
3. Absence of proteins in the Singer model
4. Number of lipid layers.

Answer: 2. Arrangement of proteins

Question 51. Which of the following does not pass across membranes by simple diffusion?

1. O2
2. H+
3. Co2
4. H2O.

Answer: 2. CO2

Question 52. All are membrane-bound cell organelles except:

1. Sphaerosome
2. Lysosome
3. Ribosomes
4. Chloroplast.

Answer: 3. Ribosomes

Question 53. Sialic acid is a constituent of:

1. Cell membrane
2. Cell wall
3. Tonoplast
4. Chromosome.

Answer: 2. Cell wall

Question 54. Beetroot does not lose color in freshwater This is because :

1. The plasma membrane is permeable
2. The plasma membrane is impermeable to pigment
3. The plasma membrane and cell wall are permeable
4. Both the plasma membrane and cell wall are impermeable.

Answer: 2. Plasma membrane is impermeable to pigment

Question 55. Cellulosic cell walls can be specifically stained by

1. Zinc chloride
2. Phloroglucinol
3. Methyl blue
4. Sudan 4.

Answer: 1. Zinc chloride

Cell Organelles And Their Functions Mcq Neet 

Question 56. The plan of cell wall formation is determined by:

1. Golgi bodies
2. Er
3. Microtubules
4. Nucleus.

Answer: 1. Golgi bodies

Question 57. Which of the following is not a form of endocytosis?

1. Monocytosis
2. Phagocytosis
3. Pinocytosis
4. Receptor-mediated cytosis.

Answer: 1. Monocytosis

Question 58. The process by which a cell secretes macromolecules by fusing a transport vesicle to a plasma membrane is:

1. Pinocytosis
2. Endocytosis
3. Phagocytosis
4. Exocytosis.

Answer: 4. Exocytosis.

Question 59. Membrane potential is caused by unequal distribution

1. Ions
2. Isotopes
3. Fatty acids
4. Glucose

Answer: 1. Ions

Question 60. The cell wall is the secretion of:

1. Middle lamella
2. Plasmalemma
3. Cytoplasm
4. Plasmodesmata

Answer: 3. Cytoplasam

Question 61. The cell wall is thin in :

1. Xylem
2. Collenchyma
3. Cytoplasm
4. Parenchyma.

Answer: 4. Parenchyma.

Question 62. Animal cells do not have cell walls because:

1. They are adapted to move their body
2. They have muscles and nerves
3. They have to change the size of their body during locomotion
4. All correct.

Answer: 4. All correct.

Cell Structure And Function Mcq For Neet

Question 63. The smallest structural unit of the cell wall is :

1. Fibril
2. Microfibril
3. Micelle
4. Middle lamella.

Answer: 3. Micelle

Question 64. Unripe fruits are hard, due to :

1. Tannins in the cell wall
2. Middle lamella
3. Plasmodesmata
4. All of these.

Answer: 2. Middle lamella

Question 65. The cell wall in bacteria and cyanobacteria is made up of :

1. Murein or mucopeptide
2. Peptidoglycan and amino sugars
3. Cellulose
4. Chitin.

Answer: 2. Peptidoglycan and amino sugars

Question 66. The hemicellulose in the cell wall acts as :

1. Filler substance
2. Binding microfibril
3. Strengthening cellulose
4. All of these.

Answer: 2. Binding microfibril

Question 67. A micelle is made up of :

1. 250 Microfibril
2. 100 Cellulose chains
3. 20 Macrofibrils
4. 3000 Cellulose chains.

Answer: 2. 100 Cellulose chains

Question 68. Mineral elements of the middle lamella are/are :

1. Calcium pectate
2. Magnesium picrate
3. Manganese
4. Both 1 and 2.

Answer: 4. Both 1 and 2.

Question 69. The cell wall of the fungus contains :

1. Pectin and cellulose
2. Cellulose and chitin
3. Chitin and pectin
4. Chitin and silica.

Answer: 2. Cellulose and chitin

Question 70. Torus is related to:

1. Bordered pits in the cell wall
2. Receptacle of lotus
3. Both correct
4. Both wrong.

Answer: 3. Both correct

Question 71. Symplast:

1. Is the living component of the cell
2. Consists of cytoplasm and cell membrane
3. Both correct
4. Only 2 Is correct.

Answer: 3. Both correct

Question 72. The cell wall is absent in some plant cells like:

1. Zoospores
2. Gametes
3. Pplo
4. All correct.

Answer: 4. All correct.

Question 73. Intussusception is shown by a primary cell wall. It is :

1. Deposition of cell wall materials from inside to cause growth
2. Deposition of wall materials from outside as layers
3. Hardening of cell wall
4. None of these.

Answer: 1. Deposition of cell wall materials from inside to cause growth

Question 74. A pit is an unthickened area in the cell wall. It lacks:

1. Primary wall
2. Middle lamella
3. Secondary wall
4. Cell wall and cell membrane.

Answer: 3. Secondary wall

Question 75. The term cell membrane was given by :

1. Nageli
2. Singer and Nicholson
3. Robertson
4. Plower.

Answer: 1. Nageli

Cell Structure And Function Mcq For Neet

Question 76. The main amino acids in the cell membrane are :

1. Arginine and lysine
2. Arginine and leucine
3. Arginine and tryptophan
4. Arginine and glycine.

Answer: 1. Arginine and lysine

Question 77. Carbohydrate molecules attached to lipid and protein molecules from glycocalyx (extraneous coat). These carbohydrates are usually :

1. Monosaccharides
2. Polysaccharides
3. Oligosaccharides
4. Starches.

Answer: 3. Oligosaccharides

Question 78. Fluid mosaic model explains :

1. A bilipid layer in between 2 protein layers
2. A layer of proteins on one side and a bilayer of lipids on the other side
3. 2 Lipid layers and 1 protein layer
4. A phospholipid layer with proteins between and on both sides of the lipid layer.

Answer: 4. A phospholipid layer with proteins between and on both sides of the lipid layer.

Question 79. Cellular recognition and adhesion are facilitated by components in plasmalemma. These are :

1. Lipids
2. Proteins
3. Both a and b
4. Glycolipids and glycoproteins.

Answer: 4. Both a and b

Question 80. The plasma membrane of an animal cell is composed of:

1. Lipids, proteins, oligosaccharides
2. Lipids, proteins, proteins, polysaccharides
3. Lipids, proteins, disaccharides
4. Lipids, proteins, monosaccharides.

Answer: 1. Lipids, proteins, oligosaccharides

Question 81. Na+- k+ pump is found in membranes of many cells like nerve cells. It works against an electrochemical gradient and involves an integral protein ATPase. For each molecule of ATP used :

1. 3 Ions of na+ are pumped out and two k+ ions are taken
2. 3 Ions of na+ are taken in and 2k+ are pumped out
3. 2 Ions of na+ are thrown and 3k+ are absorbed
4. 3 Ions of Na+ are pumped out.

Answer: 1. 3 Ions of na+ are pumped out and two k+ ions are taken

Question 82. The cell membrane shows maximum permeability :

1. K+
2. Nh4+
3. Na+
4. Ca++.

Answer: 1. K+

Question 83. Who among the following proposed unit membrane model for cell membrane?

1. Davson and Danielle
2. Robertson
3. Singer and Nicholson
4. Metchnikoff.

Answer: 2. Robertson

Question 84. The cell membrane is absent in :

1. Sperm
2. Bacteria
3. Lysosomes
4. None of these.

Answer: 4. None of these.

Question 85. Which process requires energy?

1. Bulk transport
2. Pinocytosis
3. Exocytosis
4. All of these.

Answer: 4. All of these.

Neet Mcqs On Cell Organelles With Answers

Question 86. Pinocytosis was first reported by Edward in Amoeba. It is absent in:

1. Bacteria
2. Blue-green algae
3. Prokaryotes
4. All of these.

Answer: 4. All of these.

NEET Biology Plant Anatomy Multiple Choice Questions And Answers

Question 1. Meristematic cells have:

1. Large prominent nucleus and dense cytoplasm
2. No intercellular spaces
3. Rounded shape
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 2. The cells or tissues of plants which have lost the power of division are called:

1. Meristematic
2. Permanent
3. Protoderm
4. Promeristem.

Answer: 2. Permanent

Question 3. Promeristems can be distinguished from primary meristems by:

1. Their apical position
2. By their power of active division
3. The presence of a large prominent nucleus
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 4. The undifferentiated cells are present in:

1. Maple tree root system
2. Sepals of geranium flower
3. Cambium of oak
4. Root of Raphanus.

Answer: 3. Cambium of oak

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 5. The tip of the root apical meristem is capped by the histogen, known as:

1. Dermatogen
2. Periblem
3. Calyptrogen
4. Plerome.

Answer: 3. Calyptrogen

Vascular Tissues MCQs For NEET

Question 6. Meristematic cells are:

1. Thin-walled, isodiametric, nucleate and less protoplasmic
2. Thin-walled, isodiametric, nucleate and densely protoplasmic
3. Thick-walled, isodiametric, non-nucleate and densely protoplasmic
4. Thick-walled, isodiametric, nucleate and less protoplasmic.

Answer: 2. Thin-walled, isodiametric, nucleate and densely protoplasmic

Question 7. The root apical meristem is subterminal because it:

1. Is covered by root hairs
2. Is covered by the root cap
3. Has many corpus cells
4. Is covered by tunica cells.

Answer: 2. Is covered by the root cap

Question 8. Cork cambium is a:

1. Promeristem
2. Lateral meristem
3. Intercalary meristem
4. Ground meristem.

Answer: 2. Lateral meristem

Question 9. Primary vascular tissues are derived from:

1. Protoderm
2. Procambium
3. Ground meristem
4. Calyptrogen.

Answer: 2. Procambium

Questions Question 10. The epidermis in the stem is produced from:

1. Protoderm
2. Procambium
3. Ground meristem
4. Calyptrogen.

Answer: 1. Protoderm

Question 11. The pith in the stem is derived from:

1. Protoderm
2. Procambium
3. Ground meristem
4. Plate meristem.

Answer: 3. Ground meristem

Vascular Tissues MCQs For NEET

Question 12. Epiblema in roots is derived from :

1. Protoderm
2. Procambium
3. Ground meristem
4. Calyptrogen.

Answer: 1. Protoderm

Question 13. The histogen concept was proposed by:

1. Schmidt
2. Nageii
3. Hanstein
4. Strassburger

Answer: 3. Hanstein

Question 14. The lateral meristem is responsible for:

1. Increasing height
2. Increasing thickness
3. Increasing tissue
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Increasing thickness

Question 15. The tissue is made up of thin-walled rectangular cells responsible for the secondary growth:

1. Cortex
2. Xylem
3. Cambium
4. Pith.

Answer: 3. Cambium

Question 16. Root cap in dicots is formed from:

1. Ground meristem
2. Procambium
3. Protoderm
4. Calyptrogen.

Answer: 4. Calyptrogen.

Vascular Tissues MCQs For NEET

Question 17. Intercalary meristems are derived from:

1. Permanent tissue
2. Secondary meristem
3. Lateral meristem
4. Apical meristem.

Answer: 4. Apical meristem.

Question 18. Secondary meristems are derived from:

1. Apical meristem
2. Intercalary meristem
3. Lateral meristem
4. Permanent tissues.

Answer: 4. Permanent tissues.

Plant Anatomy MCQs For NEET

Question 19. The vascular cambium of the root is an example of meristem:

1. Apical meristem
2. Intercalary meristem
3. Secondary meristem
4. Root apical meristem.

Answer: 3. Secondary meristem

Question 20. Tunica corpus theory was proposed by:

1. Hanstein
2. Schmidt
3. Nageli
4. Hofmeister.

Answer: 2. Schmidt

Question 21. Dermatogen is tissue formed by apical meristem and it develops into:

1. Pith
2. Vascular bundles
3. Epidermis
4. Cortex.

Answer: 3. Epidermis

Question 22. Grass stem elongates by the activity of:

1. Cambium
2. Intercalary meristem
3. Apical meristem
4. Primary meristem.

Answer: 2. Intercalary meristem

Plant Anatomy MCQs For NEET

Question 23. The concept envisaging three distinct zones of cells of new tissue builders at the stem and root apices is known as:

1. Meristem theory
2. Histogen theory
3. Dermatogen theory
4. Tunica colpus theory.

Answer: 2. Histogen theory

Question 24. Which of the following clogs the cavity of the xylem vessels?

1. Tyloses
2. Cystoliths
3. Hydathode
4. Raphides.

Answer: 1. Tyloses

Question 25. Carnbium which produces cork is known as:

1. Phelloderm
2. Phellogen
3. Phellern
4. Periblem.

Answer: 3. Phellern

Plant Anatomy MCQs For NEET

Question 26. When we peel the skin of a potato tuber, we remove:

1. Epidermis
2. Periderm
3. Cuticle
4. Sapwood

Answer: 2. Periderm

Question 27. In which meristem do you see cell divisions occurring in all planes?

1. Lile meristem
2. Plate meristem
3. Lateral meristem
4. Ground meristem.

Answer: 4. Ground meristem.

Question 28. Which is the first wall layer formed by dividing plant cells and occurring between subsequently formed cell walls of daughter cells?

1. Primary wall
2. Secondary wall
3. Middle lamella
4. Cellulose layer.

Answer: 3. Middie lamella

Question 29. The fascicular cambium in a dicotyledonous stem is a meristematic tissue referred to as :

1. Apical
2. Lateral
3. Primary
4. Intercalary.

Answer: 2. Lateral

Important MCQs On Plant Anatomy NEET

Question 30. Which new tissues of the plant body originate in the apical meristems?

1. Parenchyma
2. Collenchyma
3. Sclerenchyma
4. Secondary.

Answer: 1. Parenchyma

Question 31. Intercalary meristems are present in the following:

1. Nodai region
2. Internodal region
3. Bryophytes
4. The nodal region is close to the base of the plant.

Answer: 1. Nodai region

Question 32. The basic differences between a vessel and a tracheid are:

1. Types of pits
2. Size and types of pits
3. Perforations on end walls
4. Length wall thickness and lignification.

Answer: 3. Perforations on end walls

Question 33. Which is not true about the sclereids?

1. These are parenchymatous cells with thick lignified cell wall
2. They are elongated and flexible and their ends are tapering
3. Generally, they are found in the rind of drupe fruits and pulp of guava and pear
4. They are also called stone cells.

Answer: 2. They are elongated and flexible and their ends are tapering

Question 34. Primary growth of a tree:

1. Occurs through the activities of apical meristems
2. Occurs through the activity of a vascular cambium
3. Occurs through the activity of the root cap
4. Occurs only in the first year of the tree’s life.

Answer: 1. Occurs through the activities of apical meristems

Important MCQs On Plant Anatomy NEET

Question 35. Secondary xylem and phioem are laid down by:

1. Apical meristems
2. Axillary meristems
3. Vascular cambium
4. Cork cambium.

Answer: 3. Vascular cambium

Question 36. Which of the following would not secrete a cuticle?

1. Leaf epidermis
2. Stem epidermis
3. Root epidermis
4. Xerophytes.

Answer: 3. Root epidermis

Question 37. One year’s growth in length of a young woody shoot is the distance between successive:

1. Rings of bud scale scars
2. Leal scars
3. Branches
4. Axillary buds.

Answer: 1. Leal scars

Question 38. Anatomically jute fibres are:

1. Vertical fibres
2. Pith fibres
3. Xylem fibres
4. Phloem fibres.

Answer: 4. Phloem fibres.

Plant Tissues MCQs For NEET

Question 39. Xylem that is not conducting water is called:

1. Heartwood
2. Sapwood
3. Springwood
4. Summerwood.

Answer: 1. Heartwood

Important MCQs On Plant Anatomy Question 40. Intercalary meristem is seen in:

1. Maize
2. Ficus
3. Cabbage
4. Cucurbita.

Answer: 1. Maize

Question 41. Tunica and corpus organization occurs in:

1. Lateral meristem
2. Root apex
3. Shoot apex
4. Intercalary meristem.

Answer: 3. Shoot apex

Question 42. Tree trunk increases in girth because of the cell division activity in:

1. Epidermal tissues
2. Supporting tissues
3. Meristematic tissues
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Meristematic tissues

Plant Tissues MCQs For NEET

Question 43. In the root, the maximum growth occurs:

1. In the presence of high-temperature
2. In the presence of light
3. At the apex
4. Behind the apex.

Answer: 4. Behind the apex.

Question 44. Chlorenchyma cells are:

1. Chlorophyll-containing sclerenchyma cells
2. Chlorophyll-containing epidermis
3. Chlorophyll-containing parenchyma
4. Chlorophyll-containing phloem.

Answer: 3. Chlorophyll-containing parenchyma

Question 45. Sclerenchyma cells are mostly:

1. Living cells
2. Dead cells
3. Pat of xylem vessels
4. Part of pericycle.

Answer: 2. Dead cells

Question 46. Abnormal secondary growth due to accessory cambia is found in:

1. Helianthus
2. Cucurbita
3. Dracaena
4. Maize.

Answer: 3. Dracaena

Plant Tissues MCQs For NEET

Question 47. Secondary meristems are set apart from primary meristems in that they:

1. Are responsible for secondary growth
2. Increase the size of the state
3. From the cork and secondary vascular tissue
4. Always arise in permanent tissue.

Answer: 4. Always arise in permanent tissue.

Question 48. In amphiphilic siphonostele, phloem is:

1. Internal to xylem
2. External to xylem
3. Surrounded by xylem
4. On both sides of the xylem.

Answer: 4. On both sides of the xylem.

Question 49. The science of dendrochronology is applied to determine:

1. The age of trees
2. Date of archaeological objects
3. Ecological succession of trees
4. Tree-like concept of evolution.

Answer: 1. The age of trees

Xylem And Phloem MCQs For NEET

Question 50. Cork of commercial value is obtained from:

1. Quercus
2. Mango
3. Pines
4. Cedrus deodara.

Answer: 1. Quercus

Question 51. The first event during the secondary growth of dicot root is the division of:

1. Cambial initial between xylem and phloem
2. Pericyclic cells external to primary xylem
3. Conjunctive cells form circular cambium
4. Parenchyma cells are internal to the primary phloem.

Answer: 3. Conjunctive cells to form circular cambium

Question 52. Collenchyma mainly forms:

1. Hypodermis
2. Epidermis
3. Phloem
4. Inner cortex.

Answer: 1. Hypodermis

Question 53. Xylem and phloem in plants are concerned with conduction like arteries and veins. Yet unlike the arteries and veins, together they cannot be termed a circulatory system because:

1. No liquid moves through these elements
2. Gases are not transported by these tissues
3. Plants lack the heart to pump
4. Movement is not in a circular manner from one to the other.

Answer: 4. Movement is not in a circular manner from one to the other.

Xylem And Phloem MCQs For NEET

Question 54. Xylem parenchyma occurring in association with vessels is known as:

1. Paratracheal xylem parenchyma
2. Apotracheal xylem parenchyma
3. Syntracheal xylem parenchyma
4. Associated xylem parenchyma.

Answer: 1. Paratracheal xylem parenchyma

Plant Anatomy MCQs Question 55. Angular collenchyma is found in:

1. Althea
2. Cucurbita
3. Lactuca
4. Salvia.

Answer: 2. Cucurbita

Question 56. Youngest layer of secondary xylem is adjacent to:

1. Cortex
2. Pith
3. Cambium
4. Pericycle.

Answer: 3. Cambium

Question 57. External protective tissue of plants are:

1. Pericycle and cortex
2. Epidermis and cork
3. Cork and pericycle
4. Cortex and epidermis.

Answer: 2. Epidermis and cork

Question 58. Angiosperms have:

1. Tracheids only
2. Vessels absent
3. Vessels present
4. Sieve tubes are absent.

Answer: 3. Vessels present

Xylem And Phloem MCQs For NEET

Question 59. Fusiform initials form:

1. Tracheary elements
2. Phloem parenchyma
3. Vascular rays
4. Ray parenchyma.

Answer: 1. Tracheary elements

Question 60. Which of the following lies in between the bark and wood of a tree trunk?

1. Cork cambium
2. Phloem
3. Vascular cambium
4. Primary cortex.

Answer: 3. Vascular cambium

Question 61. Plant fibres can originate from:

1. Phloem, xylem, epidermis and sclerenchyma tissues
2. Xylem, epidermis and sclerenchyma tissues
3. Phloem, xylem and sclerenchyma tissues
4. Xylem, phloem and epidermis tissues.

Answer: 1. Phloem, xylem, epidermis and sclerenchyma tissues

Question 62. Sieve tubes are best suited for translocation because they:

1. Possess no end wall
2. Are broader than long
3. Possess a broad lumen and perforated wall end
4. Possess bordered pits.

Answer: 3. Possess a broad lumen and perforated wall end

NEET Botany Structural Organization MCQs

Question 63. Promeristem is found in:

1. Embryo
2. Root apex
3. Shoot apex
4. All of the above.

Answer: 1. Embryo

Question 64. Which of the following do not have a nucleus but are still living?

1. Sieve tubes
2. Trachea.
3. Companion cell
4. Phloem fibres.

Answer: 1. Sieve tubes

Question 65. Abundant root hairs are present in:

1. Eichhornia
2. Hydrilla
3. Commelina
4. Pistia.

Answer: 1. Eichhornia

Question 66. The cell layer located at the periphery in the cross-section of the root is called:

1. Endodermis
2. Epiblema
3. Pericycle
4. Xylem.

Answer: 2. Epiblema

Question 67. Lateral roots arise from the:

1. Endodermis
2. Epidermis
3. Pericycle
4. Pith.

Answer: 3. Pericycle

Question 68. The endodermis is the innermost layer of the:

1. Xylem
2. Phloem
3. Cortex
4. Cambium.

Answer: 3. Cortex

Question 69. Casparian strips occur in:

1. Endodermis
2. Epidermis
3. Pericycle
4. Cortex.

Answer: 1. Endodermis

Question 70. Radial vascular bundles occur in:

1. Stems
2. Dicot stem
3. Monocot stem
4. Monocot root.

Answer: 4. Monocot root.

NEET Botany Structural Organization MCQs

Question 71. Well-developed pith is found in:

1. Monocot root and monocot stem
2. Monocot root and dicot stem
3. Monocot stem and dicot root
4. Dicot root and dicot stem.

Answer: 2. Monocot root and dicot stem

Question 72. Protoxylem lacunae are characteristic features of:

1. Climbers
2. Underground stem
3. Vascular bundles of the stem of grasses
4. Cladode.

Answer: 3. Vascular bundles of the stem of grasses

Question 73. The centrifugal arrangement of the xylem is called:

1. Monarch
2. Diarch
3. Polyarch
4. Exarch.

Answer: 4. Exarch.

Question 74. The xylem in the monocot root is:

1. Monarch
2. Diarch
3. Triarch
4. Polyarch.

Answer: 4. Polyarch.

Question 75. Cortex in the monocot root constitutes:

1. Parenchymatous cells
2. Collenchymatous cells
3. Sclerenchymatous cells
4. Companion cells.

Answer: 1. Parenchymatous cells

Question 76. Root hairs are:

1. Acellular
2. Unicellular
3. Multicellular
4. Multicellular and unicellular.

Answer: 2. Unicellular

Question 77. Monocot root differs from dicot root in having:

1. Scattered vascular bundles
2. Well developed pith
3. Endarch vascular bundles
4. Open vascular bundles.

Answer: 2. Well-developed pith

Question 78. The main function of xylem is:

1. Protection
2. Storage of food
3. Conduction of water and minerals
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Conduction of water and minerals

NEET Botany Structural Organization MCQs

Question 79. Vascular cambium in dicot root develops from:

1. Endodermis
2. Pericycle
3. Conjunctive parenchyma
4. Both (2) and (3).

Answer: 4. Both (2) and (3).

Important MCQs on Anatomy of Flowering Plants Question 80. Vessels are characteristic of:

1. Angiosperms only
2. Gymnosperms only
3. Pteridophytes only
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Angiosperms only

Question 81. Root hair arises from:

1. Pericycle
2. Endodermis
3. Cortex
4. Epiblema.

Answer: 4. Epiblema.

Question 82. Tyloses are found in:

1. Secondary xylem
2. Secondary phloem
3. Callus tissue
4. Cork cells.

Answer: 1. Secondary xylem

Question 83. After secondary growth, the copies in the dicot root:

1. Remains intact
2. Is completely sloughed away
3. Is largely lost
4. Is converted to cork.

Answer: 3. Is largely lost

Question 84. Monocot root differs from dicot root in:

1. Showing no secondary growth
2. No hairs
3. No cambium
4. All the above.

Answer: 3. No cambium

NEET Botany Structural Organization MCQs

Question 85. Exarch xylem is found in:

1. Root
2. Stem
3. Leal
4. Rachis.

Answer: 1. Root

Plant Anatomy MCQs Question 86. Stem and flrots olqucifeme grow due to actiraty of:

1. Cortex
2. Cambium
3. Phloem
4. Endoderm.

Answer: 2. Cambium

Question 87. Pith is absent or reduced in:

1. Dicot root
2. Dicot stem
3. Monocot stem
4. Monocot root.

Answer: 1. Dicot root

Question 88. Two to five xylem bundles are found in:

1. Monocot root
2. Monocot stem
3. Dicot stem
4. Dicot root.

Answer: 4. Dicot root.

Question 89. Maximum amount of growth in roots occurs due to :

1. Auxins
2. Root cap region
3. Presence of light
4. Darkness.

Answer: 1. Auxins

Question 90. The tip of the root apical meristem is covered by a root pocket in:

1. Brassica
2. Eichhornia
3. Petunia
4. Wheat.

Answer: 2. Eichhornia

Question 91. Raphides are:

1. Starch
2. Silica
3. Calcium carbonates
4. Calcium oxalate.

Answer: 4. Calcium oxalate.

Question 92. Raphides are found in:

1. Citrus
2. Colocasia or monocots
3. Nerium
4. Mango.

Answer: 2. Colocasia or monocots

Question 93. If the heartwood region of the plant is removed or decays:

1. The root will die first
2. Shoot will die first
3. Root and shoot die together
4. Neither root nor shoot till die.

Answer: 4. Neither root nor shoot till die.

Question 94. In the dicot stem the vascular bundles are:

1. Not found at all
2. Closed and show sclerenchymatous bundle sheath
3. Arranged in a ring
4. Are scattered in the ground tissue.

Answer: 3. Arranged in a ring

Question 95. In a dicot stem, the vascular bundle is:

1. Concentric
2. Collateral
3. Excentric
4. Radial.

Answer: 2. Collateral

Vascular Tissues MCQs For NEET

Question 96. The most common type of ground tissue is:

1. Epidermis
2. Collenchyma
3. Parenchyma
4. Sclerenchyma.

Answer: 3. Parenchyma

Question 97. Mark the openings on a tree trunk for respiration:

1. Stomata
2. Hydathode
3. Lenticels
4. Cracks.

Answer: 3. Lenticels

Question 98. In monocots vascular bundles are:

1. Open
2. Closed
3. Bicollateral
4. Radial.

Answer: 2. Closed

Plant Anatomy MCQs Question 99. Growth rings determine:

1. Age
2. Length
3. Breadth
4. Number of branches of a plant.

Answer: 1. Age

Question 100. Vascular bundles are arranged in a ring in:

1. Dicot stem
2. Dicot root
3. Monocot stem
4. Monocot leaf.

Answer: 1. Dicot stem

Evolution MCQs For NEET Biology With Answers

Question 1. Which one is the common point in Lamarckism and Darwinism?

1. Origin of the idea of organic evolution
2. Continuity of germplasm.
3. Mutation
4. The idea of evolution.

Answer: 4. The idea of evolution.

Question 2. Genetic drift is on account of:

1. Variation
2. Mutation
3. Increase in population
4. No change in population.

Answer: 3. Increase in population

Question 3. Reproductive isolation between segments of a single population is termed:

1. Allopatry
2. Population divergence
3. Sympatry
4. Disruptive isolation.

Answer: 3. Sympatry

Evolution – NEET Questions Question 4. The present Giraffe has a long neck as compared to its ancestors. According to the present-day view could be due to the:

1. Natural selection
2. Isolation
3. Speciation
4. Inheritance of acquired characters.

Answer: 1. Natural selection

Evolution Mcq For Neet

Question 5. The appearance of ancestral characters in the new bombs, such as the tail, multiple mammae etc. is known as:

1. Homologous
2. Analogous
3. Atavism
4. Vestigial.

Answer: 3. Atavism

Question 6. Nowadays Lamarckian theory is being reviewed in the light of the modern concept of evolution under the heading Neo-Lamarckism. Who proved that the genes are influenced by physical and chemical factors so that they bring remarkable changes to the offspring

1. Tower
2. Harrison
3. Hoffman
4. Both 1 and 2.

Answer: 4. Both 1 and 2.

Question 7. According to the Neo-Lamarckism:

1. Acquired characters influence the somatic cells
2. Acquired characters influence the chromosomes or genes
3. Somatic characters are not inherited while characters of gametes are inherited by the offspring
4. All the above three.

Answer: 2. Acquired characters influence the chromosomes or genes

Question 8. One of the following is most essential of evolution:

1. Mutation
2. Hereditary characters
3. Adaptations
4. Nature.

Answer: 1. Mutation

Question 9. Changes in genetic characters on accumulation, leading to the formation of new individuals is characteristics of:

1. Non-directional
2. Genetic drift
3. Divergent evolution
4. Macroevolution.

Answer: 3. Divergent evolution

Question 10. Radiations with successful adaptations in the case of insects over a major period are a result of the:

1. Microevolution
2. Genetic divergence
3. Mega evolutions
4. Macroevolution.

Answer: 4. Macroevolution.

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 11. The term used for similarity in organ structure seen in great diversity is:

1. Homology
2. Analogy
3. Symmetrical
4. Identical.

Answer: 1. Homology

Neet Mcqs On Evolution With Answers

Question 12. Darwinism fails to explain:

1. Usefulness of all organs
2. Retrogression
3. Progression
4. Presence of vestigial organs.

Answer: 4. Presence of vestigial organs.

Question 13. Fishes to mammals have a similar structure with respect to:

1. Forebrain alone
2. Midbrain alone
3. Hindbrain alone
4. All three regions.

Answer: 4. All three regions.

Question 14. Balancing selection promotes:

1. Homozygotes
2. Heterozygotes
3. Polyploids
4. Recessive traits alone.

Answer: 2. Heterozygotes

Question 15. Cladogenesis refers to:

1. Convergence of different genetic lines
2. Divergence of genetic lines from a common ancestor
3. Independent evolution
4. Formation of new species.

Answer: 2. Divergence of genetic lines from a common ancestor

Question 16. Allopatric speciation is due to:

1. Mutation
2. Geographical separation of population
3. Migration of members of a species from one to another population
4. Hybridization between closely related species.

Answer: 2. Geographical separation of population

Question 17. The most complex cellular structures are found in:

1. Bacteria
2. Algae
3. Protozoa
4. Fungi.

Answer: 3. Protozoa

Evolution Neet Previous Year Questions 

Question 18. The oldest fossil of a mammal is from the:

1. Permian period
2. Jurassic period
3. Triassic period
4. Cretaceous period.

Answer: 3. Triassic period

Question 19. Successful adaptation simply means:

1. An increase in fitness
2. Moving to a new place
3. Producing viable offsprings
4. Evolving new characteristics.

Answer: 3. Producing viable offspring

Question 20. The unit of evolution is now known to be the:

1. Individual
2. Family
3. Population
4. Species.

Answer: 3. Population

Question 21. The unit of natural selection is the:

1. Individual
2. Family
3. Population
4. Species.

Answer: 1. Individual

Question 22. The total collection of genes at any one time in a unit of evolution is called the:

1. Genotype
2. Gene pool
3. Multiple allelic groups
4. Demotype.

Answer: 2. Gene pool

Question 23. A change in the relative abundance of an allele (the allelic frequency) within a population, over a succession of generations is called:

1. Micro-evolution or adaptive evolution
2. Macro-evolution or speciation
3. Co-evolution
4. Phylogenetic evolution.

Answer: 1. Micro-evolution or adaptive evolution

Darwin’s Theory Of Evolution Mcqs Neet

Question 24. Micro-evolution can be measured by comparing observed allelic frequencies with those predicted by:

1. Chance
2. Hardy Weinberg equation
3. Mendelian ratios
4. All known environmental factors.

Answer: 2. Hardy Weinberg equation

Question 25. A potential danger to a population that has been greatly reduced in number is the following:

1. Loss of genetic viability
2. The tendency towards assortative mating
3. Reduced gene flow
4. Hardy Weinberg disequilibrium.

Answer: 1. Loss of genetic viability

Question 26. All alleles originate from:

1. Mutations
2. Cross-overs
3. Gene flow
4. Non-disjunctions.

Answer: 1. Mutations

Question 27. A beneficial allele increases more rapidly in frequency if it is:

1. Recently mutated
2. Rare
3. Dominant
4. Recessive.

Answer: 3. Dominant

Question 28. Sympatric speciation occurs most commonly in:

1. Mammals
2. Fishes
3. Amphibians
4. Birds.

Answer: 2. Fishes

Question 29. Reproductive isolation in sympatric speciation develops without a:

1. Change in chromosome number
2. Barrier to mating
3. Geographical barrier
4. The barrier to gene flow.

Answer: 3. Geographical barrier

Question 30. Darwin found that South American fossils are most similar to:

1. Australian fossils
2. Asian fossils
3. Living species of South America
4. Living species of North America.

Answer: 3. Living species of South America

Question 31. Darwin believed that a Giraffe has a long neck because:

1. A creator designed it that way
2. Catastrophes eliminated short-necked form
3. Its ancestors stretched their necks to get food
4. Ancestral Giraffes with slightly longer necks than others got more food and left more surviving offspring.

Answer: 4. Ancestral Giraffes with slightly longer necks than others got more food and left more surviving offspring.

Question 32. According to Darwin, two different areas within a continent have different species because they have different:

1. Evolutionary mechanism
2. Ancestors
3. Environments
4. Evolutionary times.

Answer: 3. Environments

Darwin’s Theory Of Evolution Mcqs Neet

Question 33. The population of Bi’s ton betularia changed from 1% dark 99% light individuals, 99% dark and 1% light individuals between 1848 to 1898. The selective agent causing the change was:

1. Humans
2. Toxins from smoke
3. Birds
4. Tree bark.

Answer: 3. Birds

Question 34. The most important evidence since Darwin bears on his theory has been the area of:

1. Palaeontology
2. Genetics
3. Comparative anatomy
4. Comparative embryology.

Answer: 2. Genetics

Question 35. Phylogeny describes a species:

1. Morphological similarities with other species
2. Reproductive compatibilities to other species
3. Evolutionary history
4. Geographical distribution.

Answer: 3. Evolutionary history

NEET Biology Evolution MCQs Question 36. Plants and animals of the Galapagos Islands resemble most closely the plants and animals of:

1. North America
2. South America
3. Asia
4. Australia.

Answer: 2. South America

Question 37. Similar traits resulting from similar selection pressures acting on similar gene pools are:

1. Coevolution
2. Convergent evolution
3. Divergent evolution
4. Parallel evolution.

Answer: 4. Parallel evolution.

Question 38. The process of evolution:

1. Is a continuous process
2. Is a discontinuous process
3. Was continuous in the beginning but discontinuous now
4. Was discontinuous.

Answer: 1. Is a continuous process

Question 39. Organic evolution means:

1. Life began in the sea
2. Fossils are old
3. Descent with modifications
4. Man descended from monkeys.

Answer: 3. Descent with modifications

Question 40. Evolution is generally:

1. Progressive
2. Retrogressive
3. Standstill
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Progressive

Question 41. Evolution means:

1. History of race
2. Development of race
3. History and development of race with variations
4. Progressive development of the race.

Answer: 3. History and development of race with variations

Question 42. Charles Darwin toured in a ship for 5 years. It was:

1. Vikrant
2. Alexander
3. Phillips
4. Beagle.

Answer: 4. Beagle.

Question 43. The modern theory of organic evolution is based on:

1. Genetic variation
2. Natural selection
3. Isolation
4. All the above three.

Answer: 4. All the above three.

Lamarck’s Theory Of Evolution Mcqs Neet

Question 44. Genetic variation arises by:

1. Recombination (crossing over)
2. Chromosomal aberrations
3. Mutation
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 45. Genes mutate by:

1. Substitution of a base
2. Addition of a base
3. Deletion of a base
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 46. The natural selection really means:

1. Struggle for existence
2. Differential reproduction
3. Survival of the fittest
4. Elimination of the unfit.

Answer: 2. Differential reproduction

Question 47. Salutations is the name given to:

1. Lethal variations
2. Blastogcnic variations
3. Continuous variations
4. Discontinuous variations.

Answer: 4. Discontinuous variations.

Question 48. The role of isolation in evolution is:

1. Creation of new species
2. Maintenance of an existing species
3. Evolutionary divergence
4. Extermination of a species.

Answer: 1. Creation of new species

Question 49. Which is the most important factor for the development of a new species?

1. Extensive inbreeding
2. Extensive outbreeding
3. Geographical isolation
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Extensive outbreeding

Question 50. There is more competition for survival between:

1. Different animals of the same niche
2. Some animals of the same niche
3. Different animals of different niche
4. Same animals of different niches.

Answer: 2. Same animals of the same niche

Question 51. Speciation depends on the sum total of adaptive changes preserved by:

1. Natural selection
2. Human conservation
3. Isolation
4. Environment.

Answer: 3. Isolation

Question 52. Separation of a variant population from the original population by a mountain is called:

1. Geographical isolation
2. Ecological isolation
3. Economical isolation
4. Temporal isolation.

Answer: 1. Geographical isolation

Question 53. The propounder of the theory of Natural Selection was:

1. Mendel
2. Darwin
3. De Vries
4. Lamarck.

Answer: 2. Darwin

Question 54. The doctrine of evolution is particularly concerned with:

1. Gradual changes
2. Environmental condition
3. Theory of special creation
4. Spontaneous growth.

Answer: 1. Gradual changes

Question 55. The theory of inheritance of acquired characters was proposed by:

1. Mendel
2. Darwin
3. Lamarck
4. De Vries.

Answer: 3. Lamarck

NEET Biology Evolution MCQs Question 56. Darwin was influenced by one of the following in proposing the theory of his natural selection:

1. Cell theory
2. Mendel’s Laws of Inheritance
3. Overflow of population
4. Malthus’s theory of population.

Answer: 4. Malthus’s theory of population.

Question 57. Organic evolution refers to:

1. Evolution of organs
2. Orderly changes based on plans of the past
3. Drastic changes with no resemblance to the past
4. Orderly changes over long periods.

Answer: 2. Orderly changes based on plans of the past

Question 58. Retrogressive evolution refers to:

1. Elimination of structural diversity
2. Elimination of behavioural traits
3. Reduction in structure of complex but primitive organisms
4. Degeneration of advanced organisms.

Answer: 3. Reduction in structure of complex but primitive organisms

Question 59. The various concepts such as conflict, struggle and survival were first introduced by:

1. Darwin
2. Heraclitus
3. Empedocles
4. Anaximander.

Answer: 1. Darwin

Question 60. De Vries worked on the plant:

1. Pisum
2. Lathyrus
3. Oenothera
4. Mirabilis.

Answer: 3. Oenothera

NEET Biology Evidence Of Evolution Multiple Choice Questions And Answers

Question 1. Homologous organs are:

1. Constructed on a similar plan of organization and embryonic development
2. Morphologically similar
3. Functionally identical
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Constructed on a similar plan of organization and embryonic development

Question 2. Analogous organs are those which are:

1. Structurally identical
2. Functionally similar
3. Both structurally and functionally resemble each other
4. Normally not functional.

Answer: 2. Functionally similar

Question 3. One of the following is not a vestigial organ:

1. Vermiform appendix
2. Wisdom tooth
3. Epiglottis
4. Scalp hair.

Answer: 3. Epiglottis

NEET Biology Chapter-Wise MCQs

Question 4. Biogenetic law was given by:

1. Hooke
2. Hymen
3. Haeckel
4. Darwin.

Answer: 3. Haeckel

Question 5. Vestigial organs are those:

1. Which were functional long ago but became non-functional now
2. Rudimentary in development
3. Degenerated now
4. Functional at present but reduced.

Answer: 1. Which were functional long ago but became non-functional now

Question 6. The earliest age in the geological record is:

1. Cenozoic
2. Precambrian
3. Palaeozoic
4. Mesozoic.

Answer: 2. Precambrian

Question 7. The Carboniferous period during which amphibians flourished occurred approximately:

1. 25 million years ago
2. 135 million years ago
3. 345 million years ago
4. 500 million years ago.

Answer: 3. 345 million years ago

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 8. The Permian period, during which most modem orders of insects appeared, occurred approximately:

1. 80 million years ago
2. 135 million years ago
3. 280 million years ago
4. 550 million years ago.

Answer: 3. 280 million years ago

Question 9. Macroevolution is the evolution of:

1. Macromolecules
2. Phylogenetic gaps
3. Major events occurring over geologic time
4. Large organisms.

Answer: 3. Major events occurring over geologic time

NEET Biology MCQs

Question 10. A structure, such as a feather that evolved in one context and was then used for a completely new function is a:

1. Mystery to macro evolutionists
2. Pre-adaptation
3. Macrostructure
4. Paedomorphs.

Answer: 2. Pre-adaptation

Question 11. Retention in an adult organism of juvenile features of its ancestor is known as:

1. Allometiy
2. Preadaptation
3. Macro-development
4. Paedomorphosis.

Answer: 4. Paedomorphosis.

Question 12. The wings of a bird and the forelegs of the horse are:

1. Analogous organs
2. Homologues
3. Vestigial structure
4. Phylogenetic structure.

Answer: 2. Homologues

Question 13. The pelvis and the leg bones of a snake are:

1. Analogous organs
2. Homologous structures
3. Vestigial structure
4. Phylogenetic structure.

Answer: 3. Vestigial structure

Question 14. The best test of the relatedness of the species is in the similarity of their:

1. Anatomy
2. DNA and proteins
3. Development
4. Courtship behaviour.

Answer: 2. DNA and proteins

Question 15. George Cuvier realized that the history of life is recorded in fossils and believed that replace of one species by another is caused by:

1. Massive number of mutations
2. The wrath of God
3. Extinctions due to catastrophes such as floods
4. Genetic inbreeding.

Answer: 3. Extinctions due to catastrophes such as floods

Question 16. Most fossils are found in:

1. Granite
2. Sedimentary rocks
3. Lava flows
4. Black soil.

Answer: 2. Sedimentary rocks

Question 17. Of all the living species that ever lived approximately how many have gone extinct?

1. Less than 1%
2. 20%
3. 60%
4. More than 99%.

Answer: 4. More than 99%.

Evidence Of Evolution MCQs

Question 18. For the origin of life, most important condition is:

1. H₂O
2. Carbon
3. Nitrogen
4. Free oxygen.

Answer: 1. H₂O

Question 19. The richest source of fossils is:

1. Basalt
2. Granite
3. Lava
4. Sedimentary rocks.

Answer: 4. Sedimentary rocks.

Question 20. The fossil animals which show characters of two different groups of animals are called as:

1. Extinct animals
2. Missing links
3. Vestigial animals
4. None of these.

Answer: 2. Missing links

Question 21. The Haeckel’s theory of recapitulation (Biogenetic Law) means that:

1. All organisms start as an egg
2. Life history of an animal reflects its evolutionary history
3. The progeny of an organism resembles its parents
4. Body parts once lost are regenerated.

Answer: 2. Life history of an animal reflects its evolutionary history

Question 22. Who established the precipitation method of blood tests for finding out the inter-relationship among different animals:

1. Haeckel
2. Foxon
3. L. De Vinci
4. H.F. Nuttal.

Answer: 4. H.F. Nuttal.

Evidence Of Evolution MCQs

Question 23. The connecting link between chordates and non- chordates is:

1. Peripatus
2. Balanoglossus
3. Sphenodon
4. Tachyglossus.

Answer: 2. Balanoglossus

Question 24. Which of the following would be easily fossilized?

1. External ear
2. Heart
3. Skin
4. Tooth.

Answer: 4. Tooth.

Question 25. Which of the following is a living fossil?

1. Euglena
2. Balanoglossus
3. Sycon
4. Limulus.

Answer: 4. Limulus.

Question 26. The archaeozoic era is considered as the age of:

1. Protista
2. Marine life
3. Amphibians
4. Fishes.

Answer: 1. Protista

NEET Evolution Mcqs With Answers

Question 27. Geologically one of the following eras is known as the ‘Age of Reptiles’ or the ‘Golden Age of Dinosaurs.’

1. Palaeozoic
2. Cenozoic
3. Mesozoic
4. Psychozoic.

Answer: 3. Mesozoic

Question 28. Appearance of teeth in the embryos of birds is an example of:

1. Vestigial organs
2. Ontogeny repeats phylogeny
3. Atavism
4. Speciation.

Answer: 2. Ontogeny repeats phylogeny

Question 29. Archaeopteryx is a missing link between:

1. Reptiles and birds
2. Reptiles and mammals
3. Birds and mammals
4. None of these.

Answer: 1. Reptiles and birds

Question 30. Dinosaurs are extinct:

1. Reptiles
2. Mammals
3. Birds
4. Amphibians.

Answer: 1. Reptiles

Question 31. Some of the important evidences of organic evolution are:

1. Occurrence of homologous and vestigial organs
2. Occurrence of analogous and vestigial organs
3. Occurrence of homologous and analogous organs
4. Occurrence of analogous organs only.

Answer: 1. Occurrence of homologous and vestigial organs

Question 32. Which of the following is not a vestigial organ in man?

1. Vermiform appendix
2. Plica semilunaris
3. Ear muscles
4. Epiglottis.

Answer: 4. Vermiform appendix

Question 33. Which of the following are the examples of analogous structures?

1. Leaves of a plant and cladodes of Ruscus
2. Wings of an insect and wings of bird
3. Hands of man, monkey and kangaroo
4. Both (1) and (2).

Answer: 4. Both (1) and (2).

Question 34. Blood groups A, B, AB and O occur in humans. The blood groups A and B are found in apes but not in monkeys. This suggests that:

1. Humans, monkeys and apes are related
2. Human beings are more closely related to apes
3. Human beings are more closely related to monkeys
4. Human beings are more closely related to apes than to monkeys.

Answer: 4. Human beings are more closely related to apes than to monkeys.

Question 35. Which one of the following is homologous?

1. Tails of scorpion, bird and monkey
2. Stings of bees, scorpions and fangs of monkey
3. Wings of butterflies, flying fish and bird
4. Paddles of whale, antis of man and wings of bat.

Answer: 4. Paddles of whale, antis of man and wings of bat.

Question 36. Which of the following illustrates palaeontological evidence in favour of organic evolution?

1. Archaeopteryx
2. Peppered moth
3. Duck-billed platypus
4. Darwin’s finches.

Answer: 1. Archaeopteryx

NEET Evolution Mcqs With Answers

Question 37. Evolutionary changes occurring in distantly related organisms are classified as:

1. Parallel evolution
2. Divergent evolution
3. Convergent evolution
4. Macro-evolution.

Answer: 3. Convergent evolution

Evolution MCQ For NEET Biology With Answers Question 38. Which of the following are homologous?

1. Passijlora tendril and Bougainvillea thorn
2. Insect wing and bird wing
3. Tortoiseshell and mollusc shell
4. Sweet potato and Ginger.

Answer: 1. Passijlora tendril and Bougainvillea thorn

Question 39. Which of the following is an extinct animal?

1. Protopterus
2. Columba
3. Archaeopteryx
4. Equus.

Answer: 3. Archaeopteryx

Question 40. A fossil is a:

1. Laboratory preserved animal
2. Dead animals of the past
3. Organic relic of the past
4. Stuffed animal of the past.

Answer: 3. Organic relic of the past

Question 41. Which of the following is the vestigial organ in man?

1. Vermiform appendix
2. Cervical vertebrae
3. Atlas vertebra
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Vermiform appendix

Question 42. Successful adaptation simply means:

1. An increase in fitness
2. Producing viable offspring
3. Evolving new characters
4. Moving to a new place.

Answer: 2. Producing viable offspring

Question 43. The law of superposition is associated with:

1. Vision in arthropods
2. Study of fossils
3. Inheritance
4. All of the above.

Answer: 1. Vision in arthropods

Evidence Of Evolution MCQs

Question 44. How many million years is the age of the oldest rock on earth

1. 3500
2. 20
3. 5000
4. 4500.

Answer: 1. 3500

MCQ Evidences for Evolution Question 45. Fossil of Archaeopteryx is placed in:

1. Moscow
2. New York
3. London
4. Vienna.

Answer: 3. London

Question 46. Which of the following is the most primitive mammal?

1. Spiny anteater
2. Scaly anteater
3. ArmadiWo
4. Seal.

Answer: 1. Spiny anteater

Question 47. Birds of Galapagos island were named as Darwin’s finches by:

1. Wallace
2. Darwin
3. Dr David Lach
4. Empedocles.

Answer: 3. Dr David Lach

Question 48. Which one of the following groups are not analogous organs?

1. Wings of birds and wings of butterflies
2. The eye of octopus and eye of mammals
3. Flippers of penguins and flippers of dolphin
4. Thoms of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurhila
5. Tuberous roots of sweet potato and stem tuber of potato

Answer: 2. The Eye of octopus and the eye of mammal

Question 49. Haeckel’s recapitulation theory was based on:

1. Germ layers
2. Germplasm
3. Genetic variation
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Germ layers

Question 50. The dating of rocks is done by calculating the ratio between which of the following pairs in the igneous rocks associated with sedimentary rocks:

1. Uranium—Lead
2. Potassium-Argon
3. Rubidium —Strontium
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

NEET Biology Origin Of Life Multiple Choice Questions And Answers

Question 1. Life has originated due to:

1. Creation by god
2. Effects of sunshine on mud
3. Spontaneous generation
4. None of the above.

Answer: 4. None of the above.

Question 2. On one of the planets life has originated approximately some:

1. Half billion years ago
2. One billion years ago
3. Two billion years ago
4. Four billion years ago.

Answer: 4. Four billion years ago.

Question 3. The branch of zoology dealing with similarities and differences between individuals related by descent is:

1. Evolution
2. Ecology
3. Eugenics
4. Genetics.

Answer: 1. Evolution

Origin Of Life MCQs For NEET

Question 4. The spontaneous generation theory was first refuted by:

1. S.L. Miller
2. F. Redi
3. L. Spallanzani
4. L. Pasteur.

Answer: 2. F. Redi

Questions  Question 5. According to one of the most widely accepted theories, the earth’s atmosphere before any life had originated on this planet consisted of a mixture of:

1. Hydrogen, carbon dioxide, ammonia, oxygen
2. Ozone, methane, oxygen and water vapour
3. Water vapour, hydrogen, ammonia and methane
4. Oxygen, hydrogen, methane and ammonia.

Answer: 3. Water vapour, hydrogen, ammonia and methane

Question 6. Pasteur is famous for

1. Rejection of spontaneous generation theory
2. Cell theory
3. Vaccination
4. Both (1) and (3).

Answer: 4. Both (1) and (3).

Question 7. There is no life on the moon as there is no:

1. Nitrogen
2. Oxygen
3. Carbon
4. Water.

Answer: 4. Water.

Question 8. In the field of discovery of the origin of life, Miller prepared:

1. Ammonia
2. Protein
3. Amino acids
4. Hydrogen.

Answer: 3. Amino acids

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 9. Large colloidal particles containing protein with water molecules are:

1. Microsphere
2. Coacervates
3. Spherules
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Origin Of Life MCQs For NEET

Question 10. The energy source for the origin of life came from:

1. Ultraviolet light
2. Electric charge
3. High temperature
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 11. Which of the following were first formed?

1. Eobionts
2. Coacervates
3. Genes
4. Cells.

Answer: 2. Coacervates

Question 12. The first organisms were:

1. Autotrophs
2. Hctcrotrophs
3. Saprotrophs
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Hctcrotrophs

Question 13. Which of the scientists is associated with the naturalistic theory of the origin of life?

1. Pasteur
2. Oparin
3. Miller
4. Redi.

Answer: 2. Oparin

Origin Of Life MCQs For NEET

Question 14. Which is the most accepted theory of the origin of life

1. Theory of special creation
2. Theory of spontaneous generation
3. Oparin-Haldane theory
4. Theory of eternity of life.

Answer: 3. Oparin-Haldane theory

Question 15. Miller synthesized simple amino acids from:

1. H₂, NH₃, HCN and O₂
2. H₂, NH₃, CH₄ and water vapours
3. NH₃, CH₄, HCN
4. H₂, O₂, N₂ and H₂O.

Answer: 2. H₂, NH₃, CH₄ and water vapours

Question 16. The theory of special creation envisages the role of:

1. Chemical evolution
2. Abiogenesis
3. Divine intervention
4. Physical accretion.

Answer: 3. Divine intervention

Question 17. The theory of catastrophism considers one of the following as its mainstay:

1. That the earth was periodically devastated by catastrophes causing drastic changes
2. Catastrophic events eliminate life form
3. Does not support the theory of special creation
4. Elimination is the end of all events.

Answer: 1. That the earth was periodically devastated by catastrophes causing drastic changes

NEET Biology Origin Of Life Questions

Question 18. The branch of Biology dealing with the study of the distribution of organisms in different geographic regions is:

1. Biogeography
2. Ecology
3. Eugenics
4. Genetics.

Answer: 1. Biogeography

Question 19. ‘Origin of Life’ hypothesis was initiated by:

1. Mendel
2. Darwin
3. Oparin
4. Pasteur.

Answer: 3. Oparin

Question 20. The atmosphere of the earth at the time of the origin of life was:

1. Oxidising
2. Reducing
3. Neither oxidising nor reducing
4. Having very low temperature.

Answer: 2. Reducing

Question 21. According to Oparin, the universe was a vast dense cloud of hot gases:

1. 7-10 billion years ago
2. 5-7 billion years ago
3. 6-8 billion years ago
4. 10-15 billion years ago.

Answer: 2. 5-7 billion years ago

Question 22. Which one of the gases was absent at the time of the origin of life?

1. Oxygen
2. Methane
3. Hydrogen
4. Ammonia.

Answer: 1. Oxygen

NEET Biology Origin Of Life Questions

Question 23. The theory of spontaneous generation of life explains that:

1. God created all life
2. Life originated de novo
3. Scientists created life in laboratories
4. Life begets life.

Answer: 2. Life originated de novo

Question 24. Cuvier suggested which of the following theories:

1. Mutation
2. Theory of special creation
3. Theory of catastrophism
4. Natural selection.

Answer: 3. Theory of catastrophism

Question 25. Who is regarded as the father of evolutionary concepts?

1. Linnaeus
2. Darwin
3. Lamarck
4. Empedocles.

Answer: 4. Empedocles.

Question 26. People who believed in the theory of “Spontaneous creation” assumed that:

1. Organisms arise only from other organisms
2. Organisms arise spontaneously
3. Organisms arise from water
4. Organisms arise spontaneously and also from similar organisms.

Answer: 2. Organisms arise spontaneously

Question 27. The principle of sterilization is based upon experiments carried by:

1. I.A. Oparin
2. L.Pasteur
3. F. Redi
4. C. Spallanzani.

Answer: 2. L.Pasteur

NEET Biology Origin Of Life Questions

Question 28. The idea that the egg of Eve or the sperm of Adam contained minute human was part of:

1. Theory of biogenesis
2. Concept of epigenesis
3. Theory of preformation
4. Theory of recapitulation.

Answer: 3. Theory of preformation

Question 29. The first organisms to appear on Earth were more like plants because:

1. Plants are similar
2. Plants are more
3. Plants do photosynthesis
4. None of these.

Answer: 3. Plants do photosynthesis

Question 30. Who of the following proved that life originated from simple amino acids:

1. Muller
2. Miller and Fisher
3. Oparin
4. de Vries.

Answer: 2. Miller and Fisher

Question 31. In Stanley Miller’s classic experiment:

1. Nucleic acids were formed
2. Ultraviolet radiation was used
3. Oxygen was one of the starting ingredients
4. Amino acids were formed.

Answer: 4. Amino acids were formed.

NEET Previous Year Questions On Origin Of Life

Question 32. Mitochondria contain particles made up of about 100 polypeptide molecules of several different types. The particles catalyze the production of acetyl Co A and carbon dioxide from pyruvate. When disassembled into the component polypeptides, no enzymatic activity is seen. These particles are examples of:

1. Spontaneous generation
2. Emergent properties of systems
3. The origin of life
4. Informational macromolecules.

Answer: 2. Emergent properties of systems

Question 33. Which of the following is not true of the microspheres studied by Sydney Fox?

1. They are formed by the addition of water to proteinoids
2. They are of uniform size, about 2μm in diameter.
3. Microspheres grow and bud off new microspheres
4. They are bounded by a layer of lipid
5. The boundary of a microsphere shows selective permeability.

Answer: 4. The boundary of a microsphere shows selective permeability.

Question 34. Coacervates maintained their entity with the help of

1. Lipid membrane
2. Protein membrane
3. Lipoprotein membrane
4. Glycoprotein membrane.

Answer: 1. Lipid membrane

Question 35. Nucleotides, porphyrins, polypeptides and other bio-chemicals developed non-enzymatically in early broth due to:

1. Oxygen free atmosphere
2. High temperature
3. Irradiated environment
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 36. Archaespheroides barbertonesis is:

1. Most primitive living prokaryote
2. Cambrian trilobite
3. Precambrian cyanobacterium
4. First eukaryote.

Answer: 3. Precambrian cyanobacterium

Question 37. First eukaryotes evolved through:

1. Mutation in prokaryotes
2. Either mutation in prokaryotes or symbiotic association of different prokaryotes
3. Symbiotic association of different prokaryotes
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Either mutation in prokaryotes or symbiotic association of different prokaryotes

Question 38. The modem theory of the origin of life is related to:

1. A.I. Oparin
2. Cuvier
3. Epicurus
4. Lamarck.

Answer: 1. A.I. Oparin

Question 39. The primitive atmosphere of Earth was devoid of:

1. Ammonia
2. Free oxygen
3. Methane
4. Cyanamide.

Answer: 2. Free oxygen

NEET Previous Year Questions On Origin Of Life

Question 40. According to cosmozoic theory, life comes on Earth from other planets in space in the form of:

1. Spores
2. Seeds
3. Gametes
4. All the above.

Answer: 1. Spores

Question 41. The scientists related to the theory of spontaneous generation and experiments with swan-necked flasks are:

1. Van Helmont
2. Louis Pasteur
3. Miller
4. Haeckel.

Answer: 2. Louis Pasteur

Question 42. Under certain conditions scientists have obtained cell-like structures but not the true organisation of a cell. These are referred to as:

1. Microbes
2. Coacervates
3. Eobionts
4. Protists.

Answer: 2. Coacervates

Question 43. The theory of Pangenesis is related to:

1. Darwin
2. de Vries
3. Cuvier
4. Aristotle.

Answer: 1. Darwin

Question 44. Anaximander believed in the origin of life through:

1. Special creation
2. Spontaneous generation
3. Panspermia
4. Biogenesis.

Answer: 2. Spontaneous generation

Question 45. Spallanzani kept boiled nutrition broth indefinitely in:

1. Covered jars
2. Uncovered jars
3. Sealed flasks
4. Swan-necked flasks.

Answer: 3. Sealed flasks

Question 46. The term proto biogenesis is used for the theory of:

1. Special creation
2. Biochemical origin
3. Panspermia
4. Spontaneous generation.

Answer: 2. Biochemical origin

NEET Previous Year Questions On Origin Of Life

Question 47. The correct sequence of origin of life is:

1. Coacervate, biomolecule, autotroph and heterotroph
2. Biomolecule, coacervate, autotroph and heterotroph
3. Coacervate, autotroph, biomolecule and heterotroph
4. None of the above.

Answer: 4. None of the above.

Question 48. One of the following appeared on the earth with the coming of the plants, and was absent in the past:

1. Carbon dioxide
2. Methane
3. Ammonia
4. Oxygen.

Answer: 4. Oxygen.

Question 49. Conditions of primitive earth were recreated in the laboratory and amino acids and bases were synthesized abiotically by:

1. Miller and Urey
2. Oparin A.I. and Haldane, J.B.S.
3. Oparin and Sydney fox
4. Louis Pasteur.

Answer: 1. Miller and Urey

Question 50. The theory that living organisms on the earth came from outer space is based on the study of:

1. Igneous
2. Sedimentary rocks
3. Meteorites
4. Moon soil.

Answer: 3. Meteorites

Theories Of Origin Of Life NEET Questions

Question 51. Life cannot originate from inorganic materials at present because of:

1. High degree of environmental pollution
2. A very high amount of oxygen in the atmosphere
3. Very low atmospheric temperature
4. Absence of raw material.

Answer: 2. A very high amount of oxygen in the atmosphere

Origin and Evolution of Life MCQs Test Question 52. Choose the correct sequence during the formation of chemicals on early Earth:

1. Ammonia, water, nucleic acids and proteins
2. Ammonia, proteins, carbohydrates and nucleic acids
3. Ammonia, nucleic acids, proteins and carbohydrates
4. Proteins, carbohydrates, water and nucleic acids.

Answer: 2. Ammonia, proteins, carbohydrates and nucleic acids

Question 53. “Origin of Life was written by:

1. S.L. Miller
2. A.I. Oparin
3. De Vries
4. Charles Darwin.

Answer: 1. S.L. Miller

Question 54. Origin of life took place in/on:

1. Water
2. Air
3. Mountains
4. Land.

Answer: 2. Air

Question 55. Panspermia are:

1. Yeast
2. Life spores
3. Bacteria
4. Viruses.

Answer: 3. Bacteria

Question 56. Organic compounds first evolved on earth and required for the origin of life were:

1. Urea and amino acids
2. Proteins and nucleic acids
3. Proteins and amino acids
4. Urea and nucleic acids.

Answer: 2. Proteins and nucleic acids

Question 57. “All plants and animals were created and perpetrated themselves without any change”, is the theory of:

1. Genesis
2. Panspermia
3. Abiogenesis
4. Biogenesis.

Answer: 4. Biogenesis.

Question 58. Origin of life occurred in:

1. Air
2. Soil
3. Mountains
4. Water.

Answer: 4. Water.

Question 59. The most important compounds for the origin of life were:

1. Nucleotides
2. Nucleic acids
3. Protein
4. Amino acids.

Answer: 1. Nucleotides

Theories Of Origin Of Life NEET Questions

Question 60. Earth originated in the past:

1. 1.6 billion yrs.
2. 4.6 billion yrs.
3. 8.6 billion yrs.
4. 86 million yrs.

Answer: 3. 8.6 billion yrs.

NEET Biology Elements Of Heredity Multiple Choices Questions

Question 1. When one member of a pair of allelic genes expresses itself as a whole, it is a case of:

1. Dominance
2. Co-dominance
3. Incomplete dominance
4. None of these.

Answer: 1. Dominance

Question 2. The first generation of a given cross is known as :

1. F₂ generation
2. F₂ generation
3. F₁ generation
4. None of these.

Answer: 3. F₁ generation

Question 3. Gamete is:

1. Diploid sex cell
2. Haploid cell
3. Diploid somatic cell
4. Triploid somatic cell.

Answer: 2.Haploid cell

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 4. The genotype of the individual is :

1. Genetic constitution
2. Genetic setup
3. Both of these
4. None of these.

Answer: 3. Both of these

Principles of Inheritance And Variation MCQs NEET

Question 5. Fraternal twins air produced when :

1. Two ova are fertilized simultaneously
2. Single fertilised ovum  gets fertilised again
3. Two ova develop paitlicnogcnclically
4. Single ovum fertilized by two sperms.

Answer: 1. Two ova are fertilized simultaneously

Question 6. “Theory of pangenesis” to explain the mechanism of heredity was given by :

1. Mendel
2. Darwin
3. Lamarck
4. Cuvier.

Answer: 2. Darwin

Question 7. The I.Q. of a genius ranges from :

1. 70-80
2. 90-109
3. 110-139
4. 140 and more.

Answer: 1. 70-80

Question 8. The genetic setup is termed as :

1. Dominant
2. Genotype
3. Phenotype
4. Alleles.

Answer: 3. Phenotype

Question 9. It is the ratio of mental age to :

1. Chronological age × 100
2. Chronological age + 100
3. Chronological age — 100
4. Chronological age ÷ 100.

Answer: 1. Chronological age × 100

Principles of Inheritance And Variation MCQs NEET

Question 10. The sex of an unborn mammal can be predicted by :

1. Placental biopsy
2. Examining the chorion
3. Amniocentesis
4. Examine the mother’s blood.

Answer: 3. Amniocentesis

Question 11. Criminal syndrome :

1. XXY
2. XO
3. XYY
4. XY.

Answer: 3. XYY

Question 12. Gallon is associated with :

1. Eugenics
2. Euthenics
3. Genetics
4. Human genetics.

Answer: 1. Eugenics

Question 13. The term gene refers to :

1. The sequence of amino acid
2. A linkage group
3. A part of tRNA
4. A portion of DNA.

Answer: 4. A portion of DNA.

Principles of Inheritance And Variation MCQs NEET

Question 14. Who connected cytology with genetics :

1. Morgan
2. Sutton
3. Bridges
4. Mendel.

Answer: 4. A portion of DNA.

Question 15. The total of genes in a population is known as :

1. Gene bank
2. Gene linkage
3. Gene pool
4. Genome.

Answer: 3. Gene pool

Question 16. Which is the wholly genetic trail?

1. Diphtheria
2. Leucoderma
3. Albinism
4. Tuberculosis.

Answer: 3. Albinism

NEET Biology Inheritance And Variation Questions

Question 17. The wife is a PTC non-taster and the husband is a PTC taster. Their son is a taster but daughters are non-tasters. This is not a sex-linked trait. Which pedigree is correct ?

Answer: 1

Question 18. Predict from the following chart 

1. Character is dominant and carried by X chromosome
2. Carried by Y chromosome
3. Character is sex-linked recessive
4. Character is recessive autosomal.

Answer: 3. Character is dominant and carried by X chromosome

Question 19. From the pedigree of a family given below, it is clear that the trait is inherited as a dominant autosomal trail. What will be the genotype of the mother and father?

1. Mother is aa and father is Aa
2. Father is AA and mother is aa
3. Father is Aa and mother is Aa
4. None of die above.

Answer: 1. Mother is aa and father is Aa

Mendelian Inheritance MCQs For NEET

Question 20. When an individual possesses both alleles of its phenotypically dissimilar parent, it is called:

1. Homozygous
2. Mother is aa and father is Aa
3. Dioecious
4. Monoecious.

Answer: 2. Mother is aa and father is Aa

Question 21. In a pig dominant allele B produces black colour and its recessive allele b produces white. What would be the probable genotype of the offspring when a cross is made between individuals heterozygous for colour?

1. BB
2. Bb
3. bb
4. All of these.

Answer: 4. All of these.

Question 22. When the phenotype and genotypic ratio resemble the E, generation, it is an example of:

1. Incomplete dominance
2. Dihybrid cross
3. Cytoplasmic inheritance
4. Linkage.

Answer: 1. Incomplete dominance

Mendelian Inheritance MCQs For NEET

Question 23. Word heredity is derived from the Latin word ‘Hereditas’ which means :

1. Heirship
2. Ancestral property
3. Blood relations
4. All the above.

Answer: 1. Heirship

Question 24. Which of the following explains the law of dominance?

1. The expression of only one of the parental characters in a monohybrid cross in the F( generation
2. The expression of both in the F₂ generation
3. The proportion of 3:1 obtained in the F₂ generation
4. All of above

Answer: 4. All of the above

Question 25. Starch grain size in pea seed is an example of:

1. Incomplete dominance
2. Multiple alleles
3. Pleiotropism
4. Polygenic inheritance

Answer: 1. Incomplete dominance

Question 26. In family. father had traits but their mother did not. All that ‘one and daughter bail this hail The same hail wav lound in some granddaughters, though daughter married lo normal persons.

In this pedigree the genotypes of lather, mother and husbands of daughters am

1. The father is AA, the mother is aa, husband are aa
2. Father is AA, mother is aa, and husbands are AA
3. Father is aa, mother is Aa, husband Aa
4. Father is AA. mother AA, one husband Aa and second husband aa.

Answer: 4. Father is AA. mother AA, one husband Aa and second husband aa.

Question 27. In sweet pea, genes C and P are necessary for colour in flowers. The flowers are white in the absence of either or both the genes. What will be the percentage of coloured flowers in the offspring of the cross Ccpp x ccPp?

1. 25%
2. 50%
3. 75%
4. 100%.

Answer: 1. 25%

Question 28. Polymorphism is mainly due to :

1. Monogenic inheritance
2. Polygenic inheritance
3. Both of the above
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Both of the above

Chapter-wise MCQs On Genetics And Heredity NEET

Question 29. Continuous genetic variations are produced by :

1. Independent assortment
2. Mutations
3. Climatic changes
4. Interspecific hybridization.

Answer: 2. Mutations

Question 30. The alleles that produce independent effects in heterozygous conditions are called:

1. Supplementary alleles
2. Codominant alleles
3. Epistatic genes
4. Complementary alleles.

Answer: 1. Supplementary alleles

Question 31. In the following pedigree chart, the mutant trait is shaded black. The gene responsible for the trait is:

1. Dominant and sex-linked
2. Dominant but autosomal
3. Recessive and sex-linked
4. Recessive and autosomal.

Answer: 2. dominant but autosomal

Chapter-wise MCQs On Genetics And Heredity NEET

Question 32. In the given pedigree, indicate whether the shaded symbols indicate a dominant or recessive allele.

1. Dominant
2. Recessive
3. Codominant
4. It can be recessive or dominant.

Answer: 3. recessive

Question 33. A dominant lethal gene Is that which

1. Allows nil organotin to survive and to tepfodiite
2. Allows an organism to sin vibe lull does not allow il to reproduce
3. Suppress the sex of the holder organism
4. Kills the organism in which it is present.

Answer: 4. Kills the organism in which it is present.

 Question 34. In humans, an example of a sex-linked trail is:

1. Sickle-cell anaemia
2. Curly hair
3. Down’s syndrome
4. Data are insufficient.

Answer: 1. Sickle-cell anaemia

Question 35. If the cell of an organism heterozygous for two pairs of genes represented by Aa,  undergoes meiosis, then the possible genotypic combination of gametes will be: 

1. AB, aB, Ah. ab
2. All, ab
3. Aa, Bb
4. Data are insufficient.

Answer: 3. Aa, Bb

Non-Mendelian Inheritance NEET MCQs

Question 36. To determine whether variations of a character in a population were genetically controlled, the most appropriate procedure will be lo :

1. Measure the variations and see if they are continuous or discontinuous
2. Crossing individuals of both extremes and sec if the offspring and  parents show the same range of variations
3. Count the chromosomes and find out the variations in their number in the population
4. Examine the DNA of F| progeny in a cross between AA and aa.

Answer: 2. Crossing individuals of both extremes and sec if the offspring and parents show the same range of variations

Question 37. If Mendel had studied the 7 traits using a plant with 12 chromosomes instead of 14, in what way would his interpretation have been different?

1. He could have mapped the chromosome
2. He would have discovered blending or incomplete dominance
3. He would not have discovered the law of independent assortment
4. He would have discovered sex linkage.

Answer: 3. He would not have discovered the law of independent assortment

Biology MCQs with Answers Question 38. How many different types of genetically different gametes will be produced by a heterozygous plant having the genotype: AAB b Cc?

1. Nine
2. Two
3. Four
4. Six.

Answer: 3. Four

Question 39. Human skin colour is controlled by several gene pairs. Let us assume here that there are just three gene pairs on different chromosomes and that for each pair there are two alleles – an incompletely dominant one that codes for melanin deposition and an incompletely recessive one that codes for no melanin deposition. If a very dark-skinned person marries a very light-skinned woman, what will be the chance that their offspring will have very dark skin?

1. 0
2. 1/4
3. 5/8
4. 9/64
5. 3/64.

Answer: 1. 0

Question 40. The F₂ generation offspring in a plant showing incomplete dominance, exhibits’

1. Variable genotypic and phenotypic ratios
2. A genotypic ratio of 1: 1
3. A phenotypic ratio of 3:1
4. Similar phenotypic and genotypic ratios of 1: 2: 1.

Answer: 4. Similar phenotypic and genotypic ratios of 1: 2: 1.

Non-Mendelian Inheritance NEET MCQs

Question 41. Two pea plants were subjected to cross-pollination. Of the 183 plants produced in the next generation, 94 plants were found to be tall and 89 plants were found to be dwarf. The genotypes of the two parental plants are likely to be :

1. TT and It
2. Tt and Tt
3. Tt and tt
4. TT and TT.

Answer: 3. Tt and tt

Question 42. Gametes are never hybrid? It is a statement of the law of:

1. Dominance
2. Segregation
3. Independent assortment
4. Random fertilization.

Answer: 2. Segregation

Biology MCQs with Answers Question 43. Which is correct about the traits chosen by Mendel?

1. The terminal pod is the dominant
2. The constricted pod is the dominant
3. Green coloured pod is the dominant
4. Tall plants are recessive.

Answer: 3. Green coloured pod is the dominant

Question 44. In a certain plant, red fruit (R) is dominant over yellow fruit (r) and tallness (T) is dominant over shortness (t). If a plant with an RRTt genotype is crossed with a plant rrtt genotype, what will be the percentage of tall plants with red fruits in the progeny?

1. 50%
2. 100%
3. 75%
4. 25%

Answer: 1. 50%

Question 45. Mendel obtained wrinkled seeds in pea due to the deposition of sugars instead of starch. It was due to which enzyme?

1. Amylase
2. Invertase
3. Dataset
4. Absence of starch branching

Answer: 4. Absence of starch branching

Question 46. The ratio of complementary genes is :

1. 9 : 3: 4
2. 12:3:1
3. 9 : 3 : 3: 4
4. 9:7

Answer: 4. 9:7

Question 47. When dominant and recessive allele express itself together, it is called :

1. Co-dominance
2. Dominance
3. Amphidominance
4. Pseudodominance.

Answer: 1. Co-dominance

Question 48. What is correct for blood group ‘O’?

1. No antigens but both a and b antibodies are present
2. An Antigen and b antibody
3. Antigen and antibody are both absent.
4. A and B antigens and a, b antibodies.

Answer: 1. No antigens but both a and b antibodies are present

Question 49. Sickle cell anaemia induces to:

1. Change of Amino Acid in α-chain of haemoglobin
2. Change of Amino Acid in β-chain of Haemoglobin
3. Change of Amino Acid in both a or β chain of Haemoglobin
4. Change of Amino Acid either a or β chain of Haemoglobin

Answer: 2. Change of Amino Acid in the β-chain of Haemoglobin

Question 50. Independent assortment of genes does not take place when :

1. Genes are located on homologous chromosomes
2. Genes are linked and located on the same chromosome
3. Genes are located on non-homologous chromosomes
4. All the above.

Answer: 2. Genes are linked and located on the same chromosome

Multiple Choice Questions on Enzymes – NEET Biology

Question 1. As the temperature changes from 30 to 45’c the rate of enzyme activity will:

1. Decrease
2. First decrease and then increase
3. First increase and then decrease
4. Increase.

Answer: 3. First increase and then decrease

Question 2. Which one inactivates an enzyme by changing the enzyme’s shape?

1. Non-competitive inhibitor
2. Competitive inhibitor.
3. Coenzyme
4. All the above.

Answer: 1. Non-competitive inhibitor

Question 3. A non-proteinic enzyme is :

1. Lysozyme
2. Zymase
3. Papain
4. Rna ase-p.

Answer: 4. Rna ase-p.

Question 4. Which of the following belongs to class 5 of the cubic system of classification of enzymes?

1. Isomerase
2. Ligases
3. Transferase
4. Lyases.

Answer: 1. Isomerase

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 5. Which does inactivate by denaturation in it?

1. Allosteric inhibitor
2. Competitive inhibitor
3. Irreversible inhibitor
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Allosteric inhibitor

Question 6. Most of the enzymes are secreted in an inactive form, otherwise, they will be destroyed.

1. Cell proteins
2. Cell dna
3. Cell mitochondria
4. Cell wall and membrane.

Answer: 1. Cell proteins

Multiple Choice Questions On Enzymes Neet

Question 7. The fastest enzyme is :

1. Pepsin
2. Trypsin
3. Catalase
4. Carbonic anhydrase.

Answer: 4. Carbonic anhydrase.

Question 8. Buchner isolated

1. Siamese
2. Zymase
3. Zeatinase
4. Ferment.

Answer: 2. Zymase

Question 9. The best example of extracellular enzymes (exoenzymes) is:

1. Nucleases
2. Digestive enzymes
3. Succinic dehydrogenase
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Digestive enzymes

Question 10. Enzymes bring about hydrolysis of esters and peptides are :

1. Transferases
2. Lyases
3. Hydrolases
4. Ligase.

Answer: 3. Hydrolases

Question 11. Examples of amine online are:

1. Arginase
2. Lactase
3. Zymase
4. Lipase.

Answer: 1. Arginase

Question 12. Energy must be added to a chemical reaction to start. This energy is known as the energy of :

1. Entropy
2. Activation
3. Enthalpy
4. Oxidation.

Answer: 2. Activation

Multiple Choice Questions On Enzymes Neet

Question 13. Which level of ‘x’ represents the usable energy yield?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4.

Answer: 2. 2

Question 14. Which segment of ‘x’ represents the energy of activation?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 4
4. 4

Answer: 1. 1

Question 15. The chemical reaction shown in the world be accelerated by all of the following processes:

1. Heating A and b together
2. Applying pressure to a and b
3. Adding an appropriate catalyst
4. Increase the conc. Of c.

Answer: 4. Increase the conc. Of c.

Question 16. In most of the metabolic pathways, all needed enzymes are arranged together, in a multienzyme complex within:

1. Solution of atp
2. Membrane
3. Quarternary protein
4. Coenzyme.

Answer: 2. Membrane

Question 17. A non-protein organic part attached firmly to an apoenzyme is called :

1. Cofactor
2. Activator
3. Metallic group
4. Coenzyme.

Answer: 1. Cofactor

Enzyme Catalysis Mcqs For Neet

Question 18. Which is an enzyme that joins two segments of replicated dna?

1. Ligase
2. Lyase
3. Endonuclease
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Ligase

Question 19. Apoenzyrne and coenzyme collective produce :

1. Holoenzyme
2. Enzyrne-product complex
3. Cofactor
4. Prosthetic group.

Answer: 1. Holoenzyme

Question 20. Minimum number of amino acids to make an enzyme is:

1. 50
2. 150
3. 500
4. 5000.

Answer: 1. 50

Question 21. Fmn and fad are coenzymes derived from :

1. Ascorbic acid
2. Riboflavin
3. Thiamine
4. Pyridoxine.

Answer: 1. Ascorbic acid

Question 22. Enzymes differ from inorganic catalysts in having:

1. High diffusion rate
2. High-temperature requirement
3. Proteinaceous structure
4. Tendency to become inactivated.

Answer: 3. Proteinaceous structure

Question 23. Active sites of enzymes are composed of :

1. Sugm molecule
2. Metallic ions
3. Organic co-factors
4. Amino acids.

Answer: 4. Amino acids.

Question 24. Pepsin best works at :

1. Ph 7.00
2. Ph 8.5
3. Ph.00
4. Ph 8.00.

Answer: 3. Ph.00

Enzyme Catalysis Mcqs For Neet

Question 25. Of the following chemicals, the one that is classified as an enzyme is :

1. Galactose
2. Lipids
3. Manganese dioxide
4. Protease.

Answer: 4. Protease.

Question 26. Ribozyme is :

1. Rna without sugar
2. Rna with extra phosphate
3. Rna having enzymatic activity
4. All of the above.

Answer: 3. Rna having enzymatic activity

Questions Question 27. Allenzymes:

1. Are amino acids
2. Act best at 60ºc
3. Act best at 7 ph
4. Are proteins.

Answer: 4. Are proteins.

Enzyme Catalysis Mcqs For Neet

Question 28. At high temperatures, the enzyme is :

1. Denaturated
2. Killed
3. Slightly activated
4. Inactivated.

Answer: 1. Denaturated

Question 29. Inorganic catalyst attached to an enzyme is :

1. Apoenzyme
2. Coenzyme
3. Inhibitor
4. Activator.

Answer: 4. Activator.

Question 30. Enzymes are polymers of :

1. Fatty acids
2. Amino acids
3. Hexose sugar
4. Inorganic phosphate.

Answer: 2. Amino acids

Question 31. One is not correct :

1. All enzymes are thermolabile
2. All enzymes are biocatalysts
3. All enzymes are proteins
4. All proteins are enzymes.

Answer: 4. All proteins are enzymes.

Enzymes Mcq For Neet

Question 32. Match the tennis in column 1 with suitable terms in column 2

Which of the following is correct?

1. 1-G, 2-E, 3-A, 4-B, 5-F,6-C
2. 1-G, 2-E, 3-B, 4-C, 5-D, 6-F
3. 1-G, 2-A, 3-D, 4-F, 5-B, 6-A
4. 1-G, 2-E, 3-D, 4-B, 5-4 5-F.

Answer: 3. 1-G, 2-A, 3-D, 4-F, 5-B, 6-A

Question 33. Modulation:

1. Inhibit enzyme activity
2. Stimulate enzyme activity
3. Function as coenzymes
4. Both 1 and 2.

Answer: 4. Both a and b

Question 34. K. Indicates :

1. Competitive inhibition
2. Denaturation of enzymes
3. Reaction velocity
4. All of these.

Answer: 3. Reaction velocity

Enzymes Mcq For Neet

Question 35. Which is susceptible to feedback inhibition?

1. Zymogen
2. Zymase
3. Glucokinase
4. Hexokinase.

Answer: 4. Hexokinase.

Question 36. Ribozyme was discovered by :

1. Kuhne
2. Because
3. Cech at all
4. Altman at all

Answer: 3. Cech at all.

Question 37. An enzyme that brings about a change in side group without altered composition:

1. Isomerase
2. Epimease
3. Mutase
4. Esterase.

Answer: 3. Mutase

Question 38. Enzymes functional in cells are:

1. Inducible, constitutive, and repressible
2. Inducible and repressible
3. Inducible only
4. Repressible on1y.

Answer: 1. Inducible, constitutive, and repressible

Question 39. Flavoproteins in cellular oxidation are called:

1. Splitting enzyme
2. Redox enzyme
3. Uricolytic enzyme
4. Yellow enzyme.

Answer: 4. Yellow enzyme.

Question 40. The presence of enzymes in the urine is called :

1. Enzymuria
2. Enzymopenia
3. Enzymopathy
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Enzymuria

Question 41. Elisa test used in detecting:

1. Antigen
2. Antibody
3. Hormone
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 42. A person suffering from a.tr.d.s is a resident of an area that is exposed to radio waves which test is preferred to detect h.i.v. Infection.

1. R.i.a (radio immune assay)
2. H.i.v. Test.
3. E.l.i.s.a. Test
4. All of the above.

Answer: 3. E.l.i.s.a. Test

Neet Biology Enzyme Classification Mcqs

Question 43. Which of the following curve profiles show changes in the velocity (v) of an enzyme-catalyzed reactions at different pH values :

Answer: 1. 

Question 44. According to Koshland:

1. The enzyme is never destroyed
2. The enzyme is a rigid molecule
3. The catalytic site of the enzyme is rigid
4. Catalytic sites can be influenced by the presence of substrate.

Answer: 4. Catalytic sites can be influenced by the presence of substrate.

Enzymes MCQ Objective Questions  Question 45. According to Michaelis constant, the value of v is expressed as

1. [Latex]v=\frac{v_{\max } \times(s)}{k_m+(s)}[/latex]
2. [Latex]v=\frac{k_m+(s)}{v_{\max } \times(s)}[/latex]
3. [Latex]\mathrm{v}=\frac{\mathrm{v}_{\max } \times \mathrm{k}_{\mathrm{m}}}{[\mathrm{s}]}[/latex]
4. [Latex]\mathrm{v}=\frac{\mathrm{k}_{\mathrm{m}} \times(\mathrm{s})}{\mathrm{v}_{\max }} .[/Latex]

Answer: 2. [Latex]v=\frac{k_m+(s)}{v_{\max } \times(s)}[/latex]

Question 46. Enzymes catalyzing the hydrolysis of ester and peptide by the addition of water are known as:

1. Transferases
2. Hydrolases
3. Isomerases
4. Oxidation-reduction enzymes.

Answer: 2. Hydrolases

Question 47. Model of fisher implies that;

1. The active site is flexible and adjusts to the substrate
2. The active site requires the removal of PO, group
3. The active site is complementary in shape to that of the substrate
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. The active site is complementary in shape to that of the substrate.

Question 48. C-amp mediated “cascade model” of enzyme regulation was proposed by :

1. Fisher
2. Sutherland
3. Sumner
4. Koshalnd.

Answer: 2. Sutherland

Question 49. The substrate combines more rapidly with the enzyme when:

1. Km is high
2. Km is low
3. Ki is high
4. Ki is low.

Answer: 2. Km is low

Cyanobacteria Blue-Green Algae For NEET Biology

Kail V. Non-Nncgcll distinguished blue preen algae from algae. Name k Aihku ten was given by Klilin nml Morris

Blue-Green Algae Main Features

1. Common forms include unicellular, colonial, filamentous, heterotrichous, Gram-variable, and photosynthetic.
2. The cell wall features an external layer that is gelatinous, viscous, and mucilaginous.
3. The cellular contents are partitioned into two regions: the outer chromatograms containing photosynthetic pigments and the inner colorless cytoplasm.
4. The cell wall consists of two layers, with the inner layer composed of peptidoglycan or mucopolysaccharides derived from amino sugars

Example: Glucosamine and amino acids

Example: Muramic acid and diaminopimelic acid

• Bacteria and cyanobacteria lack mitochondria, genuine vacuoles, and endoplasmic reticulum.
• Hormocyst. Thick-walled hormogonia or multicellular akinetes present in cyanobacteria.
• Sterols are nonexistent in both bacteria and cyanobacteria.
• No membrane-bound chloroplasts or photosynthetic lamellae, such as thylakoid arcs, are typically found in the peripheral cytoplasm.
• The authentic nucleus is lacking. Delicate DNA fibrils are either dispersed throughout the cell or concentrated in the central region. Its chromosome is analogous to a bacterial chromosome.
• Cyanobacteria lack distinct reproductive organs, sexual reproduction, and motile reproductive structures.
• Gas vacuoles are frequently found to modulate buoyancy in aquatic environments.
• Cyanobacteria inhabit nearly all aquatic habitats. The organisms inhabit tropical regions, plains, and are found in soil, freshwater, and marine environments.
• They constitute a component of plankton in lakes and oceans. Certain cyanobacteria inhabit the frigid waters of glaciers, while others thrive in hot springs with temperatures exceeding 85°C.
• Certain blue-green algae exist as symbionts with other organisms. For instance, they frequently constitute the algal components of lichens.

Blue Green Algae Notes For Neet

Shapes of Cyanobacteria

Cyanobacteria may be unicellular, colonial, or filamentous. Unicellular forms have single-celled body Examples Synecliococcus, Chroococcus, and Anacystis.

The colonial forms are of two types:

• Dendroid. They are the forms of cyanobacteria in which cells are held together by gelatinous connections example Chamae-siphon.
• Coccoid. They tire unicellular cyanobacteria embedded in a common matrix of mucilage without gelatinous connections, Example Microcystis. Filamentous forms are thread-like multicellular strands in which each filament or strand consists of a sheath of mucilage and one or more cellular strands called trichomes.
• Spirulina has a spirally coiled filament while a branched filament is found in Hapalosiphon.

Filaments that have single trichomes are divided into two types:

1. Homocystous. They have undifferentiated trichomes Example; Oscillatoria and Arthrospira.
2. Heterocystous. They have differentiated trichomes, for Example; Nostoc, and Rivularia.

In Schizothrix more than one trichomes are found in the same sheath of a filament. In Stigonema, a filament may have a few or a multiseriate trichome (in which numerous filaments are associated in a common sheath).

Classification based on morphology, motility, reproduction, and capacity of N2 fixation Cohen Bazire classified cyanobacteria into four groups:

1. Chroococcacean. Examples; Microcystis, Chroococcus, Gloeocapsa, etc.
2. Pseudocapsalean. Example Democarpa
3. Oscillatorian. Example; Oscillatoria.
4. Heterocystous. Examples; Nostoc, Aiiabacita, etc.
5. Among these groups, only Heterocystous has nitrogen-fixing capacity

Cyanobacteria Characteristics And Examples Neet

Economic Importance of Cyanobacteria

1. Useful activities.
   1. Nitrogen fixation is done by about 50 species of cyanobacteria. Based on nitrogen fixation there are two types:
   2. Free-living nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria, for Example, Anahaeiui, Nostoc, Aulosira, Stylonenui, Stigonema, Oleotricltia, Calotlirix, TolypotlirLx, etc.
   3. They can fix approximately 15-48 kg of nitrogen per hectare per season. Aulosirafertilissima is the most active nitrogen fixer in Rice fields.
   4. Cslindnvpcrmum is an active nitrogen fixer of Sugarcane and Maize fields.
   5. Tolyptthrix is used as a nitrogen fixer in experimental fields. (hi Symbiotic nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria: Anabaena and Nostoc species are common symbionts in lichens. Anihoceros, Azolla, and Cycas roots in which it can fix nitrogen.
   6. Azolla pinnata has Anabaena azollac in its fronds which is often inoculated to Rice fields for nitrogen fixation.
   7. They provide food for fish and other aquatic animals but Spirulina is regularly collected for human consumption in parts of Africa and India (from Samber Lake of Rajasthani. Nostoc in China, Anabaena in India.
   8. They provide suitable conditions for the growth of other organisms in a hostile environment.
   9. They are used as biofertilizers.
   10. Anabaena and Aulosira do not allow mosquito larvae to grow.
   11. They improve the physical texture of the soil.
2. Harmful activities
   1. Microcystis secretes hydroxylamine which kills aquatic life, birds, and cattle while Anabaena causes gastric trouble in domesticated animals by contaminating the drinking water of these animals.
   2. Microcystis aeruginosa (= Anacystis cyanea), Anabaena flosaquae and Aphanizoinenon flosaquae not only spoil the taste of drinking water but are also toxic to human beings.
   3. They cause depletion of supply to aquatic animals by the formation of blood by Microcystis, Anabaena, and Nostoc.
   4. Anacystis causes corrosion of metallic water pipes.
   5. The growth of algae is controlled by using algicides such as dichlorophen, phylon XI, exalgae, cushion, etc.

Mycoplasma

Cell walls are absent in the simplest and smallest free-living prokaryotes, which are frequently referred to as MLOs (Mycoplasma-like organisms) or PPLOs (Pleuropneumonia-like organisms).

• They are referred to as the “Jokers of the plant kingdom.”Mycoplasma gallispticum is the smallest prokaryote, measuring 0.3 to 0.5 m in size. The following were identified by Roux and Nocard in 1898.
• Nutritionally heterotrophic. Pleuropneumonia is produced in domestic animals, while Witch’s broom is produced in plants.
• Mycoplasma sensitivity. Mycoplasma is a gram-negative bacterium. Penicillin is ineffective against them; however, they are susceptible to other antibiotics, including streptomycin, chloramphenicol, and erythromycin.
• Their resistance to penicillin (and other antibiotics of the same class) may be attributed to the absence of a cell wall.
• This antibiotic disrupts the synthesis of peptidoglycan, a critical component of the bacterial cell wall.
• Reproduction. There is a lack of knowledge regarding mycoplasma reproduction.

However, four types of cellular bodies of Mycoplasma laidlawii have been found. These are:

1. Elementary bodies
2. Secondary bodies
3. Tertiary cell bodies and
4. Quaternary bodies

Elementary bodies reproduce by a process like budding. These grow in size and then again give rise to elementary bodies. In some cases, mycoplasma may reproduce by binary fission. Economic Importance Mycoplasma are always harmful and cause diseases in plants and animals.

Plant diseases. Many plant diseases caused by mycoplasma were earlier considered to be viral diseases before 1967. Since 1967 most of the plant diseases of the yellow group have been reported to be caused by mycoplasma.

These diseases are Little leaf of brinjal Citrus greening Sandal spike Grassy shoot of sugarcane Rice yellow dwarf Colton little leaf or cotton stenosis Sesamum phyllody and several others like Bunty top of papaya Aster yellows.

Neet Previous Year Questions On Cyanobacteria

Potato witch’s

• Pathologies in animals. Mycoplasma is responsible for diseases such as arthritis, various respiratory illnesses, and primary atypical pneumonia (PAP). Mycoplasma liowinis and M.fcrmcntans, among others, are believed to induce infertility in human males.
• In 1909, Howard Taylor Rickets identified novel microbes in the blood of individuals afflicted with Rocky Mountain spotted fever.
• This organism and others of its kind were designated as Rickettsiae, which are today classified as a category of bacteria. The designation Rickettsiae was conferred to pay tribute to the discoverer.

Rickettsiae differ from bacteria in having:

1. Smaller sizes with smaller genomes provide fewer enzymes. Requirement of an exogenous energy supplier for growth.
2. These organisms exist in alternate shapes and hence they are pleomorphic. They have no flagella, pili, capsules, or spores.
3. The cell wall is chemically similar to Gram (-) bacteria, The cytoplasm of Rickettsiae contains both DNA, RNA, and some enzymes.
4. Reproduction is by binary fission. Rickettsial infections usually respond to treatment with tetracyclines or chloramphenicol.

NEET Biology Sense Organ Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. The Human Retina Can Detect Three Basic Colours. Select The Correct Set Of Colours :

1. Blue, Red And Orange
2. Blue, Red And Yellow
3. Blue, Red And Green
4. Blue, Green And Yellow.

Answer: 3. Blue, Red And Green

Question 2. The Charts Helping To Identify If A Person Is Colour Blind Are :

1. Ishihara’S Charts
2. Reprogram
3. Dichromatic Charts
4. Accommodation Charts.

Answer: 1. Ishihara’s Charts

Question 3. In the Human Eye Maximum Refraction Of Light Takes Place In the:

1. Cornea
2. Aqueous Humour
3. Lens
4. Vitreous Humour.

Answer: 1. Cornea

NEET Important MCQs On Sense Organs

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 4. Which Part Of The Ear Is Common To Both Frogs And Mammalian Ear?

1. Cochlea
2. Eustachian Tube
3. Organ Of Corti
4. Columella Auris.

Answer: 2. Eustachian Tube

Question 5. Algesireceptors Are Sensitive To :

1. Pressure
2. Coldness
3. Chemicals
4. Pain.

Answer: 4. Pain.

Question 6. How Many Semicircular Canals Are Present In The Ear Of Frog And Man?

1. 3, 2
2. 3, 3
3. 3,1
4. 1, 3.

Answer: 2. 3, 3

Question 7. Colliculi In Eutherians :

1. Are Bigger Than Those In Frog
2. Are Two In Number
3. Concerned With Vision And Audition
4. Concerned With Vision And Maintenance Of Equilibrium.

Answer: 3. Concerned With Vision And Audition

Question 8. The Ends Of Bipolar Neurons In Retina Of Man Touch :

1. Choroid Layer And Ganglion Cells
2. Photosensitive Cells And Ganglion Cells
3. Cornea And Retina
4. Blind Spot And Yellow Spot.

Answer: 2. Photosensitive Cells And Ganglion Cells

NEET Important MCQs On Sense Organs

Question 9. What Will Happen If The Eyes Of A Frog Are Covered With Paper?

1. Frog Will Not Move
2. Frog Will Die Soon
3. Frog Will Move To One Side Only
4. Frog Will Not Do Anything.

Answer: 4. Frog Will Not Do Anything.

Question 10. Which Of These Has the Biggest Eyes In Proportion To Body Size?

1. Horse
2. Camel
3. Elephant
4. Deer.

Answer: 4. Deer

Question 11. The Outer Coat Of Eye Ball Is Known As :

1. Sclerotic
2. Choroid
3. Retina
4. Vascular Ciliary Layer.

Answer: 1. Sclerotic

Question 12. The Middle Coat Of The Eye Ball Is Vascular And Made Up Of:

1. Smooth Muscles
2. Epithelial Cells
3. Circular Muscles
4. Connective Tissue And Black Pigments.

Answer: 4. Connective Tissue And Black Pigments.

Question 13. Iris Is Made Up Of:

1. Rods And Cones
2. Circular And Radial Muscles
3. Glandular Epithelium
4. Adipose Tissue.

Answer: 2. Circular And Radial Muscles

NEET Important MCQs On Sense Organs

Question 14. The Rods Of Retina Are Most Closely Associated With :

1. Blind Spot
2. Colour Vision
3. Bright Light Vision
4. Feeble Light Vision.

Answer: 4. Feeble Light Vision.

Question 15. Rods And Cones In Retina Of Vertebrates Eye Differ In Their Function. Indicate The False Statement:

1. Rods Can Be Stimulated By Low Intensity Of Light While Cones Require High Light Intensity For Stimulation
2. Rods Give A Blurred Image Of An Object While Cones Give Its Sharp Visual Details
3. Rods Give Colour Vision While Cones Give Black And White Perception
4. Both 1 And 3.

Answer: 3. Rods Give Colour Vision While Cones Give Black And White Perception

Question 16. Cavity Of Vitreous Chamber Is :

1. Behind The Lens
2. In Front Of Lens
3. Between Choroid And Retina
4. Between Sclerotic And Choroid.

Answer: 1. Behind The Lens

Question 17. Long Eye Ball Relation To Its Refracting Power Is :

1. Long Sight
2. Myopia
3. Astigmatism
4. Hypermetropia.

Answer: 2. Myopia

Question 18. Visual Purple Is Pigment Concerned With :

1. Colour Of Eye
2. Night Blindness
3. Colour Blindness
4. Perception Of Image In Darkness.

Answer: 4. Perception Of Image In Darkness.

Question 19. Rhodopsin Of Eye Will Require :

1. Mango
2. Carrot
3. Wheat
4. Banana.

Answer: 2. Carrot

Question 20. Iodopsin Is Associated With :

1. Hypophysis
2. Cones
3. Goitre
4. Cretinism.

Answer: 2. Cones

Human Sense Organs NEET MCQs

Question 21. The Vitreous Humour Differs From The Aqueous Humour In:

1. Being Much More Watery
2. Having A Less Refractive Index
3. Being More Viscous
4. Being More Translucent.

Answer: 3. Being More Viscous

Question 22. The Retina Of Vertebrate Eye Consists Of :

1. Rods Only
2. Cones Only
3. Rods And Cones And Neuroglial Cells
4. Rods And Cones.

Answer: 3. Rods And Cones And Neuroglial Cells

Question 23. In Annual Vision Photochemical Sensitivity Of:

1. Carotene Is Used
2. Keratin Is Used
3. Atp Is Used
4. Cuticle Is Used.

Answer: 1. Carotene Is Used

Question 24. Aperture Controlling Light Passage In the Eye Is :

1. Sclerotic
2. Pupil
3. Blind Spot
4. Iris.

Answer: 2. Pupil

Question 25. The Shape Of Lens In The Eye Of Vertebrate Is Altered By :

1. Iris
2. Vitreous Humour
3. Aqueous Humour
4. Ciliary Muscles.

Answer: 4. Ciliary Muscles.

Human Sense Organs NEET MCQs

Question 26. Fovea Centralis In The Human Eye Is Having :

1. Mixture Of Rods And Cones
2. Rods Only
3. Cones Only
4. Nerve Endings Only.

Answer: 3. Cones Only

Question 27. In Vision Light Energy Is :

1. Converted Into Chemical Energy
2. Converted Into Electrical Energy
3. Converted Into Mechanical Energy
4. Converted Into Physical Energy.

Answer: 1. Converted Into Chemical Energy

Question 28. Tapetum Lucidum Layer Is :

1. Jelly-Like
2. Fibrous
3. Crystalline Fibrous
4. Crystalline.

Answer: 4. Crystalline

Questions for NEET Biology Sense Organ Question 29. After Exposure To Bright Light, Some Time Is Needed For Dark Adaptation Because :

1. Rhodopsin Becomes Temporarily Degenerated
2. Rhodopsin Is Bleached By Light And Requires Some Time For Normal Position
3. Rhodopsin Changes To Post-Rhodopsin In Dim Light And This Takes Some Time
4. None Of The Above.

Answer: 1. Rhodopsin Becomes Temporarily Degenerated

Question 30. In Frog’s Eye Sclerotic Is Made Up Of:

1. Bone
2. Muscle And Cartilage
3. Cartilage
4. Fibrous Connective Tissue.

Answer: 4. Fibrous Connective Tissue.

Question 31. The Part Of An Eye Which Acts Like A Diaphragm Of Photographic Camera Is :

1. Pupil
2. Iris
3. Cornea
4. Lens.

Answer: 2. Iris

Human Sense Organs NEET MCQs

Question 32. The Wall Of The Eye Is Made Up Of:

1. Four Main Layers
2. Three Main Layers
3. Thirty Main Layers
4. One Layer Only.

Answer: 2. Three Main Layers

Question 33. Focus In The Vertebrate Eye Is Done By :

1. Iris Muscles
2. Ciliary Muscles
3. Muscles Of Eye Ball
4. Retinal Muscles.

Answer: 2. Ciliary Muscles

Question 34. Tapetum Lucidum  Present :

1. In Retina
2. Cither In Retina Or Clitrfoid
3. In Choroid
4. None Of The Above.

Answer: 2. Cither In Retina Or Clitrfoid

Question 35. Myopia Occurs When The Image or Distant Object Is Focussed :

1. Behind The Retina
2. Above The Retina
3. In Front Of The Retina
4. Below The Retina.

Answer: 3. In Front Of The Retina

Question 36. Astigmatism Is Due To The Irregularities :

1. In The Shape Of Lens And Cornea
2. Of Pigments
3. Of Rods
4. Of Lens.

Answer: 1. In The Shape Of Lens And Cornea

Question 37. Hypermetropia Occurs When The Image Of Near Objects Is Focussed :

1. Above The Retina
2. Upon The Retina
3. Below The Retina
4. Behind The Retina.

Answer: 4. Behind The Retina.

NEET Previous Year Questions On Sense Organs

Question 38. Presbyopia Is Due To The Irregularities :

1. In The Shape Of Lens And Cornea
2. In The Shape Of Lens And Loss Of Its Elasticity
3. In The Shape Of Cornea
4. In The Shape Of Iris.

Answer: 2. In The Shape Of Lens And Loss Of Its Elasticity

Question 39. Night Blindness Is Caused Due To’ The Deficiency Of:

1. Vitamin A
2. Vitamin B
3. Vitamin K
4. Vitamin D.

Answer: 1. Vitamin A

Question 40. Fenestra Vestibuli Amplifies Sound Vibrations By :

1. 2.2 Times
2. 4.5 Times
3. 10 Times
4. 20 Times.

Answer: 1. 2.2 Times

Question 41. Hypoglossal Nerve Is Responsible For The Movement Of Muscles Of:

1. Tongue
2. Ear
3. Eyes
4. Nose

Answer: 1. Tongue

Question 42. Skin Receptors Are Classified Into How Many Categories?

1. Two
2. Five
3. Four
4. Six

Answer: 1. Two

Question 43. The Iris Consists Of Delicate :

1. Ciliary Muscles
2. Roilgh Muscles
3. Soft Muscles
4. Muscles Without Cilia.

Answer: 1. Ciliary Muscles

NEET Previous Year Questions On Sense Organs

Question 44. Short-Sightedness Occurs When The Image Of A Distant Object Is Focussed :

1. On The Back Of The Retina
2. Above The Retina
3. In Front Of The Retina
4. Below The Retina.

Answer: 3. In Front Of The Retina

Question 45. The Function Of Iris Is To :

1. Alter The Size Of Pupil
2. Move The Lens
3. Close The Eyelids
4. Secrete Aqueous Humour.

Answer: 1. Alter The Size Of Pupil

Question 46. Colour Blindness Is :

1. Sex-Linked Genetic Disorder
2. Defect In Lens
3. A Gene Mutation
4. Chromosomal Mutation.

Answer: 1. Sex-Linked Genetic Disorder

Question 47. Colour Blindness Is The Inability To Distinguish Colour Between :

1. Red And Green
2. Red And Yellow
3. Blue And Black
4. Green And Blue.

Answer: 1. Red And Green

Nervous System And Sense Organs NEET Questions

Question 48. The Region Of Clearest Vision In Reina Is Yellow Spot Which Is Known As ;

1. Fovea Vvntiabs
2. Canails Cenlialis
3. Macula Lutea
4. Corpus Luteum.

Answer: 3. Macula Lutea

Sensory Organs MCQ Objective Question  Question 49. Stereoscopic Vision Is Found In :

1. Fish
2. Frog
3. Man
4. Snake.

Answer: 3. Man

Question 50. The Hammer Like Ear Ossicle Is:

1. Malleus
2. Incus
3. Stapes
4. Cochlea.

Answer: 1. Malleus

Question 51. Hat Drum Is Not Responsive To Changes Of:

1. Volume Of Sound
2. Position Of The Body
3. Frequency Of Sound Waves
4. Air Pressure In The Pharynx.

Answer: 2. Position Of The Body

Question 52. Semicircular Canals In Internal Ear Are Concerned With :

1. Balance Of The Body
2. Hearing
3. Intelligence
4. Balance And Hearing.

Answer: 4. Balance And Hearing.

Question 53. Which Of These Is Not An Ossicle Of the Middle Ear Of a Frog?

1. Malleus
2. Columella
3. Stapes
4. None Of These.

Answer: 1. Malleus

Question 54. Eustachian Tube In Case Of Man Connects Ear With :

1. Pharynx
2. Oesophagus
3. Bucco-Pharyngeal Cavity
4. Salivary Duct.

Answer: 1. Pharynx

Question 55. The Sound Reaches The Inner Ear From Ear Drum Through Structures Which Are In A Definite Series. The Series Is :

1. Malleus-Incus-Stapes
2. Columella-Stapes
3. Stapes-Malleus-Incus
4. Malleus-Stapes-Incus.

Answer: 1. Malleus-Incus-Stapes

Nervous System And Sense Organs NEET Questions

Question 56. The Internal Ear Of Vertebrates Is Filled With A Fluid Called :

1. Endolymph
2. Perilymph
3. Haemolymph
4. Lymph.

Answer: 1. Endolymph

Question 57. The Site From Which The Nerve Impulse For Hearing Originates Is :

1. Ear Ossicle
2. Cochlea
3. Tympanum
4. Auditory Nerve.

Answer: 2. Cochlea

Sensory Organs MCQ Objective Question  Question 58. Lateral Line System Helps In :

1. Detecting Water Current
2. Echolocation
3. Thermoregulation
4. All Of The Above.

Answer: 1. Detecting Water Current

Question 59. Otolith Is Formed Of:

1. Calcium Carbonate
2. Calcium Oxalate
3. Magnesium Carbonate
4. Magnesium Sulphate.

Answer: 1. Calcium Carbonate

Question 60. Sensory Patch Of Ampulla Is Called :

1. Cristae
2. Maculae
3. Otoliths
4. Basilar Papilla

Answer: 1. Cristae

NEET Biology Evolution Of Man Multiple Choice Questions And Answers

Question 1. First Homonids are:

1. Ramapithecus
2. Kcnyapithccus
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Australopithecus.

Answer: 3. Both 1 and 2

Question 2. Who was the first civilized man?

1. Cro-Magnon min
2. Neanderthal man
3. Hcidelbcrgs man
4. Temifier man.

Answer: 2. Neanderthal man

Question 3. The first human fossil probably belonged to:

1. Zizanthropus
2. Australopithecus
3. Pleisanthropus
4. Pilhicanthropus.

Answer: 2. Australopithecus

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Evolution NEET Practice Questions MCQs Question 4. The age of mammals is known as:

1. Cenozoic
2. Mesozoic
3. Palaeozoic
4. Psychozoic.

Answer: 1. Coenozoic

Question 5. The direct ancestral race of modern man was possibly:

1. Cromagnon man
2. Peking man
3. Neanderthal man
4. Java man.

Answer: 1. Cromagnon man

Question 6. Which of the following is not in the direction of the evolution of the human species?

1. Raised orbital ridges
2. Binocular vision
3. Opposable thumb
4. Developed brain.

Answer: 1. Raised orbital ridges

Question 7. Which one of the following eras in the geological time scale corresponds to the Person when life has not originated upon earth?

1. Palaeozoic
2. Mesozoic
3. Cenozoic
4. Azoic.

Answer: 4. Azoic

Question 8. Among the primates listed below which one is the closest relative of modern man:

1. Gorilla
2. Sinanthropus
3. Gibbon
4. Orangutan.

Answer: 2. Sinanthropus

Question 9. The Java man is considered to have existed in:

1. Java only
2. China only
3. Africa
4. Java, China, and Africa.

Answer: 4. Java, China, and Africa.

Question 10. Neanderthal man:

1. Resembles modem man
2. Was less advanced than modern man
3. Had a larger brain than modern man
4. Had a much smaller brain than modern man.

Answer: 3. Had a larger brain than modern man

Human Evolution NEET Questions

Question 11. The ancestor of the man who first stood erect was:

1. Java man
2. Australopithecus
3. Peking man
4. Cro-magnon.

Answer: 2. Australopithecus

Question 12. Which of (lie following is true for Homo sapiens?

1. Protruded mouth
2. Cranial capacity 1450 cc
3. Canine absent
4. Jail present.

Answer: 2. Cranial capacity 1450 cc

Question 13. The skull of Pithecanthropus erectus was found in:

1. Africa
2. Java
3. America
4. All of the above.

Answer: 2. Java

Question 14. The pre-historic ancestor of man which existed during the Pleistocene era is:

1. Australopithecus
2. Zinjanthropus
3. Neanderthal man
4. Atlantic man.

Answer: 3. Neanderthal man

Question 15. The most recent fossil is of:

1. Cromagnon man
2. Java man
3. African man
4. Peking man.

Answer: 1. Cromagnon man

Question 16. The name of the fossil man of Shivalik Hills is:

1. Australopithecus
2. Dryopithecus
3. Sivapithecus
4. Ramapithecus.

Answer: 4. Ramapithecus.

Question 17. The recent ancestors of modern man were:

1. Java ape man and Peking man
2. Peking and Rhodesian man
3. Rhodesian man and Cromagnon man
4. Cromagnon man and Neanderthal man.

Answer: 4. Cromagnon man and Neanderthal man

Human Evolution NEET Questions

Question 18. Homo erectus is the zoological name of:

1. Java ape man
2. Peking man
3. Neanderthal man
4. Nutcracker man.

Answer: 1. Java ape man

Question 19. The earliest site where human civilization and crop cultivation started was presumably:

1. Around the Caspian and Mediterranean Sea
2. Around river Nile
3. Chinese river Nile
4. All of the above.

Answer: 1. Around the Caspian and Mediterranean Sea

Question 20. Cromagnon man was:

1. Herbivorous
2. Frugivorous
3. Sanguivorous
4. Carnivorous.

Answer: 4. Carnivorous.

Question 21. Which one of the fossil men stood first?

1. Australopithecus
2. Homo erectus
3. Sinanthropus
4. Gigantopithccus.

Answer: 1. Australopithecus

Question 22. Neanderthal man differs from modern man in the:

1. Receding jaw
2. Protruding jaw
3. Can make good tools
4. Having a stockier body.

Answer: 4. Having a stockier body.

NEET Biology Evolution MCQs

Question 23. Which of these is considered a trend in primate evolution?

1. Development of non-prehensile tail
2. Development of monocular vision
3. Decreased dependence on smell
4. Elimination of clavicle.

Answer: 3. Decreased dependence on smell

Question 24. Which primate existed in the first half of the Eocene epoch (53-58 million years ago)?

1. Prosinnans
2. Prosimians and monkeys
3. Prosimians, monkeys, and apes
4. Prosimians, monkeys, apes and hominids.

Answer: 1. Prosinnans

Question 25. Which of these prosimians are now found only on the island of Madagascar?

1. Lxuinir
2. Loris
3. Galago
4. Bush baby.

Answer: 1. Lxuinir

Question 26. The immortality of soul hypothesis has given rise to the discovery of:

1. Heidelbergensis man
2. Temifier man
3. Ncanderthalensix
4. Homo sapiens.

Answer: 3. Ncanderthalensix

NEET Biology Evolution MCQs

Question 27. The present age is known as:

1. Bronze age
2. Iron age
3. Silver age
4. Golden age.

Answer: 2. Iron age

Question 28. Who discovered the use of the weapon and tools first?

1. Homo hails
2. Handyman
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Homo erectus

Answer: 3. Both 1 and 2

Question 29. Cannibalism is local in:

1. Java man
2. Peking man
3. Cromagnon man
4. Both (1) and (2).

Answer: 4. Both (1) and (2).

Question 30. The cranial capacity of Java ape-man was about:

1. 560 cc
2. 900 cc
3. 1300 cc
4. 1600 cc.

Answer: 2. 900 cc

Biology MCQ Origin and Evolution of Man Question 31. The first fossil of an African ape-man was discovered by:

1. Dr. Leaky
2. E.Dubois
3. Artlicr Keith
4. Raymond Dart.

Answer: 4. Raymond Dart.

Question 32. Peking man is known as:

1. Australopithecus
2. Sinanthropus
3. Pithecanthropus
4. Homo sapiens.

Answer: 2. Sinanthropus

Question 33. Which of the fossil men given below was an expert in making tools, weapons, paintings, etc?

1. Java ape-man
2. Peking man
3. African man
4. Cro-magnon man

Answer: 4. Cro-magnon man

Question 34. The cranial capacity was the largest in one of the following fossils of man:

1. Java ape-man
2. Cromagnon man
3. Neanderthal man
4. Peking man.

Answer: 2. Cromagnon man

NEET Biology Chapter-wise MCQs

Question 35. Continents where most of the primitive men have been discovered:

1. Africa
2. Asia
3. America
4. Australia.

Answer: 1. Africa

Question 36. Which of the following factors is considered best in the evolution of man?

1. Extinction of Reptiles
2. Appearance of Angiospenns
3. Preference for cave life
4. Pleistocene climate.

Answer: 4. Pleistocene climate.

Question 37. Pithecanthropus erectus fossil was found in:

1. China
2. Japan
3. Java
4. Texas.

Answer: 3. Java

Question 38. The cranial capacity is nearly 1000 cc of:

1. Java man
2. Neanderthal man
3. Peking man
4. Cromagnon man.

Answer: 1. Java man

Question 39. The man who used stones for the first time was:

1. Cromagnon
2. Neanderthal man
3. Homo erectus
4. Homo habilis.

Answer: 4. Homo habilis.

NEET Biology Chapter-wise MCQs

Question 40. Which of the following is not a characteristic of apes?

1. Movement in the trees by brachiation
2. Movement on the ground by knuckle-walking
3. A wrist that bends backward
4. Highly mobile shoulder joints.

Answer: 3. Wrist that bends backward

NEET Biology Evolution Of Life MCQ Question Bank Question 41. Which of the following is not an anatomical change from ape to Homo sapiens?

1. From locking to non-locking knee joints
2. From a long, thin pelvis to a bowl-like pelvis
3. From opposable thumb to non-opposable thumb
4. From flat to arched feet.

Answer: 1. From locking to non-locking knee joints

Question 42. Tuang Baby is the name of:

1. Australopithecus
2. A. Africanus
3. A. afarensis
4. A. bosei.

Answer: 2. A. Africanus

Question 43. Early True Man was:

1. Peking Man
2. Java Man
3. Neanderthal Man
4. Homo habilis.

Answer: 4. Homo habilis.

Question 44. The dog was domesticated by:

1. Homo sapiens neanderthalensis
2. Homo sapiens fossilis
3. Homo heidelbergensis
4. Homo sapiens sapiens.

Answer: 3. Homo heidelbergensis

Question 45. The name of Mio-Pliocene apes is:

1. Dryopithecus
2. Paranthropus
3. Australopithecus
4. Ramapithecus.

Answer: 1. Dryopithecus

NEET Evolution Questions with Answers

Question 46. The maximum size of a modem brain is:

1. 2000 cc
2. 100 cc
3. 1500 cc
4. 2200 cc.

Answer: 3. 1500 cc

Question 47. The name of the earliest human ancestor from India is:

1. Paranthoropus
2. Ramapithecus
3. Australopithecus
4. Dryopithecus.

Answer: 2. Ramapithecus

Question 48. The latest ancestral race of modern man was possibly:

1. Java man
2. Peking man
3. Neanderthal man
4. Cromagnon man.

Answer: 4. Cromagnon man.

Question 49. “Peking Man” was:

1. Australopithecus
2. Sinanthropus
3. Zinjanthropus
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Sinanthropus

Question 50. Which of the following is not correct?

1. About 15 mya, primates called Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus appeared.
2. Homo erectus had a large brain around 900 cm³.
3. The brain capacities were between 650 to 800 cm³ of Homo habilis.
4. Ramapithecus was more ape-like.

Answer: 4. Ramapithecus was more ape-like

NEET Evolution Questions with Answers

Question 51. Dryopithecus was:

1. Early human
2. Human ancestor
3. Ape ancestor
4. Ancestors of both apes and humans

Answer: 4. Ancestor of both apes and humans

Question 52. The earliest man-like primate was:

1. Ramapithecus
2. Australopithecus
3. Homo habilis
4. Homo erectus.

Answer: 1. Ramapithecus

Question 53. The first human fossil belonged to:

1. Zinjanthropus
2. Australopithecus
3. Cromagnon man
4. Homo neanderthalensis.

Answer: 2. Australopithecus

Question 54. Fossils of so-called ‘Java Man’ and ‘Peking Man’ belong to:

1. Homo sapiens
2. Homo erectus
3. Homo habilis
4. None of these.

Answer: 2. Homo erectus

NEET Evolution Questions with Answers

Question 55. Anthropoid apes were ancestors of:

1. Monkeys
2. Apes
3. Homo habilis
4. All the apes.

Answer: 1. Monkeys

Origin and Evolution of Man MCQ Question 56. The brain of Australopithecus measured:

1. 350-450 cm³
2. 1400-1450 cm3³
3. 700-900 cm³
4. 800-1400 cm³

Answer: 1. 350-450 cm³

Question 57. Possession of child-like traits by an adult man is called:

1. Gerontomorphism
2. Orthogenomorphism
3. Pedomorphism
4. Foetomorphism.

Answer: 3. Pedomorphism

Question 58. The ancestor of the man who first stood erect was:

1. Australopithecus
2. Java ape man
3. Peking man
4. Cromagnon.

Answer: 1. Australopithecus

Question 59. Cro-magnon was:

1. Carnivorous
2. Omnivorous
3. Herbivorous
4. Frugivorous.

Answer: 1. Carnivorous

Question 60. The first fossils of prehistoric man were discovered by:

1. E. Lewis
2. Raymond Dart
3. Leaky
4. Eugene Dubois.

Answer: 1. E. Lewis

Question 61. Colored rock paintings were presumably first made by:

1. Cromagnon man
2. Neanderthal man
3. Java ape man
4. Peking man.

Answer: 1. Cromagnon man

Question 62. The earliest man who used tools was:

1. Homo habilis
2. Homo erectus
3. Java man
4. Peking man.

Answer: 1. Homo habilis

Human Evolution NEET Questions

Question 63. The characteristics of modern man are:

1. Small teeth without huge canines and slight curvature of the vertebral column
2. A flattened face without muzzle and brow ridges
3. Rounded skull with downward-looking foramen magnum
4. All of these

Answer: 1. Small teeth without huge canines and slight curvature of the vertebral column

Question 64. The first evidence of the ceremonial burial of the dead has been found with fossils of

1. Cromagnon man
2. Java ape man
3. Nemuleillial man
4. Peking man.

Answer: 1. Cromagnon man

Question 65. Loss of pigmentation, slender body, reduced appendages, and absence of visual organs are adaptations in:

1. Cave animals
2. Aquatic animals
3. Ailmreal animals
4. Burrowing animals

Answer: 1. Cave animals

Evolution NEET Practice Questions MCQs Question 66. Modem man, Homo sapiens sapiens began spreading all over the globe some:

1. 10000 years ago
2. 150000 years ago
3. 20000 years ago
4. 25000 years ago

Answer: 1. 10000 years ago

Question 67. According to the geological chronology, man belongs to which era

1. Mesozoic
2. Palaeozoic
3. Piepalaeozoic
4. Coenozoic.

Answer: 4. Coenozoic.

Question 68. “Piltdown man” was:

1. Earlier specimens of fossil bones of a man found in Pilldown
2. Skull of Neanderthal man found in Germany
3. Skull and leg bones of Australopithecus
4. A fake assemblage of bones of the skull.

Answer: 4. A fake assemblage of bones of the skull.

Question 69. A pertinent example where die study of human trials has helped in understanding evolution is:

1. Congenital diseases
2. Eye colour
3. Blood groups
4. Chromosomal variations.

Answer: 3. Blood groups

Question 70. DNA matching has shown human beings to be nearest to:

1. Chimpanzee
2. Gorilla
3. Gibbon
4. Rhesus Monkey.

Answer: 1. Chimpanzee

Question 71. Orthognalhotis face occurs in:

1. Homo sapiens
2. Gorilla
3. Ramapilhecus
4. Homo habilis

Answer: 1. Homo sapiens

Human Evolution NEET Questions

Question 72. Simian gap is;

1. Distance between two nostrils
2. Small diastema
3. The gap between nostrils and upper lip
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Small diastema

Question 73. Which of the following primates is the closest relative to modern man

1. Orangutan
2. Sinanthropus
3. Gibbon
4. Gorilla.

Answer: 2. Sinanthropus

Question 74. The earliest man-like primate and oldest of man’s ancestors which is in direct line with human evolution is:

1. Oreopilhecus
2. Proconsul africanus
3. Ramapilhecus
4. Australopithecus.

Answer: 2. Proconsul africanus

Question 75. The fossil of the first known ape is:

1. Dryopilhccus
2. Oreopilhecus
3. Propliopithecus
4. Ramapilhecus.

Answer: 3. Propliopithecus

Question 76. Which of the following is the fossil of the first man-ape

1. Australopithecus
2. Ramapilhecus
3. Homo credits
4. Peking man.

Answer: 1. Australopithecus

Evolution NEET Practice Questions MCQs Question 77. Who said that the human body is a walking museum of antiquities

1. Wejsmann
2. Wiedersheim
3. Wollman
4. Wilkins.

Answer: 2. Wiedersheim

Question 78. Who wrote the first book on human origin

1. Aristotle
2. Linnaeus
3. Huxley
4. Darwin.

Answer: 3. Huxley

Human Evolution NEET Questions

Question 79. Outwardly directed widely separated nostrils occur in:

1. Gorilla
2. New World Monkeys
3. Loris
4. Apes.

Answer: 2. New World Monkeys

Question 80. The fire was first used for protection and cooking by:

1. Java man
2. Neanderthal man
3. Peking man
4. Cromagnon.

Answer: 2. Neanderthal man

Question 81. The features not in the direction of the evolution of the human species are:

1. Raised orbital ridges
2. Binocular vision
3. Opposable thumb
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Raised orbital ridges

NEET Biology Evolution MCQs

Question 82. In gorillas, great apes, and chimpanzees, the number of chromosomes is:

1. 2N = 46
2. 2N = 44
3. 2N = 48
4. None of these.

Answer: 3. 2N = 48

Question 83. Dryopilhccus occurred:

1. 50 million years ago
2. 50 billion years ago
3. 24 billion years ago
4. 24 million years ago.

Answer: 4. 24 million years ago.

Question 84. What is the brain size of a man?

1. 350-450 cm³
2. 850-950 cm³
3. 1400-1450 cm³
4. 1800-1850 cm³

Answer: 3. 1400-1450 cm³

Question 85. Dubois in 1891 found the fossil of Java ape man. It is:

1. Sinanthropus pekinensis
2. Pithecanthropus erectus
3. Homo rhodesincsis
4. Homo sapiens.

Answer: 2. Pithecanthropus erectus

Question 86. The smallest cranial capacity is that of the:

1. Modern man
2. Cromagnon man
3. Neanderthal man
4. Java man.

Answer: 4. Java man.

Question 87. The smallest cranial capacity is that of the:

1. Modern man
2. Cro-magnon man
3. Neanderthal man
4. Java man.

Answer: 4. Java man.

Question 88. Cranial capacity was highest in:

1. Java man
2. Cromagnon
3. Neanderthal man
4. Peking man.

Answer: 2. Cromagnon

NEET Biology Evolution MCQs

Question 89. Which of the following fossil man possessed a cranial capacity almost equal to that of modern man

1. Neanderthal man
2. Java ape man
3. Peking man
4. Australopithecus alricans.

Answer: 1. Neanderthal man

Question 90. Match the following lists and give the correct answer from the code given below the lists.

Answer: 2

Question 91. Which of the following is correct?

1. Australopithecus is the real ancestor of modern man
2. Cromagnon man’s fossil has been found in Ethiopia
3. Homo erectus is the ancestor of man
4. Neanderthal man is the direct ancestor of Homo sapiens.

Answer: 3. Homo erectus is the ancestor of man

Question 92. The age of the fossil of Dryopithecus on the geological time scale is:

1. 75 x 10⁶ years back
2. 2.5 x 10⁶ years back
3. 25 x 10⁶ years back
4. 50 x 10⁶ years back.

Answer: 3. 25 x 10⁶ years back

Question 93. The extinct human who lived 1,00,000 to 40,000 years ago, in Europe. Asia and parts of Africa, with short stature, heavy eyebrows, retreating foreheads, large jaws with heavy teeth, stocky bodies, a lumbering gait, and stooped posture were:

1. Neanderthal human
2. Cro-Magnan humans
3. Ramapithecus
4. Homo habilis.

Answer: 1. Neanderthal human

Question 94. Homo sapiens evolved during

1. Pleistocene
2. Oligocene
3. Pliocene
4. Miocene

Answer: 1. Pleistocene

Question 95. Which of the following is the closest relative of man?

1. Chimpanzee
2. Gorilla
3. Orangutan
4. Gibbon

Answer: 1. Chimpanzee

Question 96. Which of the following is the correct order of the evolutionary history of man?

1. Peking man. Homo sapiens, Neanderthel man, Cromagnon man
2. Peking man. Neanderthal man, Homo sapiens, Cromagnon man
3. Peking man, Hedalberg man, Neanderthal man, Cromagnon man
4. Peking man, Neanderthal man, Homo sapiens, Hedalberg man

Answer: 3. Peking man, Hedalberg man, Neanderthal man, Cromagnon man

Question 97. In recent years, DNA sequences of mt-DNA and Y-chromosomes were considered for the study of human evolution, because they:

1. Can be studied from the samples of fossil remains
2. Are small and thus easy to study
3. Are uniparental in origin and do not take part in recombination.
4. Their structure is known in greater detail.

Answer: 2. Are small and thus easy to study

Question 98. Which of the following was the transitional stage between apes and humans:

1. Homo habilis
2. Homo erectus
3. Australopithecus ramidus
4. Australopithecus Africans.

Answer: 3. Australopithecus ramidus

Question 99. Highest cranial capacity is found in:

1. Homo sapiens sapiens
2. Neanderthal man
3. Peking man
4. Cro-magnon man.

Answer: 4. Cro-magnon man.

Question 100. Cromagnon man was:

1. Frugivorous
2. Carnivorous
3. Herbivorous
4. Omnivorous.

Answer: 2. Carnivorous