Sainavle

NEET Biology Kingdom Monera Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. An organism should be placed in the kingdom Moncra if it

1. Consists of a single cell
2. Has a cell wall
3. Is surrounded by a capsule
4. Lacks a nuclear membrane separating its genetic (material from the cytoplasm.

Answer: 4. Lacks a nuclear membrane separating its genetic (material from the cytoplasm.

Question 2. Newly started rice paddies produce poor crops until -they have established a flourishing population of cyanobacteria. This is probably because:

1. Die rice needs nitrogen fixed by the cyanobacteria
2. The rice cannot compete with weeds, which are poisoned by toxins produced by the cyanobacteria
3. The cyanobacteria use surplus nutrients from sewage in the rice paddies
4. The cyanobacteria lack proteins in their dna.

Answer: 1. Die rice needs nitrogen fixed by the cyanobacteria

Question 3. A wall-less moneran is:

1. Bacteria
2. Blue-green algae
3. Mycoplasma
4. Archaebacteria.

Answer: 3. Bacteria

Most Important MCQs on Monera Question 4. Symbiotic nitrogen fixation is found in :

1. Rhizobium
2. Oscillatoria
3. Azotobacter
4. Nitrobacter.

Answer: 1. Rhizobium

Question 5. Cyanobacteria do not possess :

1. Gene recombination
2. Flagella
3. Plasmid
4. Lamellasome.

Answer: 2. Flagella

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 6. Pili in bacteria represent :

1. Extrachromosomal genetic element
2. Cell membrane outgrowths of donor cells
3. Small flagella
4. Special bacterial cilia.

Answer: 2. Cell membrane outgrowths of donor cells

Question 7. Branched-chain lipids occur in the cell membranes of:

1. Archaebacteria
2. Mycoplasma
3. Actinomycetes
4. Streptomyces.

Answer: 1. Archaebacteria

Most Important MCQs on Monera Question 8. The decomposition of organic compounds in the presence of 02 without the development of an odoriferous substance is:

1. Nitrification
2. Decay
3. Denitrification
4. Nitrogen fixation.

Answer: 2. Decay

Question 9. The cell wall in all bacteria is composed of:

1. Lipid and protein
2. Murein
3. Proteins only
4. Cellulose and lipids.

Answer: 2. Murein

Question 10. Genophore is the name of:

1. DNA of eukaryotes
2. DNA of protists
3. DNA of prokaryotes
4. Genes of drosophila.

Answer: 3. DNA of prokaryotes

Question 11. Micro-organisms in milk are killed by heat treatment at a controlled temperature without altering the natural characteristics of milk through a process called

1. Boiling
2. Immunization
3. Pasteurization
4. Sterilization.

Answer: 3. Pasteurization

Question 12. Naked dna is that which is :

1. Not covered by a nuclear envelope
2. Present in cytoplasm
3. Associated with histone proteins
4. Not associated with histone proteins.

Answer: 4. Not associated with histone proteins.

Most Important MCQs on Monera Question 13. In the bacterium Bacillus subtilis the cells often become attached from end to end forming long filamentous chains, which are embedded in a mass of mucilage forming a scum layer on the substratum. It is called as:

1. Palmella stage
2. Torula stage
3. Zoogloea stage
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Zoogloea stage

Question 14. Prokaryotic chromosome is :

1. A naked double-stranded
2. A single-stranded circular dna
3. Composed of DNA or RNA
4. Associated with non-histones.

Answer: 1. A naked double-stranded

Question 15. Bacteria resemble yeasts because both have property

1. Degradation of food
2. Binary fission
3. Anaerobic respiration
4. Sexual reproduction.

Answer: 2. Binary fission

Question 16. One of the following does not apply to Escherichia coli:

1. Transformation
2. Transduction
3. Flagella
4. Diploid.

Answer: 4. Diploid.

Question 17. Which of the following are intermediate between viruses and bacteria?

1. Mycoplasma
2. Spirilla
3. Cyanobacteria
4. Variola.

Answer: 1. Mycoplasma

Question 18. Bacteria are found to be primitive organisms because they:

1. Are small, microscopic which are not seen with the naked eye
2. It causes serious diseases in human beings, domesticated animals, and crop plants.
3. Produce endospores which are very resistant to adverse conditions
4. Possess incipient nucleus and show amitotic division.

Answer: 4. Possess incipient nucleus and show amitotic division.

Question 19. Ih bacteria the most resistant stage is:

1. Capsuled vegetative cell
2. Newly divided cell
3. Endospore stage
4. Torula stage.

Answer: 3. Endospore stage

Most Important MCQs on Monera Question 20. Some diseases caused by bacteria are:

1. Measles, mumps, malaria
2. Tetanus, typhoid, tuberculosis
3. Smallpox, sleeping sickness
4. Poliomyelitis, psittacosis

Answer: 2. Tetanus, typhoid, tuberculosis

Question 21. bacterium which is commonly present in the intestine of man and animal is :

1. Vibrio comma
2. Escherichia.
3. Script
4. Pseudomonas citri.

Answer: 2. Escherichia.

Question 22. The chemotherapeutic substance derived from a living organism that has an inhibitory effect on parasitic organisms is known as:

1. Exotoxin
2. Antibody
3. Bactericide
4. Antibiotic.

Answer: 4. Antibiotic.

Question 23. Bacteria are plant-like because they have :

1. Rigid cell wall
2. Ability to reproduce
3. Both the above
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Rigid cell wall

Kingdom Monera NEET MCQ Question 24. In transduction :

1. Bacteriophage transfers dna from donor to recipient cell
2. Extracellular dna enters the recipient cell
3. The donor cell survives
4. The donor and recipient cells survive.

Answer: 1. Bacteriophage transfers dna from donor to recipient cell

Question 25. Gram+ve bacteria have :

1. Thick and homogeneous cell walls
2. As much as 70% of peptide molecules
3. Either no lipids or less than 10% lipids
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 26. Honey, jams, jelly, and chutney are free of bacteria, because:

1. Bacterial cells are plasmolysed in these substrates
2. These substrates are poisonous
3. These substrates have a foul smell
4. These substrates have complex substances which cannot be utilized by bacteria for their nutrition.

Answer: 1. Bacterial cells are plasmolysed in these substrates

Question 27. Cyanobacteria is a :

1. Category of bacteria
2. Is the new name of all bacteria
3. New name of Myxophyceae or Cyanophyceae or blue-green algae
4. None of them.

Answer: 3. New name of Myxophyceae or cyanophyceae or blue-green algae

Question 28. Both bacteria and cyanobacteria are :

1. Prokaryotic
2. Eukaryotic
3. Eukaryotic as well as prokaryotic
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Prokaryotic

Kingdom Monera NEET MCQ Question 29. If a bacterial cell is dividing every minute and takes one hour to fill a cup. It will require how much time to fill half of the cup.

1. 30 Minutes
2. 60 Minutes
3. 59 Minutes
4. 61 Minutes

Answer: 3. 59 Minutes

Question 30. The formation of vinegar from alcohol is caused by

1. Bacillus subtilis
2. Clostridium
3. Acetobacter aceti
4. Otobacter.

Answer: 4. Otobacter.

Question 31. The formation of vinegar from alcohol is caused by

1. Bacilius subtitles
2. Clostridium
3. Acetobacter aceti
4. Azotobacter.

Answer: 3. Acetobacter aceti

Question 32. Photosynthetic bacteria have:

1. Pigment system 1 (only one pigment system)
2. Pigment system 2
3. Both
4. Some other types.

Answer: 1. Pigment system 1 (only one pigment system)

Question 33. Which of the following causes nitrification?

1. Bacillus ramosus
2. Nitrosomonas
3. Nitrobacter
4. Both 2 and 3.

Answer: 4. Both 2 and 3.

Question 34. Bacteria having a tuft of flagella at both ends tire called :

1. Peritrichate
2. Bitrate
3. Amphitrichate
4. Lophotrichate.

Answer: 4. Lophotrichate.

Kingdom Monera NEET MCQ Question 35. What turns the wine sour?

1. Light exposure
2. Aerobic bacteria
3. Anaerobic bacteria
4. High temperature.

Answer: 2. Aerobic bacteria

Question 36. Streptomycin is produced by :

1. Streptomyces grievous
2. Streptomyces soleus
3. Streptomyces fragile
4. Streptomyces venezuellae.

Answer: 1. Streptomyces grievous

Question 37. Botulism, a type of food poisoning, is caused by:

1. Rhizobium
2. Vibrio
3. Streptococcus
4. Clostridium botulinum.

Answer: 4. Clostridium botulinium.

Question 38. Fever typhoid is caused by the bacteria :

1. Xanthomonas typhous
2. Salmonella typhi
3. Bacillus diplococcus
4. Bacillus dysenteriae.

Answer: 2. Salmonella typhi

Question 39. Griffith performed experiments on which bacteria and concluded the occurrence of transformation in bacteria

1. Bacillus pneumonieae
2. Salmonella pneumonieae
3. Diplococcus pneumonieae
4. Xanthomonas pneumonieae.

Answer: 3. Diplococcus pneumonia

Question 40. Bacteria have flagella around the periphery of the cell. This condition is known as:

1. Peritrichate
2. Monotrichate
3. Lophotrichate
4. Amphitrichate.

Answer: 1. Peritrichate

Question 41. The estimated length of dna molecule in Escherichia coli is :

1. 1000 Pm
2. 100 Pm
3. 100 A
4. 1000 A.

Answer: 3. 100 A

Biological Classification MCQ For NEET Question 42. Form of sexual reproduction where genetic material is carried from one strain of bacteria to another by bacteriophage:

1. Transformation
2. Transduction
3. Mesomixis
4. Conjugation.

Answer: 2. Transduction

Question 43. The structure formed by the bacterial genome is called:

1. Nucleus
2. Nucleoid
3. Nucleoli
4. Nucleolus.

Answer: 2. Nucleoid

Question 44. Bacteria having a tuft of anger at our CML are called :

1. Monotridious
2. Amphitnehous
3. Cephalotrichoues
4. Peritrichous

Answer: 3. Cephalotrichoues

Question 45. Staplix kvivcus causes :

1. Food jvisoniug
2. Citrus canker
3. Denitrification
4. Vinegar fonnation.

Answer: 1. Food jvisoniug

Question 46. Photoautotrophic bacteria contain the pigment:

1. Chlorophyll
2. Bacteriochlorophyll
3. To carotene
4. No pigment.

Answer: 2. Bacteriochlorophyll

Biological Classification MCQ For NEET Question 47. E.coli lives in the human intestine and causes:

1. Urinary tract infection
2. Diarrhea
3. Meningitis
4. None of the above.

Answer: 4. None of the above.

Question 48. In e. Coli when the flagella rotates in a clockwise and anticlockwise direction, the movements are:

1. Jumping and hooping
2. Running and tumbling
3. Tumbling and hooping
4. Hooping and running.

Answer: 2. Running and tumbling

Question 49. A bacterial cell undergoes binary fission every twenty minutes. Starting with a single bacterium how many bacteria will be produced at the end of 3 hours?

1. 128
2. 256
3. 512
4. 1024.

Answer: 3. 512

Question 50. Which of the following is a free-living anaerobic nitrogen-fixing bacteria?

1. Azotobacter
2. Nitrobacter
3. Rhizobium
4. Clostridium.

Answer: 4. Clostridium.

Question 51. E. Coli bacterium possesses a single large circular dna as its genetic material. This strand codes for :

1. 1000-2000 Different proteins
2. 2000-3000 Different proteins
3. 3000 To 4000 different proteins
4. More than 4000 different proteins.

Answer: 2. 2000-3000 Different proteins

Question 52. Bacteria that get their energy from fermentation and for whom oxygen is lethal are called:

1. Obligate anaerobes
2. Obligate aerobes
3. Facultative aerobes
4. Facultative anaerobes.

Answer: 1. Obligate anaerobes

Biological Classification MCQ For NEET Question 53. The bacteria (treponema pallidum) that cause the v.d. Syphilis are :

1. Pseudomonas
2. Purple non-syphilis
3. Rickettsia
4. Spirochaetes.

Answer: 4. Rickettsia

Question 54. Which of the following jives in the gut of termites and helps them digest cellulose:

1. Plasmodium
2. Trypanosoma
3. Trichonympha
4. Trichosomes.

Answer: 3. Trichonympha

Question 55. An example of a chemoautotrophic bacterium is:

1. Lactobacillus
2. Nitrosomonas
3. E. Coli
4. Rhizobium.

Answer: 2. Nitrosomonas

Question 56. Bag included amongst :

1. Fungi
2. Prokaryotes
3. Bryophytes
4. Protista.

Answer: 2. Prokaryotes

Biological Classification MCQ For NEET Question 57. Some bacteria produce resting spores during unfavorable conditions. They are:

1. Exports
2. Endosporcs
3. Aplanosporcs
4. Chlamydospores.

Answer: 2. Endosporcs

Question 58. The similarity between bacterium and cyanobacterium is:

1. Presence of flagella
2. Presence of 80 s ribosome
3. Presence of nucleoid
4. Presence of phycobilisomes.

Answer: 3. Presence of nucleoid

Question 59. Conjugation in bacteria was discovered by :

1. Jacob and Wollman
2. Zinder and Lederberg
3. Lederberg and Tatum
4. Beadle and Tatum.

Answer: 3. Zinder and lederberg

Question 60. Archaebacteria found in salty pans and salt marshes are

1. Methanogens
2. Thermoacidophiles
3. Ruminant symbiosis
4. Halophiles.

Answer: 4. Halophiles.

Most Important MCQs on Monera Question 61. Prokaryotic cells have a volume range of :

1. 0.2 to 10 pm3
2. 100-1000 Pm3
3. 1000-10000 Pm3
4. 0.01 to 0.1 pm3.

Answer: 1. 0.2 to 10 pm3

Question 62. Prokaryotic flagella possess :

1. A helically arranged protein molecule
2. Protein membrane-enclosed fiber
3. Unit membrane-enclosed fiber
4. Microtubular (9+2) membrane.

Answer: 1. Protein membrane-enclosed fiber

Question 63. Organisms used in alcohol fermentation are:

1. Penicillium
2. Pseudomonas
3. Aspergillus
4. Saccharomyces.

Answer: 4. Saccharomyces.

Question 64. Tailed bacteriophages are :

1. Motile on the surface of bacteria
2. Non- motile
3. Actively motile in water
4. Motile on the surface of plant leaves.

Answer: 1. Motile on the surface of bacteria

Question 65. A large number of organic food molecules can be prepared by:

1. Chemolithotrophs
2. Pseudomonas
3. Azotobacter
4. Mycoplasma.

Answer: 1. Chemolithotrophs

Most Important MCQs on Monera Question 66. Bacteria were first observed by :

1. W.h Stanley
2. Louis Pasteur
3. A.v. Leeuwenhoek
4. Robert koch.

Answer: 3. A.v. Leeuwenhoek

Question 67. “Little leaf” of brinjal is caused by :

1. Bacteria
2. Mycoplasma
3. Fungi
4. Venus

Answer: 2. Mycoplasma

Question 68. Crown gall is caused by

1. Mycobacterium
2. Bacteria
3. Clostridium
4. Erwinia

Answer: 2. Bacteria

Question 69. Which of the following is an antibiotic?

1. Chloramphenicol
2. Ethwphous
3. Phosphon-d
4. Amo 11.1s

Answer: 1. Chloramphenicol

Question 70. Which of the following mg is a bacterial disease?

1. Measles
2. Tuberculosis
3. Rabies
4. Smallpox.

Answer: 2. Tuberculosis

Most Important MCQs on Monera Question 71. An aerobic nitrogen-fixing soil bacterium is :

1. Rhizobium
2. Clostridium
3. Azotobactcr
4. Rhodospirillum.

Answer: 3. Azotobactcr

Question 72. Hormogonia help in the reproduction of:

1. Cladophora
2. Bacteria
3. Archaebacteria
4. Cyanobacteria.

Answer: 4. Cyanobacteria.

Question 73. Which one of the following belongs to none?

1. Amoeba
2. Escherichia
3. Gelidium
4. Spirogyra.

Answer: 2. Escherichia

Question 74. Streptomyces ramosus is the source of the antibiotic :

1. Chloromycetin
2. Erythromycin
3. Aureomycin
4. Terramycin.

Answer: 4. Terramycin.

Question 75. The cells of cyanobacteria and bacteria exhibit similarity in having:

1. Nuclei
2. Centrosome
3. Plastids
4. Dna.

Answer: 4. Dna.

Question 76. Bacteria without flagella are known as :

1. Monotrichous
2. Lophotrichous
3. Peritrichous
4. Atrichous.

Answer: 4. Atrichous.

Question 77. Chromoplasm is part of protoplast in :

1. Actinomycetes
2. Myxobacteria
3. Cyanobacteria
4. Eubacteria.

Answer: 3. Cyanobacteria

Question 78. Which of the following is not a bacterial action?

1. sewage disposal
2. Ripening of cheese
3. nitrogen fixation
4. Precipitation.

Answer: 4. Precipitation.

Kingdom Monera NEET MCQ Question 79. The vinegar is prepared from sugary molasses by the activities of:

1. Fa; diplococcus
2. FB; acetobacter acetic
3. Staphylococcus
4. B. Subtilis.

Answer: 2. Fb; acetobacter acetic

Question 80. Genophore is made up of:

1. Rna arid histones
2. Histones and non-histones
3. A single-stranded dna
4. A double-stranded dna.

Answer: 4. A double-stranded dna.

Question 81. In rice fields, the soil fertility can be improved by :

1. Rhizobium
2. Sod. Chloride
3. Gypsum
4. Blue-green algae.

Answer: 4. Blue-green algae.

Question 82. Which it billowing is with denitrification

1. Uhiobinm
2. Srudomnuns
3. Otohacler
4. Khodospirillum.

Answer: 2. Srudomnuns

Question 83. Which of the following cells is a prokaryote

1. Bacterium
2. Virus
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Green algae.

Answer: 1. Bacterium

Question 84. Peptidoglycan forms many layers in the wall of:

1. Gram-ve bacteria
2. Gram neutral bacteria
3. Gram -i-ve bacteria
4. All of them.

Answer: 3. Gram -i-ve bacteria

Question 85. Which era is dubbed the age of prokaryotic microbes?

1. Palaeozoic
2. Proterozoic
3. Precambrian
4. Archaeozoic.

Answer: 4. Archaeozoic.

Question 86. Sexual reproduction is absent in:

1. Ulothrix
2. Volvox
3. Spirogyra
4. Nostoc.

Answer: 4. Nostoc.

Kingdom Monera NEET MCQ Question 87. Salmonellosis is the process of:

1. Food poisoning by bacteria
2. Reproduction by bacteria
3. Manifestation of typhoid
4. Decomposition by bacteria.

Answer: 1. Food poisoning by bacteria

Question 88. Meningitis a disease that is responsible for membrane damage of the brain is caused by :

1. Neisseria
2. A fungus
3. Bacillus
4. Bordetella.

Answer: 1. Neisseria

Question 89. Which of the following bacterium converts the sucrose into dextrin

1. Spirillum solutions
2. Leuconostoc mesenteroids
3. Bacillus megatherium
4. Both 1 and 2.

Answer: 2. Leuconostoc mesenteries

Question 90. When bacteria are rod-like and cubical packet of 8 cocci, are called as:

1. Bacilli and sarcina
2. Spirilla and cocci
3. Sarcina and vibrio
4. Spirilla and sarcina.

Answer: 1. Bacilli and sarcina

Question 91. Whose cell wall dissolves by antibiotic action :

1. Bacteria
2. L-form bacteria
3. Mycoplasma
4. Actinomycetes.

Answer: 2. L-form bacteria

Kingdom Monera NEET MCQ Question 92. Special taste is developed in the tea leaves by fermentative action of:

1. Mycococcus candisans
2. Megatherium micrococcus
3. Bacillus megatherium
4. Clostridium acetobutylicum.

Answer: 1. Mycococcus candisans

Question 93. An episome in bacteria is:

1. Nutritional factor
2. Sex factor
3. Cofactor
4. None of these.

Answer: 2. Sex factor

Question 94. Aureomycin and chloramphenicol are obtained from :

1. Strcptomyces aureofaciens and s. Ramosus
2. S. Venezuelae and s.rimosus
3. S. Aureofaciens and s.fradiae
4. S. Aureofaciens and s. Venezuela.

Answer: 4. S. Aureofaciens and s. Venezuela.

Question 95. Chloramphenicol ami erythromycin (broad speetmm antibiotics Produced by:

1. Rhizobium cnieillmm
2. Strcptomyccs
3. Niirobnetct.

Answer: 3. Niirobnetct.

Question 96. Spiroplasms arc also walks nipple layered unit membrane-covered orgasms like mycoplasma but they differ from them in being :

1. Non-infections
2. Satisfying Koeh’s postulates
3. Motile and helical filamentous
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Motile and helical filamentous

Question 97. Term spiroplastna was suggested by:

1. Pavis and Worley
2. Worley
3. Davis
4. Ehrenberg.

Answer: 1. Pavis and Worley

Question 98. Rhizosphere bacteria are present around the;

1. Leaf surface
2. Floral surface
3. Root surface
4. Shoot surface.

Answer: 3. Shoot surface.

Question 99. A mixture of bacteria, viruses, and mycoplasma is drained through a filter with 450 pore size which of these would not pass through:

1. Virus
2. Mycoplasma
3. Bacteria
4. All of these.

Answer: 3. Bacteria

Question 100. A chain of spherical bacteria is called streptococci. When spherical cocci are found in grape-like irregular aggregates, they are called :

1. Sarcinae
2. Staphylococci
3. Palisade
4. Streptobacilli.

Answer: 2. Staphylococci

Biological Classification MCQ For NEET Question 101. A cubical packet of 8 cocci is called:

1. Staphylococcus
2. Vibrio
3. Gaffkva
4. Sarcina.

Answer: 4. Sarcina.

Question 102. Monerans are plants because they have :

1. Ability to synthesize vitamins
2. Rigid cell wall
3. Both  and
4. None of the above.

Answer:  3. Both  and

Question 103. “Bacillus thuringiensis is used to control:

1. Bacterial pathogens
2. Fungal pathogens
3. Nematodes
4. Insect pests.

Answer: 4. Insect pests.

Question 104. Penicillin kills bacteria by :

1. Suppression of cell wall synthesis
2. Lysis of protoplasm
3. Interfering with RNA synthesis
4. Inhibiting dna synthesis.

Answer: 1. Suppression of cell wall synthesis

Question 105. Which of the following antibiotics is more a research tool rather than used for clinical purposes :

1. Penicillin
2. Terramycin
3. Actinomycin-d
4. None of these.

Answer: 3. Actinomycin-d

Biological Classification MCQ For NEET Question 106. Doxycycline treatment cures :

1. Aids caused by virus
2. Polio caused by virus
3. Measles caused by virus
4. Male sterility caused by mycoplasma.

Answer: 4. Male sterility caused by mycoplasma.

Question 107. Wall is not pirseni in :

1. Mycoplasma
2. Aciiiiomycclcs
3. Vituses
4. L.-Loim baelcria.

Answer: 1. Mycoplasma

Question 108. Penicillin and vancomycin do not ail late mycoplasma because :

1. Prokaryotic and unicellular
2. Eukaryotic and unicellular
3. There is no nucleus
4. There is no cell wall.

Answer: 4. There is no cell wall.

Question 109. Llypersaline and hyperthermal aquatic environments are inhabited mostly by :

1. Eubacteria
2. Micro fungi
3. Cyanobacteria
4. Archacbactcria.

Answer: 4. Archacbactcria.

Question 110. Peritrichous bacteria have :

1. Flagella all over the body
2. Tuft of flagella at one end
3. Tuft of flagella at both ends
4. Single flagellum at one end.

Answer: 1. Flagella all over the body

Question 111. A bacterial cell contains :

1. Mesosomes, Golgi bodies, and nucleoid
2. Mesosomes and Golgi bodies
3. Mesosomes and nucleoid
4. Golgi bodies and nucleoids.

Answer: 3. Mesosomes and nucleoid

Biological Classification MCQ For NEET Question 112. To develop flavor and taste in tobacco, leaves are processed with bacterium:

1. Mycococcus candisans
2. Megatherium micrococcus
3. Aerobacter
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Megathenium micrococcus

Question 113. Magnesium ribonuclease is present in :

1. Gram (+) ve bacteria
2. Gram (-) ve bacteria
3. Both 1 and 2
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Gram (+) ve bacteria

Question 114. The bacterial decomposition of nitrogenous organic compounds in the absence of abundant oxygen usually results in the formation of substances of offensive odor, chiefly sulfur compounds. Such anaerobic decomposition is called :

1. Nitrification
2. Denitrification
3. Putrefaction
4. N2 fixation.

Answer: 3. Putrefaction

Question 115. Bacteria were called ‘tiny animalcules’ by Leeuwenhoek who discovered them from tartar scrapped from teeth. Who coined the term bacteria:

1. Ehrenberg
2. Nageli
3. Pasteur
4. Koch.

Answer: 1. Ehrenberg

Question 116. Name the bacterium that gets its energy from fermentation and if oxygen is given, it dies:

1. Obligate aerobe
2. Facultative anaerobe
3. Obligate anaerobe
4. Aerobe.

Answer: 3. Obligate anaerobe

Question 117. During gram’s staining :

1. Gram (+) ve bacteria take crystal violet stain
2. All bacteria take crystal violet stain
3. Only gram (-) ve bacteria take crystal violet stain
4. Gram (-) ve bacteria lose this stain after alcohol treatment.

Answer: 4. Gram (-) ve bacteria lose this stain after alcohol treatment.

Question 118. Compared to gram(-) bacteria. Gram (+) vc bacteria:

1. Are more resistant to antibiotics
2. Have more complex cell walls
3. Have less muicopcptidc
4. Retain crystal violet dye even after alcohol treatment.

Answer: 4. Have more complex cell walls

Question 119. Cyanobacteria living inside (the protozoans are called:

1. Cyanellc
2. Blue-green algae
3. Mvxophyceac
4. Euglenoids.

Answer: 1. Cyanellc

Question 120. The true diploid condition in bacteria is not obtained due to the reasons:

1. Only a part of a chromosome is transferred to the female cell
2. Introduced dna merely adds to the original dna of the female cell
3. Introduced dna replaces a part of the original dna of the female cell
4. All of the above.

Answer: 1. Only a part of a chromosome is transferred to the female cell

Most Important MCQs on Monera Question 121. Water bloom occurs mainly due to the presence of:

1. Cyanobacteria
2. Insects
3. Bacteria
4. Red algae.

Answer: 1. Cyanobacteria

Question 122. Which one of the following is a false statement regarding plasmids:

1. Plasmids are extrachromosomal materials found in bacterial cells
2. Most plasmids can be transmitted from cell to cell by infection without bringing about the death of host cells
3. Plasmids can be integrated into the host chromosomes
4. Plasmids are integrated but inert parts of the genetic element.

Answer: 2. Most plasmids can be transmitted from cell to cell by infection without bringing about the death of host cells

Question 123. Which of the following is a bacterial disease?

1. Club rot disease of cotton
2. Angular leaf spot disease of cotton
3. Leaf spot disease of turmeric
4. Wilt disease of tomato.

Answer: 2. Angular leaf spot disease of cotton

Question 124. Which of the following causes crown gall in plants :

1. Erwinia carotovora
2. Pseudomonas solanacearum
3. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
4. Xanthomonas malvacearum.

Answer: 3. Pseudomonas solanacearum

Question 125. Match the terms in column I with those in column d:

1. 1-C,2-B,3-A,4-D
2. 1-C,2-A,3-B,4-D
3. 1-C,2-D,3-A,4-B
4. 1-C,2-A,3-D,4-B

Answer: 4. 1-C,2-A,3-D,4-B

Question 126. Which of the following pairs is/arc correctly matched:

1. E.coli— circular dna
2. Tobacco mosaic virus—single-stranded RNA
3. Rcovirus—double-stranded RNA

Select the correct answer using the codes given below Codes:

1. A alone
2. A, b and c
3. A and c
4. B and c.

Answer: 2. A, b and c

Most Important MCQs on Monera Question 127. Match list 1 wish list 2 and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists-

1. 1-A,2-B,3-C,4-D
2. 1-D,2-A,3-B,4-C
3. 1-C,2-B,3-A,4-D
4. 1-B,2-C,3-D,4-A

Answer: 2. 1-D,2-A,3-B,4-C

Question 128. Wine turns sour because of :

1. By fermentation of sugar by lactobacillus
2. By fermentation of sugar by Aspergillus
3. By fermentation of sugar by saccharomyces cerevisiae
4. Is a two-step process, first involving fermentation of sugar by yeast and second involving fermentation of ethyl alcohol by acetic acid bacteria.

Answer: 4. Is a two-step process, first involving fermentation of sugar by yeast and second involving fermentation of ethyl alcohol by acetic acid bacteria.

Question 129. Clear areas of agar plates containing phage particles as well as bacteria are called:

1. Bacteriophage
2. Transparencies
3. Plaques
4. Holes.

Answer: 3. Plaques

Question 130. Bacteria do not have a major role in the production of the following

1. Coffee
2. B-complex
3. Cheese
4. Bread.

Answer: 4. Bread.

Question 131. Episome or f factor is the extrachromosomal genetic material of bacteria, useful in:

1. Control of essential characters
2. Genetic recombination
3. Formation of endospores
4. Nitrogen fixation.

Answer: 2. Genetic recombination

Question 132. A scientist wants to try to grow a culture of an animal virus. Which of the following would most likely be a suitable cultural medium?

1. Boiled and cooled water with minerals and vitamins added.
2. Sterile jelly made with malt and agar.
3. An infertile egg.
4. Living chick embryos.

Answer: 4. A living chick embryo.

NEET Biology Biotechnology And Its Applications Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. How many recombinant therapeutics have been approved for human use the world over?

1. 12
2. 30
3. 20
4. 18

Answer: 2. 30

Question 2. Which of the following techniques serve the purpose of early diagnosis?

1. Recombinant DNA technology
2. PCR
3. ELISA

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. 2 and 3.

Answer: 4. 2 and 3

Question 3. Which of the following techniques is based upon the principle of antigen-antibody interaction?

1. PCR
2. ELISA
3. Recombinant DNA technology
4. RNA interference.

Answer: 2. ELISA

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 4. Which of the following transgenic protein products has been used to treat emphysema?

1. α-1-antitrypsin
2. a-Lactalbuniin
3. Cry protein
4. C-peptide.

Answer: 1. α-1-antitrypsin

Biotechnology and its Applications Zoology NEET Question 5. The Bt toxin gene has been cloned from the bacteria and expressed in plants to provide resistance to insects without the need for insecticides. Select these resistant plants from the given list.

1. Cotton
2. Corn
3. Rice
4. Tomato
5. Potato
6. Soyabean

1. 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. 2, 3, 4 and 5
3. 1, 2, 5 and 6
4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 6. Which of the following is/are correct about the process of RNA interference?

1. This is used to prevent the infestation of protozoans.
2. It takes place in some eukaryotic and all prokaryotic organisms as a method of cellular defense.
3. The method involves silencing a specific mRNA due to a complementary dsRNA molecule.
4. It is a novel strategy to produce pest-resistant plants

1. 3 and 4
2. 2, 3 and 4
3. 1 and 3
4. 3 only

Answer: 1. 3 and 4

Question 7. Which ingredient was present in high concentrations in genetically modified (GM) rice as compared to the usual rice?

1. Protein
2. Carbohydrates
3. Na⁺ ions
4. Vitamin A.

Answer: 4. Vitamin A.

Question 8. Animals that have had their DNA manipulated to possess and express an extra gene are known as:

1. Foreign animals
2. Superior animals
3. Transgenic animals
4. Intergenic animals.

Answer: 3. Transgenic animals

Biotechnology and its Applications Zoology NEET Question 9. About 95 percent of all existing transgenic animals are

1. Rabbits
2. Pigs
3. Crovs
4. Mice

Answer: 4. Mice

Question 10. Today, transgenic models exist for many human diseases which include:

1. Cancer
2. Cystic fibrosis
3. Rheumatoid arthritis
4. Alzheimer’s disease.

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1, 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4.

Answer: 4. 1, 2, 3 and 4.

Question 11. Which of the following is not a true statement with respect to Bt cotton?

1. Bt toxin is produced by a bacterium Hticillus tliuringH’nsix
2. It is an example of bio-pesticide
3. Bt toxin gene has been cloned in plants to provide resistance to insects
4. Bt cotton could decrease the amount of pesticide used.

Answer: 3. Bt toxin gene has been cloned in plants to provide resistance to insects

Question 12. Match the following genes in Column-A with the insect that can be protected from with their coded protein in Column-B.

1. 1(A), 2(C), 3(B)
2. 1(B), 2(A), 3(C)
3. 1(A), 2(B), 3(C)
4. 1(B), 2(C), 3(A).

Answer: 1. 1(A), 2(C), 3(B)

NEET Questions Biotechnology And Its Application Question 13. Which protein would you like to be produced by genetic engineering as a cure for diseases like emphysema?

1. α-1-antitrypsin
2. Trypsin
3. Chymotrypsin
4. All of the above are required.

Answer: 1. α-1-antitrypsin

Question 14. ‘Rosie’ a transgenic cow is known to produce a type of milk that has all the following characteristics except:

1. Proteimeontent of 2.4 gm/litre
2. Has human α-lactalbumin
3. More balanced diet than normal cow milk for babies
4. Was produced for the first time in the year 2001.

Answer: 4. Was produced for the first time in the year 2001.

Question 15. According to the latest estimates, how many documented varieties of Basmati rice are grown in India?

1. 30
2. 27
3. 118
4. 125.

Answer: 2. 27

Question 16. An anti-bacterial compound that prevents mastitis in cows is:

1. α-1-antitrypsin
2. Lysostaphin
3. Lysozyme
4. Alginate lyase.

Answer: 2. Lysostaphin

NEET Questions Biotechnology And Its Application Question 17. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to Bioweapons

1. They are low-cost weapons
2. They cause more casualties than conventional weapons
3. They are extremely difficult to detect
4. Bacterium E. coli created a later scare in 2001.

Answer: 4. Bacterium E. coli was created later in 2001

Question 18. A set of standards by which a community regulates its behavior and activities in relation to the biological world is termed as:

1. Biopatent
2. Biopiracy
3. Patent
4. Biocthic.

Answer: 4. Biocthic.

Question 19. Nexia biotechnologies spliced spider genes into the cells of lactating:

1. Cow
2. Sheep
3. Goat
4. None of these.

Answer: 3. Goat

Question 20. How many varieties of rice have been estimated to be present in India’?

1. 2.000
2. 20,000
3. 200,000
4. 2,000,000.

Answer: 3. 200,000

NEET Questions Biotechnology And Its Application Question 21. The use of bioresources by multinational companies and other organizations without proper authorization from the countries and people concerned without compensatory’ payment is called:

1. Bioethics
2. Biopiracy
3. Bioterror
4. Bioweapon.

Answer: 2. Biopiracy

Question 22. Amongst the following which characteristics is not applicable to Bt cotton?

1. Bt is the abbreviated term for botulinum toxin
2. Such cotton is resistant to armyworms and beetles
3. The toxin is activated in the body of the insect
4. The toxin is coded by a gene called ‘cry’.

Answer: 1. Bt is the abbreviated term for botulinum toxin

Question 23. Which biotechnology company is credited with the synthesis of genetically engineered human insulin for the first time?

1. Celera genomics
2. Cipla
3. Eli Lily
4. Ranbaxy.

Answer: 3. Eli Lily

NEET Questions Biotechnology And Its Application Question 24. Pick the odd one out

1. DNA micro-injection
2. RNA interference
3. Retrovirus-mediated gene transfer
4. Embryonic stem cell-mediated gene transfer.

Answer: 2. RNA interference

Question 25. In Xenotransplantation, a protein that causes graft rejection comes usually from transgenic

1. Cow
2. Mice
3. Pig
4. Sheep.

Answer: 3. Pig

Question 26. Transgenics have provided many pharmaceuticals in their milk, for the treatment of diseases. Which of the following has not been a successful story?

1. Phenylketonuria
2. SCID
3. Emphysema (hereditary)
4. CFTR.

Answer: 2. SCID

Question 27. Which is not true with respect to transgenic animals and their contribution to human welfare?

1. Transgenic mice are being tested to ensure the safety of the polio vaccine
2. Rosie’s milk contained the human gene insulin
3. Transgenic cows produce milk with less lactose
4. Transgenic sheep grow more wool.

Answer: 2. Rosie’s milk contained the human gene insulin

Question 28. The functional ADA cDNA can be introduced into the cells of the patient receiving gene therapy by using a vector constituted by

1. E. coli
2. Reovirus
3. Retrovirus
4. Agrobacterium.

Answer: 3. Retrovirus

Biotechnology and Its Applications Biology NEET Question 29. Which variety office was patented by a U.S. company even though the highest number of varieties of this rice is found in India?

1. Sharbati Sonora
2. Co-667
3. Basmati
4. Lerma Roja.

Answer: 3. Basmati

Question 30. Which step of Government of India has taken to cater to the requirement of patent terms and other emergency provisions in this regard?

1. Biopiracy act
2. Indian patents bill
3. RTI act
4. Negotiable Instruments Act.

Answer: 2. Indian patents bill

Question 31. What is another term used for GMO (Genetically Modified Organisms)?

1. Cybrid organisms
2. Geromorphic organisms
3. Transgenic organisms
4. Conjoint twins.

Answer: 3. Transgenic organisms

Question 32. Which one of the following can be used as a permanent cure for ADA deficiency?

1. Bone marrow transplantation upon detection of disorder in adult
2. Enzyme replacement therapy at any point in life
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Gene therapy at early embryonic stages.

Answer: 4. Gene therapy at early embryonic stages.

Biotechnology and Its Applications Biology NEET Question 33. Which of the following is a transgenic product useful for the treatment of Haemophilia?

1. Factor 8
2. Antithrombin 2
3. α-1 -antitrypsin
4. Lysostaphin.

Answer: 1. Factor 8

Question 34. Who is responsible for obtaining interferons through recombinant DNA technique?

1. A.R. Bunting
2. Eli Lily
3. A. Tiselius.
4. Charles Weissmann

Answer: 3. A. Tiselius

Question 35. Select the incorrect statement

1. RNAi silencing takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of cellular defense
2. RNAi requires silencing of mRNA by binding of complementary ssDNA molecule
3. Complementary nucleic acid could be from mobile genetic elements (transposons)
4. Ti plasmid with nematode-specific genes have been used in RNAi.

Answer: 2. RNAi requires silencing of mRNA by binding of complementary ssDNA molecule

Biotechnology and It’s Applications Biology NEET Question 36. Identify the correct match for the given columns.

1. 1(D),2(C), 3(B), 4(A)
2. 1(A),2(C), 3(D), 4(B)
3. 1(D),2(B), 3(A), 4(C)
4. 1(B),2(B), 3(D), 4(A)

Answer: 1. 1(D),2(C), 3(B), 4(A)

Question 37. Rules of conduct that may be used to regulate our activities in relation to the biological world is called

1. Bioethics
2. Biowar
3. Biopatent
4. Biopiracy.

Answer: 1. Bioethics

Question 38. Transgenic mice are being used to test the safety of:

1. Polio vaccine
2. BCG vaccine
3. Antitrypsin
4. Hepatitis B vaccine.

Answer: 1. Polio vaccine

Biotechnology and It’s Applications Biology NEET Question 39. Which genes encode the protein to control bollworm infection in cotton plants?

1. Cry 2 Ab
2. Cry 1 Ac
3. Both (1) and (3)
4. Amp^r.

Answer: 3. Both (1) and (3)

Question 40. Which is Incorrect with respect to GM foods?

1. It contains the protein produced by the transgene in question
2. GM food contains antibiotic resistance gene itself
3. The enzyme produced by antibiotic resistance gene will not cause allergies
4. The bacteria is the gut of humans could be taken by antibiotic resistance genes.

Answer: 3. The enzyme produced by antibiotic resistance gene will not cause allergies

Question 41. Golden rice – a transgenic variety of rice is principally richer than normal rice in:

1. Cry 1 Ab
2. Hirudin
3. TPA
4. β-carotene.

Answer: 4. β-carotene.

Question 42. Southern blotting can’t be performed without

1. Restriction endonucleases
2. Agarose
3. Monoclonal antibodies
4. Both (1) and (2).

Answer: 4. Both (1) and (2).

Question 43. Crystals of Bt toxin produced by some bacteria do not kill the bacteria themselves because:

1. Bacteria are resistant to the toxin
2. Toxin exists as a toxoid
3. Toxins exist as protoxins
4. Bacteria enclose toxins in a special sac.

Answer: 3. Toxins exist as protoxins

Question 44. What is the permanent curve of adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency in children?

1. Bone marrow transplantation.
2. Enzyme replacement therapy in which functional ADA is given to the patient by injection.
3. Infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes (in which functional ADA-cDNA is introduced) into the patient’s body.
4. Introduction of gene isolated from bone marrow cells producing ADA, into cells at early embryonic stages.

Answer: 4. Introduction of gene isolated from bone marrow cells producing ADA, into cells at early embryonic stages.

Question 45. Which gene controls the transcription of chain A and chain B required for humulin synthesis in E. coli?

1. β-lactamase
2. β-galactosidase
3. Poly galacturonic
4. Chitinase.

Answer: 3. Poly galacturonic

Question 46. Transgenic Brassica napus has been used for the synthesis of

1. Hirudin
2. Heparin
3. Polygalacturonase
4. Cry protein.

Answer: 1. Hirudin

Question 47. Which of these participates in the manufacturing of dextrans:

1. Mucor
2. Lactobacillus
3. Leuconostoc
4. Pseudomonas.

Answer: 3. Leuconostoc

Question 48. Which of the following is used for the manufacture of cosmetics?

1. Serotonin
2. Cholesterol
3. Shikonin
4. Keratin.

Answer: 3. Shikonin

Question 49. The technique by which virus detection can be made both in plants and animals is known as:

1. Enzyme-linked immunoabsorbent assay (ELISA)
2. Electrophoresis
3. Electron microscopy
4. Immunofluorescence

Answer: 1. Enzyme-linked immunoabsorbent assay (ELISA)

Question 50. Streptokinase (TPA) helps in:

1. Clearing blood clots
2. Increasing plasma
3. Dissolving tissues
4. Increasing O.P. of the cell.

Answer: 1. Clearing blood clots

Question 51. The enzyme diastase was identified by:

1. Payen and Persoz
2. Waksman
3. Christian Hansen
4. Alexander Fleming.

Answer: 1. Payen and Persoz

Question 52. The immobilization of the enzyme is achieved by:

1. Killing the cells without affecting enzymes
2. Attaching the enzymes covalently to a solid support
3. Entrapping the living cells in a gel
4. All of these.

Answer: 4. All of these.

Question 53. Interferons are:

1. Proteins released in minute quantities by animals or plant cells, on being infected with a virus
2. Proteins synthesized in large quantities by cells actively engaged in synthesis
3. Hormones released by cells in small quantities which influence some of the various physiological activities
4. Defensive mechanism.

Answer: 1. Proteins released in minute quantities by animals or plant cells, on being infected with the virus

Question 54. Magic bullets are:

1. Interferons
2. Vaccines
3. Monoclonal
4. Antigen-antibody cells, antibodies

Answer: 3. Monoclonal

Question 55. Cheese contains:

1. Proteins 20-35%, fats 20-3%
2. Fats 20-35%, protein 20-30%
3. Proteins double than fats
4. Fats double proteins.

Answer: 1. Proteins 20-35%, fats 20-3%

Question 56. The hybridoma technique was developed by:

1. Louis Pasteur
2. Edward Jenner
3. Georges Kohler
4. Burnet. and Caser Milstein

Answer: 3. Georges Kohler

Question 57. Some of the steps involved in the production of humulin are given below. Choose the correct sequence.

1. Synthesis of the gene (DNA) for human insulin artificially.
2. Culturing recombinant E. coli in bioreactors.
3. Purification of humulin.
4. Insertion of human insulin gene into a plasmid.
5. Introduction of recombinant plasmid into E. coli.
6. Extraction of recombinant gene product from E. coli.

1. 2, 1, 4, 3, 5, 6
2. 1, 3, 5, 6, 2, 4
3. 1, 4, 5, 2, 6, 3
4. 3, 5, 2, 1, 6, 4

Answer: 3. 1, 4, 5, 2, 6, 3

NEET Biology Muscular System Multiple-Choice Questions

Question 1. Abductors Are Antagonists Of :

1. Adductors
2. Extensors
3. Tlexois
4. None Of These.

Answer: 1. Adductors

Question 2. The Non Striated Muscles are also referred to As The :

1. Cardiac Muscle
2. Voluntary Muscle
3. Skeletal Muscle
4. Involuntary Muscle.

Answer: 4. Involuntary Muscle.

Question 3. Fach Satvomcrc Consists Of Regularly Arranged Thick And Thin:

1. Carbohydrate Filaments
2. Fat Filaments
3. Protein Filaments
4. Vitamin Filaments.

Answer:  3. Protein Filaments

Question 4. The Dark Band Of The Protein Filament Is Called The :

1. Anisotropic Band
2. Isotonic Band
3. Isometric Band
4. Isotropic Band.

Answer: 1. Anisotropic Band

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions On Muscular System For NEET Question 5. The Light Band Of The Protein Filament Is Called The :

1. Isotaipic Band
2. Isotonic Band
3. Isometric Band
4. Anisotropic Band.

Answer: 1. Isotaipic Band

Question 6. The Term ‘Refractory Period’ Concerning Muscle Tissue Refers To :

1. A Period When Stimulation Does Not Lead To Contraction
2. A Period When Maximal Contraction Occurs
3. Time Gap Between Application Of Stimulus And Occurrence Of Contraction
4. Loss Of Translucency In Muscle Fibres Due To Death Of Animal.

Answer: 1. A Period When Stimulation Does Not Lead To Contraction

Question 7. The Largest Muscle Of The Body Is :

1. Biceps
2. Gluteus Maximus
3. Triceps
4. Quadriceps.

Answer: 2. Gluteus Maximus

Question 8. Cori’s Cycle Operates In :

1. Liver
2. Liver And Muscles
3. Nerve
4. Muscles.

Answer: 2. Liver And Muscles

Question 9. The Muscle Used In Straightening A Limb Is Called :

1. Elevator
2. Flexor
3. Extensor
4. Depressor.

Answer: 3. Extensor

Multiple Choice Questions On Muscular System For NEET Question 10. Heart Beat Is Controlled By Specialized Muscles Whose Fibres Are Called :

1. Purkinje Fibres
2. Myonemes
3. Telodendria
4. Collagen Fibres.

Answer: 1. Purkinje Fibres

Question 11. Rigor Mortis Is Due To :

1. Leakage Of Calcium Out Of The Sarcoplasmic Reticulum After Death
2. Lack Of ATP
3. Death Of The Motor Neuron
4. Loss Of Electrical Potential Difference Across The Sarcolemma.

Answer: 2. Lack Of ATP

Question 12. The Extent Of Contraction Of A Mammalian Skeletal Muscle Is Controlled By :

1. Interaction Of Excitatory And Inhibitory Nervous Input To Individual Fibres
2. Contraction Of Some Sacromeres In A Muscle Fibre But Not Others
3. Contraction Of Some Entire Muscle Fibres While Others Remain Relaxed
4. All Of The Above.

Answer: 3. Contraction Of Some Entire Muscle Fibres While Others Remain Relaxed

Question 13. Krause’s Membrane Is:

1. Z-Disc
2. Sarcolemma
3. T-System
4. Neuromuscular Junction.

Answer: 1. Z-Disc

Question 14. Muscle Fatigue Is Due To Accumulation Of:

1. Adp
2. HCL
3. 1actic Acid
4. Creatine.

Answer: 3.  1actic Acid

MCQ on Muscular System Question 15. Which One Of The Following Proteins Is Both Structural And Enzymatic?

1. Actin
2. Troponin
3. Myosin
4. Trypsin.

Answer: 2. Troponin

Question 16. Muscles Arc Derived From Embryonic :

1. Endoderm
2. Ectoderm
3. Mesoderm
4. All Of These.

Answer: 3. Mesoderm

Question 17. The Immediate Source Of Energy For Muscle Contraction Is:

1. NADH₂
2. ATP
3. Glucose
4. Pyruvic Acid.

Answer: 2. ATP

Question 18. For Each Phase Below, Give The, Type (S) Of Muscle That Show The Characteristic :

A. Syncytial                                                           1. Cardiac

B. Innervated By Autonomic Nervous System      2. Skeletal

C. Can Contract Without Nervous Stimulation     3. Smooth

D. Typically Found In Sheets Rather In Bundles.

Select The Correct Combinations :

1. A-2,  B-2,3,   C-1,   D-3
2. A-2,  B-1,     C-3,    D-2
3. A-2,  B-1,3   C-1,    D-3
4. A-3,  B-1,     C-1,3   D-3.

Answer: 1. A-2,  B-2,3,  C-1,  D-3

Question 19. Striated Muscles Contract By :

1. Sliding Of Actin Filament Upon Myosin Filaments
2. Sliding Of Myosin Filaments Upon Actin Filaments
3. Pulling Together Of Myosin’filaments
4. Pulling Together Of Actin Filaments.

Answer: 1. Sliding Of Actin Filament Upon Myosin Filaments

MCQ on Muscular System Question 20. Heart Muscles Are Called :

1. Skeletal
2. Visceral
3. Cardiac
4. Smooth.

Answer: 3. Cardiac

Question 21. A Striped Muscle Fibre Has:

1. No Nucleus
2. Many Nuclei
3. Two Nuclei
4. One Nucleus.

Answer: 2. Many Nuclei

Question 22. What Happens To The Muscle Due To Strenuous Exercise?

1. Glucose Is Converted To Glycogen
2. Fat Is Converted To Protein.
3. Glucose Is Converted To Protein
4. Pyruvic Acid Is Converted Intojuetic Acid.

Answer: 4. Pyruvic Acid Is Converted Intojuetic Acid.

Question 23. Strongest Muscles In Human Body Are Found In :

1. Jaws
2. Thighs
3. Neck
4. Hands.

Answer: 1. Jaws

Question 24. Cardiac Muscles Are Striped Muscles With Fibres Being :

1. Syncytial And Voluntary
2. Multinucleated And Involuntary
3. Nucleated Aiul Voluntary
4. Nucleated And Involuntary.

Answer: 1. Syncytial And Voluntary

Skeletal Muscle Basic Anatomy NEET Questions Question 25. Cardiac Muscles Contract :

1. Slowly And Get Fatigued
2. Quickly And Gel Fatigued
3. Slowly And Do Not Get Fatigued
4. Quickly And Do Not Gel Fatigue.

Answer: 4. Quickly And Do Not Gel Fatigued

Question 26. The Muscles Which Bring About The Movements Of The Body Are :

1. Smooth
2. Striated
3. Cardiac
4. Smooth And Striated Both.

Answer: 2. Striated

Question 27. The Distance Or Length Of The Myofibril Between Two Adjacent Z-Bands Is Called :

1. Sarcomere
2. Sarcolemma
3. Fibril
4. Sarcoplasm.

Answer: 1. Sarcomere

Question 28. The Smallest Functional Unit Of Striated Muscles Is Called :

1. Sarcomere
2. Myosin
3. Neurilemma
4. ATP-Molecule.

Answer: 1. Sarcomere

Question 29. In A Relaxed Fibril, H-Zone—A Lighter Region Of Low Density Can Be Seen In The Centre Of:

1. Anisotropic Or A-Band
2. Isotropic Or I-Band
3. Z-Band.
4. Both In A And I-Bands.

Answer: 1.  Anisotropic Or A-Band

Skeletal Muscle Basic Anatomy NEET Questions Question 30. The Myofilaments Which Make A Myofibril Are :

1. Only Primary Or Thick
2. Only Secondary Or Thin
3. Both Primary And Secondary
4. Medullated.

Answer: 3. Both Primary And Secondary

Question 31. The Number Of Secondary Filaments That Surround A Primary Filament In A Myofibril Is :

1. 4
2. 6
3. 8
4. 10.

Answer: 2. 6

Question 32. The Dark Bands In A Myofibril Are Due To Overlapping Of:

1. Only Thick Bands
2. Only Thin Bands.
3. Both Thick And Thin Bands
4. None Of The Above.

Answer: 3. Both Thick And Thin Bands

Question 33. The Light Bands In A Myofibril Are Due To The Overlapping Of:

1. Primary Bands
2. Secondary Bands
3. Both Primary And Secondary Bands
4. None Of The Above.

Answer: 2. Secondary Bands

Question 34. The Special Contractile Protein Actin Is Found In :

1. Thick Filaments Of A-Bands
2. Thin Filaments Of I-Bands
3. Both Thick And Thin Filaments
4. Whole Of Myofibril.

Answer: 2. Thin Filaments Of I-Bands

Question 35. The Thick Filaments Of A-Bands Contain A Special Contractile Protein Called :

1. Actin
2. Myosin
3. Ossein
4. Both Actin And Myosin.

Answer: 2. Myosin

Muscle Locomotion and Movement Class Biology MCQ Question 36. The Cross-Bridges In A Myofibril Arise As The Heads Of Molecules Of:

1. Lyosin
2. Actin
3. Tropomyosin
4. Elastin.

Answer: 1. Lyosin

Question 37. The Lime Interval Between Two Subsequent Contractions Of A Muscle Fibre During Which A Muscle Fibre Does Not Respond To A Stimulus Is Called :

1. Incubation Period
2. Refractory Period
3. Gestation Period
4. Excitatory Period.

Answer: 2. Refractory Period

Question 38. The Simple, Single Muscular Contraction Caused By A Single Short Stimulus Is Called :

1. Tendon
2. Twitch
3. Refractory Period
4. Tetanus.

Answer: 2. Twitch

Question 39. The Smooth Sustained Contraction Of A Muscle Due To the Fusion Of Many Twitches Is Called :

1. Tendon
2. Tetanus
3. Muscular Fatigue
4. Rigor Mortis.

Answer: 2. Tetanus

Muscle Locomotion and Movement Class Biology MCQ Question 40. The Contraction Of Muscles After Death Is Called :

1. Rigor Mortis
2. Tetanus
3. Twitch
4. Refraction.

Answer: 1. Rigor Mortis

Question 41. The Diminished Muscular Contraction Ability As A Result Of Prolonged Stimulation Is Called :

1. Twitch
2. Muscle Fatigue
3. Tetanus
4. Rigor Mortis.

Answer: 2. Muscle Fatigue

Question 42. The Muscular Contraction In Which The Tension Of The Muscle Increases Sharply, Length Of the Muscle Remains The Same And No Mechanical Work Is Done Is Called :

1. Isotonic Contraction
2. Tetanus
3. Isometric Contraction
4. Twitch.

Answer: 3. Isometric Contraction

Question 43. The Muscular Contraction In Which The Tension Remains The Same And The Mechanical Work Is Also Done Is Called :

1. Isotonic Contraction
2. Tetanus
3. Isometric Contraction
4. Single-Muscle Twitch.

Answer: 1. Isotonic Contraction

Question 44. The Muscular Fatigue Is Due To The :

1. Lack Of ATP and Lactic Acid
2. Lack Of Glycogen Atp And Lactic Acid
3. Lack Of Lactic Acid And Glycogen
4. Lack Of Glycogen, Atp And Excess Of Lactic Acid.

Answer: 4. Lack Of Glycogen, Atp And Excess Of Lactic Acid

Muscle Locomotion and Movement Class Biology MCQ Question 45. Polio Disease Is A Viral Disease Common In Children. It Affects :

1. Skeleton
2. Nervous System
3. Muscles And Spinal Cord
4. Skeleton And Nervous System.

Answer: 3. Muscles And Spinal Cord

Question 46. Which One Of The Following Acts As Phosphagen In The Vertebrates?

1. Phosphocrcatinc
2. Atp
3. Phosphoric Acid
4. Phosphoaigininc.

Answer: 1. Phosphocrcatinc

Question  47. The Total Weight Of Muscles In An Adult Male Is ;

1. 10 Kg.
2. 30 Kg
3. 50 Kg.
4. 70 Kg

Answer: 2. 30 Kg

Question 48. Minimum Strength Of Stimulus Required To Initiate Muscle Contraction Is :

1. Twitch
2. Threshold
3. Tetany
4. Rigor Mortis.

Answer: 2. Threshold

Question 49.  Biochemical Changes During Muscle Contraction Were Explained By :

1. Huxley And Huxley
2. Huxley. Huxley And Hansen
3. Bohr
4. Albert Szent-Gyorgi.

Answer: 4. Albert Szent-Gyorgi.

Question 50. Contraction Of Which Muscle Draws A Limb Towards Body Line?

1. Abductor
2. Hansen
3. Adductor
4. Triceps

Answer: 3. Adductor

MCQ on Muscular System Question 51. The Erect Posture Of A Man Against Gravity Is Constantly Maintained By :

1. Back
2. Biceps
3. Red Muscles
4. Triceps.

Answer: 3. Red Muscles

Question 52. The Fundamental, Repeating Unit Of Skeletal Myofibril Is The :

1. Motor Unit
2. Myosin Cross Bridge
3. Sarcoplasmic Reticulum
4. Sarcomeres

Answer: 4. Sarcomeres

Question 53. A Contraction Cycle (Muscle Twitch) Consists Of:

1. A Latent Period
2. A Contraction Period
3. A Relaxation Period
4. All The Above.

Answer: 4. All The Above.

Question 54. In Muscle Contraction, Sarcomeres Become Shorter. Which Of The Following Does Not Occur In This Process?

1. Z Lines Come Closer
2. A Bands Shorten
3. I Bands Shorten
4. H Zones Become Narrow.

Answer: 2. A Bands Shorten

MCQ on Muscular System Question 55. According To The Now Established Siiding Filamentmodel Of Muscle Contraction, The Molecules That Move To Shorteii A Muscle Are :

1. Actin
2. Myosin
3. Collagen
4. Creatine Phosphate

Answer: 1. Actin

Question 56. The Neurotransmitter Between A Motor Neuron And Muscle Cell Is :

1. Serotonin
2. Endorphin
3. Dopamine
4. Acetylcholine

Answer: 4. Acetylcholine

Question 57. During Muscle Contraction:

1. Chemical Energy Is Changed Into Electrical Energy
2. Chemical Energy Is Changed Into Mechanical Energy
3. Chemical Energy Is Changed Into Physical Energy
4. Mechanical Energy Is Changed Into Chemical

Answer: 2. Chemical Energy Is Changed Into Mechanical Energy

Question 58. The Ions That Help In Biochemical Events In Muscle Contraction Are :

1. Na⁺ And K⁺⁺
2. Na⁺ And Ca⁺⁺
3. Ca⁺⁺ And Mg₄⁺⁺
4. Na⁺ And Mg⁺⁺.

Answer:  3. Ca⁺⁺ And Mg₄⁺⁺

Question 59. What  Is Not True Of The Primary  Or Thicker Myofilaments?

1. Composed Of Myosin
2. Confined To A Bunds
3. Hem Cross Bridges
4. Joined At Both Ends.

Answer: 4. Joined At Both Ends.

MCQ on Muscular System Question 60. The Ion That Must Lie Present For Binding Of Cross Bridges Is :

1. Ca⁺⁺
2. Na⁺
3. Fe⁺⁺
4. K⁺

Answer:  1. Ca⁺⁺

Question 61. A Body Muscle Is Enclosed By A Sheath Called :

1. Endomysium
2. Perimysium
3. Epimysium
4. Fibroiis Capsule

Answer:  3. Epimysium

Question 62. When Muscle Remains In A Prolonged Contraction, It Is Called:

1. Convulsion
2. Muscle Twitch
3. Tetanus
4. Poliomyelitis.

Answer: 3. Tetanus

Question 63. Sliding Filament Theory Of’musclc Contraction Was Proposed By :

1. Huxley
2. Hansen
3. Bohr
4. Huxley, Huxley And Hansen

Answer: 4. Huxley, Huxley And Hansen

Question 64. Red Muscles Are Found On The Human

1. Back
2. Thorax
3. Abdomen
4. Head

Answer: 1. Back

Skeletal Muscle Basic Anatomy NEET Questions Question 65. Fore Arm Is Brought Towards Upper Arm By

1. Supinator Muscle
2. Depress Or Muscles
3. Biceps
4. Triceps.

Answer: 3. Biceps

Question 66. The instrument Used To Record The Muscle Twitch Is :

1. Myograph
2. Kymograph
3. Electrocardiograph
4. Phonograph

Answer: 2. Kymograph

Question 67. Parapodia Are Locomotory Organs Of:

1. Earthworm
2. Lumbricus
3. Leech
4. Nereis

Answer: 4. Nereis

Question 68. Atlas-Axis Joint Is :

1. Hinge Joint
2. Pivot Joint
3. Angular Joint
4. Saddle Joint

Answer: 2. Pivot Joint

Skeletal Muscle Basic Anatomy NEET Questions Question 69. Locomotion In Star Fish Occurs By :

1. Tentacles
2. Flagella
3. Tube Feet
4. Pseudopodia.

Answer: 3. Tube Feet

Question 70. Which Muscles Move The Fore’limb?

1. Triceps Brachii
2. Dorsal Scapularis
3. Latis Sinus Dorsi
4. Brachialis.

Answer: 4. Brachialis.

Question 71. In Birds Which Flight Muscle Is Well Developed?

1. Alary
2. Biceps
3. Gastrocnemius
4. Pectoralis Major.

Answer: 4. Pectoralis Major.

Question 72. Intercostal Muscles Are Found In :

1. Fingers
2. Thoracic Ribs
3. Femur
4. Radio-Ulna.

Answer: 2. Thoracic Ribs

Skeletal Muscle Basic Anatomy NEET Questions Question 73. Skeletal Or Striped Muscles Art

1. Multinucleated, Cylindrical
2. Syncytial
3. Having Large Number Of Sarcosomes
4. All Of The Above.

Answer: 4. All Of The Above

Question 74. In Muscle Fibres The Endoplasmic Reticulum Is Known As:

1. Sarcoplasmic Reticulum.
2. Poorly Developed
3. Irregular In Shape
4. Seen Only During Protein Synthesis.

Answer: 1. Sarcoplasmic Reticulum

Question 75. Biceps Muscle Connects Humerus With :

1. Radius
2. Ulna
3. Scapula
4. Pectoral Girdle

Answer: 1. Radius

Question 76. Smooth Muscles Air Pirsent In The :

1. Ciliary Body
2. Dermis
3. Iris
4. All Of These

Answer: 4. All OF These

Question 77. The Functional Unit Of The Contiaetlle System In The Striped Muscle Is :

1. 2-Hand
2. A-Band
3. Myofibrils
4. Sarcomere.

Answer: 4. Sarcomere

Question 78. The Total Number Of Muscles In The Body Of Man Is:

1. 409
2. 439
3. 539
4. 639

Answer: 4. 639

Question 79. The Gastrocnemius Muscle Is Attached To :

1. Fore Arm
2. Chest
3. Thigh
4. Shank.

Answer: 4. Shank.

Question 80. Addition Of One Contraction To A Previous One To Produce More Shortening Is :

1. Summation
2. Tetany
3. Fatigue
4. Rigor-Mortis.

Answer: 1. Summation

Question 81. A Sustained Contraction Of Muscle Due To Fusion Of Many Twitches Following Each Other In Succession Is Termed :

1. Tetany
2. Summation
3. Fatigue
4. Rigor-Mortis.

Answer: 1. Tetany

Muscle Locomotion and Movement Class Biology MCQ Question 82. The Muscles Undergo Contraction After Death. This State Of “Dead-Rigor” Is Called :

1. Rigor-Mortis
2. Tetanus
3. Summation
4. Fatigue.

Answer: 1. Rigor-Mortis

Question 83. Cori Cycle Occurs In :

1. Liver
2. Muscles
3. Kidney
4. Both 1 And 2.

Answer: 4. Both 1 And 2.

Question 84. Cori Cycle Is Associated With :

1. Pyruvic Acid
2. Oxalic Acid
3. Lactic Acid
4. Acetic Acid.

Answer: 3. Lactic Acid

Question 85. Contractile Proteins Include :

1. Troponin
2. Tropomyosin
3. Actin And Myosin
4. All The Three.

Answer: 1. Troponin

Question 86. Ciliary Muscles Are Found In :

1. Diaphragm Of A Mammal
2. Eyes Of Vertebrates
3. Heart Of Vertebrates
4. Stomach Of Frog.

Answer: 2. Eyes Of Vertebrates

Question 87. Which Of The Following Structures takes part In Locomotion And As Well As Feeding?

1. Cilia
2. Tentacles
3. Limbs
4. All Of The Above.

Answer: 4. All Of Above.

Question 88. Amoeboid Movement Help In Food Capturing And Change Of Place. Which Of The Following Are Involved In Pseudopodial Locomotion?

1. Microfilament
2. Cytosol
3. Plasma Membrane
4. All Of The Above.

Answer: 1. Microfilament

Muscle Locomotion and Movement Class Biology MCQ Question 89. In Humans, Muscles Constitute About Percent Of Total Body Weight:

1. 10 – 20
2. 20 – 30
3. 30 – 40
4. 40 – 50.

Answer: 4. 40 – 50.

Question 90. Visceral Muscles Are Smooth And Involuntary Except:

1. Gut Muscles
2. Bronchial Muscles
3. Heart Muscles
4. Arterial Muscles.

Answer: 3. Heart Muscles

MCQ on Muscular System Question 91. Which Of The Following Is Not True?

1. Troponin Is A Part Of Thick Filament.
2. Head Of  Myosin Has ATPase Activity
3. Actin Is Present In Thin Filament
4. H-Zone Of Striated Muscle Fibre Represents Both Thick And Thin Filament

Answer: 4. H-Zone Of Striated Muscle Fibre Represents Both Thick And Thin Filament

Question 92. Match Column 1 With Column 2.

1. A – 5, B – 1, C – 3, D – 4
2. A – 4, B – 3, C – 2, D – 1
3. A – 1, B – 2, C – 3, D – 4
4. A – 5, B – 1, C – 2, D – 4.

Answer: 1. A – 5, B – 1, C – 3, D – 4

Question 93. Which Of The Following Is Not True?

1. At The Centre Of A – Band, A Comparatively Less Dark Zone Called H – Zone Is Present
2. In The Centre Of H – Zone, M – Line Is Present
3. Z- Line Is Located At The Centre Of The I – Band
4. The H – Zone Contains Only Thin Filaments.

Answer: 4. The H – Zone Contains Only Thin Filaments.

Question 94. Myosin Molecule Of Muscles Is Formed Of A Tail And Head. The Tail Is Formed Of:

1. T- MM
2. H-MM
3. Both L – MM And H – MM
4. IFs.

Answer: 2. H-MM

Question 95. Which Of The Following Is Not A Feature Of Myosin Molecule?

1. Contractile Nature
2. ATPase Like Action
3. Formation Of Cross Bridge With Active Site Present In The Actin
4. All Of The Above.

Answer: 4. All Of Above.

Question 96. Intercostal Muscles Are Found In :

1. Digits
2. Pectoral Girdle
3. Pelvic Girdle
4. Thoracic Ribs.

Answer: 4. Thoracic Ribs.

Question 97. If A Solution Of Actin Is Mixed With A Solution Of Myosin The Resulting Mixture Becomes Very Viscous. If Atp Is And Atp Is Hydrolysed To Adp And Inorganic Phosphate. The Mixture Regains Viscosity Tfttl The Atp Is Hydrolysed. These Observations Suggest That:

1. Actin And Myosin Bind Together.
2. The Complex Of Actin And Myosin (Actomyosin) In An ATPase
3. Atp Seems To Alter The Binding Between Actin And Myosin
4. All Of The Above.

Answer: 4. All Of Above.

Question 98. One Of The Following Is A Wrong Match.

1. Cardiac Muscles – Maximum Atp, Mitochondria And Intercalated Disc Characteristic
2. Striated – Syncytial
3. Cardiac – Lack of Autonomic Nerve Supply
4. Sifiooth – Controlled By the Autonomic Nervous System  Mainly.

Answer: 3. Cardiac – Lack Autonomic Nerve Supply

Question 99. Origin Of Muscular System In Vertebrates Is :

1. Ectoderm
2. Endoderm
3. Mesoderm
4. Both 1 And 2.

Answer:  3. Mesoderm

NEET Biology Morphology Of Animals Multiple Choice Questions And Answers

Question 1. Segmentation is found in:

1. Annelida
2. Arthropoda
3. Vertebrata
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 2. Segmentation in Annelids is:

1. Homonomous
2. Heteronomous
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Both (1) and (2)

Question 3. In earthworm brain is located in:

1. Prostomium
2. Peristornium
3. Third segment
4. Second segment.

Answer: 3. Third segment

Question 4. In earthworms, coelomic fluid oozes out through the:

1. Nephridiopores
2. Nephrostome
3. Dorsal pores
4. Spermathecal pores.

Answer: 3. Dorsal pores

Question 5. Which of the following does not apply to earthworms?

1. Indirect development
2. Protandry
3. Extracellular digestion
4. Closed circulatory system.

Answer: 1. Indirect development

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Animal Morphology MCQs Question 6. A coelomic cavity in earthworms is:

1. Schizocoelic
2. Enterocoelic
3. Haemocoelic
4. Pseudocoelic.

Answer: 1. Schizocoelic

Question 7. The colour of the earthworm is given by:

1. Porphyrin
2. Chromatophore
3. Vitamin D
4. Haemoglobin.

Answer: 1. Porphyrin

Question 8. The function of dorsal pores in earthworms is:

1. Respiration
2. Elimination of waste
3. Exudation of body fluids
4. Excretion.

Answer: 3. Exudation of body fluids

Question 9. An earthworm’s body is devoid of the:

1. Cuticle
2. Setae
3. Appendages
4. Epidermis.

Answer: 3. Appendages

Question 10. Septa without aperture lies between:

1. 11/12; 12/13 and 13/14 segments
2. 12/13; l3/14 and 14/15 segments
3. 10/11; l1/12 ard 12/13 segments
4. 9/10; 10/11 and 11/12 segrnents.

Answer: 1. 11/12; 12/13 and 13/14 segments

Question 11. In earthworms, chromophil cells are found in:

1. Pharyngeal gland
2. Respiratory cell
3. Sensory cell
4. Vascular system.

Answer: 1. Pharyngeal gland

Question 12. The major role of typhlosole in the intestine of earthworms is:

1. To control the flow of blood
2. To increase the absorptive surface
3. To produce digestive enzyme
4. To kill bacteria.

Answer: 2. To increase absorptive surface

Animal Morphology MCQs Question 13. The presence of coelom and metamerism are important characters in:

1. Helminthes
2. Arthropods
3. Annelids
4. Coelenterates.

Answer: 3. Annelids

Question 14. The cuticle of annelids is:

1. Non-chitinous and albuminoid
2. Chitinous
3. Chitinous and albuminoid
4. Non-chitinous.

Answer: 4. Non-chitinous.

Question 15. Earthworm is composed of 120 segments and prostomium refers to:

1. First segment
2. 2Nd segment
3. Not a segment
4. Part of the reproductive system.

Answer: 3. Not a segment

Question 16. Setae are present in all sections except:

1. First and last segment
2. The first segment and the clitellum
3. Clitellum, first and anal segments
4. Clitellurn and last segment.

Answer: 3. Clitellum, first and anal segments

Question 17. Clitellum in earthworms includes:

1. First three segments
2. 14,15 And 16 segments
3. Last three segments
4. 19. 20 and 21 segments.

Answer: 2. 14,15 And 16 segments

Question 18. ln earthworm the clitellar region helps in the process of:

1. Copulation
2. Conformation
3. Digestion
4. Locomotion.

Answer: 2. Conformation

Question 19. Where would you find calcareous glands in Pheretima?

1. Oesophagus
2. Stomach
3. Rectum
4. Typhlosole.

Answer: 2. Stomach

Question 20. During locomotion of earthworms:

1. Longitudinal muscles contract first
2. Circular muscles contract first
3. Both muscles contract simultaneously
4. Both muscles relax simultaneously.

Answer: 2. Circular muscles contract first

Animal Morphology MCQs Question 21. Which of these is secreted by pharyngeal mass?

1. Albumen
2. Mucin
3. Mucin and proteases
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Mucin and proteases

Question 22. The flow of blood in a dorsal blood vessel of Pheretima is:

1. From in front backwards
2. From behind forward
3. In both directions
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. From behind forward

Question 23. Lateral hearts in Pheretima are situated in the following segments:

1. 12^th and 13^th
2. 10^th and 11^th
3. 7^th and 9^th
4. Both 1^st and 3^rd.

Answer: 3. 7^th and 9^th

Question 24. Blood glands in earthworms are situated in 4, 5 and 6 segments. These are associated with:

1. Excretion
2. Digestion
3. Secretion
4. Formation of blood corpuscles.

Answer: 4. Formation of blood corpuscles.

Question 25. Lateral oesophageal heats in Pheretima are situated in the segments:

1. 12 and 13
2. 10 and 11
3. 9 and 14
4. 7 and 9^th.

Answer: 1. 12 and 13

Animal Morphology MCQ For NEET Biology With Answers Question 26. The blood of earthworms is:

1. Colourless
2. Pinkish
3. Bluish
4. Red.

Answer: 4. Red.

Question 27. Which of these vessels distribute the blood in the first thirteen segments:

1. Dorsal
2. Oesophageal
3. Subneural
4. Lateral.

Answer: 1. Dorsal

Question 28. The blood from the seminal vesicle of earthworm is collected by:

1. Lateral oesophageal
2. Ventral blood vessel
3. Ventro tegumentary vessel
4. Subneural vessel.

Answer: 1. Lateral oesophageal

Question 29. The excretory organs in earthworms are:

1. Nephridia
2. Malpighiantubules
3. Flame cells
4. Coelomic ducts.

Answer: 1. Nephridia

Animal Morphology MCQ For NEET Biology With Answers Question 30. Pharyngeal nephridia of earthworms are situated in segments:

1. 4,5 and 6
2. 5,6,7
3. 3, 4 and 5
4. 6, 7, 8.

Answer: 1. 4,5 and 6

Question 31. In earthworm, mesonephric excretion takes place by:

1. Integumentary nephridia
2. Septal nephridia
3. Septal and pharyngeal nephridia
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Integumentary nephridia

Question 32. The Pharyngeal nephridia in earthworms do not open:

1. Externally
2. Terminally
3. Internally
4. None of the above

Answer: 1. Externally

Question 33. The origin of nephridium is:

1. Germinal.
2. Ectodermal
3. Mesodennal
4. Endodermal.

Answer: 2. Ectodermal

Question 34. In Pheretima in which segments septal nephridia are found?

1. In all the segments
2. From the 15^th to the last segment
3. In the first 15 segments
4. From the 10^th to the last segment.

Answer: 2. From the 15^th to the last segment

Animal Morphology MCQ For NEET Biology With Answers Question 35. Where nephrostome is present in Pheretima?

1. Septal nephridia
2. Integumentary nephridia
3. Pharyngeal nephridia
4. All the above.

Answer: 1. Septal nephridia

Question 36. In earthworms, chloragogen cells perform:

1. Glycogen synthesis
2. Synthesis of urea
3. Removal of silicates
4. Elimination of surplus Ca⁺⁺ ions.

Answer: 2. Synthesis of urea

Question 37. How many eyes are found in Pheretirna:

1. None
2. One
3. Two
4. Many.

Answer: 1. None

Question 38. Enteronephric nephridia throws out the excretory material:

1. Through alimentary canal
2. Through cloacal aperture
3. Directly outside
4. Through the circulatory system.

Answer: 1. Through alimentary canal

Important MCQs On Animal Kingdom Question 39. In earthworms the ovary is situated in the:

1. 18^th segment
2. 10^th segment
3. 13^th segment
4. 14^th segment

Answer: 3. 13v segment

Question 40. In earthworms, the testes are enclosed in the segments:

1. 9^th and 10^th
2. 8^th and 9^th
3. 11^th and 10^th
4. 12^th and 10^th

Answer: 3. 11^th and 10^th

Question 41. In earthworms, the spermathecae are used for:

1. Development of ovum
2. Development of sperms
3. Storing of spermatozoa
4. Storing ova.

Answer: 3. Storing of spermatozoa

Question 42. Which statement is not correct for septal nephridia of Pheretima?

1. These occur in all segments except the first fourteen
2. They are enteronephric
3. They have a complicated nephrostome
4. They are exonephric.

Answer: 4. They are exonephric.

Question 43. Copulation occurs between two earthworms:

1. Generally at night during the rainy season
2. Generally at day time during the rainy season
3. At night during the winter season
4. At night during the summer season.

Answer: 1. Generally at night during the rainy season

Question 44. The difference between septal and pharyngeal nephridia in earthworms relates to:

1. Straight lobe
2. Vesicle
3. Funnel
4. Mode of action.

Answer: 3. Funnel

Question 45. The neurons in earthworms are:

1. Motor
2. Sensory
3. Adjustor
4. Motor, sensory and adjustor.

Answer: 4. Motor, sensory and adjustor.

Question 46. Septal nephridia are:

1. Largest in size
2. Double the size of integumentary nephridia
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. Smallest in size.

Answer: 3. Double the size of integumentary nephridia

Question 47. The total number of pores in the body wall of Pheretima, which are concerned with reproduction is:

1. 7
2. 11
3. 13
4. 14.

Answer: 2. 11

NEET Biology Animal Morphology and Anatomy MCQs  Question 48. Which is correct about earthworms?

1. It has a brain but no head
2. It has locomotory organs
3. It secretes a cocoon around the unfertilized egg
4. It can crawl on a smooth surface easily.

Answer: 1. It has a brain but no head

Question 49. Earthworms are:

1. Harmlul lo man
2. Useful to man
3. Both useful and harmful to man
4. Found only near banks of river.

Answer: 3. Both useful and harmful to man

Question 50. Which of the following is not an arthropod characteristic?

1. Jointed appendages
2. Unsegmented body
3. Periodic moulting
4. Articulated exoskeleton.

Answer: 2. Unsegmented body

Question 51. Which of the following arthropods are not mandibulates?

1. Insects
2. Crab
3. Shrimps
4. Spider.

Answer: 4. Spider.

Question 52. Which of the following is not a characteristic of insects?

1. Three body divisions
2. Three pairs of jointed legs
3. Two pairs of antennae
4. Excretion by malpighian tubule.

Answer: 3. Two pairs of antennae

Question 53. Earthworms and cockroaches have one thing in common:

1. Ventral nerve cord
2. Closed blood vascular system
3. Nephridia
4. Trachea.

Answer: 1. Ventral nerve cord

NEET Biology Animal Morphology and Anatomy MCQs  Question 54. In insects compound eyes are formed by:

1. Ocelli
2. Ommatidia
3. Eye spots
4. Haematochrome

Answer: 2. Ommatidia

Question 55. The first antennal segment is known as:

1. Frons
2. Pedicel
3. Scape
4. None of the above

Answer: 3. Scape

Animal Morphology MCQs  Question 56. Which of the following two parts in a cockroach are fundamentally similar in structure:

1. Mandible and antenna
2. Wings and anal cerci
3. Anal style and labrum
4. Maxilla and labium.

Answer: 4. Maxilla and labium.

Question 57. In Periplaneta, the number of spiracles is:

1. Six pairs
2. Eight pairs
3. Ten pairs
4. Twelve pairs

Answer: 3. Ten pairs

Question 58. In Periplaneta, the sclerites which surround the genital aperture are termed:

1. Gonophores
2. Genitals
3. Gonapophyses
4. Sterna.

Answer: 3. Gonapophyses

Question 59. In cockroaches the exoskeleton is made of:

1. Calcium carbonate
2. Calcium phosphate
3. Chitinous cuticle
4. Calcium sulphate.

Answer: 3. Chitinous cuticle

Animal Morphology MCQs  Question 60. The dorsal Plate of the cockroach is:

1. Pleuron
2. Plastron
3. Tergum
4. Stemum.

Answer: 3. Tergum

Question 61. Glossa and paraglossa are collectively termed as:

1. Lingua
2. Ligula
3. Labium
4. Labrum.

Answer: 2. Ligula

Question 62. Anal cerci are Present:

1. Only male Ascaris
2. Only in male cockroaches
3. Only in female cockroaches
4. In both male and female cockroaches

Answer: 4. In both male and female cockroaches

Question 63. The flagellum of the antenna of a cockroach is:

1. 11 jointed
2. 13 segmented
3. Unjointed
4. Many jointed

Answer: 4. Many joined

Question 64. In cockroach antennae function as:

1. Thigmoreceptors, sensitive to touch
2. To help in catching insects
3. Locomotory structures
4. Feeding structures.

Answer: 1. Thigmoreceptors, sensitive to touch

Animal Morphology MCQs  Question 65. The chitinous endoskeleton in the head of the cockroach is known as:

1. Apodeme
2. Tentorium
3. Crematorium
4. Notatum.

Answer: 2. Tentorium

Question 66. Wings of cockroaches are attached to anterolateraL carriers of terga of:

1. Mesothorax
2. Metathorax
3. Prothorax
4. Mesothorax and metathorax

Answer: 4. Mesothorax and metathorax

Question 67. Which one of the following characters of the forewing of the cockroach is wrong:

1. Leathery
2. Without veins
3. Opaque
4. Protective.

Answer: 2. Without veins

Question 68. Clypeus is a Part of:

1. Head
2. Wing
3. Abdomen
4. Leg.

Answer: 1. Head

Question 69. From the feeding habits, cockroaches could be classified as:

1. Herbivore
2. Carnivore
3. Frugivore
4. Omnivore.

Answer: 4. Omnivore.

Question 70. The mouth parts of cockroach are:

1. Piercing type
2. Sponging type
3. Siphoning type
4. Cutting and biting type

Answer: 4. Cutting and biting type

Animal Morphology MCQs  Question 71. Hepatic caecal in cockroaches is derived from:

1. Ileum
2. Midgut
3. Oesophagus
4. Crop.

Answer: 2. Midgut

Question 72. Which part of the digestive system secretes the peritrophic membrane around the food in cockroaches?

1. Crop
2. Gizzard
3. Hepatic camera
4. Stomodaeal valve

Answer: 4. Stomodaeal valve

Question 73. What will happen if a peritrophic membrane is not formed in cockroaches?

1. Digestion of food will stop
2. Absorption of food will stop
3. Midgut will be injured
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Midgut will be injured

Question 74. In cockroaches, the term regurgitation is associated with the:

1. Swallowing
2. Ingestion
3. Egestion
4. Absorption.

Answer: 4. Absorption.

Question 75. The body cavity of a cockroach is:

1. Coelom
2. Haemocoel
3. Coelenteron
4. Pseudocoel

Answer: 2. Haemocoel

Important MCQs On Animal Kingdom Question 76. The blood of cockroaches is white due to:

1. Absence of haemoglobin
2. The circulatory system is open
3. There are no salts in the blood
4. There is more water in the blood

Answer: 1. Absence of haemoglobin

Question 77. The tubular heart of a cockroach is composed of:

1. 7 chambers
2. 9 chambers
3. 13 chambers
4. 14 chambers

Answer: 3. 13 chambers

Question 78. What is the name of the blood cells in Periplaneta americana?

1. Erythrocytes
2. Leucocytes
3. Haemocytes
4. Amoebocytes

Answer: 3. Haemocytes

Question 79. The respiratory passage in cockroaches during inspiration is:

1. Spiracle and trachea
2. Longitudinal respiratory tube
3. Air chamber
4. Stigmata.

Answer: 1. Spiracle and trachea

Important MCQs On Animal Kingdom Question 80. Oxygen is transported in cockroaches by:

1. Blood
2. Lymph
3. Trachea
4. SPiracle.

Answer: 3. Trachea

Question 81. The trachea is supported by chitinous rings:

1. Inside the epithelium
2. Outside the epithelium
3. In between two epithelial layers
4. Both inside and around epithelial

Answer: 1. Inside the epithelium

Question 82. The nervous system of an insect consists of:

1. Sympathetic
2. Autonomous
3. Central, peripheral and sympathetic
4. Simple nerve cells.

Answer: 3. Central, peripheral and sympathetic

Question 83. The total number of ganglia present in the ventral nerve cord of a cockroach is:

1. 6
2. 9
3. 10
4. 13.

Answer: 2. 9

Question 84. Ingluvial ganglion in cockroaches is present on the surface of:

1. Crop
2. Gizzard
3. Brain
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Crop

Question 85. During the night, the isolation of ommatidia is incomplete and all act as a single body. What type of image would he form:

1. Single
2. Blind
3. Blurred
4. Superimposed.

Answer: 3. Blurred

Question 86. Which one of these is formed by collagen cells of an ommatidium?

1. Cone cell
2. Crystalline cone
3. Corneal lens
4. Rhabdome.

Answer: 3. Corneal lens

NEET Biology Animal Morphology and Anatomy MCQs Question 87. The main excretory product of cockroaches is:

1. Urea
2. Ammonia
3. Uric acid
4. Urine.

Answer: 3. Uric acid

Question 88. The main excretory organs of insects are:

1. Kidneys
2. Nephridia
3. Malpighian tubules
4. Fat bodies.

Answer: 3. Malpighian tubules

Question 89. The malpighian tubules open at the junction of:

1. Gizzard and mid-gut
2. Mid gut and ileum
3. Ileum and colon
4. Colon and rectum.

Answer: 2. Mid gut and ileum

Question 90. Malpighian tubules pour the nitrogenous waste into the gut for the reabsorption of:

1. Useful salts
2. Glucose
3. Water
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Water

Question 91. A pair of rod-like structures situated on the sides of the oesophagus just behind the brain, secrete a growth Iannone, which is the one?

1. Corpora allata
2. Corpora cardiaca
3. Corpus striatum
4. Corpus callosum.

Answer: 2. Corpora cardiaca

Question 92. Brain hormone secreted by the intercerebral gland cells is responsible for the activation of:

1. Corpora cardiaca
2. Cerebral ganglia
3. Prothoracic gland
4. Salivary gland.

Answer: 3. Prothoracic gland

NEET Biology Animal Morphology and Anatomy MCQs Question 93. The function of the collateral gland in cockroaches is to:

1. Store sperms
2. Secrete the egg case
3. Keep vagina moist
4. Store eggs.

Answer: 2. Secrete the egg case

Question 94. The function of the spermatheca in Periplaneta is:

1. To help in copulation
2. To store eggs
3. To secrete musky fluid
4. To store sperm.

Answer: 4. To store sperms.

Question 95. Testes of cockroach lie in which segment:

1. 3^rd and 4^th
2. 4^th and 5^th
3. 5^th and 7^th
4. 7^th and 8^th.

Answer: 2. 4^th and 5^th

Question 96. Mushroom mushroom-shaped gland name is given to:

1. Phallic gland
2. Conglobate gland
3. Utricular gland
4. Colletrial gland.

Answer: 3. Utricular gland

Question 97. How many times between hatching and its complete development the young cockroach undergoes ecdysis:

1. Not less than 7
2. Not less than 8
3. Not less than 9
4. Not less than 10.

Answer: 1. Not less than 7

Question 98. The spermatophore of the cockroach has 3 layered walls. The middle layer is secreted by:

1. Seminal vesicles
2. Long tubules
3. Ejaculatory duct
4. Phallic gland.

Answer: 3. Ejaculatory duct

NEET Biology Animal Morphology and Anatomy MCQs Question 99. In female cockroaches, the 7^th, 8^th and 9^th sterna enclose a cavity known as:

1. Egg chamber
2. Brood pouch
3. Oothecal chamber
4. Salivary chamber.

Answer: 2. Brood pouch

Question 100. Egg case of cockroach is known as:

1. Embryophore
2. Ootheca
3. Gonophore
4. Female gamete.

Answer: 2. Ootheca

Question 101. How many eggs do you find in the egg case of a cockroach?

1. Eight
2. Six
3. Twelve
4. Sixteen.

Answer: 4. Sixteen.

Question 102. Gradual metamorphosis occurs in:

1. Crow
2. Cat
3. Amoeba
4. Cockroach.

Answer: 4. Cockroach.

Question 103. The young of some insects resemble the adult in general structure but lack the wings and the mature reproductive organs, such a young one is called:

1. Nymph
2. Grub
3. Caterpillar
4. Maggot.

Answer: 1. Nymph

Question 104. Pulmonary breathing increases when the frog is:

1. Hibernating
2. Underwater
3. Overwater
4. Excited.

Answer: 4. Excited.

Question 105. The biggest part of the brain of a frog is known as:

1. Forebrain
2. Hindbrain
3. Midbrain
4. None of these.

Answer: 1. Fore brain

Important MCQs On Animal Kingdom Question 106. During the hibernation period, the left auricle of the frog heart contains:

1. Oxygenated blood
2. Deoxygenated blood
3. Mixed Blood
4. No blood.

Answer: 3. Mixed blood

Question 107. How many cranial nerves are present in the body of a frog?

1. 12 pairs
2. 8 pairs
3. 10 pairs
4. 14 pairs.

Answer: 3. 10 pairs

Question 108. In frogs, several spinal nerves are:

1. 9 pairs and 10th unpaired
2. l2 pairs
3. 31 pairs
4. 37 pairs.

Answer: 1. 9 pairs and 10th unpaired

Question 109. Which of the following statements apply to the teeth of a frog?

1. Homodonty
2. Heterodonty
3. Pleurodonty
4. Acrodonty and homodonty.

Answer: 4. Acrodonty and homodonty.

Question 110. Cells in the skin of a frog for change colour according to the environment are known as:

1. Chromatophores
2. Melanocytes
3. Phagocytes
4. Thrombocytes.

Answer: 1. Chromatophores

Question 111. In frog:

1. Adult kidney develops from nephridia
2. The heart has a single ventricular chamber
3. There is a single portal system
4. There are seven cervical vertebrae.

Answer: 2. The heart has a single ventricular chamber

Question 112. A frog is an ectothermic or poikilo-thermal animal because:

1. Its body temperature is constant irrespective of the fluctuation in the temperature of the environment
2. Its body temperature is higher than that of the surrounding environment
3. Its body temperature is low and fluctuates with temperature of the environment
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Its body temperature is low and fluctuates with the temperature of the environment

Important MCQs On Animal Kingdom Question 113. The dorsal median line present in the skin of a frog is:

1. Warming line
2. Cold adaptation line
3. Sensory line
4. Ornamental line.

Answer: 2. Cold adaptation line

Question 114. The opening in the frog cranium in which the spinal cord comes out is called:

1. Foramen magnum
2. Occipital condyle
3. Pterygoid
4. Obturator foramen.

Answer: 1. Foramen magnum

Question 115. The number of vertebrae in the vertebral column of a frog is:

1. 9
2. 9 Vertebrae and urostyle
3. 8 Vertebrae and urostyle
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. 9 Vertebrae and urostyle

Answer:

1. Pelvic girdle
2. Pectoral girdle
3. Sacrum
4. Skull.

Answer: 2. Pectoral girdle

Question 117. Acetabulum in frogs is associated with:

1. Pelvic girdle
2. Pectoral girdle
3. Sacrum
4. Cranium.

Answer: 1. Pelvic girdle

Question 118. The Iliac crest is a feature of Rog’s:

1. Hyoid apparatus
2. Sacrum
3. Pelvic girdle
4. Pectoral girdle.

Answer: 3. Pelvic girdle

Question 119. The body of the frog is slimy with a mucus covering and the skin is maintained moist because the animal:

1. Cannot hold food with dry skin
2. Is unable to move with dry skin
3. Is unable to swim with dry skin
4. Has to perform cutaneous respiration.

Answer: 4. Has to perform cutaneous respiration.

Important MCQs On Animal Kingdom Question 120. A well-fed frog’s skin is fully covered with a wax coating. After a day, the animal is found to be lazy and slow. This is because:

1. Animal gets poisoned by nitrogenous wastes which the skin cannot excrete
2. The animal is hungry
3. The animal is oxygen-starved and cutaneous respiration is blocked
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. The animal is oxygen-starved and cutaneous respiration is blocked

Question 121. The excretory product of an adult frog and tadpole in an internal gill stage respectively are:

1. Urea in both
2. Urea and uric acid
3. Urea and ammonia
4. Ammonia and uric acid.

Answer: 1. Urea in both

Question 122. A frog has no neck, suppose it has one, it would:

1. Swallow its prey
2. Unable to leap on land easily
3. Breathe easily by floating on the water’s surface
4. Swim easily in water.

Answer: 1. Swallow its prey

Question 123. Nuptial pads occur on frogs:

1. Inner toes
2. Outer toes.
3. Inner fingers
4. Outer fingers.

Answer: 3. Inner fingers

Question 124. A frog differs from a toad in:

1. Absence of warts
2. Absence of pinna
3. Presence of pigmented skin
4. Absence of neck.

Answer: 1. Absence of warts

Important MCQs On Animal Kingdom Question 125. In frogs, the nucleus giants are derivatives of:

1. Stratunr compactum
2. Stratum spongiosum
3. Epidermis
4. Dermis.

Answer: 3. Epidermis

Question 126. In frogs, teeth are present on:

1. Lower jaw
2. Upper jaw
3. Both jaws
4. None of these.

Answer: 2. Upper jaw

Question 127. In Amphibia the Jacobson organ is also known as:

1. Alimentary canal
2. Ear
3. Nasal chamber
4. Eye.

Answer: 3. Nasal chamber

Question 128. In frogs false copulation occurs since the penis is absent in the male and fertilisation of the eggs occurs:

1. Inside the bidder canal of the kidney
2. Externally in the water
3. When the egg is in the cloaca
4. When the egg passes through the uterus.

Answer: 2. Externally in the water

Question 129. In the blood of rats, there are approximately 6-10 thousand/ cubic ml of WBC. What is the approximate number of RBCs in the blood of a rat?

1. 4 lac/cu ml
2. 4-5 lac/cubic ml
3. 6-1 lac/cubic ml
4. 7-B lac/cubic ml.

Answer: 3. 6-1 lac/cubic ml

Question 130. In rats, respiratory bronchioles are not present at birth, they can be seen from which day onwards:

1. 8^th
2. 10^th
3. 12^th
4. 14^th

Answer: 2. 10^th

Question 131. The lungs of rats lie in the thoracic cavity. There are how many lobes in the right lung and left lung?

1. 3 and 1
2. 3 and 2
3. 2 and 3
4. 1 and 1.

Answer: 1. 3 and 1

Question 132. Which of the following is not an accessory reproductive gland of made rat?

1. Prostate and preputial
2. Cowper’s and vesicular
3. Ampullar gland
4. None of the above.

Answer: 4. None of the above.

Question 133. In rats fertilization is internal. lt takes place in:

1. Fallopian funnel
2. The dilated uppermost part of the oviduct
3. The uterine part of the oviduct
4. Uterus.

Answer: 2. Dilated uppermost of the oviduct

Question 134. In rats, there are 12 pairs of cranial nerves. How many pairs of spinal nerves are present?

1. 31 pairs
2. 32 pairs
3. 33 pairs
4. 36 pairs.

Answer: 3. 33 pairs

Question 135. Cockroaches and rats both are nocturnal. What is the difference in the formation of an image:

1. Mosaic in cockroaches and two on the retina in rats.
2. Many images of cockroaches and one image on the retina in a rat
3. Mosaic images in both
4. Apoposition images in cockroaches and superposition in rats.

Answer: 2. Many images of cockroaches and one image on retina in a rat

NEET Biology Skin And Its Derivatives Multiple Questions And Answers

Question 1. The body of the frog is covered by skin. It is held:

1. Tightly throughout
2. Loosely throughout
3. Tightly and loosely depending on the requirement
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Loosely throughout

Question 2. The outermost layer of the skin of a frog is:

1. Keratinized and dead
2. Non-keratinized and living
3. Keratinized and living
4. Non-keratinized and dead.

Answer: 1. Keratinized and dead

Question 3. Frog casts off the skin:

1. During disease condition
2. Only when the frog is agitated
3. Sometimes only
4. Usually throughout life at regular intervals

Answer: 4. Usually throughout life at regular intervals

Question 4. The Epidermis of the skin of a frog is:

1. Non-vascular and non-nervous
2. Non-vascular and nervous
3. Vascular and nervous
4. Vascular and non-nervous.

Answer: 2. Non-vascular and nervous

Question 5. Which layer of the epidermis is endocrine?

1. Stratum Malpighi
2. Stratum corneum
3. Stratum lucidum
4. Stratum granulosum.

Answer: 1. Stratum Malpighi

Question 6. The layer of columnar cells in the epidermis is:

1. Stratum corneum
2. Stratum Malpighi
3. Stratum lucidum
4. Stratum granulosum.

Answer: 2. Stratum Malpighi

Question 7. Chromatophores of frogs contain:

1. Black and yellow pigments
2. Yellow and green pigments
3. Red and green pigments
4. Black and green pigments.

Answer: 1. Black and yellow pigments

Question 8. The gland cells that secrete the slimy fluid in frogs are seen in:

1. Stratum compactum
2. Stratum spongiosum
3. Stratum corneum
4. Malpighian layer.

Answer: 1. Stratum compactum

Question 9. The skin functions as an excretory organ by removing waste products by way of secreting:

1. Sweat
2. Oil
3. Water
4. Salts.

Answer: 1. Sweat

Question 10. Parotid glands that are situated behind the head of Bufo are the modification of:

1. Poison gland
2. Ceruminous gland
3. Salivary gland
4. Mucous gland.

Answer: 1. Poison gland

Question 11. Glands found in the skin of frogs are:

1. Sweat and sebaceous
2. Mucous and sebaceous
3. Sweat and mucous
4. Mucous and poison.

Answer: 4. Mucous and poisonous.

Question 12. Stratum Malpighi is composed of cells that are columnar and actively dividing:

1. During breeding season
2. Only for a fixed period
3. Throughout the life
4. Embryonic stage.

Answer: 3. Throughout the life

Question 13. The integument is usually called “Jack of all trades” because of it:

1. Performs varied functions
2. Only regulates the body temperature
3. Protects the body
4. Gives shape to various structures of the body.

Answer: 1. Performs varied functions

Question 14. The cells ofstratum corneum in frog:

1. Are most active cells
2. Form layer that cornify extremities
3. Form transparent layer
4. Are shed periodically.

Answer: 2. Form a layer that cornifies extremities

Question 15. Conjunctiva is formed of:

1. Dennis
2. Epiderrnis
3. Stratum compactum
4. Stratum lucidurn.

Answer: 2. Epiderrnis

Question 16. Colour of skin in amphibia is due to:

1. Corium
2. Keratin
3. Melanophores
4. Chromatophores.

Answer: 4. Chromatophores.

Question 17. Chemically keratin is:

1. Scleroprotein
2. Mucoprotein
3. Albuminoid
4. Bony.

Answer: 1. Scleroprotein

Question 18. A thin membrane cast off by the frog is composed of:

1. Squamous epithelium
2. Ciliated epithelium
3. Columnar epithelium
4. Cuboidal epithelium.

Answer: 4. Cuboidal epithelium.

Question 19. The skin of the frog is characterized by the absence of:

1. Scales
2. Epidermis
3. Mucous glands
4. Chromatophores.

Answer: 1. Scales

Question 20. Colouration in frogs is due to:

1. Iridescence of skin
2. Presence of melanophores
3. Growth of algal colonies on the skin
4. Presence of special chromatophores below the epidermal cells.

Answer: 2. Presence of melanophores

Question 21. Homy substance excreted by the skin is:

1. Wax
2. Keratin
3. Wax
4. Lignin and mucin.

Answer: 2. Keratin

Question 22. Mucous glands help the frog to get:

1. Moistened skin
2. Thick skin
3. Dark skin
4. Light skin.

Answer: 1. Moistened skin

Question 23. The function of the integument is:

1. Protection
2. To regulate body temperature
3. To check the entry of microbes
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 24. Seburn oil in our skin is secreted by:

1. Sweat gland
2. Mucous gland
3. Sebaceous gland
4. All of the above.

Answer: 3. sebaceous gland

Question 25. The epidermal layer consisting of dividing cells is:

1. Stratum lucidum
2. Stratum granulosum
3. Stratum germinativum
4. Stratum corneum.

Answer: 3. Stratum germinativum

Question 26. The glands of the skin develop from:

1. Dermis
2. Epidermis
3. Stratum Malpighi
4. None of these.

Answer: 2. Epidermis

Question 27. The fibres which make the skin elastic are:

1. Yellow fibres
2. Collagen fibres
3. Smooth muscle fibres
4. Striated muscle fibres.

Answer: 1. Yellow fibres

Question 28. The skin of a frog receives impure or deoxygenated blood from:

1. Cutaneous vein
2. Cutaneous artery
3. Pulmonary artery
4. Pulmonary vein.

Answer: 2. Cutaneous artery

Question 29. If the stratum corneum (dead layer) is supposed to be living what will be the effect?

1. No sweat will ooze out
2. Bacteria will be killed
3. Bacteria will propagate
4. No effect.

Answer: 3. Bacteria will propagate

Question 30. The epidermis of man and frog have in common:

1. Stratum corneum
2. Stratum germinativum
3. Mucous glands
4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer: 4. Both (1) and (2)

Question 31. The mammalian epidermis in sequence is from the exterior:

1. Stratum corneum, stratum spinosum, stratum iucidum
2. Stratum germinativurn, stratum corneum
3. Stratum germinativum, stratum comeum. Stratum spinosum
4. Stratum corneum, stratum spinosum, stratum germinativum.

Answer: 1. Stratum corneum, stratum spinosum, stratum lucid

Question 32. The skin of which of these classes of animals shows the least number and types of cutaneous glands?

1. Mammals
2. Birds
3. Amphibians
4. Reptiles.

Answer: 4. Reptiles.

Question 33. Skin plays an important role in osmoregulation in frogs by:

1. Active outflow of water
2. The osmotic inflow of water
3. Active uptake of salts
4. Passive inward diffusion of salts.

Answer: 2. Osmotic inflow of water

Question 34. Preen glands in the skin are a unique feature of the class:

1. Mammals
2. Pisces
3. Amphibia
4. Aves.

Answer: 4. Aves.

Question 35. Vibrissae are associated with the function of:

1. Thermoregulation
2. Gustation
3. Tactile perception
4. Reproduction.

Answer: 3. Tactile perception

Question 36. Meissner’s corpuscles are found in:

1. Skin
2. Tongue
3. Brain
4. Nerve cells.

Answer: 1. Skin

Question 37. Skin becomes oily by the secretion of:

1. Sudoriferous glands
2. Sebaceous glands
3. Sweat gland
4. Ceruminous gland.

Answer: 2. Sebaceous glands

NEET Biology Compound Histology Multiple Choice Questions And Answers

Question 1. The intestinal villi are connected with:

1. Digestion of fats and carbohydrates
2. Absorption of proteins and glucose
3. Absorption of amino acids and glucose
4. Assimilation of digested food.

Answer: 3. Absorption of amino acids and glucose

Question 2. The outer coat of the stomach wall is:

1. Mucous membrane
2. Submucous coat
3. Muscularis mucosa
4. Serous coat.

Answer: 4. Serous coat.

Question 3. The pulp in the case of the tooth is covered by:

1. Dentine
2. Crown
3. Enamel
4. Layer of odontoblasts

Answer: 4. Layer of odontoblasts

Question 4. Islets oflangerhans are found in:

1. Kidney
2. Heart
3. Pancreas
4. Stomach.

Answer: 3. Pancreas

Question 5. Villi are located in:

1. Stomach
2. Gall bladder
3. Kidney
4. Intestine.

Answer: 4. Intestine.

Question 6. The cells that produce dilute hydrochloric acid in the stomach are:

1. Parietal cells
2. Argentaffin cells
3. Chief cells
4. Paneth cells.

Answer: 1. Parietal cells

Question 7. The isolated patches of lymphoid tissue of the intestine are known as:

1. Hepatic cells
2. Islets of Langerhans
3. Peyer’s patches
4. Kupffer cells.

Answer: 3. Peyer’s patches

Question 8. Collagenous fibres of connective tissue are rich in:

1. Lysine, valine and proline
2. Lysine, proline and tryptophan
3. Proline hydroxy proline and glycine
4. Tryptophan, methionine and proline.

Answer: 3. Proline hydroxy proline and glycine

Question 9. Peyer’s patches and vermiform appendix are associated with the intestine in mammals. They are:

1. Digestive
2. Secretory
3. Lymphoid
4. Sensory.

Answer: 3. Lymphoid

Question 10. Muscles in the wall of the stomach responsible for the movement of food are:

1. Striated
2. Cardiac
3. Unstriated
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Unstriated

Question 11. Paneth celis are present in:

1. Crypts of lieberkuhn
2. Peyer’s patches
3. Islets of langerhans
4. Organ of Corti.

Answer: 1. Crypts of lieberkuhn

Question 12. The lining of the columnar epithelium of the stomach wall is seen in:

1. Serosa
2. Muscularis mucosa
3. Submucosa
4. Mucosa

Answer: 4. Mucosa

Question 13. Arrange in the correct sequence the pair of tubular glands as seen in a cross-section of the stomach wall:

1. Neck
2. Base and
3. Isthmus

1. (1), (2) and (3)
2. (2), (3) and (1)
3. (3), (1) and (2)
4. (2), (1) and (3).

Answer: 1. (1), (2) and (3)

Question 14. Brunner’s glands are present in:

1. Submucosa of the oesophagus of rabbit
2. Submucosa of duodenum of frog
3. Submucosa of duodenum and proximal jejunum of rabbit
4. Mucosa of duodenum and ileum of rabbit.

Answer: 3. Submucosa of the duodenum and proximal jejunum of rabbit

Question 15. A maximum number of villi are present in:

1. Duodenum
2. Jejunurn
3. Ileum
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Ileum

Question 16. The stomach and intestine are lined internally by:

1. Columnar epithelium
2. Stratified epithelium
3. Cuboidal epithelium
4. Squamous epithelium.

Answer: 1. Columnar epithelium

Question 17. To which of the four major layers do the epithelial lining, lamina propria and muscularis mucosa belong:

1. Mucous membrane
2. Muscularis externa
3. Serosa
4. Submucosa.

Answer: 1. Mucous membrane

Question 18. In a cross-section of the wall of the stomach, no gland can be seen in the submucosal layer in any part except in:

1. Fundus
2. Body
3. Pyloric part
4. Pyloric antrum.

Answer: 3. Pyloric part

Question 19. Which features are characteristics of parietal cells?

1. Their nuclei are dark and centrally placed
2. Rounded to triangular with relatively clear cytoplasm
3. They are found mainly in the base of tubular glands
4. Both (1) and (2).

Answer: 4. Both (1) and (2).

Question 20. In an empty stomach, the mucosa is thrown into folds known as:

1. Foveolae
2. Rugae
3. Incisura angular
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Rugae

Question 21. In which part of the intestine are argent affine cells or enterochromaffin cells found?

1. Oesophagus
2. Duodenum
3. Only in rectum
4. In all parts of the alimentary canal but more in the small intestine.

Answer: 4. In all parts of the alimentary canal but more in the small intestine.

Question 22. The epithelium in the conducting bronchioles (tertiary bronchi) is:

1. Stratified epithelium
2. Only pseudostratified epithelium
3. Pseudostratified, ciliated and columnar epithelium
4. Squamous epithelium.

Answer: 3. Pseudostratified, ciliated and columnar epithelium

Question 23. The terminal bronchiole is lined by:

1. Stratified epithelium
2. Pseudostratified epithelium
3. Ciliated columnar or cuboidal epithelium
4. Columnar or cuboidal epithelium.

Answer: 3. Ciliated columnar or cuboidal epithelium

Question 24. ln the terminal bronchiole which of the following is present?

1. Mucous cells
2. Columnar cells
3. Only elastic fibres
4. Elastic and reticular fibres.

Answer: 2. Columnar cells

Question 25. Number of alveoli in human lung is about:

1. One million
2. More than two million
3. More than five million
4. More than seven million.

Answer: 4. More than seven million.

Question 26. The lungs are externally covered by the layer called:

1. Parietal pleuron
2. Visceral pleuron
3. Ependyma
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Visceral pleuron

Question 27. The type of cartilage seen in the tracheal wall is:

1. Hyaline cartilage
2. Fibro-cartilage
3. Elastic cartilage
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Elastic cartilage

Question 28. Which feature or features distinguish bronchioles from bronchi?

1. Bronchioles are less than 1 mm in diameter
2. Bronchioles have cartilage in their walls
3. Larger bronchioles are supported by connective tissue alone which extends from the interlobular septa
4. Both (1) and (2).

Answer: 3. Larger bronchioles are supported by connective tissue alone which extends from the interlobular septa

Question 29. The lungs of mammals contain an enormous number of alveoli. This is to allow:

1. More space for increasing the total volume of inspired air
2. More surface area for diffusion of gases
3. More spongy texture for keeping the lungs in proper shape
4. More nerve supply to maintain the effective working of the organ.

Answer: 2. More surface area for diffusion of gases

Question 30. In a section of the pancreas examined under low power, the Islets of Langerhans can be recognized as:

1. Pale area
2. Irregular clumps of cells and
3. Group of cells arranged in rings around the central duct:

1. (1), (2) and (i3)
2. (1) and (2)
3. (3)
4. (2) and (3).

Answer: 2. (1) and (2)

Question 31. The secretory units of the pancreas are known as:

1. Acini
2. Alveoli
3. Crypts
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Acini

Question 32. A gland which is exocrine as well as endocrine is:

1. Liver
2. Pancreas
3. Kidney
4. Spleen.

Answer: 2. Pancreas

Question 33. Insulin hormone is secreted by:

1. Kupffer’s cells
2. Peyer’s patches
3. Islets of Langerhans
4. Paneth cells.

Answer: 3. Islets of langerhans

Question 34. The sinusoids found in the hepatic lacunae inside the liver

1. The hepatic portal vein, hepatic artery and hepatic vein
2. Hepatic portal vein to hepatic artery
3. Hepatic portal vein to bile duct
4. Hepatic artery to the hepatic vein.

Answer: 1. Hepatic portal vein, hepatic artery and hepatic vein

Question 35. The worn-out RBCs are ingested inside the liver by:

1. Cells of kupffer
2. Hepatocytes
3. Cells of hepatic laminae
4. Leucocytes.

Answer: 1. Cells of Kupffer

Question 36. Atomic bomb radiations cause ulcers in the mouth and large intestine and serious lung infection due to:

1. Leukaemia
2. Mutation
3. Anaemia
4. Agranulocytosis.

Answer: 4. Agranulocytosis.

Question 37. The centre of the classic fine lobules of the liver is formed by:

1. Portal vein
2. Hepatic artery
3. Central vein
4. Bile duct.

b 3. Central vein

Question 38. The sinusoids are lined by:

1. Reticulo-epithelial cells called kupffer cells
2. Paneth cells
3. Argentaffine cells
4. Columnar cells.

Answer: 1. Reticulo-epithelial cells called kupffer cells

Question 39. Which statement is true regarding the nuclei of the hepatic cells?

1. Nuclei are ovoid or round
2. Not uncommonly nucleated
3. Polyploid nuclei are numerous
4. Both (1) and (2).

Answer: 1. Nuclei are ovoid or round

Question 40. The portal tract or portal radicle is composed of:

1. Central vein, portal vein and hepatic artery
2. Central vein, hepatic artery, bile duct and lymphatics
3. Portal vein, hepatic artery, bile duct and lymphatics
4. Central vein and bile canals.

Answer: 3. Portal vein, hepatic artery, bile duct and lymphatics

Question 41. Which one of the following is not a function of the spleen?

1. Destroying old worn out RBC’s and germs
2. Withdrawing RBCs from the general circulation and storing them
3. Producing leucocytes and erythrocytes
4. It is an endocrine gland.

Answer: 4. It is an endocrine gland.

Question 42. The red pulp found in the spleen is red because:

1. Capillary network of blood vessels
2. A large number of red pigments (lipophores) are present
3. It stores red blood cells
4. A large amount of free haemoglobin is present in its tissue.

Answer: 3. It stores red blood cells

Question 43. In a cross-section of the spleen, the grey nodules are seen:

1. Are trabecular which extend inward from the capsule of the spleen
2. From the red pulp which filters the rbc
3. From the white pulp which are site of lymphocyte production
4. Both (1) and (2).

Answer: 3. Form the white pulp which are site of lymphocyte production

Question 44. The refineries in the tissue of the spleen which are surrounded by lymphatic tissue are also known as:

1. Trabecular arteries
2. Follicular arteries
3. Penicillate arteries
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Follicular arteries

Question 45. The genicular arteries formed by the branching of follicular arteries are:

1. 6-8 in number
2. 2-6 in number
3. 8-10 in number
4. Over 10 in number.

Answer: 2. 2-6 in number

Question 46. The cords of Billroth are situated:

1. In the white pulp
2. In the red pulp
3. Along the trabeculae
4. Between sinusoids.

Answer: 4. Between sinusoids.

Question 47. The sinusoids in the red pulp are lined by:

1. Squamous epithelial cells
2. Columnar cells
3. Reticuloendothelial cells
4. Stratified epithelium.

Answer: 3. Reticuloendothelial cells

Question 48. In certain species the capsule of the spleen is muscular and its contraction empties the blood from the spleen. In man:

1. The capsule is also muscular.
2. The capsule is not endowed with smooth muscle sufficient for contraction
3. None of the above
4. Both (1) and (2).

Answer: 2. Capsule is not endowed with smooth muscle sufficient for contraction

Question 49. The glomeruli of the uriniferous tubules in the kidney are present in the following:

1. Rnedulla
2. Cortex
3. Pyramid
4. Pelvis.

Answer: 2. Cortex

Question 50. The outer cortex of the kidney in a T.S. appears granular or dotted because of:

1. Highly coiled uriniferous tubules in this region
2. Grannual cytoplasm
3. The presence of a loop of Henle
4. None of the above

Answer: 1. Highly coiled uriniferous tubules in this region

Question 51. The Medulla of the kidney in T.S. appears striated because of the presence of:

1. Loop of Henle
2. Straight contractile fibrils
3. Unstriped muscle fibres
4. Striped muscle fibres.

Answer: 1. Loop of Henle

Question 52. Malpighian body is a structure found in:

1. Uriniferous tubules
2. Testis
3. Ovary
4. Tung.

Answer: 1. Uriniferous tubules

Question 53. The cells lining the ascending and descending limbs of “Loop of Henle” are of:

1. Squamous type
2. Ciliated type
3. Cuboidal type
4. Columnar type.

Answer: 3. Cuboidal type

Question 54. The structural and functional unit of the kidney is called:

1. Pyramid
2. Calyx
3. Nephron
4. Medula.

Answer: 3. Nephron

Question 55. The macula densa is that part of the:

1. Loop of henle where the tube loops
2. Proximal tubule that comes into contact with the glomerular root
3. Distal tubule that comes into contact with the glomerular root
4. Henle’s loop comes into contact with the glomerular root.

Answer: 3. Distal tubule that comes into contact with the glomerular root

Question 56. In 24 hours the glomerular capillaries of all the renal corpuscles of both kidneys filter:

1. 100 litres of fluid
2. 50-100 lirres of fluid
3. 100-150litres of fluid
4. 170-200 litres of fluid.

Answer: 4. 170-200 litres of fluid.

Question 57. The male sex hormone Testosterone, is secreted by special Leydig’s cells present in:

1. Kidneys
2. Seminiferous tubules of testis
3. The connective tissue surrounding the seminiferous tubules of the testis
4. Cells lining the epidermis of the testis.

Answer: 3. Connective tissue surrounding the seminiferous tubules of the testis

Question 58. The centre of the primary follicle is occupied by:

1. Follicular cells
2. Oogonium
3. Theca Interna
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Follicular cells

Question 59. The secondary follicle differs from the primary follicle in that:

1. The primary follicle has only a single layer of flattened cells around the oogonium
2. The secondary follicle has cuboidal, columnar and stratified epithelium around the oogonium
3. The oocyte within the secondary follicle is covered by a thick membrane called zona pellucida
4. All of the above.

Answer: 2. The secondary follicle has cuboidal, columnar and stratified epithelium around the oogonium

Question 60. Cumulus oophorus refers to:

1. Heap of oocytes found in the secondary follicle
2. Heap of follicular cells around the ovum in the primary follicle
3. Hill of follicular cells that act as handles to the ovum in the secondary follicle
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Hill of follicular cells that act as handles to the ovum in the secondary follicle

Question 61. What are the two types of cells seen in the seminiferous tubule?

1. Gonocytes and cells of Sertoli
2. Cells of Leydig and Rete cells
3. Stereociliary cells and cuboidal cells
4. Gonocytes.

Answer: 1. Gonocytes and cells of Sertoli

Question 62. In a section of the testis, the groups of cells seen scattered between seminiferous tubules are:

1. Cells of Sertoli
2. Gonocytes
3. Interstitial cells
4. Stereociliary cells

Answer: 3. Interstitial cells

Question 63. Septa which extend inward from the tunica albuginea separate the testis into compartments which contain:

1. Epididymis
2. Rete testes
3. Seminiferous tubules
4. Cells of Leydig.

Answer: 3. Seminiferous tubules

Question 64. How many layers does the muscle coat of the oviduct have?

1. One-longitudinal
2. The two-inner circular and outer longitudinal
3. Three-oblique fibres in addition to the above
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Two-inner circular and outer longitudinal

Question 65. An atretic follicle is:

1. Also known as corpus albicans
2. That follicle which tails to mature and degenerates
3. That follicle which has released the ovum
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. That follicle which tails to mature and degenerates

Question 66. The single layer of germinal epithelium covering the ovary is composed of:

1. Squamous cells
2. Cuboidal cells
3. Columnar cells
4. None of the above

Answer: 2. Cuboidal cells

Question 67. The layer immediately interior to the tunica albuginea which forms the page of the cortex has a higher proportion of:

1. Intercellular substance
2. Connective tissue cells and fibres
3. (1) And (2)
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Connective tissue cells and fibres

Question 68. Villi of the ileum are:

1. Club shaped
2. Leaf shaped
3. Rounded
4. Variable.

Answer: 1. Club shaped

Question 69. Which one of the following is the characteristic feature of jejunum?

1. Villi which are rounded in shape
2. Paneth cells are present
3. Peyer’s patches are present
4. Crypts of leiberkuhn present.

Answer: 1. Villi which are rounded in shape

Question 70. Which tissue evolved first in the animal kingdom?

1. Epithelial tissue
2. Muscular tissue
3. Skeletal tissue
4. Connective tissue.

Answer: 1. Epithelial tissue

Question 71. The founder of histology as a separate branch of animal study was:

1. Leeuwenhoek
2. Robert Hooke
3. Marcello Malpighi
4. Stanley.

Answer: 3. Marcello Malpighi

Question 72. Which statements are correct regarding the nuclei of the hepatic cells:

1. Nuclei are ovoid to round
2. Not uncommonly binucleated
3. Polyploid nuclei are numerous

1. (1) and (2) are cotrect
2. (2) only
3. All the above
4. (3) only

Answer: 3. All the above

Question 73. The cells lining the periosteum are:

1. Periosteal cells
2. Osteogenic cells are capable of differentiating into osteoblasts and osteocytes under appropriate condition
3. Osteoblasts which are capable of the formation of new osteoblasts
4. All of the above.

Answer: 2. Osteogenic cells are capable of differentiating into osteoblasts and osteocytes under appropriate conditions

Question 74. A thick membrane rich in glycoproteins and formed around the outer surface of a developing ovum is known as:

1. Zona vascular
2. Zona pellucida
3. Theca follicle
4. Glassy membrane.

Answer: 2. Zona pellucida

Question 75. Bone is mainly composed of:

1. Iron and phosphorus
2. Calcium and phosphor
3. Sulphur and calcium
4. Calcium and magnesium

Answer: 2. Calcium and phosphor

Question 76. Which of the following has kidney shaped nucleus?

1. Neutrophils
2. Lymphocytes
3. Eosinophils
4. Monocytes

Answer: 4. Monocytes

Question 77. In rabbit, the epithelial lining of the oesophagus consists of:

1. Columnar epithelium
2. Stratified non-keratinized squamous epithelium
3. Non-stratified squamous epithelium
4. Stratified keratinized squamous epithelium

Answer: 2. Stratified non-keratinized squamous epithelium

Question 78. In which of the following organs lamina propria is poorly developed?

1. Colon
2. Intestine
3. Oesophagus
4. Stomach.

Answer: 3. Oesophagus

Question 79. Muscularis mucosa of which of the following organs has taeniae?

1. Anus
2. Colon
3. Oesophagus
4. Rectum

Answer: 2. Colon

Question 80. Endometrium refers to the cellular lining of:

1. Oesophagus
2. Intestine
3. Bones
4. Bloocl vessel.

Answer: 1. Oesophagus

Question 81. All of the examples of gut-associated lymphatic tissue

1. Oesophagus
2. Fundic stomach
3. Tonsils
4. Duodenum.

Answer: 3. Tonsils

Question 82. Interlobular strands in the mammalian liver do not show:

1. Branch of hepatic vein
2. Branch of bile duct
3. Branch of hepatic artery
4. Sinusoids.

Answer: 4. Sinusoids.

Question 83. All are found in spongy bones except:

1. Osteoblasts
2. Bone marrow
3. Lacunae and canaliculi
4. Haversian canals.

Answer: 4. Haversian canals.

Question 84. Bone marrow is mainly composed of:

1. Periosteum and osteoblasts
2. Adipose tissue and blood vessels
3. Yellow and elastic tissue
4. Cartilage and elastic tissue.

Answer: 2. Adipose tissue and blood vessels

Question 85. Which one of the following is essential for the formation of myelin sheath?

1. Zinc
2. Sodium
3. Iron
4. Phosphorus.

Answer: 1. Zinc

Question 86. Reticulocytes are:

1. Immature erythrocytes
2. WDC
3. Blood platelets
4. Lymphocytes.

Answer: 1. Immature erythrocytes

Question 87. Haemopoiesis takes place in the bone mamaw of one of the following:

1. Radius
2. Femur
3. Humerus
4. Vertebrae.

Answer: 3. Humerus

Question 88. Serotonin in the blood:

1. Relaxes blood vessels
2. Prevents clotting of blood
3. Helps in the clotting of blood
4. Constricts blood vessels.

Answer: 4. Constricts blood vessels.

Question 89. Glisson’s capsule is present in:

1. Liver
2. Stomach
3. Lung
4. Kidney.

Answer: 1. Liver

NEET Biology Animal Tissues Multiple Choice Questions And Answers

Question 1. A cell in blood shows amoeboid movements, a multilobed nucleus, has granules in the cytoplasm and is phagocytic. Which of the following cells it can be?

1. Lymphocyte
2. Eosinophil
3. Neutrophil
4. Monocyte.

Answer: 3. Neutrophil

Question 2. The term lacunae regarding bones denotes:

1. Concentric rings in which osteocytes are arranged
2. The spaces housing osteocytes
3. Protoplasmic connections joining adjacent osteocytes
4. Oblique canals joining adjacent Haversian canals.

Answer: 2. The spaces housing osteocytes

Question 3. In which of the following functions bones do not participate?

1. Erythropoiesis
2. Erythrolysis
3. Immunity
4. Storage of minerals.

Answer: 2. Erythrolysis

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 4. Which of the following is true?

1. The columnar epithelium has the function of protection
2. Some columnar epithelium have specialized functions other than secretion
3. A1l or some have secretory functions
4. All of the above statements are true.

Answer: 4. All of the above statements are true.

Solved NEET MCQs On Animal Tissues Question 5. The advantage of RBC’s being concave is that:

1. It increases their surface area
2. It can be piled over another in a blood vessel
3. They can fit into capillaries
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 6. Which statement is false about immature bone?

1. It is also termed woven bone or coarsely bundled bone because of the large quantity of collagen fibres
2. It has more intercellular substance than cells, compared to mature bone
3. The contents of intercellular substances are relatively less than in mature bone and hence are not as lightly opaque as in mature bone
4. The immature bone is transformed into mature bone except in certain sites such as tooth sockets near cranial sutures and tendon and ligament attachment.

Answer: 2. It has more intercellular substance than cells, compared to mature bone

Question 7. For the cells to form a tissue, they must:

1. Have different membrane proteins
2. Have different membrane potentials
3. Receive a command from the central nervous system
4. Recognize one another.

Answer: 4. Recognize one another.

Question 8. The major protein of the connective tissue is:

1. Keratin
2. Collagen
3. Myosin
4. Melanin

Answer: 2. Collagen

Question 9. Myoepithelial cells found between the bases of secretory cells and their basement membrane:

1. Aid in the expulsion of the secretion
2. Support the secretory cells
3. Support the basement membrane
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Aid in the expulsion of the secretion

Solved NEET MCQs On Animal Tissues Question 10. Proteins of anisotropic bands of muscles mainly consist of:

1. Actin
2. Myosin
3. Tropomyosin
4. Actin, myosin and tropomyosin.

Answer: 4. Actin, myosin and tropomyosin.

Question 11. Plasma proteins like albumin, globulin and fibrinogen are produced in:

1. Muscles
2. Liver
3. Blood vessels
4. Spleen

Answer: 2. Liver

Question 12. Smooth muscle fibres are:

1. Cylindrical, unbranched, striated, multinucleate and voluntary
2. Spindle-shaped, unbranched, non-striated, uninucleate and involuntary
3. Spindle-shaped, branched and striated
4. Spindle-shaped, unbranched, striated, uninucleate and voluntary.

Answer: 2. Spindle-shaped, unbranched, non-striated, uninucleate and involuntary

Question 13. The skull bones are joined in a fashion rendering them immovable due to the occurrence of:

1. Hyaline cartilage
2. Tendon
3. Adipose tissue
4. White fibrous tissue.

Answer: 4. White fibrous tissue.

Question 14. Regeneration of cartilage is brought about by:

1. Fibres
2. Perichondrium
3. Matrix
4. Nerves and blood vessels.

Answer: 2. Perichondrium

Solved NEET MCQs On Animal Tissues Question 15. Chondrocytes are typically:

1. Bluntly angular cells
2. Oval rigid cells
3. Spherical cells
4. Tapering elongated cells.

Answer: 2. Oval rigid cells

Question 16. The normal level of urea, in 100 ml of blood is:

1. 100 mg
2. 150 mg
3. 17 to 30 mg
4. 2 mg.

Answer: 3. 17 to 30 mg

Question 17. The inner surface of the urinary bladder is lined by:

1. Cuboidal cells
2. Pseudostratified epithelium
3. Transitional epithelium
4. Squamous epithelium.

Answer: 3. Transitional epithelium

Question 18. Albumins and globulins in plasma help:

1. To maintain viscosity
2. To retain water
3. In oxidation
4. In energy transfer.

Answer: 2. To retain water

Question 19. The supporting lining of connective tissue of hollow organs is known as:

1. Basal membrane
2. Basement membrane
3. Mucous membrane
4. Lamina propria.

Answer: 4. Lamina propria.

Question 20. The nucleus in pseudostratified epithelium is arranged:

1. At different levels
2. Uniformly
3. At the periphery
4. In the centre.

Answer: 1. At different levels

Question 21. Goblet cells constitute:

1. Unicellular mucous glands
2. Modified columnar cells
3. Stratified columnar cells
4. All the above.

Answer: 1. Unicellular mucous glands

Question 22. The internal lining of the blood vessel is formed by:

1. Mesothelium
2. Endothelium
3. Stratified epithelium
4. Glandular epithelium.

Answer: 2. Endothelium

Question 23. Gall bladder, bile duct, stomach and intestine are internally lined by:

1. Simple squamous epithelium
2. Simple columnar epithelium
3. Transitional epithelium
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Simple columnar epithelium

Question 24. Tissue is formed by:

1. Similar cells with the same metabolic activity
2. Dissimilar cells with the same function
3. Similar cells with similar origin
4. Dissimilar cells with the same metabolic activity.

Answer: 3. Similar cells with similar origin

Structural Organisation in Animals NEET Questions Question 25. Which of the following tissues always has ciliated, glandular neurosensory and absorptive structure?

1. Muscular
2. Neurons
3. Epithelial
4. Connective.

Answer: 3. Epithelial

Question 26. The pseudostratified epithelium is found in the internal lining of:

1. Oviduct
2. Wolffian duct
3. Gall bladder
4. Trachea.

Answer: 4. Trachea.

Question 27. When the glandular cells of any gland are filled with secretion, the gland is:

1. Holocrine
2. Apocrine
3. Merocrine
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Holocrine

Question 28. The attachment between epithelial cells is due to:

1. Intercellular cement
2. Connective tissue
3. Intercellular fluid
4. Intracellular fluid and air spaces.

Answer: 1. Intercellular cement

Question 29. Transitional epithelium is found in:

1. Kidney
2. Renal pelvis and ureter
3. Larynx
4. Vein.

Answer: 2. Renal pelvis and ureter

Question 30. At places where there is much wear and tear, the stratified epithelium becomes flat and codified due to?

1. Chondrin
2. Elastin
3. Keratin
4. Ossein.

Answer: 3. Keratin

Structural Organisation in Animals NEET Questions Question 31. Epithelial cells are concerned with:

1. Respiration
2. Excretion
3. Protection
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 32. Intercellular substances in epithelial tissue are:

1. Abundant
2. Negligible or absent
3. Normally average in quantity
4. Very little.

Answer: 2. Negligible or absent

Question 33. Which type of tissue forms glands?

1. Connective
2. Epithelial
3. Nervous
4. Muscular.

Answer: 2. Epithelial

Question 34. The longitudinal channels of bone are called:

1. Haversian canals
2. epithelial tissue
3. connective tissue
4. cardiac tissue.

Answer: 1. Haversian canals

Question 35. Blood is a:

1. Muscular tissue
2. Epithelial tissue
3. Connective tissue
4. Cardiac tissue.

Answer: 3. Connective tissue

Question 36. In fibrous connective tissue, the matrix is produced by the:

1. Wandering cells
2. Fibrocyte
3. Plasma cells
4. Mast cell.

Answer: 4. Mast cell.

Structural Organisation in Animals NEET Questions Question 37. Nissl bodies are found in:

1. Cartilage cells
2. Nerve cells
3. Muscle cells
4. Epithelial cells.

Answer: 2. Nerve cells

Question 38. A thin membrane cast off by the frog is composed of:

1. Squamous epithelium
2. Epitheloid cells
3. Columnar epithelium
4. Cuboidal epithelium.

Answer: 1. Squamous epithelium

Question 39. The fibrous tissue which connects the bones is called:

1. Ligament
2. Connective tissue
3. Tendon
4. Aponeurosis.

Answer: 1. Ligament

Question 40. The efferent process of neurons is known as:

1. Axon
2. Dendrite
3. Cyton
4. Neurofibrils.

Answer: 1. Axon

Mcq On Animal Tissues Question 41. The epithelium with more than one cell thick layer is known as:

1. Compound
2. Columnar
3. Squamous
4. Pseudostratified.

Answer: 1. Compound

Question 42. Nails, hoofs and horns are examples of:

1. Connective tissue
2. Bony tissue
3. Epidermal tissue
4. Cartilage tissue.

Answer: 3. Epidermal tissue

Question 43. Nerve cells originate from:

1. Mesoderm
2. Mesenchyme
3. Endoderm
4. Ectoderm.

Answer: 4. Ectoderm.

Question 44. Kupffer cells of the liver are:

1. Mast cells.
2. Fat cells
3. Loose connective tissue cells
4. Phagocytic cells.

Answer: 4. Phagocytic cells.

Question 45. RBCs of frogs are:

1. Circular and non-nucleated
2. Oval and non-nucleated
3. Oval and nucleated
4. Circular and nucleated.

Answer: 3. Oval and nucleated

Question 46. Blood platelets occur in only:

1. Mammals
2. Birds
3. Reptiles
4. Pisces.

Answer: 1. Mammals

Mcq On Animal Tissues Question 47. Interstitial fluid closely resembles:

1. Sea water
2. Lake water
3. Pond water
4. Rainwater.

Answer: 1. Seawater

Question 48. Bone is a:

1. Cell
2. Organ
3. Tissue
4. System.

Answer: 3. Tissue

Question 49. In the stratified epithelium, the basement membrane is in contact with the:

1. Upper layer
2. Second layer
3. Middle layer
4. Lowermost layer.

Answer: 4. Lowermost layer.

Question 50. Microvilli are:

1. Group of tissues
2. Group of cells
3. Group of cell inclusions
4. Filiform processes of the plasma membrane.

Answer: 4. Filiform processes of the plasma membrane.

Question 51. Epithelium differs from connective and supporting tissue by the presence of:

1. More intercellular substance
2. More cellular substance
3. More cytoplasm
4. Myelin sheath.

Answer: 2. More cellular substance

Mcq On Animal Tissues Question 52. ln a nerve fibre the outermost layer is the:

1. Schwann’s white substance
2. Peritoneul layer
3. Neurilemma
4. Myelin sheath.

Answer: 3. Neurilemma

Question 53. Different fibres of connective tissue are made of special types of proteins. The white fibres are made of:

1. Collagen
2. Elastin
3. Myosin
4. Reticulin.

Answer: 1. Collagen

Question 54. Non-medullated nerve fibres are present in the following:

1. Spinal nerves
2. Autonomic nervous system
3. Central nervous system
4. Peripheral nervous system

Answer: 2. Autonomic nervous system

Animal Tissue Recommended MCQs Question 55. The layer of epidermis which contains the dividing cells is called the:

1. Stratum corneum
2. Stratum Malpighi
3. Stratum lucidum
4. Stratum granulosum.

Answer: 2. Stratum Malpighi

Question 56. The sensation in the skin is perceived by:

1. The epidermis
2. Subcutaneous fatty layer
3. The dermis
4. Pigment cells.

Answer: 1. The epidermis

Question 57. Sarooiemma is a membrane that covers:

1. Muscle fibres
2. Protein fibres
3. Nerve fibres
4. Collagen fibres

Answer: 1. Muscle fibres

Question 58. Labyrinth in the nucleus is seen in:

1. Neutrophil cells
2. Bone cells
3. Salivary gland cells of insects
4. Nerve fibres.

Answer: 3. Salivary gland cells of insects

Question 59. Where would you look for simple cuboidal epithelium?

1. Nephron
2. Trachea
3. Mouth
4. Oesophagus.

Answer: 1. Nephron

Animal Tissue Recommended MCQs Question 60. Which one of the following is the largest cell?

1. Monocyte
2. Basophil
3. Neutrophil
4. Eosinophil.

Answer: 1. Monocyte

Question 61. Ciliated epithelium in our body is found in:

1. Ureter
2. Bile duct
3. Trachea
4. Oesophagus.

Answer: 3. Trachea

Question 62. The highly contractile cytoplasm of muscle cells is called:

1. Neuroplasrn
2. Germplasm
3. Sarcoplasm
4. Plasmagel.

Answer: 3. Sarcoplasm

Question 63. The long and spindle-shaped uninucleate muscle fibres without dark and light bands are:

1. Unstriated
2. Striated
3. Voluntary
4. Cardiac.

Answer: 1. Unstriated

Question 64. Besides binding different organs, connective tissue also serves as:

1. Excretory organ
2. Sensory organ.
3. Defence system against infection
4. Osmo-regululory organ.

Answer: 3. Defence system against infection

Animal Tissue Recommended MCQs Question 65. The undifferentiated connective tissue cells as seen in areolar tissue are:

1. Rnesothelium
2. Mesenchyme
3. Mesohyal
4. Mesenteric cells

Answer: 2. Mesenchyme

Question 66. The cells of connective tissue which help in bringing about the formation of libraries and helping in the repair of damaged tissues are:

1. Fibrocytes
2. Histiocytes
3. Lvlechanocytes
4. Lymphoidal cells.

Answer: 1. Fibrocytes

Question 67. Tire fibres which make the skin elastic are:

1. Yellow fibres
2. Striped muscle fibres
3. White fibres
4. Collagen fibres

Answer: 1. Yellow fibres

Question 68. The fibres which limit the elasticity of the skin are:

1. Yellow fibres
2. Smooth muscle fibres
3. White or collagen fibres
4. Striated muscle fibres.

Answer: 3. White or collagen fibres

Question 69. The cartilage with bundles of collagen fibres found in the intervertebral discs is called:

1. Hyaline cartilage
2. Fibrous cartilage
3. Elastic cartilage
4. Glass-like cartilage.

Answer: 2. Fibrous cartilage

Question 70. The bone cells are called:

1. Chondrocytes
2. Osteocytes
3. Fibrocytes
4. Histiocytes.

Answer: 2. Osteocytes

Question 71. If a bone is heated at a high temperature animal matter is lost and only mineral matter is left. Such a bone is called:

1. Replacing bone
2. Dried bone
3. Calcified bone
4. Decalcified bone

Answer: 2. Dried bone

Structural Organisation In Animals MCQ For NEET Biology Question 72. If a bone is kept in HCI for some time, its mineral matter is dissolved and only animal matter is left behind. Such a bone is called:

1. Decalcified bone
2. Replacing bone
3. Calcified bone
4. None of these.

Answer: 1. Decalcified bone

Question 73. The red blood cells of naturals are produced from:

1. Haemocytoblasts
2. Megakaryoblasts
3. Promyelocyte
4. Nlyelocyte.

Answer: 1. Haemocytoblasts

Question 74. In humans, red blood cells are flattened, circular, biconcave and:

1. Nucleated
2. Non-nucleated
3. Multirrucleated
4. Syncytial.

Answer: 2. Non-nucleated

Question 75. Serum differs from plasma in:

1. Absence of fibrinogen and other clotting factors
2. Having an excess of fibrinogen and other clotting factors
3. Absence of haemoglobin
4. Absence of haemocyanin.

Answer: 1. Absence of fibrinogen and other clotting factors

Question 76. Tendons are composed chiefly of:

1. Collagen fibres which form a criss-cross pattern
2. Collagen fibres which run in our direction
3. Etastin fibres which run in one direction
4. Fibro-carilage.

Answer: 2. Collagen fibres which run in our direction

Structural Organisation In Animals MCQ For NEET Biology Question 77. The life span of blood platelets is:

1. 3-5 days
2. 7-8 days
3. 100 days
4. Unlimited.

Answer: 1. 3-5 days

Question 78. The junction of the two neurons is termed:

1. Synapticula
2. Synopsis
3. Synapse
4. Junction.

Answer: 3. Synapse

Question 79. The process of burning bones, till it become white is called:

1. Calcination
2. Decalcification
3. Ossification
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Calcination

Question 80. Of the total inorganic components bone has calcium phosphate:

1. 62%
2. 10%
3. 85%
4. 5%

Answer: 3. 85%

Question 81. Muscle fibres are most close to:

1. Nerve fibre
2. Connective tissue
3. Skeletal tissue
4. Epithelial tissue.

Answer: 1. Nerve fibre

Question 82. The cells in blood that are most affected by changes in oxygen tension in the blood are:

1. Basophils
2. Monocytes
3. Neutrophils
4. Oxyphils.

Answer: 4. Oxyphils.

Structural Organisation In Animals MCQ For NEET Biology Question 83. For clotting of blood which of the following is necessary:

1. Na⁺ and thromboplastin
2. Ca⁺⁺ and thromboplastin
3. Na⁺ and k⁺
4. Na⁺ and prothrombin.

Answer: 2. Ca⁺⁺ and thromboplastin

Question 84. Goblet cells constitute:

1. Stratified columnar and unicellular mucous glands
2. Stratified columnar, unicellular mucous glands and modified columnar cells
3. Stratified squamous epithelial cells
4. All the above.

Answer: 2. Stratified columnar, unicellular mucous glands and modified columnar cells

Question 85. Due to the presence of Krause’s membranes, striated muscle is divided into many:

1. Chromocentres
2. Sarcomeres
3. Micromeres
4. Chromomeres.

Answer: 2. Sarcomeres

Question 86. Polycythemia refers to:

1. Abnormal rise in total RBC count
2. Different types of RBCs
3. Fall in total RBC count
4. Changes in the RBC cell count.

Answer: 1. Abnormal rise in total RBC count

Question 87. Extracellulartissue material in connective tissue is made of:

1. Fat
2. Carbohydrates
3. Insoluble proteins
4. Soluble proteins.

Answer: 3. Insoluble proteins

Question 88. Fibre-free extracellular materiai is seen predominantly in:

1. Pia mater
2. Dura mater
3. Blood
4. Matrix.

Answer: 3. Blood

Question 89. Megakaryocytes are normally formed in:

1. Erythrocytes
2. Chondrocytes
3. Leucocytes
4. Bone marrow.

Answer: 4. Bone marrow.

Question 90. Great tensile strength is characteristic of:

1. White fibrocartilage tissue
2. Tendon
3. Bone
4. Areolar tissue.

Answer: 3. Bone

Solved NEET MCQs On Animal Tissues Question 91. The nasal septum has:

1. White fibrocartilage
2. Cartilage
3. Hyaline cartilage
4. Elastic cartilage.

Answer: 4. Elastic cartilage.

Question 92. The Dermis of the skin of a mammal is a structure produced by:

1. The regeneration cells of the skin
2. The malpighian layer
3. The dermal cell
4. None of the above.

Answer: 4. None of the above.

Question 93. Hair in mammals is:

1. Epidermal structures
2. Mesodermal structures
3. Dermal structures
4. Endodermal derivatives.

Answer: 1. Epidermal structures

Question 94. Mammary glands in nature are:

1. Apocrine
2. Merocrine
3. Holocrine
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Apocrine

Question 95. Large sweat glands are found on:

1. External ears
2. Tip of nose
3. Areola mammary
4. Back side of the body.

Answer: 3. Areola mammary

Question 96. The modification of the skin at the terminal part of the dorsal surface of phalanges results in the foundation of:

1. Wrinkles
2. Nails
3. Hair
4. Feathers.

Answer: 2. Nails

Solved NEET MCQs On Animal Tissues Question 97. It red blood corpuscles are placed in distilled Water, they will:

1. Shrink and collapse
2. Increase in volume and burst
3. Stick together
4. Remain normal.

Answer: 2. Increase in volume and burst

Question 98. Bacteria and other pathogens are removed from bio-oil by:

1. Killing them with toxins
2. Phagocytosis by RBC’s
3. Phagocytosis by WBS’s
4. Blood coagulation around them.

Answer: 3. Phagocytosis by WBS’s

Question 99. Nerve cells originate from embryonic:

1. Ectoderm
2. Mesoderm
3. Endoderm
4. Both (1) and (2).

Answer: 1. Ectoderm

Question 100. Dark A-bands and light l-bands occur in:

1. Cardiac muscles only
2. Striated muscles
3. Involuntary muscles
4. Unstriped muscles.

Answer: 2. Striated muscles

Question 101. Cardiac muscles are striated with fibres being:

1. Syncytial and voluntary
2. Multinucleated
3. Nucleated and voluntary
4. Nucleated and involuntary.

Answer: 4. Nucleated and involuntary.

Question 102. If a clean dry bone (For Example. the femur of a frog) is kept in dil. HCl for about 3 days, it:

1. Breaks into pieces
2. Becomes soft and elastic
3. Dissolves
4. Remains unchanged.

Answer: 2. Becomes soft and elastic

Solved NEET MCQs On Animal Tissues Question 103. The collection of nerve cells inside the central nervous system is known as:

1. Ganglia
2. Nucleus
3. Association neurons
4. Adjustor neuron.

Answer: 1. Ganglia

Question 104. In which of the following organs squamous epithelium is likely to be found as a lining?

1. Uterus
2. Gall bladder
3. Intestine
4. Blood vessels.

Answer: 4. Blood vessels.

Question 105. The cells secreting heparin and serotonin are:

1. Lymphoid cells
2. Mast cells
3. Fibroblasts
4. Macrophages.

Answer: 2. Mast cells

Mcq On Animal Tissues Question 106. Bone marrow is largely composed of:

1. Periosteum and osteoblasts
2. Adipose tissue and blood vessels
3. Yellow and elastic tissue
4. Cartilage and elastic tissue.

Answer: 1. Periosteum and osteoblasts

Question 107. Serotonin in the blood:

1. Relaxes blood vessels
2. Helps in clotting of blood vessels
3. Constricts blood vessels
4. Prevents clotting of blood.

Answer: 3. Constricts blood vessels

Question 108. The marrow cavity present at the end of a long bone is internally lined by:

1. Periosteum
2. Endosteum
3. Epiosteum
4. Sarcolemma.

Answer: 1. Periosteum

Question 109. Which of the following damaged cells cannot be repaired?

1. Dermal cells
2. Bone cells
3. Brain cells
4. Liver cells.

Answer: 3. Brain cells

Question 110. Which of the following is responsible for the regeneration of cartilage?

1. Collagenous fibres
2. Blood vessels
3. Perichondrium
4. Matrix.

Answer: 3. Perichondrium

Mcq On Animal Tissues Question 111. The chief regulators of mammalian blood composition are:

1. Heart and arteries
2. Liver and kidneys
3. Lungs and pancreas
4. Thyroid and parathyroid glands.

Answer: 2. Liver and kidneys

Question 112. Polymorphonuclear leucocytes are:

1. Granulocytes
2. Agranulocytes
3. Lymphocytes
4. Monocytes.

Answer: 1. Granulocytes

Question 113. The covering of the heart muscles is known as:

1. Pericardium
2. Pia mater
3. Peritoneum
4. Pleural membrane.

Answer: 1. Pericardium

Question 114. The ends of the thrones are covered with elastic rubber-like things called:

1. Cartilage
2. Muscles
3. Tendons
4. Ligaments.

Answer: 4. Ligaments.

Question 115. The type of cartilage seen in the epiglottis is:

1. Fibrous cartilage
2. Elastic cartilage
3. Hyaline cartilage
4. Calcified cartilage.

Answer: 2. Elastic cartilage

Question 116. Brush border is a peculiarity of:

1. Secretory cells
2. Absorptive cells
3. Trone cells
4. Nerve cells.

Answer: 2. Absorptive cells

Animal Tissue Recommended MCQs  Question 117. The stratified epithelium in which the outermost layer becomes keratinized is found in:

1. Skin
2. Vagina
3. Nasal chamber
4. Lips.

Answer: 1. Skin

Question 118. Histiocytes found in connective tissue are helpful in:

1. Forming the blood cells after division
2. Collecting at the place of bacterial infection
3. Phagocytizing the sand particles
4. All the above.

Answer: 3. Phagocytizing the sand particles

Question 119. Which of the following secretes the bulk of the antibodies in the body?

1. Macrophages
2. Plasma cells
3. Fibroblasts
4. Mast cells.

Answer: 2. Fibroblasts

Question 120. The cartilage found in the external ear and epiglottis is:

1. Fibrous cartilage
2. Elastic cartilage
3. Hyaline cartilage
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Elastic cartilage

Question 121. The neck of the tubular gland of the stomach consists of mainly:

1. Chief cells
2. Mucous cells
3. Parietal cells
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Mucous cells

Animal Tissue Recommended MCQs  Question 122. Although the heart is an involuntary organ the fibres are different from the smooth muscle fibres in possessing:

1. Tendons
2. Sarcosryles
3. Sarcoplasm
4. Stratification.

Answer: 4. Stratification.

Question 123. The similarity between voluntary muscle fibres and cardiac muscle fibres is that they are both:

1. Syncytic
2. Branched
3. Unbranched
4. Non-nuclear.

Answer: 1. Syncytic

Question 124. Blood is formed of:

1. Plasma and cells formed in bone marrow
2. Plasma and R.B.C.
3. Plasma and blood platelets
4. Plasma and W.B.C.

Answer: 1. Plasma and cells formed in bone marrow

Question 125. Which type of tissue changes the diameter of blood vessels?

1. Epithelial
2. Connective
3. Nenous
4. Muscular.
5. Answer: 4. Muscular.

126. The camel’s hump is composed of a tissue which provides water when oxidized; it is:

1. Skeletal
2. Muscular
3. Adipose
4. Areolar.

Answer: 3. Adipose

Question 127. The umbilical cord is:

1. A mucous connective tissue
2. A fibrous tissue
3. An embryonic connective tissue
4. An adult connective tissue.

Answer: 3. An embryonic connective tissue

Question 128. The adipose tissue is composed of a mixture of:

1. Stearin and olein
2. Olein and palmitin
3. Stearin, palmatine and olein
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Stearin, palmatine and olein

Animal Tissue Recommended MCQs  Question 129. The Myofibrils of a muscle fibre contain:

1. Myosin
2. Actin
3. ATPase
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 130. In the axon of a motor nerve fibre, the nerve impulse travels:

1. Towards the cell body
2. Away from the cell body
3. Away from the synapse
4. In both directions.

Answer: 2. Away from the cell body

Question 131. What type of dense connective tissue is tunica albuginea?

1. Loose
2. Tough fibrous
3. Vascular
4. Mucous connective tissue

Answer: 2. Tough fibrous

Structural Organisation In Animals MCQ For NEET Biology Question 132. The Matrix of a bone is composed of:

1. Chondrin
2. Ostein
3. Auxin
4. Ossein.

Answer: 4. Ossein.

Question 133. Unstriped muscle fibres are found in:

1. Thigh
2. Iris
3. Tongue
4. Eye muscles.

Answer: 2. Iris

Question 134. Scheiderian epithelium is found in:

1. Trachea
2. Nasal passage
3. Bowman’s capsule
4. Loop of Henle.

Answer: 2. Nasal passage

Question 135. A sprain is caused by excessive pulling of:

1. Muscles
2. Ligaments
3. Tendons
4. Nerves.

Answer: 2. Ligaments

Question 136. Which of the following cells are found to be constant inhabitants of loose connective tissue?

1. Fibroblasts, histiocytes, mast cells, plasma cells and wandering haemocytes
2. Fibres and haemocytes
3. Fibroblasts and histiocytes
4. Mast cells and amoebocytes.

Answer: 3. Fibroblasts and histiocytes

Question 137. Which type of tissue forms the thin surface for gas exchange in the lungs?

1. Connective
2. Nervous
3. Epithelial
4. Muscular.

Answer: 3. Epithelial

Structural Organisation In Animals MCQ For NEET Biology Question 138. The component of blood responsible for producing antibodies is:

1. Thrombocytes
2. Monocytes
3. Lymphocytes
4. Erythrocytes.

Answer: 3. Lymphocytes

Question 139. The thick sheath of connective tissue enclosing the entire peripheral nerve is known as:

1. Epineurium
2. Perineurium
3. Endoneurium
4. Amphicyte.

Answer: 1. Epineurium

Question 140. Possible function of Nissl bodies is:

1. Protein synthesis
2. RNA synthesis
3. RNA storage
4. Impulse conduction.

Answer: 1. Protein synthesis

Question 141. Cells which secrete histamine occur in:

1. Liver
2. Lungs
3. Connective tissue
4. Stomach.

Answer: 3. Connective tissue

Question 142. Which of the tissues is most widely distributed in the body forming major Parts?

1. Nervous tissue
2. Muscular tissue
3. Epithelial tissue
4. Connective tissue.

Answer: 4. Connective tissue.

Question 143. The pinna is made up of:

1. Bone
2. Tendon
3. Ligament
4. Cartilage.

Answer: 4. Cartilage.

Question 144. Neurosecretory cells secrete:

1. Releasing factors
2. Enzymes
3. Sweat
4. Mucus.

Answer: 1. Releasing factors

Structural Organisation In Animals MCQ For NEET Biology Question 145. Cartilage receives its nutrition through:

1. Diffusion
2. Lymphatic channels
3. Hlnod vessels
4. Diffusion and imbibation.

Answer: 1. Diffusion

Question 146. Which one of the following cartilages helps in the easy birth of young ones without damage to the pelvic girdle?

1. Hyaline Cartilage
2. Fibrous Cartilage
3. Elastic Cartilage
4. None Of The Above.

Answer: 2. Fibrous Cartilage

Question 147. The fibrous membrane surrounding the several bundles of nerve fibres is:

1. Myelin sheath
2. Perineurium
3. Epineurium
4. Neurilemma.

Answer: 3. Epineurium

Question 148. Redbone marrow is Present in:

1. Tips of long bones
2. Tips for Short Bones
3. Bones of skull
4. Shafts of longlines

Answer: 1. Tips for long bones

Question 149. In the elastic cartilage, the arrangement of elastic fibres in the ground substance is:

1. Parallel
2. Diagonal
3. Random
4. In branched anastomoses.

Answer: 4. In branched anastomoses.

Question 150. The goblet cells of intestinal epithelium are examples of:

1. Unicellular glands
2. Multicellular glands
3. Squamous epithelium
4. Striated epithelium.

Answer: 1. Unicellular glands

Question 151. Haversian canals are found in:

1. Bone
2. Cartilage
3. Liver
4. Spleen

Answer: 1. Bone

Question 152. Cartilage is made up of cells called:

1. Chondrocytes
2. Lymphocytes
3. Monocytes
4. Phagocytes

Answer: 1. Chondrocytes

Question 153. The process of formation of various types of blood cells is known as:

1. Hemagglutination
2. Hemolysis
3. Haemophilia
4. Haemopoiesis.

Answer: 4. Haemopoiesis.

Question 154. Which of the following statements is false?

1. RBCs are called leucocytes
2. Platelets are also called thrombocytes.
3. In blood, O₂ is mainly carried in combination with haemoglobin
4. WBCs form a part of the body’s defence mechanism

Answer: 1. RBCs are called leucocytes

Question 155. Skeletal muscles develop from:

1. The ectoderm
2. The mesoderm
3. The endoderm
4. Al1 of above.

Answer: 2. The mesoderm

Question 156. Stratified squamous epithelium is found in:

1. Trachea
2. Epidermis
3. Mouth cavity
4. The lining of blood vessels.

Answer: 2. Epidermis

Question 157. Decrease in number of leucocytes is:

1. Leukaemia
2. Leucopenia
3. Polyerythermia
4. Hemolysis.

Answer: 2. Leucopenia

Structural Organisation In Animals MCQ For NEET Biology Question 158. Bones are connected by:

1. Tendons
2. Ligament
3. Muscles
4. Cartilage.

Answer: 2. Ligament

Question 159. Haversian canals are present in:

1. Frog’s bones
2. Mammalian bone
3. Bird’s bone
4. All of the above.

Answer: 2. Mammalian bone

Question 160. The internal lining ofblood vessel is called:

1. Mesothelium
2. Stratified epithelium
3. Endothelium
4. Ciliated epithelium.

Answer: 3. Endothelium

Question 161. Normal connective tissues are absent in:

1. Heart
2. CNS
3. Kidney
4. Liver.

Answer: 2. CNS

Question 162. Longitudinal channels of bone are called:

1. Lacunae
2. Marrow cavity
3. Haversian canal
4. Volkman’s canal.

Answer: 3. Haversian canal

Question 163. The different processes of neurons are:

1. Dendron
2. Cyton
3. Axon
4. Neurofibrils.

Answer: 3. Axon

Question 164. Abnormal rise in the total count of RBC is called:

1. Leukaemia
2. Leucopenia
3. Thrombocytosis
4. Polycythemia.

Answer: 4. Polycythemia.

Question 165. Hirudin, a biological substance found in leech, helps in:

1. Coagulation of blood
2. Digestion of blood
3. Hydrolyzing fibrinogen to fibrin
4. Prevents clotting of blood.

Answer: 4. Prevents clotting of blood.

Question 166. Sarcosome is the term given to:

1. ER of muscles
2. The functional unit of muscle fibre
3. Mitochondria of muscles
4. The sheath around muscle fibre.

Answer: 3. Mitochondria of muscles

Question 167. Erythropoiesis is:

1. Lysis of erythrocytes
2. Formation of erythrocytes
3. Agglutination of RBC
4. Clumping of RBC.

Answer: 2. Formation of erythrocytes

Structural Organisation In Animals MCQ For NEET Biology Question 168. Histogenesis is:

1. Differentiation of tissues from one another
2. Disintegration of tissue
3. Study of tissues
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Differentiation of tissues from one another

Question 169. Which of the following is correct?

1. Neuron, neuroglia, medullary sheath, myosin
2. Prothrombin, heparin, fibrinogen thromboplastin
3. Cyton, axon, dendron, nice granules
4. Neurilemma, z-band, myelin, neurofibril.

Answer: 3. Cyton, axon, dendron, nice granules

Question 170. Histamine is released by:

1. Fibroblasts
2. Mast cells
3. Histiocytes
4. Plasma cells.

Answer: 2. Mast cells

• Biotechnology And Its Applications Multiple Choice Questions
• Basic Features Of Development Multiple Choice Questions
• Growth, Repair Regeneration Ageing And Death Multiple Choice Questions
• Kingdom Monera Multiple Choice Questions
• Origin Of Life Multiple Choice Questions
• Evidence Of Evolution Relationship Among Organisms Multiple Choice Questions
• Theory Of Evolution By Natural Selection Multiple Choice Questions
• Nervous System Multiple Choice Questions
• Evolution Of Man Multiple Choice Questions
• Human Health And Common Human Diseases  Multiple Choice Questions
• Drugs And Drug Dependence Mental Health Growth Of Human Populations Multiple Choice Questions
• Tools And Techniques Multiple Choice Questions
• Growth And Development Multiple Choice Questions

• Muscular System Multiple Choice Questions
• Sense Organs Multiple Choice Questions
• Elements Of Heredity And Variations Multiple Choice Questions
• Strategies For Enhancement In Food Production Plant Sources Multiple Choice Questions
• Biomolecules Multiple Choice Questions
• Morphology Of Plants Multiple Choice Questions
• Inflorescence And Flower Multiple Choice Questions
• Agricultural Chemical Pesticides And Plant Pests Multiple Choice Questions
• Gene Expression And Gene Regulation Multiple Choice Questions
• Enzymes Multiple Choice Questions
• Cell Unit Of Lift And Structural Organization  Multiple Choice Questions
• Plant Anatomy Multiple Choice Questions
• Animal Kingdom Non-Chordate Phyla Multiple Choice Questions
• Morphology Of Animals Multiple Choice Questions
• Animal Tissues Multiple Choice Questions
• Gymnosperms Multiple Choice Questions
• Animal Kingdom Non Chordate Phyla Multiple Choice Questions
• Phylum Chordata Multiple Choice Questions
• Five Kingdoms Classification Multiple Choice Questions
• Taxonomy Of Angiosperms Multiple Choice Questions
• Nature and Scope of Biology Multiple Choice Questions
• Reproductive Health Multiple Choice Questions
• Biodiversity and Wildlife Conservation Multiple Choice Questions
• Environmental Issues Multiple Choice Questions
• Principles And Processes Of Biotechnology Multiple Choice Questions
• Organisms and Populations Multiple Choice Questions
• Animal Nutrition and Digestive System Multiple Choice Questions
• Respiration In Plants Multiple Choice Questions
• Mineral Nutrition In Plants  Multiple Choice Questions
• Photosynthesis And Translocation Of Organic Solutes Multiple Choice Questions
• Pteridophyta Multiple Choice Questions
• Plant Kingdom Bryophyta Multiple Choice Questions
• Kingdom Fungi Multiple Choice Questions
• Kingdom Protista Multiple Choice Questions
• The Living World Multiple Choice Questions
• Homeostasis and Osmoregulation Multiple Choice Questions
• Respiratory System In Animals Multiple Choice Questions
• Reproductive System in Animals Multiple Choice Questions
• Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants Multiple Choice Questions
• Blood Circulatory System in Animals Multiple Choice Questions
• Plant Kingdom Multiple Choice Questions
• The Living World Nature And Scope Of Biology Multiple Choice Questions
• Plant Water Relation Water Relations Of A Cell Multiple Choice Questions
• Nature and Scope of Biology Multiple-Choice Questions

• Biotechnology And Its Applications Notes
• Basic Features Of Development Notes
• Growth, Repair Regeneration Ageing And Death Notes
• Kingdom Monera Notes
• Origin Of Life Notes
• Evidence Of Evolution Relationship Among Organisms Notes
• Theory Of Evolution By Natural Selection Notes
• Nervous System Notes
• Evolution Of Man Notes
• Human Health And Common Human Diseases (Understanding Diseases And Immune System) Notes
• Drugs And Drug Dependence Mental Health Growth Of Human Populations Notes
• Tools And Techniques Notes
• Growth And Development Notes
• Strategies For Enhancement In Food Production Animal Sources Notes
• Muscular System Notes
• Sense Organs Notes
• Skeletal Muscles Notes

• Elements Of Heredity And Variations Notes
• Strategies For Enhancement In Food Production Plant Sources Notes
• Cell Reproduction Notes
• Biomolecules Notes
• Microbes In Human Welfare And Biofertilizers Notes
• Morphology Of Plants Notes
• Chromosomal Basic Of Inheritance Genes And Chromosomes Notes
• Nature Of Gene Notes
• Biomedical Technologies Notes
• Inflorescence And Flower Notes
• Bioenergy Notes
• Gene Expression And Gene Regulation Notes
• Fruits Notes
• Enzymes Notes
• Biomembranes And Cell Wall Notes
• Cell Unit Of Lift And Structural Organization Notes
• Plant Anatomy Notes
• Morphology Of Animals Notes
• Animal Tissues Notes
• Endocrine System Notes
• Ecosystem Notes
• Gymnosperms Notes
• Phylum Chordata  Notes
• Five Kingdoms Classification Notes
• Taxonomy Of Angiosperms Notes
• Nature and Scope of Biology Notes
• Reproductive Health Notes
• Biodiversity and Wildlife Conservation Notes
• Environmental Issues Notes
• Principles And Processes Of Biotechnology Notes
• Organisms and Populations Notes
• Animal Nutrition and Digestive System Notes
• Respiration In Plants Notes
• Mineral Nutrition In Plants Notes
• Photosynthesis And Translocation Of Organic Solutes Notes
• Pteridophyta Notes
• Plant Kingdom Bryophyta Notes
• Kingdom Fungi Notes
• Kingdom Protista Notes
• The Living World Notes
• Homeostasis and Osmoregulation Notes
• Respiratory System In Animals Notes
• Reproductive System in Animals Notes
• Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants Notes
• Blood Circulatory System in Animals Notes
• Plant kingdom Notes
• The Living World Nature And Scope Of Biology Notes
• Plant Water Relation Water Relations Of A Cell Notes
• Nature and Scope of Biology Notes

NEET Biology Gymnosperms Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Which one of the features is true for Pinus

1. Pivsenee of antheridia
2. Double fertilization
3. Biciliated sperms
4. Haploid endosperm.

Answer: 4. Haploid endosperm.

Question 2. Needles of finns possess meristem at:

1. Apical portion
2. Intercalary portion
3. Basal portion
4. Lateral portion.

Answer: 3. Basal portion

Question 3. Pinewood consists almost entirely of:

1. Tracheids with bordered pits
2. Vessels
3. Tracheids and vessels both in equal amount
4. More vessels than tracheids.

Answer: 1. Tracheids with bordered pits

Question 4. In the embryo of pinus, rosette cells lie :

1. Above suspensor cells
2. Between suspensor and embryonal cells
3. Between primary and secondary suspensor cells
4. Between embryonal cells and apical cells.

Answer: 1. Above suspensor cells

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

NEET Gymnosperm MCQ Question 5. The resin duct of a gymnospermous stem is an example of:

1. Intercellular space
2. Schizogenous cavity
3. Lysigenous cavity
4. Big vacuole.

Answer: 2. Schizogenous cavity

Question 6. The time required between formation in pinus is :

1. Three months
2. Six months
3. nine months
4. Twelve months.

Answer: 4. Twelve months.

Question 7. The gametophytes of pinus are protected from desiccation by living in

1. Moist soil
2. Moist tissue of sporophyte in the cone
3. Bogs and marshes
4. The rainy season only.

Answer: 2. Moist tissue of sporophyte in the cone

Question 8. Which statement out of the following is correct regarding pinus?

1. Pinus forms deciduous trees in temperate regions
2. Pinus grows in deserts and exhibits xerophytic characters
3. Pinus is cosmopolitan in distribution
4. Pinus is of great economic value.

Answer: 4. Pinus is of great economic value.

Question 9. Which is the smallest gymnosperm among the following?

1. Cerberus
2. Dalbergia
3. Pinus
4. Guest

Answer: 3. Pinus

Question 10. In gymnosperms, archegonia lack :

1. Neck canal cells
2. Venter cells
3. Both
4. None of these.

Answer: 4. None of these.

NEET Gymnosperm MCQ Question 11. The megasporangium is also known as:

1. Fruit
2. Endosperm
3. Micropyle
4. Ovule.

Answer: 3. Micropyle

Question 12. Which one is common between funaria and pinus?

1. No fruits are produced
2. No seeds are produced
3. Anthcridia and archegonia are present
4. A pollen tube is formed.

Answer: 1. No fruits are produced

Question 13. In pinus, the terminal portion of the ovuliferous scale is called :

1. Embryo sac
2. Bract scale
3. Ovule
4. Apophysis.

Answer: 4. Apophysis.

Question 14. Which of the following sets of structures in pinus belong entirely to the gametophytic generation?

1. Ovuliferous scale, embryo, bract scale
2. Bract scale, urothelial cells in pollen, integument
3. Embryo, endosperm, pollen
4. Endosperm, sperm, megaspore.

Answer: 4. Endosperm, sperm, megaspore.

Question 15. The edible part of the seed of the pinus :

1. Epispore
2. Endosperm
3. Perisperm
4. Pericarp.

Answer: 4. Pericarp.

Question 16. The group of phanerogams which have naked seeds or which produce ovules and seeds exposed on open sporophytes are called:

1. Phanerogams
2. Angiosperms
3. Gymnosperms
4. Spermatophyta.

Answer: 2. Angiosperms

Gymnosperms Recommended MCQs NEET Questions Question 17. The roots of gymnosperm are:

1. Taproot
2. Adventitious roots
3. Rhizoid
4. Rhizophores.

Answer: 3. Rhizoid

Question 18. In which of the following manners do gymnosperms differ from angiosperms?

1. Formation of endosperm before fertilization
2. Formation of pollen tube
3. Production of ovules
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Formation of endosperm before fertilization

Question 19. Angiosperms and gymnosperms resemble in having:

1. Vessels in wood
2. Mode of fertilization
3. Siphonogamy
4. Nature of endosperm.

Answer: 1. Vessels in wood

Question 20. The nucellus in a gymnosperm has 24 chromosomes, the number of chromosomes in its endosperm cells will be:

1. 48
2. 36
3. 24
4. 12.

Answer: 3. 24

Question 21. Microsporophyll of pinus is equivalent to :

1. Pollen grain of angiosperms
2. Stamen
3. Male gamelophyte
4. Inflorescence.

Answer: 4. Inflorescence.

Gymnosperms Recommended MCQs NEET Questions Question 22. Transfusion tissue replaces the veins in:

1. Cycas
2. Ferns
3. Pinus and years
4. Selaginella.

Answer: 2. Ferns

Question 24. The giant tree among the pines belongs to the genus:

1. Cedrus
2. Pinus
3. Calbcrgia
4. Sequoia.

Answer: 4. Sequoia.

Question 25. Canada balsam is an oleoresin obtained from:

1. Abies balsamea
2. Impatiens balsamic
3. Finns
4. Helianthus

Answer: 1. Abies balsamea

Question 26. Plant of pine is:

1. Annual herb
2. Biennial herb
3. Evergreen tree
4. Deciduous tree.

Answer: 3. Evergreen tree

Question 27. The megasporophyll of pinus consists of :

1. Both bract and ovuliferous scales
2. Only bract scales
3. Only ovuliferous scales
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Both bract and ovuliferous scales

Question 28. The neck of the archegonium in pinus:

1. Five tiers of cells
2. Six to eight tiers of 4 cells
3. Two tiers of 4 cells
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Two tiers of 4 cells

Question 29. The seed of pinus is:

1. A monocotyledonous
2. Dicotyledonous
3. Polycotyledonous
4. Tetracotyledonous.

Answer: 3. Polycotyledonous

Gymnosperms Recommended MCQs NEET Questions Question 30. The wing of the seed of pinus develops from ;

1. The outer layer of the integument and basal part of the ovuliferous scale
2. The inner layer of the integument and basal part of the ovuliferous scale
3. Only from the outer layer of the integument
4. From ovuliferous scale.

Answer: 4. Frorn ovuliferous scale.

Question 31. In pinus, female gametophyte develops only from :

1. Uppermost haploid megaspore
2. The lowermost haploid megaspore
3. Penultimate megaspore
4. The megaspore.

Answer: 2. The lowermost haploid megaspore

Question 32. The foliage leaves or needles irc pinus are borne by:

1. Branches of unlimited growth
2. Branches of limited growth
3. Branches of limited and unlimited growth
4. Female cones.

Answer: 2. Branches of limited growth

Question 33. What nature does, the acicular nature of the pinus needle depict?

1. Mesophytic
2. Xerophytic
3. Xerophytic
4. Sporophytic.

Answer: 2. Xerophytic

Question 34. Female gametophyte (endosperm) in pinus is formed :

1. Before fertilization
2. After pollination
3. After fertilization
4. None of the above,

Answer: 1. Before fertilization

Question 36. Gymnosperms originated in:

1. Cenozoic
2. Palaeozoic
3. Precambrian
4. Mesozoic.

Answer: 2. Palaeozoic

Gymnosperms Recommended MCQs NEET Questions Question 37. Gymnosperms differ from angiosperms in :

1. Having seeds
2. Having naked ovules
3. Showing heterospory
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Having naked ovules

Question 38. Turpentine is obtained from:

1. Curcuma longa
2. Bryophyte
3. Pinus australis
4. Ophioglossum.

Answer: 3. Pinus australis

Question 39. In pinus only the lower part of the oospore is concerned with the development of the embryo, such development is :

1. Periblastic
2. Holoblastic
3. Meroblastic
4. None of these.

Answer: 3. Meroblastic

Question 40. The mature embryo of the pinus consists of :

1. Radicle and plumule
2. 1 + 10 Cotyledons
3. Radicle, plumule and many cotyledons
4. 3 + Endosperm.

Answer: 3. Radicle, plumule and many cotyledons

Question 41. The wood obtained from the pinus plant is used for:

1. Furniture
2. Building purposes
3. Matchboxes
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 42. Winged seeds are found in :

1. Cycas
2. Pinus
3. Papaver species
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Pinus

NEET Biology Plant Kingdom Questions Question 43. Integument in pinus ovule is :

1. Haploid
2. Diploid
3. Triploid
4. Tetraploid.

Answer: 2. Diploid

Question 44. Sclerenchyma of the hypodermis of the pinus needle helps in:

1. Photosynthesis
2. Increasing absorption
3. Providing support
4. Checking transpiration,

Answer: 3. Providing support

Question 45. Perisperm is :

1. Haploid
2. Diploid
3. Polyploid
4. Triploid.

Answer: 2. Diploid

Question 46. The number of archegonia in the pinus ovule is generally

1. 1 To 4
2. 2 To 5
3. 2 To 6
4. 1 To 8.

Answer: 2. 2 To 5

Question 47. Ovules in the pinus are generally:

1. Anatropous with three integuments
2. Anatropous with one integument
3. Amphitropous with three integuments
4. Orthotropous with one integument.

Answer: 2. Anatropous with one integument

NEET Biology Plant Kingdom Questions Question 48. In pinus, megaspores on germination forms :

1. Pollen tube with two motile sperms
2. Endosperm with archegonia
3. Endosperm with sperms
4. Endosperm with embryo core.

Answer: 2. Endosperm with archegonia

Question 49. Among the following which docs do not belong to sporophyte generation in pinus?

1. Roots
2. Endosperm
3. Dwarf shoot
4. Long shoot.

Answer: 2. Endosperm

Question 50. In pinus sylvestris spur is:

1. Trifoliar
2. Bifoliar
3. Multifoliar
4. Tetrafoliar.

Answer: 2. Bifoliar

Question 51. Chailgoza is obtained from:

1. Pinus roxburghii
2. Pinus gerardiana
3. Pinus wallichiana
4. Pinus longifolia

Answer: 2. Pinus gerardiana

Question 52. The girdle loaf traces in Cyrus go to leaves :

1. After making a semi-circle
2. After making a complete circle
3. After making two concentric circles
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. After making a semi-circle

Question 53. The male cone of the pinus is a modification of

1. Simple polyembryony
2. Cleavage polyembryony
3. Both simple and cleavage polyembryony
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Cleavage polyembryony

NEET Biology Plant Kingdom Questions Question 54. The female cone of the pinus is a modification of

1. Branches
2. Dwarf shoot
3. Long shoot
4. Leaf

Answer: 3. Long shoot

Question 55. In cycas, megasporangia are located on its megasporophyll

1. Dorsally
2. Ventrally
3. Laterally
4. Apically

Answer: 3. Laterally

Question 57. Seed of finns shows three generations as :

1. Parent sporophyte, gametophyte and future sporophyte
2. Parent gametophyte, sporophyte and future gametophyte
3. Parent sporophyte, sporophyte, future gametophyte
4. All three sporophytes.

Answer: 1. Parent sporophyte, gametophyte, and future sporophyte

Question 58. Finns seed shows:

1. Hypogeal germination
2. Epigeal germination
3. Dormancy
4. None of the above

Answer: 2. Epigeal germination

Question 59. Monkey puzzle is common name of:

1. Araucaria auracana
2. Finns raxburghii
3. Taxodium
4. Cedrus deodora.

Answer: 1. Araucaria auracana

Gymnosperm MCQ Question 60. The female cone of the pinus can be compared to which part of the plant:

1. Flower
2. Mcgasporophyll
3. Inflorescence
4. Microsporophyll.

Answer: 3. Inflorescence

Question 61. Female cone of finns forms seed in:

1. One year
2. Two years
3. Three years
4. Four years.

Answer: 3. Three years

Question 62. The male gametophyte of cycas differs from that of an angiosperm in:

1. Producing two male gametes
2. Producing a pollen tube with a tube nucleus and two ciliated motile male gametes
3. Producing a pollen tube and a nucleus
4. Starting its formation in situ.
5. Answer: 2. Producing a pollen tube with a tube nucleus and two ciliated motile male gametes

Question 63. In which portion of Cyrus are found diplomatic vascular bundles?

1. Root
2. Stem
3. Leaflet
4. Racltis and leaflet.

Answer: 4. Racltis and leaflet.

Question 64. In which of the following regions of cyras the algal zone is found?

1. Stem
2. Normal roots
3. Coralloid roots
4. Leaflet.

Answer: 3. Coralloid roots

Question 65. Male cone of pinus replaces:

1. Ncedlcs
2. Scales
3. Dwarf shoots
4. Long shoots.

Answer: 3. Dwarf shoots

Question 66. Pollen grains in cycas arc shed at:

1. 1-Celled stage
2. 2-Celled stage
3. 3-Celled stage
4. 4-Cellcd stage.

Answer: 3. 3-Cellcd stage

Gymnosperm MCQ Question 67. In cycas, the pollen lube is:

1. Haustorial in nature
2. Sperm carrier
3. Carrier of ovule
4. Carrier of archegonia.

Answer: 2. Sperm carrier

Question 68. Pinus is:

1. Deciduous
2. Dioecious
3. Monoecious
4. None of these.

Answer: 3. Monoecious

Question 69. Antherozoids of cycas are :

1. Aflagellate
2. Dinoflagellate
3. Triflagellale
4. Multiflagellate.

Answer: 4. Multiflagellate.

Question 70. In cycas ovules are :

1. Orthotropous and unitegmic
2. Anatropous and unitegmic
3. Orthotropus and tritegniic
4. Anatropous and tritegmic.

Answer: 1. Orthotropous and unitegmic

Question 71. The largest sperms are found in:

1. Cycas
2. Gnetum
3. Pinus
4. Welwitschia.

Answer: 1. Cycas

Question 72. Which of the following is a living fossil?

1. Ginkgo
2. Abies
3. Pinus
4. Cedrus.

Answer: 1. Ginkgo

Gymnosperm MCQ Question 73. Gymnosperms do not form fruits because they lack:

1. Pollination
2. Fertilization
3. Seeds
4. Ovary.

Answer: 4. Ovary.

Question 74. In gymnosperms, pollination is carried through:

1. Insects
2. Birds
3. Wind
4. Bats.

Answer: 3. Wind

Question 75. Which of the following is the best explanation for excurrent (pyramidal shape of pinus tree.)?

1. Effect of auxins on the growth of stem tip
2. Competition between adjacent trees for sunlight
3. Efficiency for water transport
4. Adaptation for wind pollination.

Answer: 4. Adaptation for wind pollination.

Question 76. Turpentine is obtained from:

1. Ferns
2. Gymnospemious wood
3. Angiospermous flowers
4. Angiospermous wood.

Answer: 2. Gymnospemious wood

Gymnosperm MCQ Question 77. The seeds of cycas are :

1. Enclosed by fruit wall
2. Enclosed within flower
3. Naked and no fruit wall
4. Absent.

Answer: 3. Naked and no fruit wall

Question 78. Dwarf shoot of pinus is :

1. Shed every year
2. Shed after 2—3 years
3. Shed after five years
4. Never shed.

Answer: 2. Shed after 2—3 years

Question 79. Cycas occurs commonly in :

1. South america
2. North america
3. Southeast Asia
4. Europe.

Answer: 3. Southeast Asia

Question 80. Secondary wood in cycas is devoid of or (wood in cycas does not have the following):

1. Protoxylem
2. Vessels
3. Metaxylem
4. Tracheids.

Answer: 2. Vessels

Question 81. In pinus, the male gametes are :

1. Non-ciliate
2. Multiciliate
3. Biciliate
4. Uniciliate.

Answer: 1. Non-ciliate

Question 82. Multiciliated antherozoids occur in:

1. Riccia and funeral
2. Pteris and cycas
3. Riccia and pteris
4. Marchantia and riccia.

Answer: 2. Pteris and cycas

Question 83. Sulphur shower refers to :

1. Sulphur springs
2. The yellow colour of pollen grains
3. Pollen dust of pinus
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Pollen dust of pinus

Question 84. In cycas:

1. Male strobilus (cone) and megasporophylls occur on separate individuals
2. Male strobilus and megasporophylls occur on the same individual
3. The same cone consists of both micro-and mega-sporophylls
4. The same sporophyll bears micro-sporangia and ovules.

Answer: 1. Male strobilus (cone) and megasporophylls occur on separate individuals

Question 85. Tracheids of cycas are with :

1. Uniseriate bordered pits
2. Biseriate bordered pits
3. Multiseriate bordered pits
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Multiseriate bordered pits