Sainavle

NEET Biology Five Kingdoms Of Life And Biological Classification Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Karvotaxonomy is based upon :

1. The chemical nature of chromosome
2. Arrangement of chromosome
3. Architect of nucleus
4. The pattern of bands on the chromosome.

Answer: 2. Arrangement of chromosome

Question 2. The term “new systematics” was introduced by :

1. Charles Darwin
2. George Bentham
3. Julian Huxley
4. A. B. Randal.

Answer: 3. George Bentham

Question 3. The approximate number of species known today is :

1. 1.00.000
2. 2,00,000 To 3,00,000
3. 1.7 million
4. 1.17 million.

Answer: 3. 1.7 million

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 4. Taxon refers to:

1. Genus
2. Family
3. Order
4. All these.

Answer: 4. All these.

Biological Classification MCQ For NEET Biology Question 5. Which of the following has doubtful status?

1. Bacteria
2. Viruses
3. Blue-green algae
4. Polo.

Answer: 2. Viruses

Question 6. The Latin binomial for a dog is properly written as :

1. Canis familiaris
2. Familiaris canis
3. Kanis familiaris
4. Canis familiaris.

Answer: 4. Canis familiaris.

Question 7. On examining a slide, you observe, there are numerous individual cells containing chloroplasts and swimming around rapidly. You conclude that this material belongs to the kingdom:

1. Plantae
2. Protista
3. Fungi
4. Monera

Answer: 2. Protista

Question 8. Major diversity of living organisms is found in :

1. Temperate forests
2. Taiga forests
3. Grasslands
4. Tropical rain forests.

Answer: 4. Tropical rainforests.

Question 9. Classification based on several characters is :

1. Natural
2. Artificial
3. Hierarchy
4. Phylogenetic.

Answer: 1. Natural

Question 10. In a taxonomic hierarchy, the various categories are arranged in :

1. Descending series
2. Horizontal series
3. Ascending series
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Descending series

Biological Classification MCQ For NEET Biology Question 11. The system of arrangement of organisms into groups showing relationships is :

1. Identification
2. Classification
3. Nomenclature
4. None of them.

Answer: 2. Classification

Question 12. The science that deals with the classification, identification, and nomenclature of organisms is called :

1. Physiology
2. Ecology
3. Biology
4. Systematics.

Answer: 4. Systematics.

Question 13.1 Lie father of taxonomy is:

1. Charles Darwin
2. John ray
3. Linnaeus
4. Julian Huxley.

Answer: 3. Linnaeus

Question 14. Biochemical characters of organisms form the basis of classification, called :

1. Systematics
2. Ecology
3. Numerical taxonomy
4. Chemotaxonomy.

Answer: 4. Chemotaxonomy.

Question 15. Most primitive organisms are :

1. Protists
2. Bacteria
3. Algae
4. Fungi.

Answer: 2. Bacteria

Question 16. A virion is a :

1. Viral ribosome
2. Viral lysosome
3. Viral gene
4. Virus.

Answer: 3. Viral gene

Biological Classification MCQ For NEET Biology Question 17. The suffix for the subdivision name is :

1. Phylina
2. Opsida
3. Ideas
4. Ales.

Answer: 1. Phylina

Question 18. The natural system of classification was proposed by :

1. Bentham and hooker
2. Hooker and Linnaeus
3. Bentham and Huxley
4. Darwin and Lamarck.

Answer: 1. Bentham and hooker

Question 19. The classification of plants into herbs, shrubs, and trees is:

1. Artificial
2. Phylogenetic
3. Natural
4. None of these.

Answer: 1. Artificial

Question 20. Which one of the following taxonomic categories tops the hierarchy of categories?

1. Genus
2. Kingdom
3. Class
4. Phylum.

Answer: 2. Kingdom

Question 21. A phylogenetic classification is based on :

1. External features alone
2. Floral characters alone
3. Origin and relationship of plant or animal groups
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Origin and relationship of plant or animal groups

Question 22. Taxon refers to :

1. Genus
2. Family
3. Order
4. Taxonomic group of any rank.

Answer: 4. Taxonomic group of any rank.

Biological Classification MCQ For NEET Biology Question 23. The classification of plants and animals based on chromosome number is called :

1. Cytotaxonomy
2. Biochemical systematics
3. Taxonomy
4. Numerical taxonomy.

Answer: 4. Numerical taxonomy.

Question 24. Systematic aids in controlling epidemic diseases because:

1. Identification of vectors
2. Killing their causative agents
3. Observing their way of life
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Identification of vectors

Question 25. Herbarium helps in the :

1. Preserving the plants
2. Keeping the plants
3. Comparative study of plants in an area
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 26. Systematics is useful in agriculture because it aids in :

1. Evolution of new plants
2. Plant protection
3. Identification of plant pathogens, parasites, or pests
4. A complete study of plants.

Answer: 3. Identification of plant pathogens, parasites, or pests

Question 27. The Linnaeus system of classification contains:

1. 4 Classes of plants
2. 8 Classes of plants
3. 16 Classes of plants
4. 24 Classes of plants

Answer: 4. 24 Classes of plants

Important MCQs on Biological Classification Question 28. An artificial system of classification was given by

1. Linnaeus
2. Darwin
3. Amarok
4. Wallace.

Answer: 1. Linnaeus

Question 29. Fuller Ami tippo’s system of classification is :

1. An artificial system
2. The phylogenetic system is natural
3. Partly natural and partly phylogenetic.

Answer: 3. Partly natural and partly phylogenetic.

Question 30. Liverworts and mosses are included under :

1. Pteridophytes
2. Bryophyta
3. Angiosperms
4. Gymnospemis.

Answer: 2. Bryophyta

Question 31. In which of the following groups would you place a plant that produces seeds but lacks flowers :

1. Fungi
2. Pteridophytes
3. Gymnospemis
4. Angiosperms.

Answer: 3. Gymnospemis

Question 32. “Species Plantarum” and “Systema Naturae” were written by :

1. Engler and pram
2. Bentham and hooker
3. Carl. Linnaeus
4. Wallace.

Answer: 3. Carl. Linnaeus

Question 33. The concept of genus was first proposed by :

1. Linnaeus
2. Braunfels
3. Bentham
4. Tournefort.

Answer: 2. Braunfels

Important MCQs on Biological Classification Question 34. Central National Herbarium is situated at:

1. Chennai
2. Sibpur (Kolkata)
3. Tarapur (Mumbai))
4. Dehradun.

Answer: 2. Sibpur (Kolkata)

Question 35. The ending name of the class is :

1. —Accac
2. —Opsida
3. — Ideas
4. —Ales.

Answer: 2. —Opsida

Question 36. The taxonomic category, ‘division’ ends in :

1. —Icae
2. —Opsida
3. —Phyla
4. —Ineae.

Answer: 3. —Phyla

Question 37. Linnaeus is credited with introducing :

1. The concept of inheritance of acquired characters
2. The law of limiting factors.
3. The binomial system of nomenclature
4. Principle of independent assortment.

Answer: 3. Tltc binomial system of nomenclature

Question 38. The arrangement of taxa is called :

1. Key
2. Hierarchy
3. Natural classification
4. Taxonomy.

Answer: 2. Hierarchy

Question 39. According to the law of priority, the valid name of an organism is:

1. Oldest name applied
2. Oldest name modified by new workers
3. Most popular name
4. The name is given in Latin.

Answer: 1. Oldest name applied

Important MCQs on Biological Classification Question 40. Binomial nomenclature means writing the name of an organism in two words which designate :

1. Order and family
2. Family and genus
3. Species and family
4. Genus and species.

Answer: 4. Genus and species.

Question 41. The biological species concept was given by :

1. Aristotle
2. Johnruy
3. Ernst Meyer
4. Buffon.

Answer: 3. Ernst Meyer

Question 42. What is the ending name for the order?

1. 1-Aceae
2. 2-Oideae
3. 3-Ideas
4. 4-Ales.

Answer: 4. 4-Ales.

Question 43. Which one of the following is the famous work of nature in which Linnaeus introduced “binomial nomenclature”?

1. Sexuality of plants
2. Systema Naturae
3. Species Plantarum
4. Genera plantarum.

Answer: 2. Systema Naturae

Question 44. Plants were given (their names in Latin because:

1. Latin is a simple language
2. Scientists wanted to impress people with Latin words.
3. Latin was the common language
4. None of the above.

Answer: 4. None of the above.

Question 45. The suffix used for the tribe is :

1. —Icae
2. —Ineae
3. —Inae
4. —Ini

Answer: 4. —Ini

Question 46. Which explanation is correct for the name tamarindus indicus [L]?

1. The letter [L] shows that the name is from the Latin language
2. The letter [L] means that Linnaeus who gave this name to the plant
3. The letter [L] has no connection with the name
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. The letter [L] means that Linnaeus who gave this name to the plant

Question 47. The botanical name of an edible banana is:

1. Musa sapientum
2. Musa erectus
3. Mitsa textiles
4. None of these.

Answer: 1. Musa sapientum

Important MCQs on Biological Classification Question 48. The highest unit of classification is :

1. Kingdom
2. Class
3. Phylum
4. Species.

Answer: 1. Kingdom

Question 49. Which of the following includes all of the others?

1. Class
2. Order
3. Genus
4. Species.

Answer: 1. Class

Question 50. The basic unit of classification of plants and animals is:

1. Genus
2. Species
3. Variety
4. Sub-species.

Answer: 2. Species

Question 51. The common units of classification are :

1. 1 Genus
2. 2 Family
3. 3 Species
4. 4 Order
5. 5 Variety

Their correct sequence starting from the smallest is:

1. 3, 1, 2, 4, 5
2. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
3. 4, 2, 3, 1, 5
4. 5, 3, 1, 2. 4.

Answer: 4. 5, 3, 1, 2. 4.

Question 52. Alpha taxonomy refers to:

1. Classical taxonomy
2. Natural classification
3. Phylogenetic classification
4. Phenetic system.

Answer: 1. Classical taxonomy

Question 53. The extremists among evolutionary taxonomists are popularly known as:

1. Omega taxonomists
2. Phenologists
3. Cladists
4. Evolutionists.

Answer: 3. Cladists

Biological Classification MCQs For NEET Question 54. A group of species which resemble each other both structurally and functionally is called:

1. Genus
2. Order
3. Suborder
4. Class.

Answer: 1. Genus

Question 55. Several genera having common characters are called:

1. Family
2. Order
3. Phylum
4. Class.

Answer: 1. Family

Question 56. Point out the correct sequence of taxa :

1. 1-Amily. Order. Class, genus
2. Lass. Easier. Family, genus
3. Class, order. Genus, family
4. Order. Class, family, genus.

Answer: 2. Lass. Easier. Family, genus

Question 57. Several families having common character are called:

1. Order
2. Class
3. Phylum
4. Subclass.

Answer: 1. Order

Question 58. In the study of taxonomy, “descriptive taxonomy” refers to:

1. Phonetic system
2. Phylogenetic classification
3. Classical taxonomy
4. Natural classification.

Answer:  3. Classical taxonomy

Question 59. The material designated by the original author as the nomenclature type is a:

1. Holotype
2. Isotype
3. Syntype
4. Paratype.

Answer: 1. Holotype

Biological Classification MCQs For NEET Question 60. In which of the following taxonomies, is equal weightage given to each of thousands of characters that a taxon exhibits?

1. Chemotaxonomy
2. Alpha taxonomy
3. Classical taxonomy
4. Numerical taxonomy.

Answer: 4. Numerical taxonomy.

Question 61. Hutchinson’s primary contribution to the taxonomy is the phylogenetic studies of angiosperms. His classification of flowering plants is based on 22 principles which are comparative to Bessey’s dicta. According to him:

1. Evolution does not necessarily involve all organs at the same time.
2. Evolution always involves all the organs of a plant at the same time
3. Monocotyledons are more primitive than dicotyledons
4. Climbers are more primitive than trees.

Answer: 1. Evolution does not necessarily involve all organs at the same time.

Question 62. Which of the following taxonomic categories tops the hierarchy of categories?

1. Genus
2. Species
3. Order
4. Class.

Answer: 4. Class.

Question 63. The taxonomic category ‘family’ is between

1. Phylum and order
2. Order and genus
3. Kingdom and class
4. Genus and species.

Answer: 2. Order and genus

Question 64. Of all the taxa that exist in nature as a biologically cohesive unit is the :

1. Species
2. Genus
3. Phylum or division kingdom.

Answer: 1. Species

Question 65. Two or more species occupying the same or overlapping areas are :

1. Sympatric
2. Sibling
3. Subspecies
4. Allopatric.

Answer: 1. Sympatric

Question 66. New systematics based on the protein and serum analysis of organisms is called :

1. Biochemical taxonomy
2. Cytotaxonomy
3. Experimental taxonomy
4. Numerical taxonomy.

Answer: 1. Biochemical taxonomy

Biological Classification MCQs For NEET Question 67. The species inhabiting different geographical areas arc:

1. Taxonomic species
2. Sibling species
3. Allopatric
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Allopatric

Question 68. The scientists who raised the group Protista to include both plant and animal-like unicellular organisms (protozoa and slime molds) :

1. L. Pasteur
2. E.f. Haeckel
3. J. Lister
4. E. Meyer.

Answer: 2. E.f. Haeckel

Question 69. Which organisms contain usually non-vacuolated cells:

1. Viruses
2. Prokaryotes
3. Algae
4. Gymnosperms.

Answer: 2. Prokaryotes

Question 70. Bacteriophages are :

1. Algae
2. Fungi
3. Viruses
4. Lichens.

Answer: 3. Viruses

Question 71. Viruses are made up of:

1. Proteins and DNA or RNA
2. Proteins, DNA, and RNA
3. Proteins, DNA, RNA, and lipids
4. Carbohydrates, nucleic acids, and lipids.

Answer: 1. Proteins and DNA or RNA

MCQ on five kingdom classification Question 72. R.h. Whittaker proposed the :

1. Two-kingdom system of classification
2. Three-kingdom system of classification
3. Four-kingdom system of classification
4. Five-kingdom system of classification.

Answer: 4. Five-kingdom system of classification.

Question 73. The prokaryotes are included in the kingdom :

1. Monera
2. Product
3. Plantae
4. Fungi.

Answer: 1. Monera

Question 74. To determine the correct place of an organism in a previously established, plan of classification is called :

1. Classification
2. Taxonomy
3. Identification
4. Systematics.

Answer: 3. Identification

Question 75. Neotype is:

1. Nomenclatural type when the original material is missing
2. New species discovered by a scientist
3. Nomenclatural type from original material
4. One of two or more specimens cited by the author.

Answer: 1. Nomenclatural type when the original material is missing

MCQ on five kingdom classification Question 76. The typological concept of species was given by :

1. Aristotle and Plato.
2. J.ray
3. Hutchinson
4. Mendel.

Answer: 1. Aristotle and Plato.

Question 77. A convenient way for easy identification of an organism of applying diagnostic characters is called :

1. Systematics
2. Classification
3. Key
4. None of these.

Answer: 3. Key

Question 78. Associate the terms in column 1 with those in column 2.

1. 1-D,2-B,3-E,4-A
2. 1-D,2-E,3-B,4-C
3. 1-D,2-B,3-A,4-C
4. 1-D,2-A,3-E,4-B

Answer: 1. 1-D,2-B,3-E,4-A

Question 79. Lectotypc is :

1. Specimen selected from original material for nomenclature. il type when there is no holotype
2. Duplicate of holotype
3. Specimen cited by the author without making one holotype
4. Specimen described along with holotype.

Answer: 2. Duplicate of holotype

MCQ on five kingdom classification Question 80. A species characterized by only morphological traits is :

1. Sibling species
2. Morphospecies
3. Biospecies.
4. Taxonomic species.

Answer: 4. Taxonomic species.

Question 81. Which organisms are generally classified as protists :

1. Algae, fungi, bacteria, and bryophytes
2. Protozoa, bacteria, algae and bryophytes
3. Protozoa, some algae and fungi
4. Fungi, slime molds, and tracheophytes.

Answer: 1. Protozoa, bacteria, algae and bryophytes

Question 82. Who suggested the five-kingdom classification of organisms?

1. Copeland
2. R.h. Whittaker
3. Hutchinson
4. Bentham and hooker.

Answer: 2. R.h. Whittaker

Question 83. Isotype is a duplicate of:

1. Syntype
2. Holotype
3. Neotype
4. Lectotype.

Answer: 2. Holotype

Question 84. The biological species concept was formulated by :

1. Meyer
2. Heywood
3. Stebbins
4. R. Koch.

Answer: 1. Meyer

Question 85. In the statement, isotype is a duplicate specimen of x from the same collection of the same date and same locality. ‘X’ stands for:

1. Isotype
2. Holotype
3. Paratype
4. Neotype.

Answer: 2. Holotype

Question 86. Two morphologically similar populations which cannot interbreed among themselves are called:

1. Sympatric species
2. Allopatric species
3. Sibling species
4. Morphospecies.

Answer: 3. Sibling species

Question 87. Two related species having very distinct non-overlapping geographical areas are :

1. Sympatric species
2. Allopatric species
3. Taxonomic species
4. Biological species.

Answer: 2. Allopatric species

Biological Classification MCQ with answers Question 88. To which kingdom of Whittaker, producers belong :

1. Protista and Plantae both
2. Protista only
3. Monera, protista and plantae
4. The five kingdoms.

Answer: 3. Monera, Protista, and Plantae

Question 89. Which of the following is not included in any of the five kingdoms of Whittaker:

1. Viruses
2. Viroids and prions
3. Bacteriophages
4. All of these.

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 90. Which one of the following is a protist with a flexible lifestyle?

1. Chlamydomonas
2. Euglena
3. Paramecium
4. Entamoeba.

Answer: 2. Euglena

Question 91. Which one of the following shows plant-like and animal-like characters

1. Amoeba
2. Frog
3. Slime moulds
4. Mushroom.

Answer: 3. Slime moulds

Question 92. Yeasts lack:

1. Chlorophyll
2. Nucleus
3. Cell wall
4. Cytoplasm.

Answer: 1. Chlorophyll

Biological Classification MCQ with answers Question 93. Species are:

1. Population of individuals with similar genotypic and phenotypic traits.
2. Population of one type
3. Population of interbreeding individuals
4. Group of individuals occurring in a geographical area.

Answer: 3. Population of interbreeding individuals

Question 94. Members of biological species are potentially able to :

1. Compete
2. Interbreed
3. Inirogross
4. Express all the same genes,

Answer: 2. Interbreed

Question 95. Which is the correct arrangement of taxa based on the number of the individuals (lowest to the highest) that each taxon has:

1. Species, genus, phylum, kingdom
2. Kingdom, phylum, species, genus
3. Kingdom, genus, phylum, species
4. Genus, species, phylum, kingdom.

Answer: 1. Species, genus, phylum, the kingdom

Question 96. Taxonomic keys are constructed to identify a species. Which key is most popular:

1. Indented keys
2. Bracketed keys
3. Taxonomic keys
4. None of these.

Answer: 2. Bracketed keys

Question 97. Carl Linnaeus is referred to as :

1. Father of genetics
2. Father of phylogenetic classification
3. Father of biological taxonomy
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Father of biological taxonomy

Question 98. Two plants a and b differ in correlated morphological characters and should be treated as:

1. Two varieties
2. Two taxonomic species
3. Two subspecies
4. Members of the same species.

Answer: 2. Two taxonomic species

Biological Classification MCQ with answers Question 99. Out of 5 kingdoms in which kingdom of Whittaker living organisms are grouped:

1. 3rd, 4th and 5th kingdom
2. 2nd kingdom
3. 3rd and 4th kingdom
4. All kingdoms.

Answer: 4. All kingdoms.

Question 100. At present scientific names have been given to :

1. 10 Million species
2. 3.9 million species
3. 1.7 million species
4. One million species.

Answer: 3. 1.7 million species

Question 101. 102.3.5 billion years ago :

1. Life appeared
2. Eukaryotes appeared
3. Moon appeared
4. Plants appeared.

Answer: 1. Life appeared

Question 102. A collection of populations within which interbreeding may occur is called :

1. Genus
2. Family
3. Species
4. Phylum.

Answer: 3. Species

Question 103. Which one of the following is a composite dual organism?

1. Fungi
2. Metazoa
3. Algae
4. Lichens.

Answer: 4. Lichens.

Question 104. Ocnwcnluvh discovered:

1. Nucleus
2. Cell wall
3. Bacteria
4. Virus.

Answer: 3. Bacteria

Question 107. Two-kingdom system classification was given by

1. Linnaeus
2. John ray
3. Copeland
4. Whittaker.

Answer: 1. Linnaeus

Biological Classification MCQ with answers Question 108. Multicellular producers belong to kingdoms:

1. Plantae
2. Protista
3. Plantae and mycota
4. Protista and plantae.

Answer: 1. Plantae

Question 109. Absorptive (saprozoic) mode of nutrition is found in the kingdom:

1. Plantae
2. Fungi
3. Animalia
4. All of these.

Answer: 2. Fungi

Question 110. Term Protista was given by

1. Haeckel
2. Daughtery
3. Aristotle
4. Copeland.

Answer: 1. Haeckel

Question 111. Species change over a period to form new species. These changes are :

1. Jerky
2. Slow over generations
3. Slow and gradual over generations
4. Sudden.

Answer: 3. Slow and gradual over generations

Question 112. Graphic representation indicating the evolutionary relationship of organisms is:

1. Dendrogram
2. Hierarchy
3. Cladogram
4. A-taxonomy.

Answer: 3. Cladogram

Question 113. In Whittaker’s classification, which kingdom is the main producer:

1. Plantae
2. Protista
3. Mycota
4. Monera.

Answer: 1. Plantae

Question 114. The first person who used structural likeness as the basis of classification and made systematics a scientific discipline

1. C. Linnaeus
2. Lamarck
3. Theophrastus
4. John ray.

Answer: 1. C. Linnaeus

Question 115. The five kingdoms of Whittaker arranged evolutionarily are:

1. Monera — protista — animalia — plantae—mycota
2. Monera — protista — plantae — fungi — animalia
3. Monera — mycota — protista — plantae — animalia
4. Monera — protista — fungi — animalia plantae

Answer: 2. Monera — Protista — Plantae — fungi — Animalia

Question 116.  In which year, Whittaker proposed his five-kingdom system of classification:

1. 1972
2. 1989
3. 01969
4. 1959.

Answer: 3. 1969

Important MCQs on Biological Classification Question 117. Which of the following share the attributes of a plant and an animal:

1. Yeast
2. Euglena
3. Polo
4. Bacteria

Answer: 2. Euglena

Question 118. Decomposers belong to the kingdom:

1. Protista and fungi
2. Monera, protista and fungi
3. Monera and Protista
4. Protista, fungi and animalia

Answer: 2. Monera, Protista, and fungi

Question 119. Term ‘species’ and phylum were coined by :

1. Species by ray and phylum by Linnaeus
2. Species by John Ray and phylum by Cuvier.
3. Species by cuvier and phylum by ray
4. Species by Meyer and phylum by Linnaeus.

Answer: 2. Species by John Ray and phylum by Cuvier.

Question 120. The most famous botanical garden in the world is:

1. Llyod Botanical Garden Darjeeling
2. Ncvv york botanical garden USA
3. Royal Botanical Garden, Kew, England
4. Royal Botanic Garden Sydney Australia.

Answer: 3. Royal Botanical Garden, Kew, England

Important MCQs on Biological Classification Question 121. In taxonomic classification, the correct sequence is :

1. Class — family — tribe — order—genus— species
2. Class — order — family, tribe — genus — species
3. Tribe — order — family — genus — species
4. Class — tribe — order — family — genus

Answer: 2. Class — order — family, tribe — genus — species

Question 122. Genera Planetary was written by:

1. Engler
2. Hutchinson
3. Bentham and hooker
4. Bessey. (B.h.u. 1991)

Answer: 3. Bentham and hooker

Question 123. The basic unit of classification is :

1. Species
2. Genus
3. Kingdom
4. Phylum.

Answer: 1. Species

Question 124. A person who studies the origin, evolution, and variations in plants and also about the classification of plants is referred to as:

1. A – taxonomist
2. Herbal taxonomist
3. Classical taxonomist
4. P- taxonomist.

Answer: 3. Classical taxonomist

Question 125. The system of classification of angiosperm which is based on a maximum number of phenotypic attributes or several characters is referred to as:

1. Artificial system
2. Natural system
3. Phylogenetic system
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Natural system

Question 126. Linnaeus’s system of classification of flowering plants is based on:

1. Ecology
2. Embryology
3. Cytology
4. Morphology.

Answer: 4. Morphology.

Question 127. Phytospecies is taxonomically

1. A group of evolutionarily related population
2. A population with common characteristics as an evolutionary base of variations
3. A fundamental unit in the phylogenetic history of an organism
4. A basic category to which most taxonomic information is attached.

Answer: 1. A group of evolutionarily related population

Question 128. The first act in taxonomy is;

1. Description
2. Identification
3. Naming
4. Classification.

Answer: 2. Identification

Question 129. A taxon is a :

1. Group of related families
2. Group of related species
3. Type of living organisms
4. Taxonomic group of any ranking.

Answer: 4. Taxonomic group of any ranking.

NEET Biology Classification Of Taxonomy Of Angiosperms Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Which are the major divisions of the plant kingdom according to Bentham and hooker’s natural system of classification?

1. Monocotyledons and dicotyledons
2. Angiosperms and gymnosperms
3. Cryptogammae and phanerogammae
4. Unicellular and multicellular plants.

Answer: 1. Monocotyledons and dicotyledons

Question 2. Angiosperms differ from gymnosperms in possessing:

1. Xylem vessel
2. Ovule
3. Xylem tracheids
4. Seeds.

Answer: 1. Xylem vessel

Question 3. Loranthus is :

1. Parasite
2. Epiphyte
3. Symbiont
4. Saprophyte.

Answer: 1. Parasite

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 4. In dicots, vascular bundles are:

1. Scattered
2. Closed
3. Concentric
4. Arranged in ring.

Answer: 4. Arranged in ring.

Question 5. In monocots, the floral parts occur in groups of:

1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. Five.

Answer: 2. Three

MCQs on Taxonomy of Angiosperms for NEET Question 6. Which of the following is a marine angiosperm:

1. Potamogeton
2. Zostera
3. Utricularia
4. Vallisneria.

Answer: 2. Zostera

Question 7. Which of the following is an insectivorous plant?

1. Pinus
2. Viscum
3. Nepenthes
4. Cuscuta.

Answer: 3. Nepenthes

Question 8. Which of the following is a dicot?

1. Pulse
2. Cereal
3. Palm
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Pulse

Question 9. Which of the following is a monocot?

1. Mango
2. Citrus
3. Pulse
4. Cereals.

Answer: 4. Cereals.

Question 10. Select the smallest angiosperm:

1. Lotus
2. Wolffia
3. Rafflesia
4. Sugar beet.

Answer: 2. Wolffia

Question 11. A grass becoming tree-like:

1. Bamboo
2. Veterinarian (khus)
3. Eucalyptus
4. All of the above.

Answer: 1. Bamboo

Question 12. Which of the following angiosperm spreads over the largest area?

1. Ficus bengalensis
2. Ficus religiosa
3. Ficus elastica
4. Sequio gigantea.

Answer: 1. Ficus bengalensis

MCQs on Taxonomy of Angiosperms for NEET Question 13. Which of the following is called sundew?

1. Lotus
2. Drosera
3. Utricularia
4. Nepenthes.

Answer: 2. Drosera

Question 14. Monocotyledonous leaf showing reticulate venation is found in:

1. Smilax
2. Zea mays
3. Cocos
4. Calophyllum.

Answer: 1. Smilax

Question 15. In which of the following seed germinates when still attached to the main plant?

1. Mango
2. Rhizophora
3. Secrewpire
4. Coconut.

Answer: 2. Rhizophora

Question 16. Double fertilization is characteristic of:

1. Angiosperm
2. Gynmosperm
3. Algae
4. Pteridophytes.

Answer: 1. Angiosperm

Question 17. Insectivorous plants grow in soil which is deficient in:

1. Calcium
2. Magnesium
3. Nitrogen
4. Hormones.

Answer: 3. Nitrogen

Questions On Taxonomy Of Angiosperms

Question 1. Bauhinia, cassia, maraca, and Tamarindus belong to the sub-family:

1. Mimosoideae
2. Caesalpinoideae
3. Cruci free
4. Malvaceae.

Answer: 2. Caesalpinoideae

MCQs on Taxonomy of Angiosperms for NEET Question 2. Acacia, albizzia and mimosa belong to:

1. Mimosoideae
2. Acanthaceae
3. Gramineae
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Mimosoideae

Question 3. The family originally named after a characteristic type of inflorescence found in them, is

1. Malvaceae
2. Euphorbiaceae
3. Asteraceae
4. Fabaceae.

Answer: 3. Asteraceae

Question 4. Family Cruciferae is also known as:

1. Tetradynamaceae
2. Brassicaceae
3. Raphanaceae
4. Siliquaceae.

Answer: 2. Brassicaceae

Question 5. Cereals are found in the family :

1. Compositae
2. Solanaceae
3. Leguminosae
4. Gramineae.

Answer: 1. Compositae

Question 6. Helianthus, sonchus, dahlia and ageraium belong to:

1. Compositae
2. Lauraceae
3. Mimosoideae
4. Malvaceae.

Answer: 1. Compositae

Question 7. Lycopersicum, capsicum, datura, and Atropa belong to:

1. Liliaceae
2. Solanaceae
3. Leguminosae
4. Malvaceae.

Answer: 2. Solanaceae

Question 8. For the basis of classification, floral characters of higher plants are taken as a basis because:

1. Flowers can be easily preserved
2. Flowers show great variety in structure and colors
3. Reproductive parts are more conservative than other parts
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Reproductive parts are more conservative than other parts

Mcqs on taxonomy of angiosperms Question 9. The floral diagram represents the following:

1. Position of the flower
2. Number and arrangement of floral parts in the flower
3. Structure of the flower
4. Habit of the plant.

Answer: 2. Number and arrangement of floral parts in the flower

Question 10. The botanical name of cauliflower is:

1. Brassica oleraceae var. Botrytis
2. Brassica oleraceae var. Gongyloides
3. Brassica oleraceae var. Capitata
4. Brassica oleraceae var. Gemmifera.

Answer: 1. Brassica oleraceae var. Botrytis

Question 11. Which is the most advanced family of dicots?

1. Ranunculaceae
2. Capparidaceae
3. Rosaceae
4. Compositae.

Answer: 4. Compositae.

Question 12. The most primitive family of dicots is :

1. Ranunculaceae
2. Caryophyllaceae
3. Cucurbitaceae
4. Solanaceae.

Answer: 1. Ranunculaceae

Question 13. Calyx is described in terms of:

1. Number of sepals, free or united
2. Colour and shape
3. Activation and special appendages
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Mcqs on taxonomy of angiosperms Question 14. Cotton is obtained from the plants belonging to the family:

1. Mimosoideae
2. Malvaceae
3. Palmae
4. Rutaceae.

Answer: 2. Malvaceae

Question 15. The pulses-yielding family is :

1. Leguminosae
2. Cucurbitaceae
3. Rosaceae
4. Solanaceae.

Answer: 1. Leguminosae

Question 16. The lady’s finger belongs to :

1. Cucurbitaceae
2. Capparidaceae
3. Solanaceae
4. Malvaceae.

Answer: 4. Malvaceae.

Question 17. The typical floral formula of the family Gramineae is:

Answer: 1.

Question 18. To which of the following families does allium cepa belong?

1. Liliaceae
2. Solanaceae
3. Papilionatae
4. Cruciferae.

Answer: 1. Liliaceae

Question 19. Ray-florets and disc-florets are the characteristic features of:

1. Cruciferae
2. Malvaceae
3. Compositae
4. Solanaceae.

Answer: 3. Compositae

Mcqs on taxonomy of angiosperms Question 20. The stamens of Cruciferae are:

1. Monoadelphous
2. Tetradynamous
3. Didynamous
4. Epipetalous.

Answer: 2. Tetradynamous

Question 21. In Malvaceae, the androecium is characteristically

1. Monadelphous and free
2. Diadelphous and free
3. Monadelphous and epipetalous
4. Diadelphous and epipetalous.

Answer: 3. Monadelphous and epipetalous

Question 22. In compositae the placentation is:

1. Basal
2. Marginal
3. Free central
4. Axile.

Answer: 1. Basal

Question 23. In Liliaceae, flowers are:

1. Trimerous and hypogynous
2. Pentamerous and epigynous
3. Trimerous and epigynous
4. Tetramerous and hypogynous.

Answer: 1. Trimerous and hypogynous

Question 24. Epicalyx, axile placentation, and monadelphous condition are found in:

1. Cruciferae
2. Solanaceae
3. Umbelliferae
4. Malvaceae.

Answer: 4. Malvaceae.

NEET Biology Plant Kingdom Angiosperm Question 25. Which type of placentation is found in Cruciferae?

1. Parietal
2. Axile
3. Marginal
4. Basal.

Answer: 1. Parietal

Question 26. A caryopsis fruit is a characteristic of the family:

1. Gramineae
2. Cruciferae
3. Leguminosae
4. Malvaceae.

Answer: 1. Gramineae

Question 27. Siliqua or silicula fruit is a characteristic of the family:

1. Gramineae
2. Cruciferae
3. Rutaceae
4. Compositae.

Answer: 2. Cruciferae

Question 28. Leguminosae is a vast family. The basis for its further division into the three families i.e. Papilionatae, caesalpiniodeae, and Mimosoideae are:

1. Nature of corolla
2. Number of arrangements of stamens
3. Type of placentation and fruit
4. Both 1 and 2.

Answer: 4. Both 1 and 2.

Question 29. The presence of a false septum (replum) in the ovary is a characteristic of the family :

1. Cruciferae
2. Malvaceae
3. Gramineae
4. Compositae.

Answer: 1. Cruciferae

Question 30. The condition of androecium in papilionatae is:

1. Monadelphous
2. Diadelphous
3. Polyadelphous
4. Syngenesious.

Answer: 2. Diadelphous

Question 31. In Solanaceae, the placentation is:

1. Axile
2. Marginal
3. Basal
4. Superficial.

Answer: 1. Axile

Question 32. Which one of the following correctly represents the condition of the androecium in Papilionaceae?

1. Monadelphous and epipetalous
2. Diadelphous and epipetalous
3. Monadelphous and free
4. Diadelphous.

Answer: 4. Diadelphous.

Question 33. The floral diagram provides information about flowers concerning:

1. Number of parts of a flower
2. The general structure, cohesion, and adhesion
3. Position of flower concerning mother axis
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. Position of flower for mother axis

NEET Biology Plant Kingdom Angiosperm Question 34. The inflorescence in compositae is:

1. Umbel
2. Spike
3. Capitulum
4. Catkin.

Answer: 3. Capitulum

Question 35. The androecium in compositae is:

1. Syngenesious and epipetalous
2. Polyandrous and syngenesious
3. Epipetalous and monadelphous
4. Polyandrous and monoadelphous.

Answer: 1. Syngenesious and epipetalous

Question 36. The type of placentation in Leguminosae is :

1. Capitulum
2. Superficial
3. Marginal
4. Axile.

Answer: 3. Marginal

Question 37. The unit of inflorescence in Gramineae is :

1. Basal
2. Catkin
3. Spikelet
4. Panicle.

Answer: 3. Spikelet

Question 38. The number of small scaly lodicules which form the perianth in the family Gramineae is:

1. Two
2. Five
3. One
4. Four.

Answer: 1. Two

NEET Biology Plant Kingdom Angiosperm Question 39. Wheat belongs to the family:

1. Leguminosae
2. Gramineae
3. Liliaceae
4. Solanaceae.

Answer: 2. Gramineae

Question 40. Which of the following is a sign of a zygomorphic flower?

1. ⊕
2. 5
3. 9
4. 9

Answer: 2. 5

Question 41. The androecium is indefinite and polyandrous in :

1. Mimosoideae
2. Papilionatae
3. Malvaceae
4. Rutaceae.

Answer: 1. Mimosoideae

Question 42. Which of the following is the floral formula of Asphodelus tenuifolius (liliaceae)?

Answer: 2.

Plant Taxonomy for NEET MCQs Question 43. Vexillum, alae, and keel are present in the family:

1. Liliaceae
2. Solanaceae
3. Asteraceae
4. Papilionaceae.

Answer: 4. Papilionaceae.

Question 44. In which of the family is gynoecium carpellary syncarpous?

1. Labiatae
2. Solanaceae
3. Cruciferae
4. In all three.

Answer: 4. In all the three.

Question 45. Mimosa belongs to the family :

1. Mimosoideae
2. Rosaceae
3. Malvaceae
4. Cruciferae.

Answer: 4. Cruciferae.

Question 46. Flowers are epigynous in family:

1. Malvaceae
2. Rutaceae
3. Cruciferae
4. Compositae.

Answer: 4. Compositae.

Question 47. In which flower is the odd sepal anterior?

1. Lathyrus odoratus
2. Ocimum basilicum
3. Asphodelus tenuifolius
4. Brassica campestris.

Answer: 1. Lathyrus odoratus

Plant Taxonomy for NEET MCQs Question 48. Flowers are trimerous in the family:

1. Malvaceae
2. Labiatae
3. Liliaceae
4. Rosaceae.

Answer: 3. Liliaceae

Question 49. Numerous flowers are found in the family :

1. Rosaceae
2. Cruciferae
3. Malvaceae
4. Compositae.

Answer: 2. Cruciferae

Question 50. How many genera are present in the family Cruciferae (Brassicaceae)?

1. 275
2. 375
3. 400
4. 475.

Answer: 2. 375

Question 51. Which of the following belongs to the family Brassicaceae?

1. Cajanus cajan (arhan)
2. Dolichos lablab (sem)
3. Archis hypogea (groundnut)
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 52. In which of the family is the ovary obliquely placed?

1. Solanaceae
2. Malvaceae
3. Rosaceae
4. Cruciferae.

Answer: 1. Solanaceae

Question 53. Gramineae includes plants which are called:

1. Cereals
2. Herbs
3. Pulses
4. Shrubs.

Answer: 1. Cereals

Plant Taxonomy for NEET MCQs Question 54. Which of the following is known as the ‘sunflower family’?

1. Asteraceae
2. Fabaceae
3. Poaceae
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Asteraceae

Question 55. Bisexual flower is a flower in which:

1. Only petals are present
2. Only stamens are present
3. Only gynoecium is present
4. Both stamens and pistil are present

Answer: 4. Both stamens and pistil are present

Question 56. Perianth is reduced to lodicules in the family :

1. Liliaceae
2. Gramineae
3. Compositae
4. Malvaceae.

Answer: 2. Gramineae

Question 57. Most important cereal crop of india is:

1. Nymphaea
2. Allium cepa
3. Triticum vulgare
4. Pisum sativum.

Answer: 3. Triticum vulgare

Question 58. Which of the following belongs to the family astera-ceae?

1. Zinnia and Dahlia
2. Chrysanthemum and helianthus
3. Aster
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 59. Papilionaceous corolla is found in:

1. Pisum sativum
2. Mimosa pudica
3. Delonix regia
4. Brassica campestris.

Answer: 1. Pisum sativum

Plant Taxonomy for NEET MCQs Question 60. Mimosoideae is characterized by:

1. 10 Stamens in two whorls of 5 each
2. 10 Stamens out of which 3 are staminodes
3. 10 Free stamens
4. Numerous free stamens.

Answer: 4. Numerous free stamens.

Question 61. Tamarindus indica, the common tamarind tree belongs to:

1. Cruciferae
2. Mimosoideae
3. Caesalpinoideae
4. Papilionatae.

Answer: 4. Papilionatae.

Question 62. A flower has five fused sepals, five fused petals, 5 epipetalous free stamens and carpellary, syncarpous superior ovary with a swollen axile oblique placenta which family will you assign to the flower?

1. Solanaceae
2. Leguminosae
3. Compositae
4. Cruciferae.

Answer: 1. Solanaceae

Question 63. Seeds of which of the following yield edible oil?

1. Artemisia
2. Sunflower
3. Safflower
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 64. The floral formula of the family Compositae is

1. K₅C₅A₅g₍₅₎
2. K₅C₅A₅g₍₅₎
3. K₆C₅A_(9)-1G
4. 

Answer: 4.

MCQs on Taxonomy of Angiosperms for NEET  Question 65. Which of the following statements is correct for the capitulum of sunflower?

1. Ray florets are outer, disc florets are inner
2. Disc florets are outer, ray florets are inner
3. Both are in the center of the Capitulum
4. Both are located on the periphery.

Answer: 1. Ray florets are outer, disc florets are inner

Question 66. Sonchus belongs to:

1. Cruciferae
2. Rutaceae
3. Malvaceae
4. Compositae.

Answer: 4. Compositae.

Question 67. The presence of vexillum (standard), wings (alae), and keel (carina) is a characteristic feature of the family:

1. Rutaceae
2. Cruciferae
3. Malvaceae
4. Papilionatae.

Answer: 4. Papilionatae.

Question 68. The floral formula:

1. Cruciferae
2. Malvaceae
3. Rosaceae
4. Papilionatae.

Answer: 4. Papilionatae.

Question 69. Cassia fistula belongs to the sub-family: acacia belongs to:

1. Cruciferae
2. Malvaceae
3. Rosaceae
4. Cruciferae

Answer: 4. Cruciferae

Question 70. What is the diagnostic character of the Cruciferae family?

1. Presence of ray and disc florets
2. Presence of a staminal tube
3. Presence of four clawed and diagonally arranged petal, tetradynamous condition
4. None of these.

Answer: 1. Presence of ray and disc florets

Question 71. Which set of the following plants belong to the family Liliacaeae:

1. Onion, garlic and asparagus
2. Smilax, aloe and gloriosa
3. Urginea, scilla, and yucca
4. A11 of above.

Answer: 3. Urginea, scilla, and yucca

MCQs on Taxonomy of Angiosperms for NEET  Question 72. The scientific name of the common tomato is:

1. Raphanus sativus
2. Lycopersicum esculentum
3. Murraya
4. Lberis.

Answer: 4. Lberis.

Question 73. Asphodelus tenuifolius belongs to:

1. Cruciferae
2. Malvaceae
3. Liliaceae
4. Rutaceae.

Answer: 2. Liliaceae

Question 74. The condition of the androecium in Compositae is:

1. Diadelphous
2. Didynamous
3. Syngenesious
4. Monadelphous.

Answer: 3. Syngenesious

Question 75. Cereals are found in the family:

1. Cruciferae
2. Solanaceae
3. Gramineae
4. Leguminosae.

Answer: 3. Gramineae

MCQs on Taxonomy of Angiosperms for NEET  Question 76. Angiosperms originated about how many million years ago:

1. 20
2. 100
3. 130
4. 200.

Answer: 3. 130

Question 77. In arachis hypogea corolla is

1. Cruciform
2. Papilionaceous
3. Bilabiate
4. Infundibuliform.

Answer: 3. Bilabiate

Question 78. Spirocyclic flowers are present in the family :

1. Ranunculaceae
2. Cruciferae
3. Malvaceae
4. Leguminosae.

Answer: 2. Cruciferae

Question 79. The typical floral formula of the family Cruciferae is:

Answer: 3.

Question 80. Spirocyclic flowers are present in the family :

1. Ranunculaceae
2. Cruciferae
3. Malvaceae
4. Leguminosae

Answer: 1. Ranunculaceae

Question 81. The names dicots and monocots are based on the number of cotyledons in the embryo. Which of the following is not true for monocotyledons:

1. Parallel venation in leaves
2. Scattered vascular bundles
3. Tap roots grow profusely
4. Flower parts in sets of 3

Answer: 3. Tap roots grow profusely

Question 82. The typical formula for Gramineae is:

Answer: 4.

Mcqs on taxonomy of angiosperms Question 83. Polyadelphous condition is characteristic of the family:

1. Compositae
2. Malvaceae
3. Liliaceae
4. Rutaceae.

Answer: 4. Rutaceae.

Question 84. In which of the following families calyx is modified into pappus?

1. Cruciferae
2. Leguminosae
3. Compositae
4. Solanaceae.

Answer: 3. Compositae

Question 85. One of the statements does not apply to the family Cruciferae:

1. Flowers are pentamerous
2. Flowers are ebracteate
3. Fruit is siliqua
4. Stigmas are usually commissural.

Answer: 1. Flowers are pentamerous

Question 86. Which of the following represents the condition seen in the family Compositae?

1. Superior ovary, axile placentation
2. Inferior ovary, axile placentation
3. Superior ovary, single basal ovule
4. Inferior ovary, single basal ovule.

Answer: 4. Inferior ovary, single basal ovule.

Question 87. Cereals are found in the family :

1. Malvaceae
2. Cruciferae
3. Gramineae
4. Leguminoseae.

Answer: 4. Leguminoseae.

Question 88. Petunia differs from the rest of the Solanaceae in having:

1. Numerous ovules and stamens with apical pores
2. Infundibuliform corolla and persistent calyx
3. Irregular calyx and unequal filaments
4. Swollen placenta and accrescent calyx.

Answer: 3. Irregular calyx and unequal filaments

Mcqs on taxonomy of angiosperms Question 89. Major food crops of the world belong to:

1. Leguminosae
2. Solanaceae
3. Gramineae
4. Cruciferae.

Answer: 3. Gramineae

Question 90. Triticum aestivum is:

1. Diploid
2. Triploid
3. Haploid
4. Hexaploid.

Answer: 4. Hexaploid.

Question 91. Asphodelus tenuifolius differs from the rest of the lilaceae in the presence of:

1. Cortical roots and centric leaves
2. Gamophyllous perianth and distinct stamens
3. Gamophyllous perianth and epiphyllous
4. Polyphyllous perianth and epiphyllous stamens.

Answer: 3. Gamophyllous perianth and epiphyllous

Question 92. Allium differs from the rest of lilliaceae in:

1. Absence of umbel inflorescence and centric leave
2. Presence of bulbs and umbel inflorescence
3. Absence of umbel inflorescence and bulb
4. The presence of centric leaves and perianth

Answer: 2. Presence of bulbs and umbel inflorescence

NEET Biology Nature and Scope of Biology Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. The term ‘biology’ for the study of living organisms was coined by.

1. Lamark and triviranus
2. Husley
3. Purkinje and von mohl
4. Aristotle

Answer: 1. Lamark and Trimarans

Question 2. Animals ate like plants in that they respire:

1. During day only
2. During night only
3. During day and night
4. When required only.

Answer: 3. During day and night

Question 3. Study of animal behaviour comes under:’

1. Ecology
2. Aetiology
3. Euthenics
4. Eugenics.

Answer: 2. Ethology

Question 4. Areas which cannot be subjected to scientific analysis are:

1. Human intelligence
2. Human faith
3. Animal behaviour
4. Origin of life.

Answer: 2. Human faith

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

NEET Biology The Living World Question 5. The study of injuries and wounds is known as :

1. Tricology
2. Numerology
3. Traumatology
4. Torpedology.

Answer: 3. Traumatology

Nature and Scope of Biology NEET Biology Question 6. The study of the chemical aspect of living organisms:

1. Microbiology
2. Biochemistry
3. Cryobiology
4. Ethology.

Answer: 2. Biochemistry

Question 7. The science of characters and distribution of nice is known as:

1. Ethnology
2. Anthropology
3. Sociology
4. Malacology.

Answer: 1. Ethnology

Question 8. Dendrology is the study of:

1. Grasses
2. Flowers
3. Trees and shrubs
4. Trees.

Answer: 3. Trees and shrubs

Question 9. Agrostology is the cultivation of :

1. Oil seeds
2. Crops
3. Grasses
4. Fruit trees.

Answer: 3. Grasses

Question 10. Study of light effects on flowering of plants :

1. Photobiology
2. Photomorphogenesis
3. Photoperiodism
4. Vernalisation.

Answer: 3. Photoperiodism

Nature and Scope of Biology NEET Biology Question 11. The most primitive vascular plants are:

1. Ferns
2. Brown algae
3. Cycas
4. Red algae.

Answer: 1. Ferns

Question 12. Biotechnology refers to :

1. Linkage
2. Cross-over
3. Recombination
4. Tissue culture.

Answer: 2. Cross-over

Question 13. The science which deals with the classification, identification and naming of organisms is known as :

1. Physiology
2. Ecology
3. Systematic
4. Biology.

Answer: 3. Systematic

Question 14. The father of taxonomy is:

1. Charles Darwin
2. John ray
3. Julian Huxley
4. Carolus Linnaeus.

Answer:4. Carolus Linnaeus.

Question 16. Who was the first to classify animals?

1. Aucrbauch
2. Aristotle
3. Carolus Linnaeus
4. Darwin.

Answer: 2. Aristotle

Question 17. The genetic composition of the population about habitat is called :

1. Gynaecology
2. Gynaecology
3. Gerontology
4. Euthenics.

Answer: 2. Gynaecology

Question 18. The branch of zoology dealing with the study of fishes is called :

1. Herpetology
2. Ichthyology
3. Pisciculture
4. Saurology.

Answer: 2. Ichthyology

Nature and Scope of Biology NEET Biology  Question 19. The branch of zoology which deals with the study of visceral organs is called:

1. Angiology
2. Splanchnology
3. Anthology
4. Arthrology.

Answer: 2. Splanchnology

Question 20. The study of nests of birds is known as :

1. Craniology
2. Ichthyology
3. Nidology
4. None.

Answer: 3. Nidology

Question 21. Herpetology is the study of:

1. Birds
2. Snails
3. Marine fishes
4. Snakes.

Answer: 4. Snakes.

Question 22. Syndesmology is the study of:

1. Hormones
2. Skeletal joints
3. Desert
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Skeletal joints

Question 23. The study of structural morphology and organisation is known as:

1. Tectology
2. Technology
3. Ontogeny
4. Osteology.

Answer: 1. Tectology

Question 24. The study of acquired characters is known as:

1. Tectology
2. Technology
3. Odontology
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Ctenology

Question 25. ‘Angiology’ is the study of:

1. Blood
2. Blood and the blood groups
3. Blood vessels
4. Heart attack.

Answer: 3. Blood vessels

Question 26. The study of coelenterates is called:

1. Cardiology
2. Gynaecology
3. Entomology
4. Cosmetology.

Answer: 1. Cnidology

Biology MCQs with answers for NEET Question 27. ‘Aerology’ is the study of:

1. Ticks and mites
2. Annelids
3. Aquatic insects
4. Crossbreed.

Answer: 1. Ticks and mites

Question 28. Branch of zoology which deals with the study of cartilage :

1. Conchology
2. Chondriology
3. Craniology
4. Cardiology

Answer: 2. Chondriology

Question 29. The study of ants is called

1. Tricology
2. Myrmecology
3. Mattologv
4. None of above

Answer: 2. Myrmecology

Question 30. The branch of zoology which deals with the study of shells is known as

1. Coikhology
2. Ecology
3. Aetiology
4. Ornithology.

Answer: 1. Coikhology

Question 31. Ornithology is concerned with the study of:

1. Fishes
2. Birds
3. Animal fossils
4. Reptiles.

Answer: 2. Birds

Biology MCQs with answers for NEET Question 32. Red mood cells of mammals lack a nucleus except:

1. Horse
2. Rabbit
3. Camel
4. Elephant.

Answer: 3. Camel

Question 33. In the tobacco mosaic virus, heredity material is :

1. Rna
2. Dna
3. Lipid
4. Proteins.

Answer: 1. Rna

Question 34. Migration of birds is studied under:

1. Phenology
2. Kalology
3. Ornithology
4. Aetiology.

Answer: 1. Phenology

Question 35. In saurology, we study:

1. Flying birds
2. Lizards
3. Sea snakes
4. Earthworm.

Answer: 2. Lizards

Question 36. The study of olfactory organs and nose is called:

1. Phenology
2. Rhinology
3. Tricology
4. Phrenology.

Answer: 2. Rhinology

Biology MCQs with answers for NEET Question 37. The science dealing with the study of life at low temperatures is:

1. Cryobiology
2. Craniology
3. Kalology
4. Carcinology.

Answer: 1. Cryobiology

Question 38. The study of growing old is called:

1. Gynaecology
2. Gerontology
3. Karyology
4. Tectology.
5. (M.p. P.m.t. 1996, Pb.p.m.t., 2000)

Answer: 2. Gerontology

Question 39. Kalology deals with the study of:

1. Human beauty
2. Nuclear cytology
3. Conditions of animals
4. Dead aquatic organisms.

Answer: 1. Human beauty

Important MCQs on Ecology  Question 40. Baby bom after the operation is called :

1. Scissorian baby
2. Caesarean baby
3. Situs inversus
4. Postmortem baby.

Answer: 2. Caesarean baby

Question 41. Which of the following is a tracer element?

1. C14
2. H3
3. P32
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 42. Serendipity is :

1. Explaining natural phenomenon
2. Discovery by chance
3. Any discovery
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Discovery by chance

Question 43. The structural formula of benzene was discovered by:

1. Alexander fleming
2. Newton
3. Kekule
4. Archimedes.

Answer: 3. Kekule

Question 44. Which of the following best describes the scientific method?

1. Developing and testing the hypothesis
2. Using sensitive electronic devices
3. Collecting and analysing all known facts on a subject
4. Conducting experiments in laboratories.

Answer: 1. Developing and testing hypothesis

Important MCQs on Ecology  Question 45. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a /hypothesis?

1. A deductive inference
2. An inductive inference
3. A guess about cause and effect
4. A generalization from specific observation

Answer: 1. A deductive inference

Question 46. An argument that birds evolved wings to fly, this type of argument is referred to as:

1. Causal
2. Teleological
3. Mcchanistics
4. Circular.

Answer: 2. Teleological

Question 47. An Electron microscope has high-resolution power. It is due to:

1. Electromagnetic lenses
2. Very low wavelength of electron beam
3. The low wavelength of the light source used
4. High numerical aperture of glass.

Answer: 2. Very low wavelength of electron beam

Important MCQs on Ecology  Question 48. A theory is :

1. An educated guess
2. Modified hypothesis
3. The idea was given by a scientist
4. A generalization supported by experiments.

Answer: 4. A generalization supported by experiments.

Question 49. Angstrom, the unit of measurement in the transmission electron microscope is equal to:

1. 0.001 pm
2. 0.001 pm
3. 0.0001 pm
4. 0.00001 pm.

Answer: 3. 0.0001 pm

Question 50. The science which deals with the study of drugs and the preparation of medicines is called:

1. Physiology
2. Pharmacology
3. Pathology
4. Psychology.

Answer: 2. Pharmacology

Question 51. Technique by which cellular components are separated on the basis of their physical properties:

1. Chromatography
2. Cell fractionation
3. Autoradiography
4. Electrophoresis.

Answer: 2. Cell fractionation

Question 52. During the study of materials under an electron microscope the material is dry, thin and kept in a vacuum to:

1. Get a straight beam of electrons
2. Avoid collision of electrons with atoms of o and n
3. Avoid multiple scattering of electrons
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Nature and Scope of Biology MCQs Question 53. The study of domestic animals is called

1. Entomology
2. Veterinary science
3. Forestry
4. Agronomy.

Answer: 2. Veterinary science

Question 54. Auxenic culture is:

1. Pure culture without contamination
2. Culture of gases
3. Culture of tissue
4. Pure culture of microbe without any nutrients.

Answer: 1. Pure culture without contamination

Question 55. The study of nuclear cytology is called :

1. Radiology
2. Neurology
3. Karyology
4. Mycology.

Answer: 3. Karyology

Question 56. Most of the extraordinary properties of water are due to of its molecules:

1. Polarity
2. Hydrogen bonds
3. Covalent bonds
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Polarity

Question 57. Resolution power is the ability to :

1. Distinguish two close points
2. Distinguish two close objects
3. Distinguish amongst organelles
4. Magnify images.

Answer: 1. Distinguish two close points

Nature and Scope of Biology MCQs Question 58. The resolving power of the human eye is:

1. 100 Pm
2. 200 Pm
3. 50 Pm
4. 1000 Pm

Answer: 1. 100 Pm

Question 59. The physical basis of life is:

1. Cell
2. Protoplasm
3. Nucleus
4. Cytoplasm.

Answer: 2. Protoplasm

Question 60. Scientific ins estimations are ill iv nearer totnitli. When there is:

1. Experimental procedures and monitoring are very accurate
2. Correct observation
3. Accurate prediction
4. Sound knowledge of mathematics.

Answer: 1. Experimental procedure and monitoring very accurate

Question 61. Egg-lasing mammals are:

1. Rat
2. Platypus
3. Kangaroo
4. Kangaroo rat.

Answer: 2. Platypus

Question 62. Flowering in mclocanna bamusoidcs (maitake) occurs:

1. Every year
2. After 10 years
3. After 4s years
4. After 6 months.

Answer: 3. After 4s years

Nature and Scope of Biology MCQs Question 63. Which of the following plants has remained unchanged for the past several million years?

1. Pinus
2. Rice
3. Acacia
4. Ginkgo.

Answer: 4. Ginkgo.

Question 64. What will you call the study of plant and animal tissues outside the body in a glass tube?

1. In vivo
2. In vitro
3. Innate
4. Desperate.

Answer: 2. In vitro

Question 65. At which height would nitrogen bubble out of the blood :

1. 6.4 km
2. 7.2 km
3. 4 Km
4. 5.6 km.

Answer: 2. 7.2 km

Question 66. Antons the following isotopes, which is not radioactive?

1. Cu
2. P35
3. H3
4. K4.

Answer: 2. P35

Question 67. The electron microscope is made up of:

1. Fluorochromes
2. Polariser and analyser filters
3. Electromagnetic lenses
4. Objective and ocular glass.

Answer: 3. Electromagnetic lenses

Question 68. Natural sciences deal with the study of living objects and are known as:

1. Physical sciences
2. Social sciences
3. Biological sciences
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Biological sciences

Nature and Scope of Biology MCQs Question 69. Bambnsa tnlida flower only after attaining the age of:

1. 3 Years
2. 20 Years
3. 12 Years
4. 48 Years.

Answer: 4. 48 Years.

Question 70. The cell was discovered by :

1. Robert Hooke
2. Schleiden and schwann
3. Virchow
4. Strasburger.

Answer: 1. Robert Hooke

Question 71. The science dealing with the study of heredity and variations is known as:

1. Eugenics
2. Genetics
3. Cytology
4. Breeding.

Answer: 2. Genetics

Question 72. Generally, the hereditary material is :

1. Protein
2. Rna
3. Dna
4. Mrna.

Answer: 3. Dna

Question 73. Cuscuta, a total parasite bears:

1. Single cotyledon
2. Two cotyledons
3. Cotyledons absent
4. Many cotyledons.

Answer: 3. Cotyledons absent

Biology MCQs with answers for NEET Question 74. When discoveries are made by accident and unexpectedly the phenomenon is called

1. Mutation
2. Serendipity
3. Recombination
4. Linkage.

Answer: 2. Serendipity

Question 75. Total number of animal species is :

1. 1200000
2. 700000
3. 170000
4. 500,000.

Answer: 1. 1200000

Question 76. Which one of the following has remained unchanged for the last many million years?

1. Rose
2. Rice
3. Cockroach
4. Mosquito

Answer: 3. Cockroach

Question 77. A scientist is a person who:

1. Links patterns or draws relationships among several isolated facts
2. Determines principles from the observation
3. Discover general principles
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 78. Charles Robert Darwin (1809-18821 made some generalisations and set forth the theory of :

1. Mutation
2. Survival of fittest
3. Acquired characters
4. Natural selection.

Answer: 4. Natural selection.

Question 79. Robert Hooke observed the presence of cellulae in 1665. However actual living cells were observed by :

1. Theodor schwann (1839)
2. Louis Pasteur (1862)
3. A.v. Leeuwenhoek (16701)
4. M. Schleiden (1838)

Answer: 3. A.v. Leeuwenhoek (16701)

Question 80. Biology cannot be studied in isolation. The knowledge of the electromagnetic theory of physics has been instrumental in devising the:

1. Compound microscope
2. Electron microscope
3. Uv microscope
4. Dark field microscope.

Answer: 2. Electron microscope

Biology MCQs with answers for NEET Question 81. Which of the following provided the earliest record of scientific approach in biology?

1. Robert Hooke (1635-1703)
2. A.v. Leeuwenhoek (1632-1723)
3. Carl linnaeus (1707-1778)
4. Adreas vesalius (1514-1564)

Answer: 4. Adreas vesalius (1514-1564)

Question 82. Which of the following discovered linkage and introduced the term genetics?

1. Walter Sutton
2. Hugo de Vries
3. G. Mendel
4. William Bateson.

Answer: 4. William Bateson.

Question 83. Who won the nobel prize for ’ Green Revolution’?

1. Stanley cohen
2. H.g. Khorana
3. Ian wilmut
4. Norman ernst borlaug.

Answer: 4. Norman ernst borlaug.

Question 84. Who first used and defined the term “molecular biology”?

1. W.t. Astbury
2. Alexander Flemming
3. Oswald Theodore Avery
4. Herber boyer.

Answer: 1. W.t. Astbury

Question 85. Which of the following is used as a bioweapon?

1. HIV
2. Spores of bacillus anthracis
3. Virus
4. Spores of mycobacterium tetani.

Answer: 2. Spores of bacillus anthracis

Question 86. Bioinformatics deals with :

1. Systematic development, application and validation of computational hardware
2. Systematic development and application of computing system-database searching to make novel observations about biological processes
3. Information about the assessment of the environment
4. Production of improved varieties.

Answer: 2. Systematic development and application of computing system-database searching to make novel observations about biological processes

Question 87. Medicine deals with :

1. Treating diseases with drugs or curative substances
2. Compounding, preserving and identifying drugs
3. Knowledge of action of medicines
4. Treating disability by external physical means.

Answer: 1. Treating diseases with drugs or curative substances

NEET Biology Reproductive Health Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Health involves which of the Following?

1. Orating awareness
2. Deciding Facilities and support
3. Finding new techniques
4. All of these.

Answer: 4. All of these.

Question 2. the number oF organisms in the population is added by :

1. Immigration
2. Birth
3. emigration
4. Both 1 and 2.

Answer: 4. Both 1 and 2.

Question 3. The most thickly populated country is :

1. Bangladesh
2. Australia
3. U.S.A.
4. India.

Answer: 1. Bangladesh

Question 4. The main factors of population growth in India are:

1. More oF birth rate
2. Less oF death rate
3. Lack oF education
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 5. “Saheli” contraceptive oral pill was developed at:

1. Department of Biotechnology, New Delhi
2. CDRi. Lucknow
3. NEERi, Nagpur
4. Department of Molecular Biology, Hyderabad.

Answer: 2. CDRI Lucknow

Reproductive Health NEET Questions Question 6. The best way to decrease the population of a country is :

1. To educate people
2. To have better houses,
3. To kill people on a large scale
4. To practise and implement Family planning.

Answer: 4. To practise and implement Family planning.

Question 7. The birth control devices not used by women are:

1. Diaphragm
2. Oral pill
3. Condom
4. Copper.

Answer: 3. Condom

Question 8.  The prenatal technique to determine the genetic disorders in a Foetus is called

1. Laparoscopy
2. Amniocentesis
3. Abstinence
4. Coitus interruptus.

Answer: 2. Amniocentesis

Question 9. What is correct about a test tube baby?

1. Fertilization in Female’s genital tract and growth in test tube
2. The rearing of a prematurely born baby in an incubator
3. Fertilization outside and gestation inside the mother’s womb
4. Both Fertilization and development are done outside the Female genital tract.

Answer: 3. Fertilization outside and gestation inside the mother’s womb

Question 10. Amniocentesis is a technique to :

1. Estimate essential amino acids in the body
2. Detect chromosomal anomalies in the Foetus
3. Reverse sex of the Foetus
4. Correct genetic disorders of the Foetus.

Answer: 4. Correct genetic disorders of the Foetus.

Question 11.  Test tube baby is a technique where :

1. Zygote is taken From the oviduct cultured and then implanted
2. Ovum is taken out, then Fertilized and implanted
3. Sperm and ovum are Fused and the zygote is grown in a test tube
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Ovum is taken out, then Fertilized and implanted

Reproductive Health NEET Questions Question 12. Progesterone in the contraceptive pill :

1. Prevents ovulation
2. inhibits estrogen
3. Checks attachment oF zygote to endometrium
4. All the above.
5. Answer: 1. Prevents ovulation

Question 13. Indian population Forms what percentage of the world population?

1. About 10%
2. About 7%
3. About 20%
4. About 21%.

Answer: 1. About 10%

Question 14. Infant mortality in India is :

1. 14/1000
2. 45/1000
3. 62/1000
4. 72/1000.

Answer: 4.72/1000.

Question 15.inFant mortality rale is minimum in :

1. Sweden
2. Japan
3. England
4. The USA.

Answer: 2. Japan

Question 16. On which day, the world population touched 5th billion?

1. May 2, 1985
2. July 2, 1986
3. May 2, 1987
4. July 2, 1987.

Answer: 4. July 2, 1987.

Question 17. Replacement rate is estimated to be :

1. 1.8
2. 2.0
3. 2.1
4. 3.5.

Answer: 2.2.0

Reproductive Health NEET Questions Question 18. According to the 200i census, the Indian population was :

1. 684 million
2. 844 million
3. 1027 million
4. 228 million.

Answer: 3. 1027 million

Question 19.  In India, the First census was conducted in :

1. 1851
2. 1872
3. 1921
4. 1951.

Answer: 2.1872

Question 20. “theory of Four Humors” was proposed by :

1. Theophrastus
2. Aristotle
3. Alexander
4. Pluto.

Answer: 1.theophrastus

Question 21. The population explosion’ being witnessed is mainly due to :

1. Better job Facilities
2. Increase in agricultural production
3. Better health care
4. None of these.

Answer: 3. Better health care

NEET Reproductive Health Important Questions Question 22. The higher population in cities is mainly due to the:

1. More Opportunities for Education
2. Availability of clean drinking water
3. Better sanitation
4. Higher-income resources.

Answer: 4. Higher income resources.

Question 23. Population explosion has occurred in the last:

1. 500 years
2. 300 years
3. 100 years
4. 50 years.

Answer: 3. 100 years

Question 24. July 2 is observed as :

1. World population day
2. No tobacco day
3. World environment day
4. World Health Day.

Answer: 1. World Population Day

Question 25. the First case oF iVF-Et techniques success, was reported by :

1. Bayliss and Starling Taylor
2. Robert Steptoe and Gilbert Brown
3. Louis Joy Brown and Banting Best
4. Patrick Steptoe and Robert Edwards.

Answer: 4. Patrick Steptoe and Robert Edwards.

NEET Reproductive Health Important Questions Question 26. the loss of Forests, urbanization and increasing pollution due to :

1. Population explosion
2. Global warming
3. Greenhouse Effect
4. Ozone depletion.

Answer: 1. Population explosion

Question 27. The high increase in human population is due to :

1. Increase in the average lifespan
2. Better medical Facilities
3. Decrease in death rate
4. All of these.

Answer: 4. All of these.

Question 28. A national level appears to build up a reproductive!)’  healthy Soviets were taken up in our country in:

1. 1950s
2. 1960s
3. 1980s
4. 1990s

Answer: 1.1950s

NEET Reproductive Health Important Questions Question 29. Emergency contraceptives are collective iF used within :

1. 72 hrs of coitus
2. On 72 ins oF ovulation
3. 72 lu-s oF menstruation
4. 72 hrs oF implantation

Answer: 1. 72 hrs of coitus

Question 30. Choose the right one among the statements given below:

1. lUDs arc is generally inserted by the user herselF
2. lUDs increase phagocytosis reaction in the uterus
3. lUDs suppress gametogenesis
4. lUDs once inserted need not be replaced

Answer: 2.lUDs increase phagocytosis reaction in the uterus

MCQ On Reproductive Health for Biology Question 31. The following statements are given regarding MtP. Choose the correct options given below :

1.MtPs are generally advised during the First trimester

2.MtPs are used as a contraceptive method

3.MtPs are always surgical

4.MtPs require the assistance of qualified medical personnel

1. 1. 2 and 3
   2. 2 and 3
   3. 1 and 4
   4. 1 and 2

Answer: 4.1 and 2

Question 32. From the sexually transmitted diseases mentioned below identify one which does not specifically affect the sex organs

1. Syphilis
2. AiDS
3. Gonorrhea
4. Genital warts

Answer: 2. AIDS

Question 33. Condoms are one of the most popular contraceptives for the following reasons:

1. These are effective barriers To insemination
2. They do not interfere with the coital act
3. These help in reducing the risk of STD
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 34. Choose the correct statement regarding the ZiFt procedure :

1. Ova Collected From a Female donor is transferred to the Fallopian tube to Facilitate zygote Formation
2. A zygote is collected From a Female donor and transferred to the Fallopian tube
3. A zygote is collected From a Female donor and transferred to the uterus
4. Ova Collected From a Female donor and transferred to the uterus

Answer: 2. Zygote is collected From a Female donor and transferred to the Fallopian tube

Question 35. Diaphragms are contraceptive devices used by the Females. Choose the correct option From the statements given below :

1. They are introduced into the uterus

2 . They are placed to cover the cervical region

3. They act as physical barriers For sperm entry

4. They act as spermicidal agents

1. 1. 1 and 2,
   2. 1 and 3,
   3. 2and 3,
   4. 3 and 4.

Answer: 3. 2and 3,

NEET Biology Biodiversity And Wildlife Conservation Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Forest and wildlife are:

1. Non-renewable resources
2. Renewable natural resources
3. Inexhaustible resources
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Renewable natural resources

Question 2. Which one of the following forests is more diverse?

1. Coniferous evergreen
2. Deciduous evergreen
3. Tropical rain forest
4. Subtropical rain forest.

Answer: 3. Tropical rainforest

Question 3. Deciduous forests are characteristic of the region having:

1. Severe winter only
2. Warm summer only
3. Less winter and warm summer
4. Severe winter and warm summer.

Answer: 4. Severe winter and warm summer

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Biodiversity and Conservation NEET Question 4. Which one of the following is most effective in controlling floods?

1. Deforestation
2. Reforestation
3. Constructing dams
4. Digging deep canals.

Answer: 2. Reforestation

Question 5. Indian bustard bird is on the verge of extinction due to:

1. Deforestation
2. Climate changes
3. Hunting
4. All of the above.

Answer: 3. Hunting

Question 6. Tropical evergreen forests are found in India in:

1. Himachal Pradesh
2. Madhya Pradesh
3. Assam
4. Tamil Nadu.

Answer: 2. Madhya Pradesh

Question 7. Which of the following birds has gained importance as wildlife in recent years?

1. Pheasants
2. Egrets
3. Indian Bustard
4. Pelican.

Answer: 3. Indian Bustard

Question 8. Corbett National Park, first to be established, is present in:

1. U.P. and famous for tiger
2. Rajasthan and famous for Blackbuck
3. Punjab and home for Antelopes
4. H.P. and famous for birds.

Answer: 1. U.P. and famous for tiger

Question 9. Which of the following birds in India is on the verge of extinction?

1. Pink-headed duck
2. Passenger pigeon
3. Indian Bustard
4. Sandpiper.

Answer: 3. Indian Bustard

Biodiversity and Conservation NEET Question 10. What percentage of the total land area is covered by forests in India?

1. 32%
2. 21%
3. 23%
4. 25%.

Answer: 3. 23%

Question 11. Conifers are the dominant vegetation of:

1. Tropical zone
2. Cold temperate region
3. Polar region
4. Equatorial region.

Answer: 2. Cold temperate region

Question 12. How many species of plants are threatened with extinction?

1. 25,000
2. 20.000
3. 15,000
4. 10,000.

Answer: 1. 25,000

Question 13. With reference to the conservation of wildlife, how many ‘Project Tiger’ areas have been selected:

1. 17
2. 18
3. 19
4. 20.

Answer: 1. 17

Question 14. In which state of India is the Gir Lion sanctuary situated?

1. Maharashtra
2. M.P.
3. Gujrat
4. Rajasthan.

Answer: 3. Gujrat

Question 15. The most effective means of conservation is to:

1. Remove predators
2. Preserve habitat
3. Vaccination against diseases
4. Census the species during the breeding season.

Answer: 2. Preserve habitat

Biodiversity and Conservation NEET Question 16. The bird ‘Dodo’ became extinct because of:

1. Its beautiful feathers
2. Hunting
3. Its curved beak
4. It’s melodious songs.

Answer: 2. Hunting

Question 17. Which is the only home of the yellow-maned Indian Lion?

1. Corbett National Park
2. Gir Forest, Gujarat
3. Sariska Tiger Project
4. Kanha Forest

Answer: 2. Gir Forest, Gujarat

Question 18. Indian Rhinoceros is the most protected species in National Park:

1. Corbett
2. Kaziranga
3. Bandipur
4. Gir.

Answer: 2. Kaziranga

Question 19. What for IUCN stands:

1. International Understanding on Coal and Nuclear Fuel
2. International Union for Controlling Noosphere
3. International Union for Conservation of Nature
4. International Union for Co-operation on Nuclear Weapons.

Answer: 3. International Union for Conservation of Nature

Question 20. Small parks tend to support only:

1. k-selected species
2. r-selected species
3. Climax species
4. Species with small niches.

Answer: 2. r-selected species

Biodiversity and Conservation NEET Question 21. The main causes of the extinction of wildlife is:

1. Air pollution
2. Water pollution
3. Industrial gases
4. Deforestation.

Answer: 4. Deforestation.

Question 22. Deforestation causes:

1. Diseases
2. Epidemics
3. Soil erosion
4. Rainfall.

Answer: 3. Soil erosion

Question 23. Quinine is obtained from:

1. Cinchona plant
2. Bamboo plant
3. Sandalwood
4. Rosha grass.

Answer: 1. Cinchona plant

Question 24. Rare species are those:

1. With small populations in the world
2. Which are likely to become endangered
3. Which are in danger of extinction
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. With small populations in the world

Biodiversity and Conservation MCQ Question 25. Biologists celebrate every year 5th June as:

1. Darwin’s birthday
2. World Environment day
3. World Health Organisation day
4. World Population Day.

Answer: 2. World Environment Day

Question 26. On which date life day is celebrated?

1. July 15
2. June 5
3. August 21
4. December 16.

Answer: 2. June 5

Question 27. Project Tiger was launched in:

1. 1972
2. 1981
3. 1975
4. 1961.

Answer: 1. 1972

Question 28. Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve Project is concerned – with the conservation scheme of:

1. Tamil Nadu
2. Karnataka
3. Kerala
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 29. Biosphere reserve areas are:

1. 13
2. 17
3. 19
4. 25.

Answer: 1. 13

Biodiversity and Conservation MCQ Question 30. Wildlife Protection Act was made in:

1. 1982
2. 1972
3. 1988
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. 1972

Question 31. In national parks which of the following are not allowed:

1. Forestry
2. Grazing
3. Cultivation and private ownership
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 32. World Forest Day is observed on:

1. 28th February
2. 6th October
3. 21st March
4. 5th June.

Answer: 3. 21st March

Question 33. The concept of critical habitats is:

1. Territory of an animal
2. Breeding, nursing, feeding and resting area
3. A boundary beyond which an animal will not move
4. Another name for wildlife sanctuary.

Answer: 2. Breeding, nursing, feeding and resting area

Question 34. The species which are in the immediate danger of extinction are called:

1. Rare species
2. Threatened species
3. Endangered species
4. All of the above.

Answer: 3. Endangered species

Biodiversity and Conservation MCQ Question 35. The percentage of endangered living species is:

1. 40
2. 20
3. 18
4. 10.

Answer: 4. 10.

Question 36. Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary is situated at:

1. Balagaon—Orissa
2. Nilgiri — Tamil Nadu
3. Idukki —Kerala
4. Nainital —U.P.

Answer: 3. Idukki —Kerala

Question 37. Ranthambore National Park is situated in:

1. Punjab
2. Rajasthan
3. Gujarat
4. Madhya Pradesh.

Answer: 2. Rajasthan

Question 38. Deforestation causes:

1. Soil erosion
2. Reduced rainfall
3. More floods
4. All of these.

Answer: 4. All of these.

Question 39. Quinine is:

1. Plant product
2. Animal product
3. Synthetic drug
4. Microbial product.

Answer: 1. Plant product

Question 40. White tigers are conserved in:

1. Corbett National Park
2. Kanha National Park—Mandla, Balaghat”
3. Tandoba National Park, Chandrapur
4. Bandipur National Park, Mysore

Answer: 1. Corbett National Park

Biodiversity and Conservation MCQ Question 41. Flamingoes in India are preserved at:

1. Sambar Lake
2. Lake Mansarovar
3. Rann of Kutch
4. Chilka Lake.

Answer: 4. Chilka Lake.

Question 42. Deforestation may reduce the chances of:

1. Frequent cyclones
2. Soil erosion
3. Rainfall
4. Landslides.

Answer: 3. Rainfall

Question 43. Earth summit at Rio-de-Janeiro (Brazil) was related to:

1. Land survey
2. Soil fertility
3. Conservation of genetic resources of animals and plants
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Conservation of genetic resources of animals and plants

Question 44. Cultigens include:

1. Domestic animals
2. Wild animals
3. Cultivated plants
4. Both (1) and (3).

Answer: 4. Both (1) and (3).

Question 45. If environmental restoration is started right now, resolving the present man-made ecological crisis will take about:

1. 100 yrs
2. 200 yrs
3. 300 yrs
4. 50 yrs.

Answer: 1. 100 yrs

Question 46. Man disturbs natural food chains by:

1. Use of fossil fuel
2. Family planning
3. Introduction of exotic species
4. All the above.

Answer: 3. Introduction of exotic species

Biodiversity and Conservation NEET  Question 47. Silent Valley of Kerala is being preserved because it has:

1. Rare plants and animals
2. Only natural forest of India
3. Costly timber plants
4. Recreational value.

Answer: 1. Rare plants and animals

Question 48. MAB stands for:

1. Man and Biosphere
2. Man, Antibiotic and Bacteria
3. Man and Biotic community
4. Mayer, Andersand and Bisby.

Answer: 1. Man and Biosphere

Question 49. Kaziranga Wildlife Sanctuary is famous for:

1. Tiger
2. Rhino
3. Elephant
4. Musk deer.

Answer: 2. Rhino

Question 50. The ‘threatened species ’ refers to the species which are:

1. Endangered
2. Rare
3. Vulnerable
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 51. The number of vertebrate species facing danger of extinction is about:

1. 10
2. 100
3. 1000
4. 10,000.

Answer: 3. 1000

Question 52. The concept of “Biosphere Reserve” was conceived by:

1. ZSI
2. BSI
3. UNESCO
4. Govt, of India.

Answer: 3. UNESCO

Biodiversity and Conservation NEET  Question 53. Which of the following animals has become almost extinct in India?

1. Wolf
2. Rhinoceros
3. Cheetah
4. Hippopotamus.

Answer: 3. Cheetah

Question 54. Whales when washed ashore will die because:

1. Their body temp will increase
2. They cannot respire
3. Their skin will crack
4. Their bones will be crushed because of the weight of the body.

Answer: 4. Their bones will be crushed because of the weight of the body

Question 55. The famous Chipko movement was started by:

1. Bahuguna
2. Rajiv Gandhi
3. Menaka Gandhi
4. Salim Ali.

Answer: 1. Bahuguna

Question 56. When was MAB launched by UNESCO?

1. 1971
2. 1975
3. 1981
4. 1972.

Answer: 1. 1971

Biodiversity and Conservation NEET  Question 57. A species in immediate danger of extinction is:

1. Endangered
2. Vulnerable
3. Rare
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Endangered

Question 58. Identify the correct match between tiger reserve and its state:

1. Corbett- Madhya Pradesh
2. Planau- Orissa
3. Manas -Assam
4. Bandipur – Tamil Nadu.

Answer 2. Planau- Orissa

Question 59. The First National Park of India is:

1. Kanha N.P.
2. Periyar N.P.
3. Corbett N.P.
4. Bandipur N.P

Answer: 3. Corbett N.P.

Question 60. Which of the following is a matching pair of sanctuary and its main protected animals?

1. North Eastern Himalayan Region – Samba
2. Sunderban – Rhino
3. Gir-Lion
4. Kaziranga – Musk Deer.

Answer: 3. Gir-Lion

Question 61. About what species of earth’s species will be destroyed if all the tropical rainforests are destroyed?

1. 10
2. 20
3. 50
4. 90.

Answer: 3. 50

Question 62. Species most vulnerable to extinction from human activities are those with:

1. Low carrying capacity
2. High population growth rates
3. Large niches
4. Many natural predators.

Answer: 1. Low carrying capacity

Biodiversity and Conservation NEET  Question 63. Which of the following types of animals does man chiefly protect?

1. Feeble animals
2. Harmless animals
3. Useful animals
4. Animals are likely to perish.

Answer: 4. Animals likely to perish.

Question 64. The red panda is preserved at:

1. Dachigam National Park (JK)
2. Sasan Gir N.P. (Gujarat)
3. Kangchcnd Zong N.P, (Sikkim)
4. Sintlipal N.P.(Orissa).

Answer: 3. Kangchcnd Zong N.P, (Sikkim)

Question 65. “Chipko Movement” is the world’s most known eco-development programme started by Sunder Lai Bahuguna (1973). It is related to:

1. Conservation of Forests
2. Afforestation
3. Planting
4. Population.

Answer: 1. Conservation of Forests

Question 66. Which is correct for threatened (T) species:

1. It is a species to be conserved to avoid its becoming rare, endangered or vulnerable species
2. It is an endangered species like the Rhino; and Asiatic Lion which is in danger of extinction
3. It is a vulnerable species like musk deer, or black buck which is likely to move into the endangered category in the near future
4. It is a rare species like wild Asiatic Ass with a small population in certain geographical areas.

Answer: 1. It is a species to be conserved to avoid its becoming rare, endangered or vulnerable species

Question 67. Vulnerable (V) species are those:

1. Which live in the national park
2. Which are wild
3. Which require conservation
4. Which are likely to be in danger of extinction in the near future.

Answer: 4. Which are likely to be in danger of extinction in the near future?

Question 68. Rare (R) species:

1. Those who are in danger of extinction
2. Those with small populations in certain geographical areas
3. Those which are found in the silent valley of Kerala
4. Those which are likely to be endangered.

Answer: 2. Those with small population in certain geographical areas

Biodiversity and Conservation NEET  Question 69. A biosphere reserve preserves:

1. Genetic resources of organisms
2. Traditional lifestyles of tribals
3. Wild population
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 70. Animals and plants can be best protected in:

1. Sanctuaries
2. Zoos
3. National Parks
4. Botanical gardens.

Answer: 3. National Parks

Question 71. Conservation of wildlife is essential to:

1. Protect ecosystem
2. Safeguard the environment of the earth
3. Protect threatened wildlife
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 72. The symbol of WWF^-N is:

1. Tiger
2. Rhododendron
3. White Bear
4. Red Panda.

Answer: 4. Red Panda.

Question 73. Threatened species often include:

1. Endangered species
2. Vulnerable species
3. Rare species
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 74. Species which occur in small populations and are restricted to only certain geographical areas are placed under the category:

1. Endangered species
2. Vulnerable species
3. Rare species
4. All of these.

Answer: 3. Rare species

Question 75. Conservation of living resources is a complex operation and is concerned with:

1. Plants and animals
2. All living organisms and non-living elements of the environment on which they depend
3. Protection of wildlife and the forests in which these inhabit
4. Plants, animals and microbes.

Answer: 2. All living organisms and non-living elements of the environment on which they depend

NEET Questions Biodiversity Question 76. Which one of the following would be more appropriate for producing high-yielding varieties?

1. More application of fertilizers, irrigation and use of pesticides
2. Breeding with wild varieties of organisms with genetic potentiality to respond to improved inputs
3. Development of disease-resistant varieties of plants
4. Selection of wild organisms and their subsequent preservation.

Answer: 2. Breeding with wild varieties of organisms with genetic potentiality to respond to improved inputs

Question 77. Had Cinchona been eliminated before its use was discovered, man would have been deprived of:

1. Use of its bark as dalchini
2. Tejpat used as a spice
3. Antimalarial drug
4. Valuable timber.

Answer: 3. Antimalarial drug

Question 78. Kanha Biosphere Reserve is to be established in:

1. UP
2. MP
3. Meghalaya
4. Orissa.

Answer: 2. MP

Question 79. Cold deserts of India occur in

1. Rann of Kutch and Gujarat
2. Thar
3. N.E. States
4. Lahul Spiti and Ladakh.

Answer: 4. Lahul Spiti and Ladakh.

Question 80. In wildlife sanctuary:

1. Harvesting of trees for timber and forest products is permitted
2. Only wild fauna are protected
3. Private ownership is allowed
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above

Question 81. A number of Biosphere reserves in the world is:

1. 143
2. 243
3. 75
4. 374.

Answer: 2. 243

Question 82. Marine invertebrates are protected in:

1. Gulf of Mannar
2. Gulf of Cambay
3. Bay of Bengal
4. All of the above.

Answer: 1. Gulf of Mannar

Question 83. What is common to Lantana, Eichhomia and African catfish?

1. All are endangered species of India
2. All are keystone species
3. All arc mammals found in India
4. All the species are neither threatened nor indigenous species of India.

Answer: 4. All the species are neither threatened nor indigenous species of India.

Question 84. The extinction of passenger pigeons was due to:

1. Increased number of predatory birds.
2. Over-exploitation by humans
3. Non-availability of the food
4. Bird flue vims infection

Answer: 2. Over-exploitation by humans

Question 85. Which of the following statements is correct?

1. Parthenium is an endemic species of our country
2. African catfish is not a threat to indigenous catfishes
3. Steller’s sea cow is an extinct animal
4. Lantana is popularly known as carrot grass.

Answer: 2. African catfish is not a threat to indigenous catfishes

Question 86. Among the ecosystems mentioned below, where can one find maximum biodiversity?

1. Mangroves
2. Desert
3. Coral reefs
4. Alpine Meadows

Answer: 3. Coral reefs

Biodiversity and Conservation MCQ Question 87. Which of the following forests is known as the ‘lungs of the planet Earth’?

1. Tiaga forest
2. Tundra forest
3. Amazon rain forest
4. Rain forests of North East India

Answer: 3. Amazon rainforest

Question 88. The active chemical drug reserpine is obtained from:

1. Datura
2. Rauwolfia
3. Atropa
4. Papaver

Answer: 2. Rauwolfia

Question 89. Which of the following groups of plants exhibit more species diversity?

1. Angiosperms
2. Algae
3. Bryophytes
4. Fungi

Answer: 4. Fungi

Question 90. Which of the below-mentioned regions exhibit less seasonal variations?

1. Tropics
2. Temperates
3. Alpines
4. Both (1) and (2).

Answer: 1. Tropics

Question 91. The historic convention on Biological Diversity held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992 is known as:

1. CITES Convention
2. The Earth Summit
3. G-16 Summit
4. MAB Programme

Answer: 2. The Earth Summit

Question 92. What is common to the techniques

1. In-vitro fertilisation,
2. Cryopreservation and
3. Tissue culture?

1. All are in situ conservation methods.
2. All are ex-situ conservation methods
3. All require ultra modem equipment and large space
4. All are methods of conservation of extinct organisms

Answer: 2. All are ex-situ conservation methods

Question 93. Select the incorrect statement.

1. Species diversity increases as we move away from the equator towards the poles.
2. Stellar’s sea cow and passenger pigeon became extinct due to over-exploitation by man.
3. Lantana and Eicltlwmia are invasive weed species in India.
4. Among animals, insects are the most species-rich taxonomic group.

Answer: 1. Species diversity increases as we move away from the equator towards the poles.

NEET Biology Environment Pollution And Global Environment Issues Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Excess nitrates in the field get mixed up with drinking water. It may result in:

1. Killing of intestinal bacteria
2. Upsetting enzyme production
3. Converting nitrates into nitrites harms haemoglobin leading to anaemia
4. Producing more amino acids.

Answer: 3. Converting nitrates into nitrites harms haemoglobin leading to anaemia

Question 2. Global warming can be controlled by:

1. Reducing reforestation, increasing the use of fossil fuel.
2. Increasing deforestation, slowing down the growth of the human population
3. Increasing deforestation, reducing the efficiency of energy usage
4. Reducing deforestation, cutting down the use of fossil fuel.

Answer: 4. Reducing deforestation, cutting down the use of fossil fuel.

Question 3. The Air Prevention and Control of Pollution Act came into force in:

1. 1981
2. 1985
3. 1990
4. 1975

Answer: 1. 1981

Question 4. Water pollution can be stopped best by:

1. Treating effluents to remove injurious chemicals
2. Rearing more fishes
3. Cultivating useful water plants
4. Spraying with DDT.

Answer: 1. Treating effluents to remove injurious chemicals

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

NEET Biology MCQ Environmental Issues Question 5. Organic waste products:

1. Should be buried deep in the soil
2. Can be used for the production of energy
3. Should be treated with chemicals to prevent the breeding of organisms
4. Should be dumped into the sea

Answer: 2. Can be used for the production of energy

Question 6. Noise pollution causes:

1. Deafness
2. Increase in B.P.
3. Heart trouble
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 7. During the combustion of fuels, gases released are :

1. CO₂ and CO
2. CO₂ and CO₂ and SO₂
3. CO₂, CO, SO₂ and H₂O
4. CO₂, CO, H₂S and SO₂

Answer: 3. CO₂, CO, SO₂ and H₂O

Question 8. The environmental pollutant that can cause birth defects is:

1. SO₂
2. CO
3. Smog
4. Radioactivity.

Answer: 4. Radioactivity.

Question 9. As a general rule, ionizing radiation is most damaging to:

1. Mature, stable cells
2. Actively dividing cells
3. Highly specialized cells
4. Cells in which food is stored.

Answer: 2. Actively dividing cells

NEET Biology MCQ Environmental Issues Question 10. It is said that Taj may be destroyed due to:

1. Flood in Yamuna River
2. The decomposition of marble as a result of high-temperature
3. Air pollutants released from the oil refinery of Mathura
4. All of the above.

Answer: 3. Air pollutants released from the oil refinery of Mathura

Question 11. Which of the following is normally not an atmospheric pollutant?

1. Hydrocarbon
2. CO₂
3. CO
4. SO₂

Answer: 2. CO₂

Question 12. The presence of ozone in the atmosphere of Earth:

1. Hinders a higher rate of photosynthesis
2. Has been responsible for increasing the average global temperature in the recent past
3. Helps in checking the ultraviolet rays to reach earth
4. Is advantageous since it supplies oxygen for people travelling in jets.

Answer: 3. Helps in checking the ultraviolet rays to reach earth

Question 13. What will happen if our water resources continue to be polluted by industrial wastes?

1. Sufficient food will not be available to water organisms
2. Sufficient O₂ will not be available to water organisms
3. B.O.D. value of water will decrease
4. Drinking water will not be available.

Answer: 2. Sufficient O₂ will not be available to water organisms

Question 14. In Bhopal gas tragedy, the gas released was:

1. Methyl isocyanate
2. Ethyl isocyanate
3. Sodium isocyanate
4. Potassium isocyanate.

Answer: 1. Methyl isocyanate

NEET Biology MCQ Environmental Issues Question 15. Aerosols are:

1. Chemicals released in the air in the form of mist or vapour with force
2. Gases released from the exhaust pump
3. A mixture of carbon particles and mist
4. Soluble effluents are released in water.

Answer: 1. Chemicals released in the air in the form of mist or vapour with force

Question 16. The component of living cells affected by pollutant SO₂ is:

1. Nucleus
2. All cell membrane system
3. Cell wall
4. Membrane system.

Answer: 2. All cell membrane system

Question 17. The ‘Love Canal Incidence’ is concerned with:

1. Chemical plant accident
2. River pollution
3. Toxic waste dump
4. Man-made bacteria.
5. Answer: 3. Toxic waste dump

Question 18. The “solution to pollution is dilution.” This can be best correlated to

1. Air pollution
2. Water pollution
3. Noise pollution
4. Satiation pollution.

Answer: 2. Water pollution

Environmental Issues Biology NEET Question 19. Which of the following pollutants is not produced by the exhaust of motor vehicles?

1. CO
2. Hydrocarbon
3. Flyash
4. SO₂

Answer: 3. Flyash

Question 20. Minamata disease is a pollution-related disease which results from:

1. Release of industrial waste mercury into fishing water
2. Oil spills into the sea
3. Accumulation of arsenic in the atmosphere
4. Release of human organic wastes into drinking water.

Answer: 1. Release of industrial waste mercury into fishing water

Question 21. The most outstanding danger at present for the survival of living beings on the earth is:

1. Radiation hazard
2. Automobiles
3. Industrial effluents
4. Detergents

Answer: 1. Radiation hazard

Question 22. What does the term ‘overkill’ deal with?

1. Pesticide poisoning
2. Soil erosion
3. Nuclear holocaust
4. Global warming.

Answer: 3. Nuclear holocaust

Question 23. Radiation is a health hazard because it causes:

1. Haemophilia
2. Leukaemia
3. Pneumonia
4. Polio.

Answer: 2. Leukaemia

Question 24. In which industry, do workers suffer from Byssinosis?

1. Cardboard
2. Textile
3. Plastic
4. Paper.

Answer: 2. Textile

Question 25. Spraying of DDT on crops produces pollution of:

1. Air only
2. Air and soil
3. Air, soil and water
4. Air and water.

Answer: 3. Air, soil and water

Environmental Issues Biology NEET Question 26. The most widely existing pollutants in the air are:

1. CO
2. CO₂
3. SO₂
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. CO

Question 27. If water pollution continues at its present rate, it will eventually:

1. Stop the water cycle
2. Prevent precipitation
3. Make oxygen molecules unavailable to aquatic life
4. Make nitrates unavailable to aquatic life.

Answer: 3. Make oxygen molecules unavailable to aquatic life

Question 28. Which of the following air pollutants is the chief cause of acid rain?

1. H₂S
2. CO
3. SO₂
4. CO₂

Answer: 3. SO₂

Question 29. Which part of the human body is first to be affected by nuclear radiation?

1. Bone marrow
2. Liver
3. Lungs
4. Ear.

Answer: 1. Bone marrow

Question 30. Opuntia was a menace a few decades back in India. It was almost eradicated by:

1. Spraying DDT
2. Using tractors
3. Cochineal insect introduction
4. Using 2, 4-D.

Answer: 3. Cochineal insect introduction

Environmental Issues MCQ NEET Question 31. Photochemical smog is caused by the formation of

1. Aluminium ions
2. Methane
3. Sulphur
4. Free radicals of oxygen.

Answer: 4. Free radicals of oxygen.

Question 32. Where did the epidemic bone softening disease ‘Itai Itai’ occur first?

1. Myanmar
2. Japan
3. South Korea
4. U.S.A.

Answer: 2. Japan

Question 33. Non-biodegradable toxic pollutants, as they pass through food webs, undergo biological:

1. Oxidation
2. Reduction
3. Magnification
4. Hydrate.

Answer: 3. Magnification

Question 34. WHO’s recommendations about the industrial noise limit is:

1. 105 dB
2. 75 dB
3. 135 dB
4. 165 dB.

Answer: 2. 75 dB

Question 35. Contamination with radioactivity is dangerous because it causes:

1. Biological magnification
2. Gene mutation
3. Photochemical smog
4. Ozone destruction.

Answer: 2. Gene mutation

Environmental Issues MCQ NEET Question 36. A pollutant is any substance, chemical or other factor, that changes:

1. Natural geochemical cycles
2. The natural balance of our environment
3. The natural flora of our environment
4. The natural wildlife of our region.

Answer: 2. The natural balance of our environment

Question 37. The molecular action of ultraviolet light is mainly reflected through:

1. Photodynamic action
2. Destruction of hydrogen bonds between DNA strands
3. Formation of pyrimidine
4. Destruction of ester bonds.

Answer: 2. Destruction of hydrogen bonds between DNA strands

Question 38. In big cities, automobiles are responsible for air pollution:

1. 50%
2. 70%
3. 80%
4. 100%.

Answer: 3. 80%

Question 39. An important source of aerosol in the upper atmosphere is:

1. Sea
2. Air
3. Jet aeroplane emission
4. Soil.

Answer: 3. Jet aeroplane emission

Question 40. Enriched air, if inhaled for a long time, causes:

1. Allergy
2. Bronchitis
3. Disturbance of psychomotor function
4. Diarrhoea.

Answer: 3. Disturbance of psychomotor function

Question 41. In a small town, pasture is contaminated with airborne fluorides. Grazing animals in that area will suffer from:

1. Goitre disease
2. Thyroid disease
3. Dental disease
4. Beri-beri.

Answer: 3. Dental disease

Environmental Issues MCQ NEET Question 42. Strengthening of the concept of environmental monitoring is due to concern for the:

1. Quality of environment
2. Quantity of environment
3. Quality of monitor
4. Pure air.

Answer: 1. Quality of environment

Question 43. Mudball technique has been proposed by:

1. Rice Research Institute, Cuttack
2. CSIR, New Delhi
3. Punjab Agriculture University, Ludhiana
4. The International Rice Research Institute in the Philippines.

Answer: 4. The International Rice Research Institute in the Philippines.

Question 44. Biomagnification is a process of:

1. Magnification of animals
2. Enlargement of aquatic animals
3. The concentration of dangerous chemicals in the body of members of the food web
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Concentration of dangerous chemicals into the body of members of the food web

Question 45. Environmental monitoring helps in all except in:

1. Identifying pollution problem
2. Prescribing environmental quality standards
3. Predicting pollution abatement strategies
4. Planning pollution abatement strategies.

Answer: 3. Predicting pollution abatement strategies

Question 46. Automobiles discharge hydrocarbons and nitrous oxide into the atmosphere which is further converted to:

1. Carbon monoxide
2. Ozone and other pollutants
3. Radioactive substance
4. Hydrochloric acid and nitrogen dioxide.

Answer: 4. Hydrochloric acid and nitrogen dioxide.

Question 47. In Kolkata, adults are suffering from bronchitis TB. it is due to:

1. Impure water
2. Adulterated food
3. Polluted air
4. Polluted soil.

Answer: 3. Polluted soil.

Question 48. Air pollution is highest in:

1. Kolkata
2. Lucknow
3. Panchmarhi
4. Bhopal.

Answer: 1. Kolkata

Important NEET Questions Biology Question 49. Nowadays DDT is not effective in killing mosquitoes because:

1. The mosquito population has become strong
2. DDT is adulterated
3. DDT has selection pressure on the genetic variability
4. Mosquitoes have developed adaptive resistance to pesticides.

Answer: 4. Mosquitoes have developed adaptive resistance to pesticides.

Question 50. The population of hawks and eagles is declining because:

1. Of food scarcity
2. Of game lovers
3. Excessive use of poisoned pesticides
4. Very few dead animals are found in the fields.

Answer: 3. Of excessive use of poisoned pesticides

Question 51. Certain epiphytic lichens indicate changing levels of atmospheric pollution, especially of:

1. SO₂
2. CO₂
3. NO₂
4. SO₃

Answer: 1. SO₂

Question 52. The ozone layer is chiefly disturbed by:

1. A large number of automobiles
2. A large number of factories
3. Supersonic jets
4. Chimney exhausts.

Answer: 3. Supersonic jets

Question 53. Carbon monoxide is a very harmful pollutant because it:

1. Inactivates nerves
2. Combines with oxygen
3. Forms a stable compound with haemoglobin
4. Inhibits Krebs’ cycle.

Answer: 3. Forms a stable compound with haemoglobin

Question 54. B.O.D. of a river was found to be very low, which means water:

1. Was clean
2. Was polluted
3. Contains algae
4. Contains other dissolved minerals.

Answer: 1. Was clean

Question 55. SO₂ pollution can be controlled by all the methods except by:

1. Removing sulphur after combustion
2. Precombustion desulphurisation
3. Electricity
4. Photochemical oxidants.

Answer: 3. Electricity

Question 56. Nuclear power generates:

1. Photochemical pollution
2. SO₂ pollution
3. Air pollution
4. Thermal pollution.

Answer: 4. Thermal pollution.

Question 57. Many organic substances or organisms help in clearing the water when found in

1. High concentration
2. Low concentration
3. Moderate concentration
4. Neutral concentration.

Answer: 2. Low concentration

Important NEET Questions Biology Question 58. When pollution load is higher in the lakes it cannot take place self-purification because:

1. There is no O₂ to sustain microbial activity
2. No sunlight is present
3. Microbes die
4. Pollutants settle down automatically.

Answer: 3. Microbes die

Question 59. The level of tolerance of DDT is 10 ppm in the case of Daphnia, therefore Dciphnia:

1. Can live up to this concentration
2. Will die if the concentration is lower than this
3. Can tolerate ten times more concentration of DDT than 10² ppm.
4. Cannot tolerate DDT at all.

Answer: 1. Can live up to this concentration

Question 60. A better method of pest control is:

1. The use of chemical pesticide
2. The use of radioactive substance
3. By using pesticides taking into account the number and composition of pest population
4. Use of steam.

Answer: 4. Use of steam.

Question 61. The pollutants emitted by jet aeroplanes in the outer atmosphere as fluorocarbons are known as:

1. Photochemical oxidants
2. Aerosols
3. Loess
4. Smog.

Answer: 2. Aerosols

Question 62. The chemical which causes damage to WBC, bone marrow, spleen, lymph, nodes and lungs is:

1. Iodine-131
2. Calcium
3. Strontium-90
4. Iodine-127.

Answer: 1. Iodine-131

Important NEET Questions Biology Question 63. Name the chemicals which cause bone cancer and tissue degeneration:

1. Iodine-131
2. Strontium-90
3. Iodine-127
4. Calcium.

Answer: 2. Strontium-90

Question 64. The nuclear explosion causes mainly:

1. Noise pollution
2. Soil pollution
3. Water pollution
4. Air pollution.

Answer: 4. Air pollution.

Question 65. UV radiation to disinfect polluted water is not generally recommended because:

1. It has no residual germicidal effect
2. It is not effective against most micro-organisms
3. The colour and turbidity of water reduce its disinfection potential
4. Both (1) and (3).

Answer: 2. It is not effective against most micro-organisms

Question 66. UV radiations from sunlight cause the reaction that produces:

1. CO
2. SO₂
3. Ozone
4. NO₂

Answer: 3. Ozone

Question 67. What was the cause of the “Yusho” disease which occurred in 1968 from a leak in a canning factory?

1. DBCP
2. PCB
3. Formaldehyde
4. Mercury.

Answer: 2. PCB

Question 68. Which of the following is the main factor of water pollution?

1. Smoke
2. Industrial waste
3. Ammonia
4. Detergents.

Answer: 2. Industrial waste

Important NEET Questions Biology Question 69. Activated sludge is associated with the management of waste and it is a kind of:

1. Chemical treatment
2. Mechanical means
3. Biological treatment
4. Nuclear means.

Answer: 2. Mechanical means

Question 70. Which of the following is the largest source of formaldehyde vapour pollution in a room?

1. Utensil
2. Furniture
3. Cooking Range
4. Book.

Answer: 2. Furniture

Question 71. The term ‘nuclear winter’ is associated with:

1. Nuclear war
2. Nuclear disarmament
3. Nuclear weapon testing
4. Aftermath of a nuclear holocaust.

Answer: 4. Aftermath of a nuclear holocaust.

Environmental Issues MCQ NEET Question 72. The ozone layer in the upper atmosphere is destroyed by

1. HCl
2. Photochemical smog
3. SO₂
4. Chlorofiuoro carbons.

Answer: 4. Chlorofiuoro carbons.

Question 73. The most dangerous radioactive air pollutant is:

1. Slrontium-90
2. P-32
3. S-35
4. Ca-40.

Answer: 1. Slrontium-90

Question 74. Acid rain is caused by:

1. SO₂
2. SO₂ and NO₂
3. CO₂
4. O₂

Answer: 2. SO₂ and NO₂

Question 75. Which of the following is a qualitative pollutant:

1. CO₂
2. Insecticide
3. Plastic
4. Both (2) and (3).

Answer: 3. Plastic

Environmental Issues MCQ NEET Question 76. DDT is a/an:

1. Antibiotic
2. Biodegradable pollutant
3. Non-biodegradable pollutant
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Non-biodegradable pollutant

Question 77. The decomposition of domestic wastes under natural processes is known as:

1. Industrial pollution
2. Thermal pollution
3. Biodegradable process
4. Non-biodegradable process.

Answer: 3. Biodegradable process

Question 78. Which of the following causes fibrosis in the lungs?

1. Lead
2. CFCs
3. Asbestos
4. DDT.

Answer: 3. Asbestos

Question 79. Which of the following is a secondary pollutant?

1. CCl₂F₂
2. DDT
3. (C₂H₅)₄ Pb
4. PAN.

Answer: 4. PAN

Environmental Issues MCQ NEET Question 80. The air pollution at the source can be controlled by:

1. Separating the pollutants from harmless gases
2. Converting the pollutants to innocuous products before their release in the air
3. Both of them
4. None of these.

Answer: 3. Both of them

Question 81. Biochemical oxygen demand means:

1. Amount of oxygen taken up by the micro-organisms present in water
2. Amount of oxygen released by the micro-organisms present in the water
3. Amount of nutrients taken up by the micro-organisms present in the water
4. None of these.

Answer: 1. Amount of oxygen taken up by the micro-organisms present in water

Question 82. Hot water contains dissolved oxygen and then the BOD:

1. Decreases
2. Increases
3. Stabilises
4. None of these.

Answer: 1. Decreases

Important NEET Questions Biology Question 83. The gas which is produced in rice paddy and is associated with global warming is:

1. CH₄
2. Cl
3. CO₂
4. H₂S.

Answer: 1. CH₄

Question 84. The newspaper contains one of the following toxic materials. It is:

1. Cd
2. Pb
3. Mg
4. Hg.

Answer: 2. Pb

Question 85. Which of the following cities has the highest SO₂ pollution?

1. Milan
2. Seoul
3. New Delhi
4. New York.

Answer: 1. Milan

Important NEET Questions Biology Question 86. Match the following:

1. 1 – (C), 2 – (B), 3 – (D), 4 – (A)
2. 1 – (B), 2 – (C), 3 – (A), 4 – (D)
3. 1 – (C), 2 – (D), 3 – (C), 4 – (A)
4. 1 – (D), 2 – (C), 3 – (A), 4 – (B).

Answer: 1. 1 – (C), 2 – (B), 3 – (D), 4 – (A)

Question 87. The nitrifying bacteria are:

1. Autotrophic
2. Holophytic
3. Parasitic
4. Chemosynthetic.

Answer: 4. Chemosynthetic.

Question 88. Foul smell in the water of tanks, ponds etc is due to:

1. Anaerobiosis
2. Aerobiosis
3. Biological magnification
4. Psammophytes.

Answer: 1. Anaerobiosis

Important NEET Questions Biology Question 89. Checking of reradiating heat by atmospheric dust, water vapour, ozone, CO₂ etc. is known as:

1. Greenhouse effect
2. Radioactive effect
3. Ozone layer effect
4. Solar effect.

Answer: 1. Greenhouse effect

Question 90. Photochemical smog is related to the pollution of:

1. Soil
2. Water
3. Noise
4. Air.

Answer: 4. Air.

Question 91. The most important causative pollutant of soil may be:

1. Plastics
2. Iron junks
3. Detergents
4. Glass junks.

Answer: 1. Plastics

Question 92. UV radiation from sunlight causes the reaction that produces:

1. CO
2. Ozone
3. Fluorides
4. SO₂

Answer: 2. Ozone

Question 93. The greenhouse effect is enhanced in the environment by the gas:

1. CO₂
2. CO
3. Fluorocarbon
4. Methane.

Answer: 1. CO₂

Question 94. The most hazardous metal pollutant of automobile exhaust is:

1. Lead
2. Copper
3. Mercury
4. Cadmium.

Answer: 1. Lead

Question 95. Which substance provides protection from carcinogens?

1. Aflatoxin
2. Sterigmatoeytin
3. Penicillin
4. Tocopherol.

Answer: 4. Tocopherol.

Question 96. What is the main cause of desertification?

1. Developmental activities
2. Tourism
3. Overgrazing
4. Irrigated agriculture.

Answer: 1. Developmental activities

Question 97. Taj Mahal is threatened due to the effect of:

1. Chlorine
2. Sulphur dioxide
3. Oxygen
4. Hydrogen.

Answer: 2. Sulphur dioxide

Environmental Issues Biology NEET Question 98. When a huge amount of sewage is dumped into a river, the BOD will:

1. Increase
2. Remain unchanged
3. Slightly decrease
4. Decrease.

Answer: 1. Increase

Question 99. “Mango necrosis” is due to:

1. CO₂
2. CO
3. PAN
4. SO₂

Answer: 4. SO₂

Question 100. Minamata disease of Japan which afflicted people with paralysis was traced to:

1. Algae contaminated with Arsenic
2. Fish contaminated with Mg
3. Fruits contaminated with Nickle
4. Rice contaminated with biofertilizer.

Answer: 2. Fish contaminated with Mg

Question 101. The green scum seen in the freshwater bodies is:

1. Blue-green algae
2. Red algae
3. Green algae
4. Both (1) and (3).

Answer: 4. Both (1) and (3)

Question 102. The loudness of a sound that a person can withstand without discomfort is about.

1. 150 dB.
2. 215 dB.
3. 30dB.
4. 80 dB.

Answer: 4. 80 dB.

Question 103. The major source of noise pollution worldwide is due to:

1. Office equipment
2. Transport system
3. Sugar, textile and paper industries
4. Oil refineries and thermal power plants.

Answer: 2. Transport system

Question 104. Match correctly the following and choose the correct option.

The correct matches is:

1. 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B
2. 1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D
3. 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C
4. 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A.

Answer: 1. 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B

Question 105. Catalytic converters are fitted into automobiles to reduce the emission of harmful gases. Catalytic converters change unburnt hydrocarbons into:

1. Carbon dioxide and water
2. Carbon mono oxide
3. Methane
4. Carbon dioxide and methane.

Answer: 1. Carbon dioxide and water

Question 106. Why is it necessary to remove sulphur from petroleum products?

1. To reduce the emission of sulphur dioxide in exhaust fumes
2. To increase the efficiency of automobile engines
3. To use sulphur removed from petroleum for commercial purposes
4. To increase the life span of engine silencers.

Answer: 1. To reduce the emission of sulphur dioxide in exhaust fumes

Question 107. Which one of the following impurities is easiest to remove from wastewater?

1. Bacteria
2. Colloids
3. Dissolved solids
4. Suspended solids.

Answer: 4. Suspended solids.

Environmental Issues MCQ NEET Question 108. Which one of the following diseases is not due to contamination of water?

1. Hepatitis-B
2. Jaundice
3. Cholera
4. Typhoid.

Answer: 1. Hepatitis-B

Question 109. Nuisance growth of aquatic plants and bloom-forming algae in natural waters is generally due to high concentrations of:

1. Carbon
2. Sulphur
3. Calcium
4. Phosphorus.

Answer: 4. Phosphorus.

Question 110. Algal blooms impart a distinct colour to water due to:

1. Their pigments
2. Excretion of coloured substances
3. Formation of coloured chemicals in water facilitated by physiological degradation of algae.
4. Absorption of light by algal cell wall.

Answer: 1. Their pigments

Question 111. Match the items in column A and column B and choose the correct option:

1. 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – C
2. 1 – C, 2 – B, 3 – D, 4 – A
3. 1 – C, 2 – D, 3 – A, 4 – B
4. 1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – A.

Answer: 3. 1 – C, 2 – D, 3 – A, 4 – B

Question 112. In the textbook, you came across the Three Mile Island and Chornobyl disasters associated with the accidental leakage of radioactive wastes. In India, we had the Bhopal gas tragedy. It is associated with which of the following?

1. CO₂
2. Methyl Iso-Cyanate
3. CFC’s
4. Methy Cyanate.

Answer: 2. Methyl Iso-Cyanate

Question 113. Match the items of column A with column B and select the correct option.

1. 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – A
2. 1 – C, 2 – B, 3 – A
3. 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – C
4. 1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – B

Answer: 4. 1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – B

NEET Biology Principles And Process Of Biotechnology Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Clonal cell lines can be obtained by

1. Autoradiography
2. Tissue culture
3. Centrifugation
4. Cell fractionation.

Answer: 2. Tissue culture

Question 2. Which is the non-invasive technique of genetic counseling?

1. Amniocentesis
2. Chorionic biopsy
3. Fetal blood sampling
4. Ultrasonography

Answer: 4. Ultrasonography

Question 3. Who among the following discovered the enzyme restriction endonuclease?

1. Hamilton Othanel Smith
2. Sir Godfrey Hounsfield
3. F. Jacob
4. Andre Lwoff.

Answer: 1. Hamilton Othanel Smith

Question 4. The First hormone artificially produced by culturing bacteria is:

1. Insulin
2. Thyroxine
3. Testosterone
4. Adrenaline

Answer: 1. Insulin

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Biotechnology Principles and Processes NEET Question 5. When the number of genes increases in response to some signal, the effect is called:

1. Gene dosage
2. Gene pool
3. Gene amplification
4. Gene frequency.

Answer: 3. Gene amplification

Question 6. A number of bacteria with recombinant DNA of the same type form:

1. Clone library
2. Gene library
3. Gene pool
4. Gene frequency.

Answer: 2. Gene library

Question 7. Restriction enzymes may be used for

1. Making recombinant DNA
2. Gene mapping
3. Diagnosis of genetic diseases
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 8. When scientists make an animal superior by view of genotype, introducing some foreign genes in it, the phenomenon is called

1. Tissue culture
2. Biotechnology
3. Genetic engineering
4. Immunization.

Answer: 3. Genetic engineering

Question 9. Many copies of a DNA molecule in a test tube are procured by:

1. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
2. Molecular chain reaction (MCR)
3. Ephemeral chain reaction (ECR)
4. All of them.

Answer: 1. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

Biotechnology Principles and Processes NEET Question 10. Genetic diagnosis by DNA testing

1. Detects only mutant and normal alleles.
2. Can be done only on eggs or sperm.
3. Involves hybridization to ribosomal RNA.
4. Utilizes restriction enzymes and a polymorphic site.

Answer: 1. Detects only mutant and normal alleles.

Question 11. DNA can be introduced into any cell by

1. Injection
2. Being complexed with calcium salts.
3. Being placed along with the cell into a gene gun.
4. Gel electrophoresis.

Answer: 2. Being complexed with calcium salts.

Question 12. Bam HI, Eco RI, and Sma H are the types of

1. Restriction endooxidascs
2. Restriction endonucleases
3. Restriction exonucleases
4. Restriction polymerases.

Answer: 2. Restriction endonucleases

Question 13. The collection of bacteria with gDNA is called

1. DNA clones
2. DNA library
3. Genomic DNA library
4. DNA library.

Answer: 1. DNA clones

Question 14. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

1. RNA polymerase – RNA primer
2. Restriction enzymes-Genetic Engineering
3. Central Dogma – codon
4. Okazaki fragments-splicing.

Answer: 2. Restriction enzymes-Genetic Engineering

Biotechnology Principles and Processes NEET Question 15. Which one of the following scientists developed the process of DNA fingerprinting?

1. Kary B. Mullis
2. T.H. Morgan
3. H.O. Smith
4. Alec Jeffreys

Answer: 4. Alec Jeffreys

Question 16. DNA fingerprinting method is very useful for

1. DNA tests for identity and relationships
2. Forensic studies
3. Polymorphism
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 17. In DNA fingerprinting

1. A positive identification can be made
2. Multiple restriction enzymes digest/generate unique fragments
3. The polymerase chain reaction amplifies fewer DNA
4. The variability of repeated sequences between two restriction sites is evaluated.

Answer: 4. The variability of repeated sequences between two restriction sites is evaluated

Question 18. In Northern blotting, RNAs are separated by gel electrophoresis and the RNA bands are transferred onto a membrane of

1. Diazobenzyl oximetry
2. Diazobenzene
3. Diazobromine
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Diazobenzyl oximetry

Question 19. In Southern blotting is separated by gel electrophoresis

1. DNA
2. m-RNA
3. t-RNA
4. Protein.

Answer: 1. DNA

NEET Biology Biotechnology Principles And Processes Question 20. Protein engineering is used to study the proteins to compare the catalytic properties of

1. Normal and mutated form of the enzyme
2. The normal form of the enzyme
3. A mutated form of the enzyme
4. Normal and mutated forms of proteins.

Answer: 1. Normal and mutated form of enzyme

Question 21. Transgenic animals are produced by injecting foreign genes into the

1. Egg
2. Nucleus of unfertilized egg
3. Nucleus of fertilized egg
4. Nucleus of sperm.

Answer: 3. Nucleus of fertilized egg

Question 22. Western blotting technique was developed by:

1. Alwin
2. Edwin
3. Towbin
4. Thomas.

Answer: 3. Towbin

Question 23. The process used for separation of protein in polyacrylamide gel is called:

1. Southern blotting
2. Northern blotting
3. Western blotting
4. Eastern blotting.

Answer: 3. Western blotting

NEET Biology Biotechnology Principles And Processes Question 24. What is C-DNA?

1. Circular DNA
2. Cloned DNA
3. DNA produced from reverse transcription of RNA
4. Cytoplasmic DNA.

Answer: 2. Cloned DNA

Question 25. Which of the following organelles is associated with genetic engineering?

1. Plastids
2. Plasmids
3. Chloroplast
4. Mitochondria.

Answer: 2. Plasmids

Question 26. The minimum length of cistron in base pairs which synthesizes a polypeptide of 50 amino acids is:

1. 50 bp
2. 100 bp
3. 150 bp
4. 200 bp

Answer: 3. 150 bp

NEET Biology Biotechnology Principles And Processes Question 27. The recent techniques used for separating fragments of DNA is

1. Northern blotting
2. Southern blotting
3. Eastern blotting
4. Western blotting

Answer: 2. Southern blotting

Question 28. Plasmids are autonomously replicating mini chromosomes found in

1. Bacteriophage lambda
2. Leishmania Donovan
3. Escherichia coli
4. Paramecium caudatum.

Answer: 3. Escherichia coli

Question 29. Genetic engineering is possible because:

1. The phenomenon of transduction in bacteria is well-understood
2. We can see DNA by electron microscope
3. We can cut DNA at specific sites by endonucleases like DNA asel
4. Restriction endonucleases purified from bacteria can be used in vitro.

Answer: 4. Restriction endonucleases purified from bacteria can be used in vitro.

Question 30. Restriction endonucleases are

1. Present in mammalian cells for degradation of DNA when the cell dies
2. Synthesized by bacteria as part of their defense mechanism
3. Used for in vitro DNA synthesis
4. Both (2) and (3).

Answer: 4. Both (2) and (3).

Question 31. In bacteria, genes for antibiotic resistance are usually located in

1. Chromosomal DNA
2. Cytoplasm
3. Mitochondria
4. Plasmids.

Answer: 4. Plasmids.

Biotechnology Principles and Processes MCQs Question  32. Which one of the following is related to genetic engineering?

1. Plasmids
2. Mitochondria
3. Mutations
4. Ribosome

Answer: 1. Plasmids

Question 33. Improvement of the genotype of an organism by the addition of some foreign genes is

1. Genetic diversity
2. Gene handling
3. Tissue culture
4. Genetic engineering.

Answer: 4. Genetic diversity

Question 34. Two bacteria found to be very useful in genetic engineering experiments are

1. Nitrosomonas and Klebsiella
2. Escherichia and Agrobacterium
3. Nitrobacter and Azotobacter
4. Rhizobium and Diplococcus.

Answer: 2. Escherichia and Agrobacterium

Question 35. The term hybridoma implies:

1. DNA-RNA hybrid
2. Recombination of DNA molecules
3. Somatic hybridisation
4. Gametic fusion.

Answer: 3. Somatic hybridization

Biotechnology Principles and Processes MCQs Question 36. Restriction enzymes are isolated chiefly from

1. Algae
2. Fungi
3. Protozoans
4. Prokaryotes

Answer: 4. Prokaryotes

Question 37. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

1. Cosmid contains gene coding for viral protein
2. Cosmid replicates like plasmids
3. Cosmid has antibiotic antibiotic-resistant marker gene
4. Cos site has 12 bases helping to join the complete genome to make it circular.

Answer: 1. Cosmid contains gene coding for viral protein

Question 38. Harris and J.F. Watkins in 1965 first time reported the fusion of following cell lines to form hybrids

1. Mouse and man
2. Mouse and hamster
3. Mouse and chick erythrocytes
4. Mouse and drosophila

Answer: 1. Mouse and man

Question  39. The genetic recombinants obtained by the insertion of the plasmid into 1 phage genome is called

1. Cosmid
2. Phasmid
3. Phagmid
4. Foreign DNA.

Answer: 2. Phasmid

Biotechnology Principles and Processes MCQs Question 40. Synthetic DNA or sDNA is

1. DNA synthesized in the lab without any template
2. DNA synthesized in the cell without any template
3. DNA synthesized in the lab. without any nucleotide
4. DNA is synthesized in the cell without any nucleotide.

Answer: 1. DNA synthesized in the lab without any template

Question 41. A technique used to make numerous copies of a specific segment of DNA quickly and accurately

1. Ligase chain reaction
2. Transcription
3. Polymerase chain reaction
4. Translation.

Answer: 3. Polymerase chain reaction

Question 42. The human genome contains about:

1. 10,000 nucleotides
2. 10,000 genes
3. 6 billion nucleotides
4. 6 billion genes

Answer: 3. 6 billion nucleotides

Question 43. A collection of organisms, usually viruses, bacteria, or yeast, which have been transformed by the addition of extra genes from another species

1. Gene replication
2. Gene cloning
3. Gene pool
4. Gene library.

Answer: 4. Gene library.

Biotechnology Principles and Processes MCQ for NEET Question 44. The colony hybridization procedure for the identification of plasmid clones is called

1. Southern blotting
2. Grunstcin-Hogncss assay
3. DNA probes
4. Molecular assay.

Answer: 2. Grunstcin-Hogncss assay

Question 45. TATAATG sequence near the RNA start point of the prokaryotic promoter is

1. Nicks
2. DNA marker
3. Palindrome
4. Pribnow box.

Answer: 4. Pribnow box.

Question 46. Which one of the following scientists got the Nobel Prize for his invention of polymerase chain reaction (PCR)?

1. F. Sanger
2. Paul Berg
3. Alec Jeffreys
4. Kary B. Mullis.

Answer: 4. Kary B. Mullis.

Question 47. An artificial process of infecting cells with naked viral DNA is:

1. Translation
2. Transduction
3. Transfection
4. Transgenic.

Answer: 3. Transfection

Question 48. Producing a ‘giant mouse’ in the laboratory was possible through:

1. Gene mutation
2. Gene duplication
3. Gene synthesis
4. Gene manipulation.

Answer: 4. Gene manipulation.

Question 49. One of the following is transgenic organisms:

1. Holly sheep and Flavr savr tomato
2. Holly sheep and Cotton Bt
3. Dolly Sheep and Cotton Ct
4. Flavr savr tomato and Cotton Bt.

Answer: 4. Flavr savr tomato and Cotton Bt.

Biotechnology Principles and Processes MCQ for NEET Question 50. An environmental agent that triggers transcription from an operon is a

1. Depressor
2. Inducer
3. Regulator
4. Controlling element.

Answer: 2. Inducer

Question 51. Which of the following would not be used in preparing recombinant DNA?

1. Plasmids
2. Pages
3. Restriction enzymes
4. DNA polymerase 3

Answer: 4. DNA polymerase 3

Question 52. The ability to absorb foreign DNA is

1. Sexduction
2. Competence
3. Hfr
4. Transduction.

Answer: 2. Competence

Question 53. RNA processing is

1. An event that occurs after RNA transcribed
2. The rejection of old, worn-out RNA
3. An event that occurs before RNA is transcribed
4. Both (1) and (3).

Answer: 1. An event that occurs after RNA transcribed

Question 54. There are special proteins that help to open up the DNA double helix in front of the replication fork. These proteins are

1. DNA gyrase
2. DNA polymerase 1
3. DNA ligase
4. DNA topoisomerase.

Answer: 1. DNA gyrase

Question 55. Who got the Nobel prize in medicine for their discovery of ‘G-proteins’ and the role of these proteins in the cells :

1. Robert and Philip Sharp
2. Gilman and Rodbell
3. Fischer and Krebs
4. Ervin Nahar and Bert Sakmann.

Answer: 2. Gilman and Rodbell

Biotechnology Principles and Processes MCQ for NEET Question 56. A gene is made up of

1. DNA
2. RNA
3. Either DNA or RNA
4. Amino acids.

Answer: 3. Either DNA or RNA

Question 57. The message from nuclear DNA for the synthesis of specific cytoplasmic proteins is carried by

1. mRNA
2. t-RNA
3. s-RNA
4. rRNA.

Answer: 1. mRNA

Question 58. Exonucleases cleaving nucleotides one at a time from the end of the polynucleotide chain are

1. Specific for 5’end of RNA strand
2. Specific for 3′ end of RNA strand
3. Specific for both 5′ and 3′ ends of nucleotide strands.
4. Non-specific for 5′ and 3′ ends of nucleotide strand.

Answer: 3. Specific for both 5′ and 3′ ends of nucleotide strands.

Question 59. Complete transduction is

1. Transfer of whole genome with the help of virus
2. Picking up of one or more genes by phage and transferring it to a second host
3. Integration of genes brought by viral particles into the genome of a new host.
4. Both 2 and 3.

Answer: 3. Integration of genes brought by viral particles into the genome of a new host.

Question 60. The inducible/lac operon system operates in

1. Catabolic pathway
2. Anabolic pathway
3. Intermediate metabolism
4. All the above.

Answer: 1. Catabolic pathway

Question 61. Nif genes is a group of proteins

1. 15 genes
2. 15 nucleotides
3. 15 proteins
4. 10 genes.

Answer: 1. 15 genes

Question 62. Nitrogen-fixing genes are called

1. Nif genes
2. Plasmid genes
3. Leg genes
4. Cos genes

Answer: 1. Nif genes

Biotechnology Principles and Processes NEET Question 63. Humulin is a

1. Pig insulin
2. Human insulin
3. Viral insulin
4. Human clone

Answer: 2. Human insulin

Question 64. Mishandling of genetic engineering may cause

1. Genetic erosion
2. Green revolution
3. Silver revolution
4. White revolution.

Answer: 1. Genetic erosion

Question 65. Genetic engineering is helpful in

1. Gene regulation
2. Gene translation
3. Gene therapy
4. Alcohol production.

Answer: 3. Gene therapy

Question 66. The Human Genome Project was the thought of:

1. Jean Dausset
2. Watson
3. Crick
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Jean Dausset

Question 67. The genome map was produced under the human genome project in

1. 1992
2. 1994
3. 1996
4. 2000.

Answer: 2. 1994

Question 68. The colonies of recombinant bacteria appear white in contrast to the blue colonies of non-recombinant bacteria because of:

1. Insertional inactivation of alpha-galactosidase in non-recombinant bacteria
2. Insertional inactivation of alpha-galactosidase in recombinant bacteria
3. Inactivation of glycosidase enzyme in recombinant bacteria
4. Non-recombinant bacteria containing beta-galactosidase

Answer: 3. Inactivation of glycosidase enzyme in recombinant bacteria

Biotechnology Principles and Processes NEET Question 69. Genes that are involved in turning on or off the transcription of a set of structural genes are called

1. Polymorphic genes
2. Operator genes
3. Redundant genes
4. Regulatory genes

Answer: 2. Operator genes

Question 70. DNA fingerprinting method is very useful for:

1. DNA tests for identity and relationships
2. Forensic studies
3. Polymorphism
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 71. Transgenic organisms are produced by

1. Deleting sex chromosomes
2. Inducing gene mutations
3. Introducing foreign genes
4. Arresting spindle fiber formation.

Answer: 3. Introducing foreign genes

Question 72. The basis for DNA fingerprinting is

1. Occurrence of restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP)
2. Phenotypic differences between individuals
3. Availability of cloned DNA
4. Knowledge of human karyotype.

Answer: 1. Occurrence of restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP)

Question 73. Genetically bacteria have been successfully used in the commercial production of:

1. Human insulin
2. Testosterone
3. Thyroxine
4. Melatonin.

Answer: 1. Human insulin

Biotechnology Principles and Processes NEET Question 74. Which of the following is associated with genetic engineering?

1. Plastids
2. Plasmids
3. Mutations
4. Hybrid vigor.

Answer: 2. Plasmids

Question 75. PCR stands for:

1. Polymerase Cyclic Reaction
2. Polymerase Chain Reaction
3. Polyethyl Cytosine Reaction
4. Polymerization Chain Reaction.

Answer: 2. Polymerase Chain Reaction

Question 76. This segment of DNA has restriction sites 1 and 2 which create restriction fragments a, b, and c. Which of the following gel (s) produced by electrophoresis would represent the separation and identity of these fragments?

Answer: 2

Question 77. DNA fragments generated by the restriction endonu¬cleases in a chemical reaction can be separated by

1. Polymerase chain reaction
2. Electrophoresis
3. Restriction mapping
4. Centrifugation

Answer: 2. Electrophoresis

Question 78. Yeast has become important in genetic engineering because it:

1. Has plasmids that can be genetically engineered
2. Allows the study of eukaryotic gene regulation and expression
3. Grows readily and rapidly in the laboratory
4. All of the above

Answer: 4. All of the above

Question 79. The gene for cloning may be chemically synthesized:

1. When the exact sequence of nucleotides is known
2. Through the use of restriction enzymes and gel electrophoresis to separate restriction fragments
3. By the Sanger method
4. By making complementary DNA from genes without introns.

Answer: 1. When the exact sequence of nucleotides is known

Question 80. You are attempting to introduce a gene that imparts larval moth resistance to bean plants. Which of the following vectors are you most likely to use?

1. Phage DNA
2. Bacterial plasmid
3. Ti plasmid
4. Yeast plasmid.

Answer: 3. Ti plasmid

Question 81. The genome of Caenorhabditis elegant consists of:

1. 3 billion base pairs and 30,000 genes
2. 12 million base pairs and 6,000 genes
3. 4.7 million base pairs and 4,000 genes
4. 97 million base pairs and 18,000 genes
5. 180 million base pairs and 13,000 genes.

Answer: 4. 180 million base pairs and 13,000 genes.

Question 82. Taq polymerase enzyme is found in

1. Thermits aqucitecus
2. E.coli
3. Pseudomonas
4. Agrobacterium.

Answer: 1. Thermits aqucitecus

Biotechnology Principles and Processes MCQs Question 83. Petroleum-lysing bacteria are being engineered for the removal of oil spills. What is the most realistic danger of these bacteria to the environment?

1. Mutations leading to the production of a strain pathogenic to humans
2. Extinction of natural microbes due to the competitive advantage of the “petro-bacterium”
3. Destruction of natural oil deposits
4. Poisoning of the food chain.

Answer: 3. Destruction of natural oil deposits

Question 84. An attenuated virus:

1. Is a virus that is non-pathogenic
2. In an elongated viral particle
3. Can transfer recombinant DNA to other viruses
4. Will not produce an immune response.

Answer: 1. Is a virus that is non-pathogenic

Question 85. Which of the following is a difficulty in getting prokaryotic cells to express eukaryotic genes?

1. The signals that control gene expression are different and prokaryotic promoter regions must be added to the vector
2. The genetic code differs between the two because prokaryotes substitute the base uracil for thymine
3. Prokaryotic cells cannot transcribe introns because their genes do not have them
4. The ribosomes of prokaryotes are not large enough to handle long eukaryotic genes.

Answer: 1. The signals that control gene expression are different and prokaryotic promoter regions must be added to the vector

NEET Biology Organism And Environment Species And Population Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. The annual growth rate for developing countries is:

1. 5%
2. 2%
3. 2.5%
4. 8%.

Answer: 3. 2.5%

Question 2. The study of the interrelationship between living organisms and their environment is called:

1. Phytosociology
2. Phytogeography
3. Ecology
4. Ecosystem.

Answer: 3. Ecology

Question 3. Plants and animals living in a given area constitute:

1. Population
2. Ecosystem
3. Community
4. Plankton.

Answer: 3. Community

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 4. The carrying capacity of an environment is determined by:

1. Birth rate
2. Death rate
3. Limiting resources
4. Population growth rate.

Answer: 3. Limiting resources

NEET Biology MCQ Organisms and Populations Question 5. If there is a large gap between the birth rate and death rate in Haryana we can infer that Haryana would tend to have:

1. More of old men
2. More school-going children
3. Lower rate of fertility
4. Low dependency ratio.

Answer: 1. More of old men

Question 6. Demography is the study of statistics that deals with:

1. Geography
2. Population growth
3. Local concentration of individuals
4. Family pedigrees.

Answer: 2. Population growth

Question 7. The parameter for describing a population is:

1. Time
2. Number and kind
3. Space or area
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 8. The most thickly populated state in India is:

1. U.P.
2. Tamil Nadu
3. West Bengal
4. Kerala.

Answer: 3. West Bengal

Question 9. The most thinly populated state in India is:

1. Sikkim
2. Himachal Pradesh
3. Rajasthan
4. Arunachal Pradesh.

Answer: 4. Arunachal Pradesh.

Question 10. Which of the following is monogamous

1. Seal
2. Deer
3. Woodpecker
4. Swan.

Answer: 4. Swan

NEET Biology MCQ Organisms and Populations Question 11. Which of the following is polygamous?

1. Rat
2. Wolf
3. Deer
4. Fox.

Answer: 3. Deer

Question 12. Which of the following lives in flocks?

1. Deer
2. Duck
3. Elephant
4. Monkey.

Answer: 2. Duck

Question 13. Animals found in herds is:

1. Mice
2. Swan
3. Parrot
4. Deer.

Answer: 4. Deer

Question 14. The human population first began to grow exponentially at the time of:

1. Tool using revolution
2. Agricultural revolution
3. Industrial revolution
4. First World War.

Answer: 2. Agricultural revolution

Question 15. About how many people starve to death each day?

1. 1000
2. 10,000
3. 70,000
4. 600,000.

Answer: 3. 70,000

NEET Biology MCQ Organisms and Populations Question 16. The growth of the human population is most rapid in the:

1. Tropical and subtropical regions
2. Temperate region
3. Asia
4. North America.

Answer: 1. Tropical and subtropical regions

Question 17. What constitutes the most important boundary between different species?

1. Territory
2. Morphology
3. Reproductive isolation
4. Mode of nutrition

Answer: 3. Reproductive isolation

Question 18. Offspring of a stallion and Janet is called :

1. Stajon
2. Hinny
3. Mule
4. Mare.

Answer: 2. Hinny

Question 19. Population density is expressed by :

1. D = N + S
2. D = N x S
3. D = N÷S
4. D = N-S.

Answer: 3. LD = N÷S

Question 20. Fingers and legs are shorter in colder regions. It is:

1. Jorden’s rule
2. Lindeman’s rule
3. Allen’s rule
4. Gloger’s rule.

Answer: 3. Allen’s rule

Organisms and Populations NEET Questions Question 21. Population whose members reproduce asexually are termed:

1. Panimictic
2. Ecotype
3. Apomictic
4. Amphimictic

Answer: 3. Apomictic

Question 22. Population whose members reproduce are termed:

1. Panimictic
2. Apomictric
3. Species
4. Amphimictic.

Answer: 4. Amphimictic

Question 23. The study of interactions of an individual organism or a single species with the living and non-living components of its environment is:

1. Autoecology
2. Autoecious
3. Autogamy
4. Autonomy.

Answer: 1. Autoecology

Question 24. Ecological studies of plants were first started by:

1. Warming
2. Daubenmire
3. Good
4. Raunkier.

Answer: 1. Warming

Question 25. Synecology refers to the ecological study of:

1. A population of species growing together
2. Animals
3. Plants
4. Microbes.

Answer: 1. A population of species growing together

Organisms and Populations NEET Questions Question 26. All the living organisms on earth constitute:

1. Community
2. Biosphere
3. Species
4. Biome.

Answer: 2. Biosphere

Question 27. Individuals of the same species in a particular locality constitute:

1. Population
2. Hydrosphere
3. Flora
4. Fauna.

Answer: 1. Population

Question 28. Migration refers to:

1. One-way outward movement
2. One-way inward movement
3. Periodic departure and return
4. Death of individuals.

Answer: 3. Periodic departure and return

Question 29. Which of the following is an example of proto-cooperation?

1. Echiuroid worm and small annelid
2. Sea anemone and hermit crab
3. Nitrogen-fixing bacteria and leguminous plants
4. Trichophyta in the gut of termite.

Answer: 2. Sea anemone and hermit crab

Question 30. Gametophyte and sporophyte stages of a fern plant should ecologically be considered as:

1. Two distinct species
2. Two stages of a species
3. Two varieties of a species
4. Two organisms of a colony.

Answer: 2. Two stages of a species

Organisms and Populations NEET Questions Question 31. Which of the following is related to synecology?

1. Same species
2. Different species
3. Both(1) and (2)
4. None of above

Answer: 2. Different species

Question 32. Competition is most severe in two:

1. Species
2. Families
3. Niche
4. Orders

Answer: 1. Species

Question 33. The territory is defended against:

1. Predator
2. Any intruder
3. Intruder of another species
4. Intruder of the same species.

Answer: 4. Intruder of the same species

Question 34. Which of the following shows the polymorphism?

1. Caricci papaya
2. Apis indicia
3. Volvox
4. Both (2) and (3).

Answer: 4. Both (2) and (3)

NEET Questions Organisms and Populations Question 35. Cross-fertilization in plants is a kind of:

1. Competitive interaction
2. Co-operative interaction
3. Parental care
4. All the above.

Answer: 2. Co-operative interaction

Question 36. An interaction between two or more organisms when the resources necessary for them are limited refers to:

1. Co-operation
2. Competition
3. Aggregation
4. Family formation.

Answer: 2. Competition

Question 37. Flams and animals living in a given area form:

1. Community
2. Population
3. Plankton
4. Ecosystem.

Answer: 1. Community

Question 38. Sub-groups of a population capable of interbreeding are called as:

1. Subpopulation
2. Dummies
3. Demes
4. Biomes

Answer: 3. Demes

Question 39. In red deer, the herd is:

1. Matriarchal
2. Patriarchal
3. Matriarchal or Patriarchal
4. Not applicable.

Answer: 1. Matriarchal

Question 40. The biotic potential is counteracted by:

1. Limitation of food supply
2. Competition with other organisms
3. The producer is the largest
4. Both (1) and (2).

Answer: 1. Limitation of food supply

NEET Questions Organisms and Populations Question 41. The carrying capacity is determined by its:

1. Death rate
2. Filming resource
3. Population growth rate
4. Both (2) and (3).

Answer: 2. Flimiting resource

Question 42. A population can grow exponentially:

1. When food is the only limiting resource
2. When first invading a suitable and previously unoccupied habitat
3. Only if there is no predation
4. Only in the laboratory.

Answer: 2. When first invading a suitable and previously unoccupied habitat

Question 43. Which of the following does not directly affect biotic potential?

1. A female’s age of first reproduction
2. Carrying capacity of the environment
3. Length of time a female is fertile
4. Average number of offspring per brood or litter.

Answer: 2. Carrying capacity of the environment

Question 44. Which of the following chemical compounds helps in transmitting the message to other species of members?

1. Alternative
2. Ptyalin
3. Pheromones
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Pheromones

NEET Questions Organisms and Populations Question 45. The sympatric population cannot be isolated by:

1. Behavioral barriers
2. Seasonal barriers
3. Habitat barriers
4. Geographical barriers.

Answer: 4. Geographical barriers

Question 46. Term-species in ecology refers to:

1. Autoecology
2. Synecology
3. Community ecology
4. Paleoecology.

Answer: 1. Autoecology

Question 47. Population surge 230 years ago was due to:

1. Industrial revolution
2. Agricultural revolution
3. Cultural revolution.
4. Intellectual revolution.

Answer: 1. Industrial revolution

Question 48. The leveling of an S-shaped curve describing population growth is caused by:

1. Carrying capacity
2. The competitive exclusion
3. Environmental resistance
4. A change in the biotic potential.

Answer: 3. Environmental resistance

Question 49. The abundance of a species population within its habitat is called:

1. Niche density
2. Absolute density
3. Relative density
4. Regional density.

Answer: 1. Niche density

NEET Questions Organisms and Populations Question 50. Mule is produced by breeding:

1. Mule and mare
2. Horse and female ass
3. Horse and mare
4. Male ass and bitch.

Answer: 1. Mule and and mare

Question 51. When the population reaches carrying capacity:

1. Mortality rate = Birth rate
2. Mortality rate > Birth rate
3. Mortality rate < Birth rate
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Mortality rate = Birth rate

Question 52. Pheromones are secreted by certain exocrine cutaneous gland affect.

1. Genitalia
2. Skin colour
3. Breast
4. Mutual behavior of members of a species.

Answer: 4. Mutual behavior of members of a species

Organisms and Populations Biology NEET Question 53. The area covered by members of a species in search of food and mates is called:

1. Range
2. Home range
3. Territory
4. Habitat.

Answer: 2. Home range

Question 54. Crow also incubates the eggs of:

1. Pigeon
2. Dove
3. Cuckoo
4. Weaver bird.

Answer: 3. Cuckoo

Question 55. Pheromones of insects are:

1. Growth promoters
2. Growth inhibitors
3. Means of communication
4. Chemicals of unknown utility.

Answer: 3. Means of communication

Question 56. Population density of terrestrial organisms is measured in terms of individuals per:

1. Metre
2. Metre²
3. Metre³
4. Metre⁴

Answer: 2. Metre²

Question 57. Population density of aquatic organisms is expressed in terms of individuals per:

1. Metre
2. Metre²
3. Metre³
4. Metre⁴

Answer: 3. Metre³

Question 58. Which of the following factors is not a determinant of population size?

1. Birth rate
2. Immigration
3. Emigration
4. Migration.

Answer: 4. Migration.

Organisms and Populations Biology NEET Question 59. The dominant individual in a herd is

1. Always a female
2. Always a male
3. Usually a male
4. Usually a female

Answer: 3. Usually a male

Question 60. Tiger has a:

1. Monogamous fixed partnership
2. Patriarchy group
3. Matriarchy group
4. Solitary life

Answer: 2. Patriarchy group

Question 61. Which of these helps in the survival of a species?

1. Group formation
2. Maintenance of territory
3. Communication
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above

Question 62. Honey bees perform dancing motions to signal:

1. Distance of food source
2. Direction of food source
3. Availability of food
4. Distance and direction of food source.

Answer: 4. Distance and direction of food source

Question 63. Emigration affects the population in:

1. Animals
2. Land plants
3. Animals and land plants
4. Land plants and aquatic plants.

Answer: 1. Animals

Question 64. Brown-skinned human race:

1. Mongoloid
2. Polynesian
3. Red Indian
4. Australoid

Answer: 2. Polynesian

Question 65. The members or a form of polymorphic species:

1. Interbreed with members in their own form
2. Do not reproduce sexually
3. Interbreed with members of other forms only
4. Interbreed among themselves and with members of other forms also.

Answer: 4. Interbreed among themselves and with members of other forms also

Organisms and Populations Biology NEET Question 66. Cooperative interaction is essential for the perpetuation of:

1. Animals
2. Plants
3. Both animals and plants
4. Neither animals nor plants.

Answer: 3. Both animals and plants

Question 67. The aggregate of processes that determine the size and composition of any population is termed as:

1. Population density
2. Population explosion
3. Population dispersal
4. Population dynamics.

Answer: 4. Population dynamics

Question 68. When a tiger attacks cheetahs, the stag with the best antlers is surrounded by other individuals to protect it. It is an example of

1. Cooperation
2. Group formation
3. Altruism
4. Herding.

Answer: 3. Altruism

Question 69. Which of the following leads a solitary life?

1. Swan
2. Man
3. Spider
4. Monkey.

Answer: 3. Spider

Question 70. Family formation is a characteristic feature of:

1. All animals
2. A few animals
3. Majority of animals
4. Almost all animals.

Answer: 2. A few animals

Organisms and Populations MCQ  Question 71. Which among the following does not lead a monogamous life?

1. Seal
2. Fox
3. Swan
4. Wolf.

Answer: 1. Seal

Question 72. Rats are:

1. Monogamous
2. Bigamous
3. Polygamous
4. Do not have fixed partners

Answer: 4. Do not have fixed partners

Question 73. Ants communicate through:

1. Sound
2. Pheromones
3. Contact
4. Both (2) and (3)

Answer: 2. Pheromones

Question 74. Altruistic behavior is found in:

1. Honey bee
2. Termites
3. Spotted deer
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 75. The factors which do not affect the population size is:

1. Immigration
2. Emigration
3. Migration
4. Birth rate.

Answer: 3. Migration

Question 76. The rapid decline in a population due to a high mortality rate is:

1. Population density
2. Population crash
3. Population explosion
4. All the above.

Answer: 2. Population crash

Organisms and Populations MCQ  Question 77. According to the 1991 Census, the urban population of India was about:

1. 30%
2. 34%
3. 51%
4. 24%.

Answer: 4. 24%

Question 78. Genetically adapted population to a particular habit is:

1. Mule
2. Ecotype
3. Ecosphere
4. Ecology.

Answer: 1. Mule

Question 79. A fertile hybrid between the captive tiger and a lioness is:

1. Mule
2. Liger
3. Tigress
4. Tigon.

Answer: 4. Tigon.

Question 80. Which of the following chemical compounds help in transmitting the message to other members of the same species?

1. Hormone
2. Ptyaiin
3. Pheromones
4. None of above.

Answer: 3. Pheromones

Question 81. The population tends to increase as individuals are added by:

1. Natality
2. Immigration
3. None of the above
4. Both of these.

Answer: 4. Both of these.

Organisms and Populations MCQ  Question 82. The population tends to decrease by:

1. Mortality
2. Emigration
3. None of these
4. Both of these

Answer: 4. Both of these

Question 83. The most distinct and easily observation unit is:

1. Cell
2. Tissue
3. Organs
4. Individual organism.

Answer: 4. Individual organism.

Question 84. The occurrence of two forms among the organisms of the same kind is known as:

1. Dimorphism
2. Trimorphism
3. Polymorphism
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Dimorphism

Question 85. A green alga Volvox, a colonial form consists of over:

1. 100 cells
2. 1000 cells
3. 10,000 cells
4. 60,000 cells.

Answer: 4. 60,000 cells

Question 86. The chemicals of intraspecific communication are:

1. Allochemics
2. Kairomones
3. Auxins
4. Pheromones.

Answer: 4. Pheromones

Question 87. Human society is a product of:

1. Instinctive behaviour
2. Learnt behaviour
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Learnt behavior

Question 88. Match the terms in Column A with suitable terms in Column B.

1. (1-c), (2-d), (3-a), (4-e); (5-b)
2. (1-c), (2-d), (3—b), (4-e); (5-b)
3. (1-c), (2-d), (3-a), (4-e); (5-b)
4. (1-D), (2-c). (3-a), (4-e); (5-b).

Answer: 3. (1-c), (2-d), (3-a), (4-e); (5-b)

Question 89. Which of the following morphological forms is also known as ecophenes?

1. Ecospecies
2. Ecad
3. Ecotype
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Ecotype

Question 90. The relationship between one species and another within a community that has evolved through interactions is based upon:

1. Requirement and mode of obtaining food only
2. Requirement and mode of obtaining shelter only
3. On the habits of the species only
4. All of these.

Answer: 4. All of these.

NEET Questions Organisms and Populations Question 91. The interaction among organisms in a community called as biotic factors influence:

1. The structure of a community only
2. Composition of a community only
3. The function of a community only
4. All of these.

Answer: 4. All of these.

Question 92. According to the species equilibrium theory, smaller islands have fewer species because they have:

1. High rate of extinction
2. Lower rate of colonization
3. A smaller species pool to draw from
4. Lower birth rates.

Answer: 1. High rate of extinction

Question 93. Competition between individuals of the species is called:

1. Interspecific
2. Intraspecific
3. Feedback
4. All of the above.

Answer: 2. Intraspecific

Question 94. Which of the following levels of organization emphasizes the structural aspects in terms of relation and requirement of organisms?

1. Autecological level
2. Synecological level
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Autecological level

Question 95. Synecology is the study of:

1. Biosphere
2. Individuals
3. Environment
4. Community in relation to the environment.

Answer: 4. Community in relation to environment.

Question 96. The leaves are absent in the xerophyte:

1. Calotropis procera
2. Zizyphus jujube
3. Acacia nilotica
4. Cippciris aphylla.

Answer: 4. Cippciris aphylla

NEET Questions Organisms and Populations Question 97. The relationship between one species and another within a community that has evolved through interactions is based upon:

1. Requirement and mode of obtaining food only
2. Requirement and mode of obtaining shelter only
3. On the habits of the species only
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 98. The interaction among organisms in a community called as biotic factors influence:

1. The structure of a community only
2. Composition of a community only
3. The function of a community only
4. All of the above.

Answer: 3. Function of a community only

Question 99. The scientific study of mimicry was carried out first by:

1. Darwin
2. Bates
3. Muller
4. Von Frich.

Answer: 2. Bates

Question 100. A butterfly of India when resting with folded wings resembles a dead leaf. This mechanism of protection is called:

1. Mimicry
2. Hiding
3. Congregation
4. Camouflage.

Answer: 1. Mimicry

Question 101. A stick insect (Carausium) mimics a thin dry branch and a dead leaf or an oak leaf butterfly (Kallima) looks like a dead leaf. It is:

1. Concealing protective mimicry
2. Warning mimicry
3. Concealing aggressive mimicry
4. Warning alluring mimicry.

Answer: 1. Concealing protective mimicry

Question 102. The mimetic imitates other organism in:

1. Shape and size
2. Color
3. Action and attitude
4. Any of the above.

Answer: 3. Action and attitude

Question 103. Types of aggressive mimicry are

1. Concealment type
2. Alluring type
3. Warning type
4. Both (1) and (2).

Answer: 4. Both (1) and (2).

Question 104. The first scientific account of mimicry was given by:

1. Bates
2. Darwin
3. Raunkier
4. Haeckel.

Answer: 1. Bates

Question 105. Which one is not an example of concealing protective mimicry?

1. Sea Dragons (Phyllopteryx) resemble seaweeds
2. The Geometrid moth’s caterpillar resembles small branches.
3. The praying mantis looks like branches
4. Leaf insect (Phyllium) looks like a green leaf.

Answer: 3. Praying mantis looks like branches

Question 106. The palatable viceroy butterfly (Limenitis archippus) resembles a distasteful monarch butterfly (Doncisus plexippus) for its protection. This is called:

1. Aggressive Mimicry
2. Warning Mimicry
3. Concealing Mimicry
4. Alluring Mimicry.

Answer: 2. Warning Mimicry

Question 107. When a predator (mimic) remains hidden from prey to catch it suddenly as in praying mantis, it shows:

1. Concealing aggressive mimicry
2. Concealing protective mimicry
3. Warning mimicry
4. Alluring mimicry.

Answer: 1. Concealing aggressive mimicry

Organisms and Populations NEET Questions Question 108. When the mimic attracts its prey, it is called:

1. Warning mimicry
2. Alluring mimicry
3. Protective coloration
4. Camouflage.

Answer: 2. Alluring mimicry

Question 109. When a palatable female butterfly (for example, a Viceroy butterfly) copies an unpalatable species (Monarch butterfly) the type of adaptation is called:

1. Batesian mimicry
2. Mullerian mimicry
3. Cryptic adaptation
4. Warning coloration.

Answer: 1. Batesian mimicry

NEET Biology Animal Nutrition and Digestive System  Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Which of the following animal products can be used by an animal as a source of energy?

1. Carbohydrates only
2. Fats only
3. Carbohydrates, fats or proteins
4. Carbohydrates or fats.

Answer: 3. Carbohydrates, fats or proteins

Question 2. The inadequate amount of iodine in the diet would lead to an enlargement of:

1. stomach
2. thyroid gland
3. gonad
4. pancreas.

Answer: 2. thyroid gland

Question 3. The stomach of a ruminant is divided into:

1. oesophagus and duodenum
2. omasum, reticulum, abomasum and rumen
3. ileum and duodenum
4. omasum and abomasum chambers.

Answer: 2. omasum, reticulum, abomasum and rumen

Question 4. Glucose, galactose and fructose all have the same molecular size and composition and their absorption through the mucosal cells takes place :

1. at the same rate
2. glucose is absorbed most rapidly
3. fructose is absorbed most rapidly
4. galactose is absorbed most rapidly.

Answer: 4. galactose is absorbed most rapidly

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

MCQs on Human Digestive System for NEET Question 5. A high carbohydrate, low protein diet for prolonged periods in children may lead to a deficiency disease called :

1. marasmus
2. rickets
3. keratitis
4. kwashiorkor.

Answer: 4. kwashiorkor

Question 6. Which of the following hormones is not produced by the alimentary canal?

1. Insulin
2. Cholecystokinin
3. Gastrin
4. Secretin.

Answer: 1. Insulin

Question 7. The bile secreted by the liver cells passes into the gall bladder through :

1. hepatopancreatic duct
2. cystic duct
3. hepatic duct
4. hepato gall duct.

Answer: 2. cystic duct

Question 8. Removal of the stomach produces :

1. dumping syndrome
2. Turner’s syndrome
3. emphysema
4. midget.

Answer: 1. dumping syndrome

Question 9. Gastro-colic reflex is meant for :

1. the removal of bacteria from the body
2. the removal of faeces from the body
3. the synthesis of vitamins in the body
4. None of the above.

Answer: 4. None of the above

Question 10. The enzyme which is found from Protozoa to Mammalia is known as :

1. amylase
2. trypsin
3. pepsin
4. lipase.

Answer: 2. trypsin

Question 11. The molecule used by most animals for long-term energy storage is :

1. glycogen
2. starch
3. fats
4. cholesterol.

Answer: 3. fats

MCQs on Human Digestive System for NEET Question 12. A polypeptide secreted into the blood by the cells in the stomach wall stimulates the production of HCI by parietal cells of the stomach:

1. gastrin
2. secretin
3. pancreozymin
4. rennin.

Answer: 1. gastrin

Question 13. Which one of the following will not take place when glucose is taken as food?

1. Ingestion
2. Digestion
3. Absorption
4. Assimilation.

Answer: 2. Digestion

Question 14. The greenish faecal matter excreted by the newborn child is :

1. meconium
2. macrophages
3. jaundice
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. meconium

Question 15. Energy is stored in muscles and the liver as :

1. glycogen
2. starch
3. fats
4. cholesterol.

Answer: 1. glycogen

Question 16. Vermiform appendix in man is seen attached to :

1. colon
2. caecum
3. rectum
4. ileum.

Answer: 2. caecum

Question 17. Bile augments the digestion of:

1. glycogen
2. fat
3. starch
4. protein.

Answer: 2. fat

MCQs on Human Digestive System for NEET Question 18. Which of the following is not a human salivary gland?

1. Parotid glands
2. Submaxillary
3. Sublingual
4. Infraorbital.

Answer: 4. Infraorbital

Question 19. The chemical name of vitamin K is :

1. plastoquinone
2. plastocyanin
3. phycocyanin
4. phylloquinone.

Answer: 4. phylloquinone

Question 20. Which one of the following disaccharides gives rise to two molecules of glucose on hydrolysis?

1. Lactose
2. Sucrose
3. Maltose
4. Galactose.

Answer: 3. Maltose

Question 21. An animal with a diet deficient in at least one essential nutrient is said to be :

1. starving
2. undernourished
3. malnourished
4. suffering from Kwashiorkor disease.

Answer: 3. malnourished

Question 22. The liver is called the reticular gland because :

1. it contains reticular tissue
2. its shape is reticular
3. lobules branches and anastomoses with one other to form a network
4. hepatic duct and cystic ducts unite to form bile ducts.

Answer: 3. lobules branches and anastomoses with one other to form a network

Question 23. Brunner’s glands secrete :

1. mucus
2. secretin and cholecystokinin
3. enterokinase
4. hydrochloric acid.

Answer: 1. mucus

Question 24. Which of the following vitamins serves as a coenzyme?

1. Vit. B,
2. Vit. B2
3. Niacin
4. All the above.

Answer: 1. Vit. B

Digestion and Absorption NEET MCQ  Question 25. Choose the wrong statement.

1. Lipases and nucleases are not present in pancreatic juice.
2. Goblet cells secrete mucus.
3. Brunner’s glands are sub-mucosal glands.
4. Carboxypeptidase catalyses the conversion of proteins.
5. Bile contains no enzymes.

Answer: 2. Goblet cells secrete mucus

Question 26. The alimentary canal of prawn is:

1. incomplete
2. complete
3. long
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. complete

Question 27. How many of the 20 amino acids are essential amino acids for an adult human?

1. Eight
2. Six
3. Thirteen
4. Fourteen.

Answer: 1. Eight

Question 28. The gastric juice secreted by gastric glands is :

1. alkaline
2. neutral
3. acidic
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. acidic

Question 29. Most vitamins function as :

1. lubricant for active transport
2. a foundation for building bones
3. transport molecules within the plasma membrane
4. coenzymes.

Answer: 4. coenzymes

Question 30. The three secretions that mix with food in the small intestine are :

1. saliva, gastric juice and bile
2. gastric juice, bile and pancreatic juice
3. bile, pancreatic juice and intestinal juice
4. pancreatic juice, intestinal juice and gastric juice.

Answer: 3. bile, pancreatic juice and intestinal juice

Digestion and Absorption NEET MCQ  Question 31. Enzymes are organic(proteinaceous) chemicals which accelerate biochemical reactions in cells by :

1. increasing the temperature of cells
2. increasing the energy of activation of the reacting molecules
3. lowering the pH of the cells
4. decreasing the energy of activation of reacting molecules.

Answer: 4. decreasing the energy of activation of reacting molecules

Question 32. The cells that produce dilute hydrochloric acid in the stomach are:

1. parietal cells
2. goblet cells
3. digestive cells
4. paneth cells.

Answer: 1. parietal cells

Question 33. The isolated patches of lymphoid tissue of the intestine are known as :

1. hepatic cells
2. Islets of Langerhans
3. Peyer’s patches
4. Kupffer cells.

Answer: 3. Peyer’s patches

Question 34. Gastric juice contains :

1. ptyalin
2. pepsin
3. erepsin
4. lipase.

Answer: 2. pepsin

Question 35. Bile is:

1. acidic
2. alkaline
3. neutral
4. None of these.

Answer: 2. alkaline

Digestion and Absorption NEET MCQ  Question 36. Salts and digestive enzymes present in pancreatic juice amount to :

1. 5%
2. 3%
3. 2%
4. 8%.

Answer: 3. 2%

Question 37. Which one is a nitrogenous polysaccharide?

1. Chitin
2. Cellulose
3. Glycogen
4. Starch.

Answer: 1. Chitin

Question 38. A mineral is an atom that can be used by an animal in a form that is:

1. an organic molecule
2. an inorganic molecule or ion
3. bonded 6 vitamins.
4. bonded to several water molecules.

Answer: 2. an inorganic molecule or ion

Question 39. How many teeth in a man are grown twice in life?

1. 32
2. 28
3. 20
4. 12.

Answer: 3. 20

Question 40. The swallowing of bolus food in rabbits is called :

1. defaecation
2. deglutition
3. regurgitation
4. digestion.

Answer: 2. deglutition

Question 41. The pancreatic juice does not contain :

1. trypsin
2. amylopsin
3. pepsin
4. lipase.

Answer: 3. pepsin

Digestion and Absorption NEET MCQ  Question 42. The blood capillaries of intestinal villi absorb all but:

1. amino acids
2. glucose
3. salts
4. fatty acids and glycerol.

Answer: 4. fatty acids and glycerol

Question 43. The factor which governs the absorption of digested food by intestinal villi is:

1. peristalsis
2. osmosis
3. emulsification
4. selective absorption.

Answer: 4. selective absorption

Question 44. Caecum in rabbits is concerned with :

1. digestion of starch
2. digestion of cellulose
3. digestion
4. digestion of lipids.

Answer: 3. digestion

Question 45. In the pancreas, pancreatic juice and hormones are secreted by:

1. same cells
2. different cells
3. same cells at different times
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. different cells

Question 46. The dental formula of man is:

Answer: 3.

Question 47. Teeth are derivatives of:

1. epidermis of skin
2. dermis of skin
3. The bone of the skeleton of the jaw
4. Both and (B).

Answer: 2. dermis of skin

Question 48. Teeth are :

1. living structure
2. dead structure
3. partly dead and partly living
4. exact nature is not known.

Answer: 3. partly dead and partly living

Digestive System MCQ Question 49. Another term for digestion is:

1. dehydration synthesis
2. absorption
3. hydrolysis
4. monomer interchange.

Answer: 3. hydrolysis

Question 50. Diastema is the toothless gap in ambit

1. between right ami left incisor
2. between incisors ami premolars
3. between premolars and molars
4. behind the molars.

Answer: 2. between incisors ami premolars

Question 51. Teeth of frog are :

1. diphyodont
2. pleurodont
3. acrodont
4. thecodont.

Answer: 3. acrodont

Question 52. The tube that connects the pharynx to the middle ear is called:

1. Eustachian tube
2. omentum tube
3. pharyngcoacoustic tube
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. eustachian tube

Digestive System MCQ Question 53. The Alimentary canal runs in between :

1. oesophagus to stomach
2. oral aperture to the anus
3. stomach to anus
4. mouth to cloaca.

Answer: 4. mouth to cloaca

Question 54. The pan of intestine that is ‘U’ shaped is called :

1. pyloric intestine
2. duodenum
3. ileum
4. colon.

Answer: 2. duodenum

Question 55. The pans of the small intestine are :

1. duodenum and colon
2. colon and rectum
3. jejunum, duodenum and ileum
4. ileum and colon.

Answer: 3. jejunum, duodenum and ileum

Question 56. The large intestine of man is composed of :

1. rectum and colon
2. ileum and colon
3. rectum and ileum
4. caecum, colon and rectum.

Answer: 4. caecum, colon and rectum

Question 57. Opening of the stomach into the duodenum is guarded by :

1. pyloric valve
2. ileocecal valve
3. stomach valve
4. cardiac valve.

Answer: 1. pyloric valve

Question 58. Digestion is brought about by :

1. enzymes
2. acids
3. vitamins and minerals
4. alkaline solution.

Answer: 1. enzymes

Question 59. Which of the following characters is shared by the liver of the frog and man?

1. Glisson’s capsule
2. Presence of hepatic cord cells
3. Secretion of bile
4. Five lobes.

Answer: 2. Presence of hepatic cord cells

Digestive System MCQ Question 60. Pancreatic juice contains :

1. Trypsin, Lipase and Maltase
2. Pepsin, Trypsin and Maltase
3. Trypsin, Chymotrypsin, Amylase and Lipase.
4. Trypsin, Pepsin and Amylase.

Answer: 3. Trypsin, Chymotrypsin, Amylase and Lipase

Question 61. Which of the following is not a protein-digesting enzyme?

1. Trypsin
2. Rennin
3. Pepsin
4. Ptyalin.

Answer: 4. Ptyalin

Question 62. The final product of protein digestion is :

1. amino acids
2. glucose
3. peptones and proteoses
4. peptide.

Answer: 1. amino acids

Question 63. The exact sequence of events during the digestion of proteins is :

1. proteins → peptones → amino acid → metaproteins and peptides
2. proteins → proteases and peptones → peptides → amino acids
3. proteins → acid metaprotcins → proteo¬ses → amino acids → peptides
4. proteins -A primary proteins → peptides → amino acids.

Answer: 2. proteins → proteases and peptones → peptides → amino acids

Question 64. Enterogasterone stops the secretion of :

1. trypsin
2. gastric juice
3. bile
4. pancreatic juice.

Answer: 2. gastric juice

Question 65.  Cholecystokinin brings the release of :

1. pancreatic juice
2. gastric juice
3. intestinal juice
4. bile.

Answer: 4. bile.

Question 66. Proenzyme pepsinogen is activated by :

1. Enterokinase
2. Enterocrinin
3. HCL
4. Gastrin.

Answer: 3. HCL

Digestive System MCQ Question 67. Secretin and pancreozymin bring the release of :

1. pancreatic juice
2. gastric juice
3. bile
4. intestinal juice.

Answer: 1. pancreatic juice

Question 68. Digestion within a digestive tract is :

1. incomplete
2. same as absorption
3. extracellular
4. an irreversible process.

Answer: 3. extracellular

Question 69. The liver can synthesize :

1. Vitamin E
2. Vitamin D
3. Vitamin A
4. Vitamin K.

Answer: 3. Vitamin A

Question 70. Absorption of glucose involves :

1. hydration
2. dehydration
3. phosphorylation
4. sulphonation.

Answer: 3. phosphorylation

Question 71. Vitamin B is :

1. fat-soluble
2. water-soluble
3. insoluble
4. no change.

Answer: 2. water-soluble

Question 72. The one difference between a frog and a man is that the frog has no :

1. pancreas
2. thyroid
3. salivary gland
4. adrenal gland.

Answer: 3. salivary gland

Digestive System MCQ Question 73. Rickets, scurvy and poor vision are caused by to deficiency of:’ ‘

1. vitamins D, C and A
2. vitamins BJ2 B6andC
3. vitamins B6, B12 and A
4. vitamins B, D and A.

Answer: 1. vitamins D, C and A

Question 74. Gastric secretion is regulated by :

1. neural mechanism
2. hormonal mechanism
3. neural and hormonal control
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. neural and hormonal control

Question 75. Iron is needed in the diet mainly to :

1. synthesize haemoglobin
2. aid the healing of wounds
3. clean the blood
4. strengthen the bones.

Answer: 1. synthesize haemoglobin

Question 76. With regard to nutrient-eating habits a human is.

1. a herbivore
2. an omnivore
3. a carnivore
4. a granivore

Answer: 2. an omnivore

Question 77. The abnormal metabolism of one of the following causes Gaucher’s iliscave :

1. fats
2. proteins
3. carbohydrates
4. All the above

Answer: 1. fats

NEET Digestive System Question 78. The main motion of lacteal is to both

1. lipids
2. glycogen
3. milK
4. proteins.

Answer: 1. lipids

Question 79. The main function of prolonged chewing is to rupture :

1. membrane
2. muscle bundles
3. connective tissue
4. cell walls.

Answer: 4. cell walls

Question 80. Which one of the following arcs is reabsorbed in the alimentary canal as such?

1. Albumen of egg
2. Polysaccharide
3. Fat-soluble vitamin
4. Protein.

Answer: 3. Fat-soluble vitamin

Question 81. Islets of Langerhans are :

1. exocrine
2. excretory
3. endocrine
4. digestive.

Answer: 3. Endocrine

Question 82. What makes the chyme in human digestion move to the duodenum from the stomach?

1. Peristaltic movement
2. Gravitational pull
3. Circulation of blood
4. Gravitational push.

Answer: 1. Gravitational pull

Question 83. The activator of intestinal juice is :

1. succus entericus
2. secretin
3. enterozymase
4. enterocrinin.

Answer: 4. enterocrinin

Question 84. Which of the following is related to the digestive system in molluscs?

1. Byssus Thread
2. Osphradium
3. Statocyst
4. Radula.

Answer: 4. Radula.

Question 85. The nutrition in Hydra is holozoic. The entire process may be divided into four parts :

A. ingestion

B. digestion

C. excretion

D. egestion

1. A, C, and D are correct
2. A, B, and D are correct
3. A, B, and C are correct
4. A, C, and D are correct.

Answer: 2. A, B, and D are correct

Question 86. In man, the bile juice secreted by the liver per day is :

1. 250 ml
2. 600 ml
3. 1000 ml
4. 1,500 ml.

Answer: 2. 600 ml

NEET Digestive System Question 87. The method of intake of food in the case of ciliate paramecium is :

1. holozoic
2. saprozoic
3. saprophytic
4. holophytic.

Answer: 1. holozoic

Question 88. The dental formula indicates the type of teeth and their number in sequence. Which sequence below is correct?

1. Incisors, premolars, canines and molars
2. Incisors, canines, premolars and molars
3. Incisors, premolars, molars and canines ,
4. Canines, incisors, prcmolars and molars..

Answer: 2. Incisors, canines, premolars and molars

Question 89. Carbohydrate splitting enzyme is secreted by :

1. liver
2. zymogen veils of gastric glands
3. salivary glands
4. crypts of lieberkuhn

Answer: 3. salivary glands

Question 90. The major utility of breaking lift of fond into small bits during chewing is :

1. to reduce the area of food eaten up l
2. to increase the surface area of food eaten up
3. to enjoy the taste of food
4. to make flic food soluble.

Answer: 2. to increase the surface area of food eaten up

Question 91. Peyer’s patches produce :

1. enterokinase
2. lymphocytes
3. mucus
4. trypsin.

Answer: 2. lymphocytes

Question 92. In the colon constriction of its surface forms a series of small pockets called :

1. taeniae
2. crypts of Lciberkuhn
3. sacculus rotundas
4. haustra.

Answer: 4. haustra

Question 93. The dietary component which is assimilated without any change is :

1. cane sugar
2. milk
3. vitamins
4. maltose.

Answer: 3. vitamins

NEET Digestive System Question 94. Gastric juice has a pH of about:

1. 10
2. 8.8
3. 6
4. 2.

Answer: 4. 2

Question 95. The glucagon is produced by :

1. P-cells of the endocrine pancreas
2. exocrine pancreas
3. a-cells endocrine pancreas
4. pancreatic duct.

Answer: 3. a-cells endocrine pancreas

Question 96. Pepsin changes :

1. proteins into peptones
2. fats into fatty acids
3. milk into curd
4. starch into sugar.

Answer: 1. proteins into peptones

Question 97. Lipase changes :

1. proteins into peptones
2. starch into sugar
3. fats into fatty acids
4. None of these.

Answer: 3. fats into fatty acids

Digestion and Absorption NEET MCQ  Question 98. Trypsin reduces proteins and peptones to :

1. amino acids
2. nucleic acids
3. glycogen
4. None of these.

Answer: 1. amino acids

Question 99. Succus entericus acts in :

1. alkaline medium
2. strongly acidic medium
3. neutral medium
4. weakly acidic medium.

Answer: 1. alkaline medium

Question 100. The function of the bile salts is:

1. to catalyse chemical reactions
2. to emulsify the fats
3. absorption of fat-soluble nutrients
4. Both (2) and (3).