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NEET Biology Multiple Choice Questions

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NEET Biology Multiple Choice Questions

NEET Biology Notes

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NEET Biology Notes

NEET Biology Multiple Choice Questions – Gymnosperms 

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NEET Biology Gymnosperms Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Which one of the features is true for Pinus

  1. Pivsenee of antheridia
  2. Double fertilization
  3. Biciliated sperms
  4. Haploid endosperm.

Answer: 4. Haploid endosperm.

Question 2. Needles of finns possess meristem at:

  1. Apical portion
  2. Intercalary portion
  3. Basal portion
  4. Lateral portion.

Answer: 3. Basal portion

Question 3. Pinewood consists almost entirely of:

  1. Tracheids with bordered pits
  2. Vessels
  3. Tracheids and vessels both in equal amount
  4. More vessels than tracheids.

Answer: 1. Tracheids with bordered pits

Question 4. In the embryo of pinus, rosette cells lie :

  1. Above suspensor cells
  2. Between suspensor and embryonal cells
  3. Between primary and secondary suspensor cells
  4. Between embryonal cells and apical cells.

Answer: 1. Above suspensor cells

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 5. The resin duct of a gymnospermous stem is an example of:

  1. Intercellular space
  2. Schizogenous cavity
  3. Lysigenous cavity
  4. Big vacuole.

Answer: 2. Schizogenous cavity

Question 6. The time required between formation in pinus is :

  1. Three months
  2. Six months
  3. nine months
  4. Twelve months.

Answer: 4. Twelve months.

NEET Biology Gymnosperms Questions

Question 7. The gametophytes of pinus are protected from desiccation by living in

  1. Moist soil
  2. Moist tissue of sporophyte in the cone
  3. Bogs and marshes
  4. The rainy season only.

Answer: 2. Moist tissue of sporophyte in the cone

Question 8. Which statement out of the following is correct regarding pinus?

  1. Pinus forms deciduous trees in temperate regions
  2. Pinus grows in deserts and exhibits xerophytic characters
  3. Pinus is cosmopolitan in distribution
  4. Pinus is of great economic value.

Answer: 4. Pinus is of great economic value.

Question 9. Which is the smallest gymnosperm among the following?

  1. Cerberus
  2. Dalbergia
  3. Pinus
  4. Guest

Answer: 3. Pinus

Question 10. In gymnosperms, archegonia lack :

  1. Neck canal cells
  2. Venter cells
  3. Both
  4. None of these.

Answer: 4. None of these.

Question 11. The megasporangium is also known as:

  1. Fruit
  2. Endosperm
  3. Micropyle
  4. Ovule.

Answer: 3. Micropyle

Question 12. Which one is common between funaria and pinus?

  1. No fruits are produced
  2. No seeds are produced
  3. Anthcridia and archegonia are present
  4. A pollen tube is formed.

Answer: 1. No fruits are produced

NEET Biology Gymnosperms Questions

Question 13. In pinus, the terminal portion of the ovuliferous scale is called :

  1. Embryo sac
  2. Bract scale
  3. Ovule
  4. Apophysis.

Answer: 4. Apophysis.

Question 14. Which of the following sets of structures in pinus belong entirely to the gametophytic generation?

  1. Ovuliferous scale, embryo, bract scale
  2. Bract scale, urothelial cells in pollen, integument
  3. Embryo, endosperm, pollen
  4. Endosperm, sperm, megaspore.

Answer: 4. Endosperm, sperm, megaspore.

Question 15. The edible part of the seed of the pinus :

  1. Epispore
  2. Endosperm
  3. Perisperm
  4. Pericarp.

Answer: 4. Pericarp.

Question 16. The group of phanerogams which have naked seeds or which produce ovules and seeds exposed on open sporophytes are called:

  1. Phanerogams
  2. Angiosperms
  3. Gymnosperms
  4. Spermatophyta.

Answer: 2. Angiosperms

Question 17. The roots of gymnosperm are:

  1. Taproot
  2. Adventitious roots
  3. Rhizoid
  4. Rhizophores.

Answer: 3. Rhizoid

NEET Biology Gymnosperms Questions

Question 18. In which of the following manners do gymnosperms differ from angiosperms?

  1. Formation of endosperm before fertilization
  2. Formation of pollen tube
  3. Production of ovules
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Formation of endosperm before fertilization

Question 19. Angiosperms and gymnosperms resemble in having:

  1. Vessels in wood
  2. Mode of fertilization
  3. Siphonogamy
  4. Nature of endosperm.

Answer: 1. Vessels in wood

Question 20. The nucellus in a gymnosperm has 24 chromosomes, the number of chromosomes in its endosperm cells will be:

  1. 48
  2. 36
  3. 24
  4. 12.

Answer: 3. 24

Question 21. Microsporophyll of pinus is equivalent to :

  1. Pollen grain of angiosperms
  2. Stamen
  3. Male gamelophyte
  4. Inflorescence.

Answer: 4. Inflorescence.

Question 22. Transfusion tissue replaces the veins in:

  1. Cycas
  2. Ferns
  3. Pinus and years
  4. Selaginella.

Answer: 2. Ferns

Question 24. The giant tree among the pines belongs to the genus:

  1. Cedrus
  2. Pinus
  3. Calbcrgia
  4. Sequoia.

Answer: 4. Sequoia.

Gymnosperms and Angiosperms MCQs NEET

Question 25. Canada balsam is an oleoresin obtained from:

  1. Abies balsamea
  2. Impatiens balsamic
  3. Finns
  4. Helianthus

Answer: 1. Abies balsamea

Question 26. Plant of pine is:

  1. Annual herb
  2. Biennial herb
  3. Evergreen tree
  4. Deciduous tree.

Answer: 3. Evergreen tree

Question 27. The megasporophyll of pinus consists of :

  1. Both bract and ovuliferous scales
  2. Only bract scales
  3. Only ovuliferous scales
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Both bract and ovuliferous scales

Question 28. The neck of the archegonium in pinus:

  1. Five tiers of cells
  2. Six to eight tiers of 4 cells
  3. Two tiers of 4 cells
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Two tiers of 4 cells

Question 29. The seed of pinus is:

  1. A monocotyledonous
  2. Dicotyledonous
  3. Polycotyledonous
  4. Tetracotyledonous.

Answer: 3. Polycotyledonous

Question 30. The wing of the seed of pinus develops from ;

  1. The outer layer of the integument and basal part of the ovuliferous scale
  2. The inner layer of the integument and basal part of the ovuliferous scale
  3. Only from the outer layer of the integument
  4. From ovuliferous scale.

Answer: 4. Frorn ovuliferous scale.

Question 31. In pinus, female gametophyte develops only from :

  1. Uppermost haploid megaspore
  2. The lowermost haploid megaspore
  3. Penultimate megaspore
  4. The megaspore.

Answer: 2. The lowermost haploid megaspore

Gymnosperms and Angiosperms MCQs NEET

Question 32. The foliage leaves or needles irc pinus are borne by:

  1. Branches of unlimited growth
  2. Branches of limited growth
  3. Branches of limited and unlimited growth
  4. Female cones.

Answer: 2. Branches of limited growth

Question 33. What nature does, the acicular nature of the pinus needle depict?

  1. Mesophytic
  2. Xerophytic
  3. Xerophytic
  4. Sporophytic.

Answer: 2. Xerophytic

Question 34. Female gametophyte (endosperm) in pinus is formed :

  1. Before fertilization
  2. After pollination
  3. After fertilization
  4. None of the above,

Answer: 1. Before fertilization

Question 36. Gymnosperms originated in:

  1. Cenozoic
  2. Palaeozoic
  3. Precambrian
  4. Mesozoic.

Answer: 2. Palaeozoic

Question 37. Gymnosperms differ from angiosperms in :

  1. Having seeds
  2. Having naked ovules
  3. Showing heterospory
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Having naked ovules

Gymnosperms and Angiosperms MCQs NEET

Question 38. Turpentine is obtained from:

  1. Curcuma longa
  2. Bryophyte
  3. Pinus australis
  4. Ophioglossum.

Answer: 3. Pinus australis

Question 39. In pinus only the lower part of the oospore is concerned with the development of the embryo, such development is :

  1. Periblastic
  2. Holoblastic
  3. Meroblastic
  4. None of these.

Answer: 3. Meroblastic

Question 40. The mature embryo of the pinus consists of :

  1. Radicle and plumule
  2. 1 + 10 Cotyledons
  3. Radicle, plumule and many cotyledons
  4. 3 + Endosperm.

Answer: 3. Radicle, plumule and many cotyledons

Question 41. The wood obtained from the pinus plant is used for:

  1. Furniture
  2. Building purposes
  3. Matchboxes
  4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 42. Winged seeds are found in :

  1. Cycas
  2. Pinus
  3. Papaver species
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Pinus

Gymnosperms and Angiosperms MCQs NEET

Question 43. Integument in pinus ovule is :

  1. Haploid
  2. Diploid
  3. Triploid
  4. Tetraploid.

Answer: 2. Diploid

Question 44. Sclerenchyma of the hypodermis of the pinus needle helps in:

  1. Photosynthesis
  2. Increasing absorption
  3. Providing support
  4. Checking transpiration,

Answer: 3. Providing support

Question 45. Perisperm is :

  1. Haploid
  2. Diploid
  3. Polyploid
  4. Triploid.

Answer: 2. Diploid

Question 46. The number of archegonia in the pinus ovule is generally

  1. 1 To 4
  2. 2 To 5
  3. 2 To 6
  4. 1 To 8.

Answer: 2. 2 To 5

NEET Previous Year Questions on Gymnosperms

Question 47. Ovules in the pinus are generally:

  1. Anatropous with three integuments
  2. Anatropous with one integument
  3. Amphitropous with three integuments
  4. Orthotropous with one integument.

Answer: 2. Anatropous with one integument

NEET Biology Plant Kingdom Questions Question 48. In pinus, megaspores on germination forms :

  1. Pollen tube with two motile sperms
  2. Endosperm with archegonia
  3. Endosperm with sperms
  4. Endosperm with embryo core.

Answer: 2. Endosperm with archegonia

Question 49. Among the following which docs do not belong to sporophyte generation in pinus?

  1. Roots
  2. Endosperm
  3. Dwarf shoot
  4. Long shoot.

Answer: 2. Endosperm

Question 50. In pinus sylvestris spur is:

  1. Trifoliar
  2. Bifoliar
  3. Multifoliar
  4. Tetrafoliar.

Answer: 2. Bifoliar

Question 51. Chailgoza is obtained from:

  1. Pinus roxburghii
  2. Pinus gerardiana
  3. Pinus wallichiana
  4. Pinus longifolia

Answer: 2. Pinus gerardiana

NEET Previous Year Questions on Gymnosperms

Question 52. The girdle loaf traces in Cyrus go to leaves :

  1. After making a semi-circle
  2. After making a complete circle
  3. After making two concentric circles
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. After making a semi-circle

Question 53. The male cone of the pinus is a modification of

  1. Simple polyembryony
  2. Cleavage polyembryony
  3. Both simple and cleavage polyembryony
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Cleavage polyembryony

NEET Biology Plant Kingdom Questions Question 54. The female cone of the pinus is a modification of

  1. Branches
  2. Dwarf shoot
  3. Long shoot
  4. Leaf

Answer: 3. Long shoot

Conifers And Cycads MCQs For NEET

Question 55. In cycas, megasporangia are located on its megasporophyll

  1. Dorsally
  2. Ventrally
  3. Laterally
  4. Apically

Answer: 3. Laterally

Question 57. Seed of finns shows three generations as :

  1. Parent sporophyte, gametophyte and future sporophyte
  2. Parent gametophyte, sporophyte and future gametophyte
  3. Parent sporophyte, sporophyte, future gametophyte
  4. All three sporophytes.

Answer: 1. Parent sporophyte, gametophyte, and future sporophyte

Question 58. Finns seed shows:

  1. Hypogeal germination
  2. Epigeal germination
  3. Dormancy
  4. None of the above

Answer: 2. Epigeal germination

Question 59. Monkey puzzle is common name of:

  1. Araucaria auracana
  2. Finns raxburghii
  3. Taxodium
  4. Cedrus deodora.

Answer: 1. Araucaria auracana

Question 60. The female cone of the pinus can be compared to which part of the plant:

  1. Flower
  2. Mcgasporophyll
  3. Inflorescence
  4. Microsporophyll.

Answer: 3. Inflorescence

Question 61. Female cone of finns forms seed in:

  1. One year
  2. Two years
  3. Three years
  4. Four years.

Answer: 3. Three years

Question 62. The male gametophyte of cycas differs from that of an angiosperm in:

  1. Producing two male gametes
  2. Producing a pollen tube with a tube nucleus and two ciliated motile male gametes
  3. Producing a pollen tube and a nucleus
  4. Starting its formation in situ.
  5. Answer: 2. Producing a pollen tube with a tube nucleus and two ciliated motile male gametes

Question 63. In which portion of Cyrus are found diplomatic vascular bundles?

  1. Root
  2. Stem
  3. Leaflet
  4. Racltis and leaflet.

Answer: 4. Racltis and leaflet.

NEET Botany Important Questions On Gymnosperms

Question 64. In which of the following regions of cyras the algal zone is found?

  1. Stem
  2. Normal roots
  3. Coralloid roots
  4. Leaflet.

Answer: 3. Coralloid roots

Question 65. Male cone of pinus replaces:

  1. Ncedlcs
  2. Scales
  3. Dwarf shoots
  4. Long shoots.

Answer: 3. Dwarf shoots

Question 66. Pollen grains in cycas arc shed at:

  1. 1-Celled stage
  2. 2-Celled stage
  3. 3-Celled stage
  4. 4-Cellcd stage.

Answer: 3. 3-Cellcd stage

Question 67. In cycas, the pollen lube is:

  1. Haustorial in nature
  2. Sperm carrier
  3. Carrier of ovule
  4. Carrier of archegonia.

Answer: 2. Sperm carrier

Question 68. Pinus is:

  1. Deciduous
  2. Dioecious
  3. Monoecious
  4. None of these.

Answer: 3. Monoecious

Question 69. Antherozoids of cycas are :

  1. Aflagellate
  2. Dinoflagellate
  3. Triflagellale
  4. Multiflagellate.

Answer: 4. Multiflagellate.

NEET Botany Important Questions On Gymnosperms

Question 70. In cycas ovules are :

  1. Orthotropous and unitegmic
  2. Anatropous and unitegmic
  3. Orthotropus and tritegniic
  4. Anatropous and tritegmic.

Answer: 1. Orthotropous and unitegmic

Question 71. The largest sperms are found in:

  1. Cycas
  2. Gnetum
  3. Pinus
  4. Welwitschia.

Answer: 1. Cycas

Question 72. Which of the following is a living fossil?

  1. Ginkgo
  2. Abies
  3. Pinus
  4. Cedrus.

Answer: 1. Ginkgo

Question 73. Gymnosperms do not form fruits because they lack:

  1. Pollination
  2. Fertilization
  3. Seeds
  4. Ovary.

Answer: 4. Ovary.

NEET Botany Important Questions On Gymnosperms

Question 74. In gymnosperms, pollination is carried through:

  1. Insects
  2. Birds
  3. Wind
  4. Bats.

Answer: 3. Wind

Question 75. Which of the following is the best explanation for excurrent (pyramidal shape of pinus tree.)?

  1. Effect of auxins on the growth of stem tip
  2. Competition between adjacent trees for sunlight
  3. Efficiency for water transport
  4. Adaptation for wind pollination.

Answer: 4. Adaptation for wind pollination.

Question 76. Turpentine is obtained from:

  1. Ferns
  2. Gymnospemious wood
  3. Angiospermous flowers
  4. Angiospermous wood.

Answer: 2. Gymnospemious wood

Question 77. The seeds of cycas are :

  1. Enclosed by fruit wall
  2. Enclosed within flower
  3. Naked and no fruit wall
  4. Absent.

Answer: 3. Naked and no fruit wall

Question 78. Dwarf shoot of pinus is :

  1. Shed every year
  2. Shed after 2—3 years
  3. Shed after five years
  4. Never shed.

Answer: 2. Shed after 2—3 years

Question 79. Cycas occurs commonly in :

  1. South america
  2. North america
  3. Southeast Asia
  4. Europe.

Answer: 3. Southeast Asia

NEET Botany Important Questions On Gymnosperms

Question 80. Secondary wood in cycas is devoid of or (wood in cycas does not have the following):

  1. Protoxylem
  2. Vessels
  3. Metaxylem
  4. Tracheids.

Answer: 2. Vessels

Question 81. In pinus, the male gametes are :

  1. Non-ciliate
  2. Multiciliate
  3. Biciliate
  4. Uniciliate.

Answer: 1. Non-ciliate

Question 82. Multiciliated antherozoids occur in:

  1. Riccia and funeral
  2. Pteris and cycas
  3. Riccia and pteris
  4. Marchantia and riccia.

Answer: 2. Pteris and cycas

Question 83. Sulphur shower refers to :

  1. Sulphur springs
  2. The yellow colour of pollen grains
  3. Pollen dust of pinus
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Pollen dust of pinus

NEET Biology Gymnosperms Questions

Question 84. In cycas:

  1. Male strobilus (cone) and megasporophylls occur on separate individuals
  2. Male strobilus and megasporophylls occur on the same individual
  3. The same cone consists of both micro-and mega-sporophylls
  4. The same sporophyll bears micro-sporangia and ovules.

Answer: 1. Male strobilus (cone) and megasporophylls occur on separate individuals

Question 85. Tracheids of cycas are with :

  1. Uniseriate bordered pits
  2. Biseriate bordered pits
  3. Multiseriate bordered pits
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Multiseriate bordered pits

NEET Biology Multiple Choice Questions – Five Kingdoms Classification

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NEET Biology Five Kingdoms Of Life And Biological Classification Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Karvotaxonomy is based upon :

  1. The chemical nature of chromosome
  2. Arrangement of chromosome
  3. Architect of nucleus
  4. The pattern of bands on the chromosome.

Answer: 2. Arrangement of chromosome

Question 2. The term “new systematics” was introduced by :

  1. Charles Darwin
  2. George Bentham
  3. Julian Huxley
  4. A. B. Randal.

Answer: 3. George Bentham

Question 3. The approximate number of species known today is :

  1. 1.00.000
  2. 2,00,000 To 3,00,000
  3. 1.7 million
  4. 1.17 million.

Answer: 3. 1.7 million

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 4. Taxon refers to:

  1. Genus
  2. Family
  3. Order
  4. All these.

Answer: 4. All these.

Question 5. Which of the following has doubtful status?

  1. Bacteria
  2. Viruses
  3. Blue-green algae
  4. Polo.

Answer: 2. Viruses

Five Kingdom Classification MCQs For NEET

Question 6. The Latin binomial for a dog is properly written as :

  1. Canis familiaris
  2. Familiaris canis
  3. Kanis familiaris
  4. Canis familiaris.

Answer: 4. Canis familiaris.

Question 7. On examining a slide, you observe, there are numerous individual cells containing chloroplasts and swimming around rapidly. You conclude that this material belongs to the kingdom:

  1. Plantae
  2. Protista
  3. Fungi
  4. Monera

Answer: 2. Protista

Question 8. Major diversity of living organisms is found in :

  1. Temperate forests
  2. Taiga forests
  3. Grasslands
  4. Tropical rain forests.

Answer: 4. Tropical rainforests.

Question 9. Classification based on several characters is :

  1. Natural
  2. Artificial
  3. Hierarchy
  4. Phylogenetic.

Answer: 1. Natural

Question 10. In a taxonomic hierarchy, the various categories are arranged in :

  1. Descending series
  2. Horizontal series
  3. Ascending series
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Descending series

Question 11. The system of arrangement of organisms into groups showing relationships is :

  1. Identification
  2. Classification
  3. Nomenclature
  4. None of them.

Answer: 2. Classification

Question 12. The science that deals with the classification, identification, and nomenclature of organisms is called :

  1. Physiology
  2. Ecology
  3. Biology
  4. Systematics.

Answer: 4. Systematics.

Five Kingdom Classification MCQs For NEET

Question 13.1 Lie father of taxonomy is:

  1. Charles Darwin
  2. John ray
  3. Linnaeus
  4. Julian Huxley.

Answer: 3. Linnaeus

Question 14. Biochemical characters of organisms form the basis of classification, called :

  1. Systematics
  2. Ecology
  3. Numerical taxonomy
  4. Chemotaxonomy.

Answer: 4. Chemotaxonomy.

Question 15. Most primitive organisms are :

  1. Protists
  2. Bacteria
  3. Algae
  4. Fungi.

Answer: 2. Bacteria

Question 16. A virion is a :

  1. Viral ribosome
  2. Viral lysosome
  3. Viral gene
  4. Virus.

Answer: 3. Viral gene

Question 17. The suffix for the subdivision name is :

  1. Phylina
  2. Opsida
  3. Ideas
  4. Ales.

Answer: 1. Phylina

Five Kingdom Classification MCQs For NEET

Question 18. The natural system of classification was proposed by :

  1. Bentham and hooker
  2. Hooker and Linnaeus
  3. Bentham and Huxley
  4. Darwin and Lamarck.

Answer: 1. Bentham and hooker

Question 19. The classification of plants into herbs, shrubs, and trees is:

  1. Artificial
  2. Phylogenetic
  3. Natural
  4. None of these.

Answer: 1. Artificial

Question 20. Which one of the following taxonomic categories tops the hierarchy of categories?

  1. Genus
  2. Kingdom
  3. Class
  4. Phylum.

Answer: 2. Kingdom

Question 21. A phylogenetic classification is based on :

  1. External features alone
  2. Floral characters alone
  3. Origin and relationship of plant or animal groups
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Origin and relationship of plant or animal groups

Question 22. Taxon refers to :

  1. Genus
  2. Family
  3. Order
  4. Taxonomic group of any rank.

Answer: 4. Taxonomic group of any rank.

Question 23. The classification of plants and animals based on chromosome number is called :

  1. Cytotaxonomy
  2. Biochemical systematics
  3. Taxonomy
  4. Numerical taxonomy.

Answer: 4. Numerical taxonomy.

NEET Biology Five Kingdom System Questions

Question 24. Systematic aids in controlling epidemic diseases because:

  1. Identification of vectors
  2. Killing their causative agents
  3. Observing their way of life
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Identification of vectors

Question 25. Herbarium helps in the :

  1. Preserving the plants
  2. Keeping the plants
  3. Comparative study of plants in an area
  4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 26. Systematics is useful in agriculture because it aids in :

  1. Evolution of new plants
  2. Plant protection
  3. Identification of plant pathogens, parasites, or pests
  4. A complete study of plants.

Answer: 3. Identification of plant pathogens, parasites, or pests

Question 27. The Linnaeus system of classification contains:

  1. 4 Classes of plants
  2. 8 Classes of plants
  3. 16 Classes of plants
  4. 24 Classes of plants

Answer: 4. 24 Classes of plants

Question 28. An artificial system of classification was given by

  1. Linnaeus
  2. Darwin
  3. Amarok
  4. Wallace.

Answer: 1. Linnaeus

Question 29. Fuller Ami tippo’s system of classification is :

  1. An artificial system
  2. The phylogenetic system is natural
  3. Partly natural and partly phylogenetic.

Answer: 3. Partly natural and partly phylogenetic.

NEET Previous Year Questions On Five Kingdoms

Question 30. Liverworts and mosses are included under :

  1. Pteridophytes
  2. Bryophyta
  3. Angiosperms
  4. Gymnospemis.

Answer: 2. Bryophyta

Question 31. In which of the following groups would you place a plant that produces seeds but lacks flowers :

  1. Fungi
  2. Pteridophytes
  3. Gymnospemis
  4. Angiosperms.

Answer: 3. Gymnospemis

Question 32. “Species Plantarum” and “Systema Naturae” were written by :

  1. Engler and pram
  2. Bentham and hooker
  3. Carl. Linnaeus
  4. Wallace.

Answer: 3. Carl. Linnaeus

Question 33. The concept of genus was first proposed by :

  1. Linnaeus
  2. Braunfels
  3. Bentham
  4. Tournefort.

Answer: 2. Braunfels

Question 34. Central National Herbarium is situated at:

  1. Chennai
  2. Sibpur (Kolkata)
  3. Tarapur (Mumbai))
  4. Dehradun.

Answer: 2. Sibpur (Kolkata)

Question 35. The ending name of the class is :

  1. —Accac
  2. —Opsida
  3. — Ideas
  4. —Ales.

Answer: 2. —Opsida

Question 36. The taxonomic category, ‘division’ ends in :

  1. —Icae
  2. —Opsida
  3. —Phyla
  4. —Ineae.

Answer: 3. —Phyla

Question 37. Linnaeus is credited with introducing :

  1. The concept of inheritance of acquired characters
  2. The law of limiting factors.
  3. The binomial system of nomenclature
  4. Principle of independent assortment.

Answer: 3. Tltc binomial system of nomenclature

Question 38. The arrangement of taxa is called :

  1. Key
  2. Hierarchy
  3. Natural classification
  4. Taxonomy.

Answer: 2. Hierarchy

Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae, Animalia MCQs

Question 39. According to the law of priority, the valid name of an organism is:

  1. Oldest name applied
  2. Oldest name modified by new workers
  3. Most popular name
  4. The name is given in Latin.

Answer: 1. Oldest name applied

Important MCQs on Biological Classification Question 40. Binomial nomenclature means writing the name of an organism in two words which designate :

  1. Order and family
  2. Family and genus
  3. Species and family
  4. Genus and species.

Answer: 4. Genus and species.

Question 41. The biological species concept was given by :

  1. Aristotle
  2. Johnruy
  3. Ernst Meyer
  4. Buffon.

Answer: 3. Ernst Meyer

Question 42. What is the ending name for the order?

  1. 1-Aceae
  2. 2-Oideae
  3. 3-Ideas
  4. 4-Ales.

Answer: 4. 4-Ales.

Question 43. Which one of the following is the famous work of nature in which Linnaeus introduced “binomial nomenclature”?

  1. Sexuality of plants
  2. Systema Naturae
  3. Species Plantarum
  4. Genera plantarum.

Answer: 2. Systema Naturae

Question 44. Plants were given (their names in Latin because:

  1. Latin is a simple language
  2. Scientists wanted to impress people with Latin words.
  3. Latin was the common language
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 4. None of the above.

Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae, Animalia MCQs

Question 45. The suffix used for the tribe is :

  1. —Icae
  2. —Ineae
  3. —Inae
  4. —Ini

Answer: 4. —Ini

Question 46. Which explanation is correct for the name tamarindus indicus [L]?

  1. The letter [L] shows that the name is from the Latin language
  2. The letter [L] means that Linnaeus who gave this name to the plant
  3. The letter [L] has no connection with the name
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. The letter [L] means that Linnaeus who gave this name to the plant

Question 47. The botanical name of an edible banana is:

  1. Musa sapientum
  2. Musa erectus
  3. Mitsa textiles
  4. None of these.

Answer: 1. Musa sapientum

Important MCQs on Biological Classification Question 48. The highest unit of classification is :

  1. Kingdom
  2. Class
  3. Phylum
  4. Species.

Answer: 1. Kingdom

Question 49. Which of the following includes all of the others?

  1. Class
  2. Order
  3. Genus
  4. Species.

Answer: 1. Class

Question 50. The basic unit of classification of plants and animals is:

  1. Genus
  2. Species
  3. Variety
  4. Sub-species.

Answer: 2. Species

Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae, Animalia MCQs

Question 51. The common units of classification are :

  1. 1 Genus
  2. 2 Family
  3. 3 Species
  4. 4 Order
  5. 5 Variety

Their correct sequence starting from the smallest is:

  1. 3, 1, 2, 4, 5
  2. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
  3. 4, 2, 3, 1, 5
  4. 5, 3, 1, 2. 4.

Answer: 4. 5, 3, 1, 2. 4.

Question 52. Alpha taxonomy refers to:

  1. Classical taxonomy
  2. Natural classification
  3. Phylogenetic classification
  4. Phenetic system.

Answer: 1. Classical taxonomy

Question 53. The extremists among evolutionary taxonomists are popularly known as:

  1. Omega taxonomists
  2. Phenologists
  3. Cladists
  4. Evolutionists.

Answer: 3. Cladists

Question 54. A group of species which resemble each other both structurally and functionally is called:

  1. Genus
  2. Order
  3. Suborder
  4. Class.

Answer: 1. Genus

Question 55. Several genera having common characters are called:

  1. Family
  2. Order
  3. Phylum
  4. Class.

Answer: 1. Family

Question 56. Point out the correct sequence of taxa :

  1. 1-Amily. Order. Class, genus
  2. Lass. Easier. Family, genus
  3. Class, order. Genus, family
  4. Order. Class, family, genus.

Answer: 2. Lass. Easier. Family, genus

NEET Botany And Zoology Classification MCQs

Question 57. Several families having common character are called:

  1. Order
  2. Class
  3. Phylum
  4. Subclass.

Answer: 1. Order

Question 58. In the study of taxonomy, “descriptive taxonomy” refers to:

  1. Phonetic system
  2. Phylogenetic classification
  3. Classical taxonomy
  4. Natural classification.

Answer:  3. Classical taxonomy

Question 59. The material designated by the original author as the nomenclature type is a:

  1. Holotype
  2. Isotype
  3. Syntype
  4. Paratype.

Answer: 1. Holotype

Question 60. In which of the following taxonomies, is equal weightage given to each of thousands of characters that a taxon exhibits?

  1. Chemotaxonomy
  2. Alpha taxonomy
  3. Classical taxonomy
  4. Numerical taxonomy.

Answer: 4. Numerical taxonomy.

Question 61. Hutchinson’s primary contribution to the taxonomy is the phylogenetic studies of angiosperms. His classification of flowering plants is based on 22 principles which are comparative to Bessey’s dicta. According to him:

  1. Evolution does not necessarily involve all organs at the same time.
  2. Evolution always involves all the organs of a plant at the same time
  3. Monocotyledons are more primitive than dicotyledons
  4. Climbers are more primitive than trees.

Answer: 1. Evolution does not necessarily involve all organs at the same time.

Question 62. Which of the following taxonomic categories tops the hierarchy of categories?

  1. Genus
  2. Species
  3. Order
  4. Class.

Answer: 4. Class.

NEET Botany And Zoology Classification MCQs

Question 63. The taxonomic category ‘family’ is between

  1. Phylum and order
  2. Order and genus
  3. Kingdom and class
  4. Genus and species.

Answer: 2. Order and genus

Question 64. Of all the taxa that exist in nature as a biologically cohesive unit is the :

  1. Species
  2. Genus
  3. Phylum or division kingdom.

Answer: 1. Species

Question 65. Two or more species occupying the same or overlapping areas are :

  1. Sympatric
  2. Sibling
  3. Subspecies
  4. Allopatric.

Answer: 1. Sympatric

Question 66. New systematics based on the protein and serum analysis of organisms is called :

  1. Biochemical taxonomy
  2. Cytotaxonomy
  3. Experimental taxonomy
  4. Numerical taxonomy.

Answer: 1. Biochemical taxonomy

Question 67. The species inhabiting different geographical areas arc:

  1. Taxonomic species
  2. Sibling species
  3. Allopatric
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Allopatric

Question 68. The scientists who raised the group Protista to include both plant and animal-like unicellular organisms (protozoa and slime molds) :

  1. L. Pasteur
  2. E.f. Haeckel
  3. J. Lister
  4. E. Meyer.

Answer: 2. E.f. Haeckel

NEET Botany And Zoology Classification MCQs

Question 69. Which organisms contain usually non-vacuolated cells:

  1. Viruses
  2. Prokaryotes
  3. Algae
  4. Gymnosperms.

Answer: 2. Prokaryotes

Question 70. Bacteriophages are :

  1. Algae
  2. Fungi
  3. Viruses
  4. Lichens.

Answer: 3. Viruses

Question 71. Viruses are made up of:

  1. Proteins and DNA or RNA
  2. Proteins, DNA, and RNA
  3. Proteins, DNA, RNA, and lipids
  4. Carbohydrates, nucleic acids, and lipids.

Answer: 1. Proteins and DNA or RNA

Question 72. R.h. Whittaker proposed the :

  1. Two-kingdom system of classification
  2. Three-kingdom system of classification
  3. Four-kingdom system of classification
  4. Five-kingdom system of classification.

Answer: 4. Five-kingdom system of classification.

Question 73. The prokaryotes are included in the kingdom :

  1. Monera
  2. Product
  3. Plantae
  4. Fungi.

Answer: 1. Monera

Question 74. To determine the correct place of an organism in a previously established, plan of classification is called :

  1. Classification
  2. Taxonomy
  3. Identification
  4. Systematics.

Answer: 3. Identification

Question 75. Neotype is:

  1. Nomenclatural type when the original material is missing
  2. New species discovered by a scientist
  3. Nomenclatural type from original material
  4. One of two or more specimens cited by the author.

Answer: 1. Nomenclatural type when the original material is missing

NEET Botany And Zoology Classification MCQs

Question 76. The typological concept of species was given by :

  1. Aristotle and Plato.
  2. J.ray
  3. Hutchinson
  4. Mendel.

Answer: 1. Aristotle and Plato.

Question 77. A convenient way for easy identification of an organism of applying diagnostic characters is called :

  1. Systematics
  2. Classification
  3. Key
  4. None of these.

Answer: 3. Key

Question 78. Associate the terms in column 1 with those in column 2.

Diversity Of Life Five kingdoms Of Life And Biological Classification Question 78 Match The Coloumns

  1. 1-D,2-B,3-E,4-A
  2. 1-D,2-E,3-B,4-C
  3. 1-D,2-B,3-A,4-C
  4. 1-D,2-A,3-E,4-B

Answer: 1. 1-D,2-B,3-E,4-A

Question 79. Lectotypc is :

  1. Specimen selected from original material for nomenclature. il type when there is no holotype
  2. Duplicate of holotype
  3. Specimen cited by the author without making one holotype
  4. Specimen described along with holotype.

Answer: 2. Duplicate of holotype

Question 80. A species characterized by only morphological traits is :

  1. Sibling species
  2. Morphospecies
  3. Biospecies.
  4. Taxonomic species.

Answer: 4. Taxonomic species.

Question 81. Which organisms are generally classified as protists :

  1. Algae, fungi, bacteria, and bryophytes
  2. Protozoa, bacteria, algae and bryophytes
  3. Protozoa, some algae and fungi
  4. Fungi, slime molds, and tracheophytes.

Answer: 1. Protozoa, bacteria, algae and bryophytes

Question 82. Who suggested the five-kingdom classification of organisms?

  1. Copeland
  2. R.h. Whittaker
  3. Hutchinson
  4. Bentham and hooker.

Answer: 2. R.h. Whittaker

Five Kingdom Classification MCQs For NEET

Question 83. Isotype is a duplicate of:

  1. Syntype
  2. Holotype
  3. Neotype
  4. Lectotype.

Answer: 2. Holotype

Question 84. The biological species concept was formulated by :

  1. Meyer
  2. Heywood
  3. Stebbins
  4. R. Koch.

Answer: 1. Meyer

Question 85. In the statement, isotype is a duplicate specimen of x from the same collection of the same date and same locality. ‘X’ stands for:

  1. Isotype
  2. Holotype
  3. Paratype
  4. Neotype.

Answer: 2. Holotype

Question 86. Two morphologically similar populations which cannot interbreed among themselves are called:

  1. Sympatric species
  2. Allopatric species
  3. Sibling species
  4. Morphospecies.

Answer: 3. Sibling species

Question 87. Two related species having very distinct non-overlapping geographical areas are :

  1. Sympatric species
  2. Allopatric species
  3. Taxonomic species
  4. Biological species.

Answer: 2. Allopatric species

Biological Classification MCQ with answers Question 88. To which kingdom of Whittaker, producers belong :

  1. Protista and Plantae both
  2. Protista only
  3. Monera, protista and plantae
  4. The five kingdoms.

Answer: 3. Monera, Protista, and Plantae

Question 89. Which of the following is not included in any of the five kingdoms of Whittaker:

  1. Viruses
  2. Viroids and prions
  3. Bacteriophages
  4. All of these.

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 90. Which one of the following is a protist with a flexible lifestyle?

  1. Chlamydomonas
  2. Euglena
  3. Paramecium
  4. Entamoeba.

Answer: 2. Euglena

Question 91. Which one of the following shows plant-like and animal-like characters

  1. Amoeba
  2. Frog
  3. Slime moulds
  4. Mushroom.

Answer: 3. Slime moulds

Five Kingdom Classification MCQs For NEET

Question 92. Yeasts lack:

  1. Chlorophyll
  2. Nucleus
  3. Cell wall
  4. Cytoplasm.

Answer: 1. Chlorophyll

Biological Classification MCQ with answers Question 93. Species are:

  1. Population of individuals with similar genotypic and phenotypic traits.
  2. Population of one type
  3. Population of interbreeding individuals
  4. Group of individuals occurring in a geographical area.

Answer: 3. Population of interbreeding individuals

Question 94. Members of biological species are potentially able to :

  1. Compete
  2. Interbreed
  3. Inirogross
  4. Express all the same genes,

Answer: 2. Interbreed

Question 95. Which is the correct arrangement of taxa based on the number of the individuals (lowest to the highest) that each taxon has:

  1. Species, genus, phylum, kingdom
  2. Kingdom, phylum, species, genus
  3. Kingdom, genus, phylum, species
  4. Genus, species, phylum, kingdom.

Answer: 1. Species, genus, phylum, the kingdom

Question 96. Taxonomic keys are constructed to identify a species. Which key is most popular:

  1. Indented keys
  2. Bracketed keys
  3. Taxonomic keys
  4. None of these.

Answer: 2. Bracketed keys

Question 97. Carl Linnaeus is referred to as :

  1. Father of genetics
  2. Father of phylogenetic classification
  3. Father of biological taxonomy
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Father of biological taxonomy

Question 98. Two plants a and b differ in correlated morphological characters and should be treated as:

  1. Two varieties
  2. Two taxonomic species
  3. Two subspecies
  4. Members of the same species.

Answer: 2. Two taxonomic species

Question 99. Out of 5 kingdoms in which kingdom of Whittaker living organisms are grouped:

  1. 3rd, 4th and 5th kingdom
  2. 2nd kingdom
  3. 3rd and 4th kingdom
  4. All kingdoms.

Answer: 4. All kingdoms.

Question 100. At present scientific names have been given to :

  1. 10 Million species
  2. 3.9 million species
  3. 1.7 million species
  4. One million species.

Answer: 3. 1.7 million species

Question 101. 102.3.5 billion years ago :

  1. Life appeared
  2. Eukaryotes appeared
  3. Moon appeared
  4. Plants appeared.

Answer: 1. Life appeared

NEET Biology Five Kingdom System Questions

Question 102. A collection of populations within which interbreeding may occur is called :

  1. Genus
  2. Family
  3. Species
  4. Phylum.

Answer: 3. Species

Question 103. Which one of the following is a composite dual organism?

  1. Fungi
  2. Metazoa
  3. Algae
  4. Lichens.

Answer: 4. Lichens.

Question 104. Ocnwcnluvh discovered:

  1. Nucleus
  2. Cell wall
  3. Bacteria
  4. Virus.

Answer: 3. Bacteria

Question 107. Two-kingdom system classification was given by

  1. Linnaeus
  2. John ray
  3. Copeland
  4. Whittaker.

Answer: 1. Linnaeus

Question 108. Multicellular producers belong to kingdoms:

  1. Plantae
  2. Protista
  3. Plantae and mycota
  4. Protista and plantae.

Answer: 1. Plantae

Question 109. Absorptive (saprozoic) mode of nutrition is found in the kingdom:

  1. Plantae
  2. Fungi
  3. Animalia
  4. All of these.

Answer: 2. Fungi

Question 110. Term Protista was given by

  1. Haeckel
  2. Daughtery
  3. Aristotle
  4. Copeland.

Answer: 1. Haeckel

NEET Biology Five Kingdom System Questions

Question 111. Species change over a period to form new species. These changes are :

  1. Jerky
  2. Slow over generations
  3. Slow and gradual over generations
  4. Sudden.

Answer: 3. Slow and gradual over generations

Question 112. Graphic representation indicating the evolutionary relationship of organisms is:

  1. Dendrogram
  2. Hierarchy
  3. Cladogram
  4. A-taxonomy.

Answer: 3. Cladogram

Question 113. In Whittaker’s classification, which kingdom is the main producer:

  1. Plantae
  2. Protista
  3. Mycota
  4. Monera.

Answer: 1. Plantae

Question 114. The first person who used structural likeness as the basis of classification and made systematics a scientific discipline

  1. C. Linnaeus
  2. Lamarck
  3. Theophrastus
  4. John ray.

Answer: 1. C. Linnaeus

Question 115. The five kingdoms of Whittaker arranged evolutionarily are:

  1. Monera — protista — animalia — plantae—mycota
  2. Monera — protista — plantae — fungi — animalia
  3. Monera — mycota — protista — plantae — animalia
  4. Monera — protista — fungi — animalia plantae

Answer: 2. Monera — Protista — Plantae — fungi — Animalia

NEET Previous Year Questions On Five Kingdoms

Question 116.  In which year, Whittaker proposed his five-kingdom system of classification:

  1. 1972
  2. 1989
  3. 01969
  4. 1959.

Answer: 3. 1969

Important MCQs on Biological Classification Question 117. Which of the following share the attributes of a plant and an animal:

  1. Yeast
  2. Euglena
  3. Polo
  4. Bacteria

Answer: 2. Euglena

Question 118. Decomposers belong to the kingdom:

  1. Protista and fungi
  2. Monera, protista and fungi
  3. Monera and Protista
  4. Protista, fungi and animalia

Answer: 2. Monera, Protista, and fungi

Question 119. Term ‘species’ and phylum were coined by :

  1. Species by ray and phylum by Linnaeus
  2. Species by John Ray and phylum by Cuvier.
  3. Species by cuvier and phylum by ray
  4. Species by Meyer and phylum by Linnaeus.

Answer: 2. Species by John Ray and phylum by Cuvier.

Question 120. The most famous botanical garden in the world is:

  1. Llyod Botanical Garden Darjeeling
  2. Ncvv york botanical garden USA
  3. Royal Botanical Garden, Kew, England
  4. Royal Botanic Garden Sydney Australia.

Answer: 3. Royal Botanical Garden, Kew, England

Question 121. In taxonomic classification, the correct sequence is :

  1. Class — family — tribe — order—genus— species
  2. Class — order — family, tribe — genus — species
  3. Tribe — order — family — genus — species
  4. Class — tribe — order — family — genus

Answer: 2. Class — order — family, tribe — genus — species

Question 122. Genera Planetary was written by:

  1. Engler
  2. Hutchinson
  3. Bentham and hooker
  4. Bessey. (B.h.u. 1991)

Answer: 3. Bentham and hooker

Question 123. The basic unit of classification is :

  1. Species
  2. Genus
  3. Kingdom
  4. Phylum.

Answer: 1. Species

NEET Previous Year Questions On Five Kingdoms

Question 124. A person who studies the origin, evolution, and variations in plants and also about the classification of plants is referred to as:

  1. A – taxonomist
  2. Herbal taxonomist
  3. Classical taxonomist
  4. P- taxonomist.

Answer: 3. Classical taxonomist

Question 125. The system of classification of angiosperm which is based on a maximum number of phenotypic attributes or several characters is referred to as:

  1. Artificial system
  2. Natural system
  3. Phylogenetic system
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Natural system

Question 126. Linnaeus’s system of classification of flowering plants is based on:

  1. Ecology
  2. Embryology
  3. Cytology
  4. Morphology.

Answer: 4. Morphology.

Question 127. Phytospecies is taxonomically

  1. A group of evolutionarily related population
  2. A population with common characteristics as an evolutionary base of variations
  3. A fundamental unit in the phylogenetic history of an organism
  4. A basic category to which most taxonomic information is attached.

Answer: 1. A group of evolutionarily related population

Question 128. The first act in taxonomy is;

  1. Description
  2. Identification
  3. Naming
  4. Classification.

Answer: 2. Identification

Question 129. A taxon is a :

  1. Group of related families
  2. Group of related species
  3. Type of living organisms
  4. Taxonomic group of any ranking.

Answer: 4. Taxonomic group of any ranking.

NEET Biology Multiple Choice Questions – Taxonomy Of Angiosperms

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NEET Biology Classification Of Taxonomy Of Angiosperms Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Which are the major divisions of the plant kingdom according to Bentham and hooker’s natural system of classification?

  1. Monocotyledons and dicotyledons
  2. Angiosperms and gymnosperms
  3. Cryptogammae and phanerogammae
  4. Unicellular and multicellular plants.

Answer: 1. Monocotyledons and dicotyledons

Question 2. Angiosperms differ from gymnosperms in possessing:

  1. Xylem vessel
  2. Ovule
  3. Xylem tracheids
  4. Seeds.

Answer: 1. Xylem vessel

Question 3. Loranthus is :

  1. Parasite
  2. Epiphyte
  3. Symbiont
  4. Saprophyte.

Answer: 1. Parasite

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 4. In dicots, vascular bundles are:

  1. Scattered
  2. Closed
  3. Concentric
  4. Arranged in ring.

Answer: 4. Arranged in ring.

Question 5. In monocots, the floral parts occur in groups of:

  1. Two
  2. Three
  3. Four
  4. Five.

Answer: 2. Three

MCQs on Taxonomy of Angiosperms for NEET Question 6. Which of the following is a marine angiosperm:

  1. Potamogeton
  2. Zostera
  3. Utricularia
  4. Vallisneria.

Answer: 2. Zostera

Question 7. Which of the following is an insectivorous plant?

  1. Pinus
  2. Viscum
  3. Nepenthes
  4. Cuscuta.

Answer: 3. Nepenthes

Question 8. Which of the following is a dicot?

  1. Pulse
  2. Cereal
  3. Palm
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Pulse

Question 9. Which of the following is a monocot?

  1. Mango
  2. Citrus
  3. Pulse
  4. Cereals.

Answer: 4. Cereals.

Question 10. Select the smallest angiosperm:

  1. Lotus
  2. Wolffia
  3. Rafflesia
  4. Sugar beet.

Answer: 2. Wolffia

Question 11. A grass becoming tree-like:

  1. Bamboo
  2. Veterinarian (khus)
  3. Eucalyptus
  4. All of the above.

Answer: 1. Bamboo

Question 12. Which of the following angiosperm spreads over the largest area?

  1. Ficus bengalensis
  2. Ficus religiosa
  3. Ficus elastica
  4. Sequio gigantea.

Answer: 1. Ficus bengalensis

MCQs on Taxonomy of Angiosperms for NEET Question 13. Which of the following is called sundew?

  1. Lotus
  2. Drosera
  3. Utricularia
  4. Nepenthes.

Answer: 2. Drosera

Question 14. Monocotyledonous leaf showing reticulate venation is found in:

  1. Smilax
  2. Zea mays
  3. Cocos
  4. Calophyllum.

Answer: 1. Smilax

Question 15. In which of the following seed germinates when still attached to the main plant?

  1. Mango
  2. Rhizophora
  3. Secrewpire
  4. Coconut.

Answer: 2. Rhizophora

Question 16. Double fertilization is characteristic of:

  1. Angiosperm
  2. Gynmosperm
  3. Algae
  4. Pteridophytes.

Answer: 1. Angiosperm

Question 17. Insectivorous plants grow in soil which is deficient in:

  1. Calcium
  2. Magnesium
  3. Nitrogen
  4. Hormones.

Answer: 3. Nitrogen

Questions On Taxonomy Of Angiosperms

Question 1. Bauhinia, cassia, maraca, and Tamarindus belong to the sub-family:

  1. Mimosoideae
  2. Caesalpinoideae
  3. Cruci free
  4. Malvaceae.

Answer: 2. Caesalpinoideae

MCQs on Taxonomy of Angiosperms for NEET Question 2. Acacia, albizzia and mimosa belong to:

  1. Mimosoideae
  2. Acanthaceae
  3. Gramineae
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Mimosoideae

Question 3. The family originally named after a characteristic type of inflorescence found in them, is

  1. Malvaceae
  2. Euphorbiaceae
  3. Asteraceae
  4. Fabaceae.

Answer: 3. Asteraceae

Question 4. Family Cruciferae is also known as:

  1. Tetradynamaceae
  2. Brassicaceae
  3. Raphanaceae
  4. Siliquaceae.

Answer: 2. Brassicaceae

Question 5. Cereals are found in the family :

  1. Compositae
  2. Solanaceae
  3. Leguminosae
  4. Gramineae.

Answer: 1. Compositae

Question 6. Helianthus, sonchus, dahlia and ageraium belong to:

  1. Compositae
  2. Lauraceae
  3. Mimosoideae
  4. Malvaceae.

Answer: 1. Compositae

Question 7. Lycopersicum, capsicum, datura, and Atropa belong to:

  1. Liliaceae
  2. Solanaceae
  3. Leguminosae
  4. Malvaceae.

Answer: 2. Solanaceae

Question 8. For the basis of classification, floral characters of higher plants are taken as a basis because:

  1. Flowers can be easily preserved
  2. Flowers show great variety in structure and colors
  3. Reproductive parts are more conservative than other parts
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Reproductive parts are more conservative than other parts

Mcqs on taxonomy of angiosperms Question 9. The floral diagram represents the following:

  1. Position of the flower
  2. Number and arrangement of floral parts in the flower
  3. Structure of the flower
  4. Habit of the plant.

Answer: 2. Number and arrangement of floral parts in the flower

Question 10. The botanical name of cauliflower is:

  1. Brassica oleraceae var. Botrytis
  2. Brassica oleraceae var. Gongyloides
  3. Brassica oleraceae var. Capitata
  4. Brassica oleraceae var. Gemmifera.

Answer: 1. Brassica oleraceae var. Botrytis

Question 11. Which is the most advanced family of dicots?

  1. Ranunculaceae
  2. Capparidaceae
  3. Rosaceae
  4. Compositae.

Answer: 4. Compositae.

Question 12. The most primitive family of dicots is :

  1. Ranunculaceae
  2. Caryophyllaceae
  3. Cucurbitaceae
  4. Solanaceae.

Answer: 1. Ranunculaceae

Question 13. Calyx is described in terms of:

  1. Number of sepals, free or united
  2. Colour and shape
  3. Activation and special appendages
  4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Mcqs on taxonomy of angiosperms Question 14. Cotton is obtained from the plants belonging to the family:

  1. Mimosoideae
  2. Malvaceae
  3. Palmae
  4. Rutaceae.

Answer: 2. Malvaceae

Question 15. The pulses-yielding family is :

  1. Leguminosae
  2. Cucurbitaceae
  3. Rosaceae
  4. Solanaceae.

Answer: 1. Leguminosae

Question 16. The lady’s finger belongs to :

  1. Cucurbitaceae
  2. Capparidaceae
  3. Solanaceae
  4. Malvaceae.

Answer: 4. Malvaceae.

Question 17. The typical floral formula of the family Gramineae is:Classifcation Of Taxonomy Of Angispersm Question 17 Typical floral Formula Of Family Gramineae

Answer: 1. Classifcation Of Taxonomy Of Angispersm Question 17 Typical floral Formula Of Family Gramineae.

Question 18. To which of the following families does allium cepa belong?

  1. Liliaceae
  2. Solanaceae
  3. Papilionatae
  4. Cruciferae.

Answer: 1. Liliaceae

Question 19. Ray-florets and disc-florets are the characteristic features of:

  1. Cruciferae
  2. Malvaceae
  3. Compositae
  4. Solanaceae.

Answer: 3. Compositae

Mcqs on taxonomy of angiosperms Question 20. The stamens of Cruciferae are:

  1. Monoadelphous
  2. Tetradynamous
  3. Didynamous
  4. Epipetalous.

Answer: 2. Tetradynamous

Question 21. In Malvaceae, the androecium is characteristically

  1. Monadelphous and free
  2. Diadelphous and free
  3. Monadelphous and epipetalous
  4. Diadelphous and epipetalous.

Answer: 3. Monadelphous and epipetalous

Question 22. In compositae the placentation is:

  1. Basal
  2. Marginal
  3. Free central
  4. Axile.

Answer: 1. Basal

Question 23. In Liliaceae, flowers are:

  1. Trimerous and hypogynous
  2. Pentamerous and epigynous
  3. Trimerous and epigynous
  4. Tetramerous and hypogynous.

Answer: 1. Trimerous and hypogynous

Question 24. Epicalyx, axile placentation, and monadelphous condition are found in:

  1. Cruciferae
  2. Solanaceae
  3. Umbelliferae
  4. Malvaceae.

Answer: 4. Malvaceae.

NEET Biology Plant Kingdom Angiosperm Question 25. Which type of placentation is found in Cruciferae?

  1. Parietal
  2. Axile
  3. Marginal
  4. Basal.

Answer: 1. Parietal

Question 26. A caryopsis fruit is a characteristic of the family:

  1. Gramineae
  2. Cruciferae
  3. Leguminosae
  4. Malvaceae.

Answer: 1. Gramineae

Question 27. Siliqua or silicula fruit is a characteristic of the family:

  1. Gramineae
  2. Cruciferae
  3. Rutaceae
  4. Compositae.

Answer: 2. Cruciferae

Question 28. Leguminosae is a vast family. The basis for its further division into the three families i.e. Papilionatae, caesalpiniodeae, and Mimosoideae are:

  1. Nature of corolla
  2. Number of arrangements of stamens
  3. Type of placentation and fruit
  4. Both 1 and 2.

Answer: 4. Both 1 and 2.

Question 29. The presence of a false septum (replum) in the ovary is a characteristic of the family :

  1. Cruciferae
  2. Malvaceae
  3. Gramineae
  4. Compositae.

Answer: 1. Cruciferae

Question 30. The condition of androecium in papilionatae is:

  1. Monadelphous
  2. Diadelphous
  3. Polyadelphous
  4. Syngenesious.

Answer: 2. Diadelphous

Question 31. In Solanaceae, the placentation is:

  1. Axile
  2. Marginal
  3. Basal
  4. Superficial.

Answer: 1. Axile

Question 32. Which one of the following correctly represents the condition of the androecium in Papilionaceae?

  1. Monadelphous and epipetalous
  2. Diadelphous and epipetalous
  3. Monadelphous and free
  4. Diadelphous.

Answer: 4. Diadelphous.

Question 33. The floral diagram provides information about flowers concerning:

  1. Number of parts of a flower
  2. The general structure, cohesion, and adhesion
  3. Position of flower concerning mother axis
  4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. Position of flower for mother axis

NEET Biology Plant Kingdom Angiosperm Question 34. The inflorescence in compositae is:

  1. Umbel
  2. Spike
  3. Capitulum
  4. Catkin.

Answer: 3. Capitulum

Question 35. The androecium in compositae is:

  1. Syngenesious and epipetalous
  2. Polyandrous and syngenesious
  3. Epipetalous and monadelphous
  4. Polyandrous and monoadelphous.

Answer: 1. Syngenesious and epipetalous

Question 36. The type of placentation in Leguminosae is :

  1. Capitulum
  2. Superficial
  3. Marginal
  4. Axile.

Answer: 3. Marginal

Question 37. The unit of inflorescence in Gramineae is :

  1. Basal
  2. Catkin
  3. Spikelet
  4. Panicle.

Answer: 3. Spikelet

Question 38. The number of small scaly lodicules which form the perianth in the family Gramineae is:

  1. Two
  2. Five
  3. One
  4. Four.

Answer: 1. Two

NEET Biology Plant Kingdom Angiosperm Question 39. Wheat belongs to the family:

  1. Leguminosae
  2. Gramineae
  3. Liliaceae
  4. Solanaceae.

Answer: 2. Gramineae

Question 40. Which of the following is a sign of a zygomorphic flower?

  1. ⊕
  2. 5
  3. 9
  4. 9

Answer: 2. 5

Question 41. The androecium is indefinite and polyandrous in :

  1. Mimosoideae
  2. Papilionatae
  3. Malvaceae
  4. Rutaceae.

Answer: 1. Mimosoideae

Question 42. Which of the following is the floral formula of Asphodelus tenuifolius (liliaceae)?

Classifcation Of Taxonomy Of Angispersm Question 42 The Floral Formula of asphodelus tenuifolius

Answer: 2.Classifcation Of Taxonomy Of Angispersm Question 42 The Floral Formula of asphodelus tenuifolius.

Plant Taxonomy for NEET MCQs Question 43. Vexillum, alae, and keel are present in the family:

  1. Liliaceae
  2. Solanaceae
  3. Asteraceae
  4. Papilionaceae.

Answer: 4. Papilionaceae.

Question 44. In which of the family is gynoecium carpellary syncarpous?

  1. Labiatae
  2. Solanaceae
  3. Cruciferae
  4. In all three.

Answer: 4. In all the three.

Question 45. Mimosa belongs to the family :

  1. Mimosoideae
  2. Rosaceae
  3. Malvaceae
  4. Cruciferae.

Answer: 4. Cruciferae.

Question 46. Flowers are epigynous in family:

  1. Malvaceae
  2. Rutaceae
  3. Cruciferae
  4. Compositae.

Answer: 4. Compositae.

Question 47. In which flower is the odd sepal anterior?

  1. Lathyrus odoratus
  2. Ocimum basilicum
  3. Asphodelus tenuifolius
  4. Brassica campestris.

Answer: 1. Lathyrus odoratus

Plant Taxonomy for NEET MCQs Question 48. Flowers are trimerous in the family:

  1. Malvaceae
  2. Labiatae
  3. Liliaceae
  4. Rosaceae.

Answer: 3. Liliaceae

Question 49. Numerous flowers are found in the family :

  1. Rosaceae
  2. Cruciferae
  3. Malvaceae
  4. Compositae.

Answer: 2. Cruciferae

Question 50. How many genera are present in the family Cruciferae (Brassicaceae)?

  1. 275
  2. 375
  3. 400
  4. 475.

Answer: 2. 375

Question 51. Which of the following belongs to the family Brassicaceae?

  1. Cajanus cajan (arhan)
  2. Dolichos lablab (sem)
  3. Archis hypogea (groundnut)
  4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 52. In which of the family is the ovary obliquely placed?

  1. Solanaceae
  2. Malvaceae
  3. Rosaceae
  4. Cruciferae.

Answer: 1. Solanaceae

Question 53. Gramineae includes plants which are called:

  1. Cereals
  2. Herbs
  3. Pulses
  4. Shrubs.

Answer: 1. Cereals

Plant Taxonomy for NEET MCQs Question 54. Which of the following is known as the ‘sunflower family’?

  1. Asteraceae
  2. Fabaceae
  3. Poaceae
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Asteraceae

Question 55. Bisexual flower is a flower in which:

  1. Only petals are present
  2. Only stamens are present
  3. Only gynoecium is present
  4. Both stamens and pistil are present

Answer: 4. Both stamens and pistil are present

Question 56. Perianth is reduced to lodicules in the family :

  1. Liliaceae
  2. Gramineae
  3. Compositae
  4. Malvaceae.

Answer: 2. Gramineae

Question 57. Most important cereal crop of india is:

  1. Nymphaea
  2. Allium cepa
  3. Triticum vulgare
  4. Pisum sativum.

Answer: 3. Triticum vulgare

Question 58. Which of the following belongs to the family astera-ceae?

  1. Zinnia and Dahlia
  2. Chrysanthemum and helianthus
  3. Aster
  4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 59. Papilionaceous corolla is found in:

  1. Pisum sativum
  2. Mimosa pudica
  3. Delonix regia
  4. Brassica campestris.

Answer: 1. Pisum sativum

Plant Taxonomy for NEET MCQs Question 60. Mimosoideae is characterized by:

  1. 10 Stamens in two whorls of 5 each
  2. 10 Stamens out of which 3 are staminodes
  3. 10 Free stamens
  4. Numerous free stamens.

Answer: 4. Numerous free stamens.

Question 61. Tamarindus indica, the common tamarind tree belongs to:

  1. Cruciferae
  2. Mimosoideae
  3. Caesalpinoideae
  4. Papilionatae.

Answer: 4. Papilionatae.

Question 62. A flower has five fused sepals, five fused petals, 5 epipetalous free stamens and carpellary, syncarpous superior ovary with a swollen axile oblique placenta which family will you assign to the flower?

  1. Solanaceae
  2. Leguminosae
  3. Compositae
  4. Cruciferae.

Answer: 1. Solanaceae

Question 63. Seeds of which of the following yield edible oil?

  1. Artemisia
  2. Sunflower
  3. Safflower
  4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 64. The floral formula of the family Compositae is

  1. K5C5A5g(5)
  2. K5C5A5g(5)
  3. K6C5A(9)-1G
  4. Classifcation Of Taxonomy Of Angispersm The Foral Formula of the family composiate

Answer: 4. Classifcation Of Taxonomy Of Angispersm The Foral Formula of the family composiate

MCQs on Taxonomy of Angiosperms for NEET  Question 65. Which of the following statements is correct for the capitulum of sunflower?

  1. Ray florets are outer, disc florets are inner
  2. Disc florets are outer, ray florets are inner
  3. Both are in the center of the Capitulum
  4. Both are located on the periphery.

Answer: 1. Ray florets are outer, disc florets are inner

Question 66. Sonchus belongs to:

  1. Cruciferae
  2. Rutaceae
  3. Malvaceae
  4. Compositae.

Answer: 4. Compositae.

NEET Biology Questions With Answers

Question 67. The presence of vexillum (standard), wings (alae), and keel (carina) is a characteristic feature of the family:

  1. Rutaceae
  2. Cruciferae
  3. Malvaceae
  4. Papilionatae.

Answer: 4. Papilionatae.

Question 68. The floral formula:

Classifcation Of Taxonomy Of Angispersm Question 68 The Floral formula

  1. Cruciferae
  2. Malvaceae
  3. Rosaceae
  4. Papilionatae.

Answer: 4. Papilionatae.

Question 69. Cassia fistula belongs to the sub-family: acacia belongs to:

  1. Cruciferae
  2. Malvaceae
  3. Rosaceae
  4. Cruciferae

Answer: 4. Cruciferae

Question 70. What is the diagnostic character of the Cruciferae family?

  1. Presence of ray and disc florets
  2. Presence of a staminal tube
  3. Presence of four clawed and diagonally arranged petal, tetradynamous condition
  4. None of these.

Answer: 1. Presence of ray and disc florets

Question 71. Which set of the following plants belong to the family Liliacaeae:

  1. Onion, garlic and asparagus
  2. Smilax, aloe and gloriosa
  3. Urginea, scilla, and yucca
  4. A11 of above.

Answer: 3. Urginea, scilla, and yucca

Question 72. The scientific name of the common tomato is:

  1. Raphanus sativus
  2. Lycopersicum esculentum
  3. Murraya
  4. Lberis.

Answer: 4. Lberis.

Question 73. Asphodelus tenuifolius belongs to:

  1. Cruciferae
  2. Malvaceae
  3. Liliaceae
  4. Rutaceae.

Answer: 2. Liliaceae

NEET Important Questions Biology

Question 74. The condition of the androecium in Compositae is:

  1. Diadelphous
  2. Didynamous
  3. Syngenesious
  4. Monadelphous.

Answer: 3. Syngenesious

Question 75. Cereals are found in the family:

  1. Cruciferae
  2. Solanaceae
  3. Gramineae
  4. Leguminosae.

Answer: 3. Gramineae

Question 76. Angiosperms originated about how many million years ago:

  1. 20
  2. 100
  3. 130
  4. 200.

Answer: 3. 130

Question 77. In arachis hypogea corolla is

  1. Cruciform
  2. Papilionaceous
  3. Bilabiate
  4. Infundibuliform.

Answer: 3. Bilabiate

Question 78. Spirocyclic flowers are present in the family :

  1. Ranunculaceae
  2. Cruciferae
  3. Malvaceae
  4. Leguminosae.

Answer: 2. Cruciferae

Question 79. The typical floral formula of the family Cruciferae is:

Classifcation Of Taxonomy Of Angispersm The Typical Floral Formula Of Family Cruciferae

Answer: 3. Classifcation Of Taxonomy Of Angispersm The Typical Floral Formula Of Family Cruciferae.

Question 80. Spirocyclic flowers are present in the family :

  1. Ranunculaceae
  2. Cruciferae
  3. Malvaceae
  4. Leguminosae

Answer: 1. Ranunculaceae

Question 81. The names dicots and monocots are based on the number of cotyledons in the embryo. Which of the following is not true for monocotyledons:

  1. Parallel venation in leaves
  2. Scattered vascular bundles
  3. Tap roots grow profusely
  4. Flower parts in sets of 3

Answer: 3. Tap roots grow profusely

NEET Important Questions Biology

Question 82. The typical formula for Gramineae is:

Classifcation Of Taxonomy Of Angispersm The Typical Formula For Gramineae

Answer: 4. Classifcation Of Taxonomy Of Angispersm The Typical Formula For Gramineae.

Mcqs on taxonomy of angiosperms Question 83. Polyadelphous condition is characteristic of the family:

  1. Compositae
  2. Malvaceae
  3. Liliaceae
  4. Rutaceae.

Answer: 4. Rutaceae.

Question 84. In which of the following families calyx is modified into pappus?

  1. Cruciferae
  2. Leguminosae
  3. Compositae
  4. Solanaceae.

Answer: 3. Compositae

Question 85. One of the statements does not apply to the family Cruciferae:

  1. Flowers are pentamerous
  2. Flowers are ebracteate
  3. Fruit is siliqua
  4. Stigmas are usually commissural.

Answer: 1. Flowers are pentamerous

Question 86. Which of the following represents the condition seen in the family Compositae?

  1. Superior ovary, axile placentation
  2. Inferior ovary, axile placentation
  3. Superior ovary, single basal ovule
  4. Inferior ovary, single basal ovule.

Answer: 4. Inferior ovary, single basal ovule.

Question 87. Cereals are found in the family :

  1. Malvaceae
  2. Cruciferae
  3. Gramineae
  4. Leguminoseae.

Answer: 4. Leguminoseae.

NEET Important Questions Biology

Question 88. Petunia differs from the rest of the Solanaceae in having:

  1. Numerous ovules and stamens with apical pores
  2. Infundibuliform corolla and persistent calyx
  3. Irregular calyx and unequal filaments
  4. Swollen placenta and accrescent calyx.

Answer: 3. Irregular calyx and unequal filaments

Mcqs on taxonomy of angiosperms Question 89. Major food crops of the world belong to:

  1. Leguminosae
  2. Solanaceae
  3. Gramineae
  4. Cruciferae.

Answer: 3. Gramineae

Question 90. Triticum aestivum is:

  1. Diploid
  2. Triploid
  3. Haploid
  4. Hexaploid.

Answer: 4. Hexaploid.

Question 91. Asphodelus tenuifolius differs from the rest of the lilaceae in the presence of:

  1. Cortical roots and centric leaves
  2. Gamophyllous perianth and distinct stamens
  3. Gamophyllous perianth and epiphyllous
  4. Polyphyllous perianth and epiphyllous stamens.

Answer: 3. Gamophyllous perianth and epiphyllous

Question 92. Allium differs from the rest of lilliaceae in:

  1. Absence of umbel inflorescence and centric leave
  2. Presence of bulbs and umbel inflorescence
  3. Absence of umbel inflorescence and bulb
  4. The presence of centric leaves and perianth

Answer: 2. Presence of bulbs and umbel inflorescence

NEET Biology Multiple Choice Questions – Nature and Scope of Biology

by

NEET Biology Nature and Scope of Biology Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. The term ‘biology’ for the study of living organisms was coined by.

  1. Lamark and triviranus
  2. Husley
  3. Purkinje and von mohl
  4. Aristotle

Answer: 1. Lamark and Trimarans

Question 2. Animals ate like plants in that they respire:

  1. During day only
  2. During night only
  3. During day and night
  4. When required only.

Answer: 3. During day and night

Question 3. Study of animal behaviour comes under:’

  1. Ecology
  2. Aetiology
  3. Euthenics
  4. Eugenics.

Answer: 2. Ethology

Question 4. Areas which cannot be subjected to scientific analysis are:

  1. Human intelligence
  2. Human faith
  3. Animal behaviour
  4. Origin of life.

Answer: 2. Human faith

NEET Biology MCQs

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 5. The study of injuries and wounds is known as :

  1. Tricology
  2. Numerology
  3. Traumatology
  4. Torpedology.

Answer: 3. Traumatology

Nature And Scope Of Biology MCQs

Question 6. The study of the chemical aspect of living organisms:

  1. Microbiology
  2. Biochemistry
  3. Cryobiology
  4. Ethology.

Answer: 2. Biochemistry

Question 7. The science of characters and distribution of nice is known as:

  1. Ethnology
  2. Anthropology
  3. Sociology
  4. Malacology.

Answer: 1. Ethnology

NEET Biology MCQs

Question 8. Dendrology is the study of:

  1. Grasses
  2. Flowers
  3. Trees and shrubs
  4. Trees.

Answer: 3. Trees and shrubs

Question 9. Agrostology is the cultivation of :

  1. Oil seeds
  2. Crops
  3. Grasses
  4. Fruit trees.

Answer: 3. Grasses

Question 10. Study of light effects on flowering of plants :

  1. Photobiology
  2. Photomorphogenesis
  3. Photoperiodism
  4. Vernalisation.

Answer: 3. Photoperiodism

Question 11. The most primitive vascular plants are:

  1. Ferns
  2. Brown algae
  3. Cycas
  4. Red algae.

Answer: 1. Ferns

Question 12. Biotechnology refers to :

  1. Linkage
  2. Cross-over
  3. Recombination
  4. Tissue culture.

Answer: 2. Cross-over

Nature And Scope Of Biology MCQs

Question 13. The science which deals with the classification, identification and naming of organisms is known as :

  1. Physiology
  2. Ecology
  3. Systematic
  4. Biology.

Answer: 3. Systematic

Question 14. The father of taxonomy is:

  1. Charles Darwin
  2. John ray
  3. Julian Huxley
  4. Carolus Linnaeus.

Answer:4. Carolus Linnaeus.

Question 16. Who was the first to classify animals?

  1. Aucrbauch
  2. Aristotle
  3. Carolus Linnaeus
  4. Darwin.

Answer: 2. Aristotle

NEET Biology MCQs

Question 17. The genetic composition of the population about habitat is called :

  1. Gynaecology
  2. Gynaecology
  3. Gerontology
  4. Euthenics.

Answer: 2. Gynaecology

Nature And Scope Of Biology MCQs

Question 18. The branch of zoology dealing with the study of fishes is called :

  1. Herpetology
  2. Ichthyology
  3. Pisciculture
  4. Saurology.

Answer: 2. Ichthyology

Question 19. The branch of zoology which deals with the study of visceral organs is called:

  1. Angiology
  2. Splanchnology
  3. Anthology
  4. Arthrology.

Answer: 2. Splanchnology

Question 20. The study of nests of birds is known as :

  1. Craniology
  2. Ichthyology
  3. Nidology
  4. None.

Answer: 3. Nidology

Question 21. Herpetology is the study of:

  1. Birds
  2. Snails
  3. Marine fishes
  4. Snakes.

Answer: 4. Snakes.

Question 22. Syndesmology is the study of:

  1. Hormones
  2. Skeletal joints
  3. Desert
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Skeletal joints

Question 23. The study of structural morphology and organisation is known as:

  1. Tectology
  2. Technology
  3. Ontogeny
  4. Osteology.

Answer: 1. Tectology

Question 24. The study of acquired characters is known as:

  1. Tectology
  2. Technology
  3. Odontology
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Ctenology

Question 25. ‘Angiology’ is the study of:

  1. Blood
  2. Blood and the blood groups
  3. Blood vessels
  4. Heart attack.

Answer: 3. Blood vessels

Question 26. The study of coelenterates is called:

  1. Cardiology
  2. Gynaecology
  3. Entomology
  4. Cosmetology.

Answer: 1. Cnidology

Question 27. ‘Aerology’ is the study of:

  1. Ticks and mites
  2. Annelids
  3. Aquatic insects
  4. Crossbreed.

Answer: 1. Ticks and mites

Question 28. Branch of zoology which deals with the study of cartilage :

  1. Conchology
  2. Chondriology
  3. Craniology
  4. Cardiology

Answer: 2. Chondriology

Question 29. The study of ants is called

  1. Tricology
  2. Myrmecology
  3. Mattologv
  4. None of above

Answer: 2. Myrmecology

Question 30. The branch of zoology which deals with the study of shells is known as

  1. Coikhology
  2. Ecology
  3. Aetiology
  4. Ornithology.

Answer: 1. Coikhology

Question 31. Ornithology is concerned with the study of:

  1. Fishes
  2. Birds
  3. Animal fossils
  4. Reptiles.

Answer: 2. Birds

Question 32. Red mood cells of mammals lack a nucleus except:

  1. Horse
  2. Rabbit
  3. Camel
  4. Elephant.

Answer: 3. Camel

Scope Of Biology NEET Questions

Question 33. In the tobacco mosaic virus, heredity material is :

  1. Rna
  2. DNA
  3. Lipid
  4. Proteins.

Answer: 1. Rna

Biology MCQs For NEET

Question 34. Migration of birds is studied under:

  1. Phenology
  2. Kalology
  3. Ornithology
  4. Aetiology.

Answer: 1. Phenology

Question 35. In saurology, we study:

  1. Flying birds
  2. Lizards
  3. Sea snakes
  4. Earthworm.

Answer: 2. Lizards

Question 36. The study of olfactory organs and nose is called:

  1. Phenology
  2. Rhinology
  3. Tricology
  4. Phrenology.

Answer: 2. Rhinology

Question 37. The science dealing with the study of life at low temperatures is:

  1. Cryobiology
  2. Craniology
  3. Kalology
  4. Carcinology.

Answer: 1. Cryobiology

Question 38. The study of growing old is called:

  1. Gynaecology
  2. Gerontology
  3. Karyology
  4. Tectology.
  5. (M.p. P.m.t. 1996, Pb.p.m.t., 2000)

Answer: 2. Gerontology

Biology MCQs For NEET

Question 39. Kalology deals with the study of:

  1. Human beauty
  2. Nuclear cytology
  3. Conditions of animals
  4. Dead aquatic organisms.

Answer: 1. Human beauty

Question 40. Baby bom after the operation is called :

  1. Scissorian baby
  2. Caesarean baby
  3. Situs inversus
  4. Postmortem baby.

Answer: 2. Caesarean baby

Question 41. Which of the following is a tracer element?

  1. C14
  2. H3
  3. P32
  4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 42. Serendipity is :

  1. Explaining natural phenomenon
  2. Discovery by chance
  3. Any discovery
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Discovery by chance

NEET Biology Questions

Question 43. The structural formula of benzene was discovered by:

  1. Alexander fleming
  2. Newton
  3. Kekule
  4. Archimedes.

Answer: 3. Kekule

Question 44. Which of the following best describes the scientific method?

  1. Developing and testing the hypothesis
  2. Using sensitive electronic devices
  3. Collecting and analysing all known facts on a subject
  4. Conducting experiments in laboratories.

Answer: 1. Developing and testing hypothesis

Question 45. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a /hypothesis?

  1. A deductive inference
  2. An inductive inference
  3. A guess about cause and effect
  4. A generalization from specific observation

Answer: 1. A deductive inference

Question 46. An argument that birds evolved wings to fly, this type of argument is referred to as:

  1. Causal
  2. Teleological
  3. Mcchanistics
  4. Circular.

Answer: 2. Teleological

NEET Biology Questions

Question 47. An Electron microscope has high-resolution power. It is due to:

  1. Electromagnetic lenses
  2. Very low wavelength of electron beam
  3. The low wavelength of the light source used
  4. High numerical aperture of glass.

Answer: 2. Very low wavelength of electron beam

Question 48. A theory is :

  1. An educated guess
  2. Modified hypothesis
  3. The idea was given by a scientist
  4. A generalization supported by experiments.

Answer: 4. A generalization supported by experiments.

Question 49. Angstrom, the unit of measurement in the transmission electron microscope is equal to:

  1. 0.001 pm
  2. 0.001 pm
  3. 0.0001 pm
  4. 0.00001 pm.

Answer: 3. 0.0001 pm

Question 50. The science which deals with the study of drugs and the preparation of medicines is called:

  1. Physiology
  2. Pharmacology
  3. Pathology
  4. Psychology.

Answer: 2. Pharmacology

NEET Biology Practice Questions

Question 51. Technique by which cellular components are separated on the basis of their physical properties:

  1. Chromatography
  2. Cell fractionation
  3. Autoradiography
  4. Electrophoresis.

Answer: 2. Cell fractionation

Question 52. During the study of materials under an electron microscope the material is dry, thin and kept in a vacuum to:

  1. Get a straight beam of electrons
  2. Avoid collision of electrons with atoms of o and n
  3. Avoid multiple scattering of electrons
  4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Nature and Scope of Biology MCQs Question 53. The study of domestic animals is called

  1. Entomology
  2. Veterinary science
  3. Forestry
  4. Agronomy.

Answer: 2. Veterinary science

Question 54. Auxenic culture is:

  1. Pure culture without contamination
  2. Culture of gases
  3. Culture of tissue
  4. Pure culture of microbe without any nutrients.

Answer: 1. Pure culture without contamination

Question 55. The study of nuclear cytology is called :

  1. Radiology
  2. Neurology
  3. Karyology
  4. Mycology.

Answer: 3. Karyology

Question 56. Most of the extraordinary properties of water are due to of its molecules:

  1. Polarity
  2. Hydrogen bonds
  3. Covalent bonds
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Polarity

Question 57. Resolution power is the ability to :

  1. Distinguish two close points
  2. Distinguish two close objects
  3. Distinguish amongst organelles
  4. Magnify images.

Answer: 1. Distinguish two close points

NEET Biology Practice Questions

Question 58. The resolving power of the human eye is:

  1. 100 Pm
  2. 200 Pm
  3. 50 Pm
  4. 1000 Pm

Answer: 1. 100 Pm

Question 59. The physical basis of life is:

  1. Cell
  2. Protoplasm
  3. Nucleus
  4. Cytoplasm.

Answer: 2. Protoplasm

Question 60. Scientific ins estimations are ill iv nearer totnitli. When there is:

  1. Experimental procedures and monitoring are very accurate
  2. Correct observation
  3. Accurate prediction
  4. Sound knowledge of mathematics.

Answer: 1. Experimental procedure and monitoring very accurate

Question 61. Egg-lasing mammals are:

  1. Rat
  2. Platypus
  3. Kangaroo
  4. Kangaroo rat.

Answer: 2. Platypus

Question 62. Flowering in mclocanna bamusoidcs (maitake) occurs:

  1. Every year
  2. After 10 years
  3. After 4s years
  4. After 6 months.

Answer: 3. After 4s years

Question 63. Which of the following plants has remained unchanged for the past several million years?

  1. Pinus
  2. Rice
  3. Acacia
  4. Ginkgo.

Answer: 4. Ginkgo.

Question 64. What will you call the study of plant and animal tissues outside the body in a glass tube?

  1. In vivo
  2. In vitro
  3. Innate
  4. Desperate.

Answer: 2. In vitro

Question 65. At which height would nitrogen bubble out of the blood :

  1. 6.4 km
  2. 7.2 km
  3. 4 Km
  4. 5.6 km.

Answer: 2. 7.2 km

Question 66. Antons the following isotopes, which is not radioactive?

  1. Cu
  2. P35
  3. H3
  4. K4.

Answer: 2. P35

Question 67. The electron microscope is made up of:

  1. Fluorochromes
  2. Polariser and analyser filters
  3. Electromagnetic lenses
  4. Objective and ocular glass.

Answer: 3. Electromagnetic lenses

NEET Biology Test Online

Question 68. Natural sciences deal with the study of living objects and are known as:

  1. Physical sciences
  2. Social sciences
  3. Biological sciences
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Biological sciences

Question 69. Bambnsa tnlida flower only after attaining the age of:

  1. 3 Years
  2. 20 Years
  3. 12 Years
  4. 48 Years.

Answer: 4. 48 Years.

Question 70. The cell was discovered by :

  1. Robert Hooke
  2. Schleiden and schwann
  3. Virchow
  4. Strasburger.

Answer: 1. Robert Hooke

Question 71. The science dealing with the study of heredity and variations is known as:

  1. Eugenics
  2. Genetics
  3. Cytology
  4. Breeding.

Answer: 2. Genetics

Question 72. Generally, the hereditary material is :

  1. Protein
  2. Rna
  3. Dna
  4. Mrna.

Answer: 3. Dna

NEET Biology Test Online

Question 73. Cuscuta, a total parasite bears:

  1. Single cotyledon
  2. Two cotyledons
  3. Cotyledons absent
  4. Many cotyledons.

Answer: 3. Cotyledons absent

Question 74. When discoveries are made by accident and unexpectedly the phenomenon is called

  1. Mutation
  2. Serendipity
  3. Recombination
  4. Linkage.

Answer: 2. Serendipity

Question 75. Total number of animal species is :

  1. 1200000
  2. 700000
  3. 170000
  4. 500,000.

Answer: 1. 1200000

Question 76. Which one of the following has remained unchanged for the last many million years?

  1. Rose
  2. Rice
  3. Cockroach
  4. Mosquito

Answer: 3. Cockroach

NEET Biology Test Online

Question 77. A scientist is a person who:

  1. Links patterns or draws relationships among several isolated facts
  2. Determines principles from the observation
  3. Discover general principles
  4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 78. Charles Robert Darwin (1809-18821 made some generalisations and set forth the theory of :

  1. Mutation
  2. Survival of fittest
  3. Acquired characters
  4. Natural selection.

Answer: 4. Natural selection.

Question 79. Robert Hooke observed the presence of cellulae in 1665. However actual living cells were observed by :

  1. Theodor schwann (1839)
  2. Louis Pasteur (1862)
  3. A.v. Leeuwenhoek (16701)
  4. M. Schleiden (1838)

Answer: 3. A.v. Leeuwenhoek (16701)

Question 80. Biology cannot be studied in isolation. The knowledge of the electromagnetic theory of physics has been instrumental in devising the:

  1. Compound microscope
  2. Electron microscope
  3. Uv microscope
  4. Dark field microscope.

Answer: 2. Electron microscope

Biology MCQs with answers for NEET Question 81. Which of the following provided the earliest record of scientific approach in biology?

  1. Robert Hooke (1635-1703)
  2. A.v. Leeuwenhoek (1632-1723)
  3. Carl linnaeus (1707-1778)
  4. Adreas vesalius (1514-1564)

Answer: 4. Adreas vesalius (1514-1564)

Question 82. Which of the following discovered linkage and introduced the term genetics?

  1. Walter Sutton
  2. Hugo de Vries
  3. G. Mendel
  4. William Bateson.

Answer: 4. William Bateson.

Question 83. Who won the nobel prize for ’ Green Revolution’?

  1. Stanley cohen
  2. H.g. Khorana
  3. Ian wilmut
  4. Norman ernst borlaug.

Answer: 4. Norman ernst borlaug.

Question 84. Who first used and defined the term “molecular biology”?

  1. W.t. Astbury
  2. Alexander Flemming
  3. Oswald Theodore Avery
  4. Herber boyer.

Answer: 1. W.t. Astbury

Question 85. Which of the following is used as a bioweapon?

  1. HIV
  2. Spores of bacillus anthracis
  3. Virus
  4. Spores of mycobacterium tetani.

Answer: 2. Spores of bacillus anthracis

NEET Biology Test Online

Question 86. Bioinformatics deals with :

  1. Systematic development, application and validation of computational hardware
  2. Systematic development and application of computing system-database searching to make novel observations about biological processes
  3. Information about the assessment of the environment
  4. Production of improved varieties.

Answer: 2. Systematic development and application of computing system-database searching to make novel observations about biological processes

Question 87. Medicine deals with :

  1. Treating diseases with drugs or curative substances
  2. Compounding, preserving and identifying drugs
  3. Knowledge of action of medicines
  4. Treating disability by external physical means.

Answer: 1. Treating diseases with drugs or curative substances

NEET Biology Multiple Choice Questions – Reproductive Health

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NEET Biology Reproductive Health Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Health involves which of the Following?

  1. Orating awareness
  2. Deciding Facilities and support
  3. Finding new techniques
  4. All of these.

Answer: 4. All of these.

Question 2. the number oF organisms in the population is added by :

  1. Immigration
  2. Birth
  3. emigration
  4. Both 1 and 2.

Answer: 4. Both 1 and 2.

Question 3. The most thickly populated country is :

  1. Bangladesh
  2. Australia
  3. U.S.A.
  4. India.

Answer: 1. Bangladesh

Question 4. The main factors of population growth in India are:

  1. More oF birth rate
  2. Less oF death rate
  3. Lack oF education
  4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 5. “Saheli” contraceptive oral pill was developed at:

  1. Department of Biotechnology, New Delhi
  2. CDRi. Lucknow
  3. NEERi, Nagpur
  4. Department of Molecular Biology, Hyderabad.

Answer: 2. CDRI Lucknow

Question 6. The best way to decrease the population of a country is :

  1. To educate people
  2. To have better houses,
  3. To kill people on a large scale
  4. To practise and implement Family planning.

Answer: 4. To practise and implement Family planning.

NEET Biology MCQs

Question 7. The birth control devices not used by women are:

  1. Diaphragm
  2. Oral pill
  3. Condom
  4. Copper.

Answer: 3. Condom

Question 8.  The prenatal technique to determine the genetic disorders in a Foetus is called

  1. Laparoscopy
  2. Amniocentesis
  3. Abstinence
  4. Coitus interruptus.

Answer: 2. Amniocentesis

Question 9. What is correct about a test tube baby?

  1. Fertilization in Female’s genital tract and growth in test tube
  2. The rearing of a prematurely born baby in an incubator
  3. Fertilization outside and gestation inside the mother’s womb
  4. Both Fertilization and development are done outside the Female genital tract.

Answer: 3. Fertilization outside and gestation inside the mother’s womb

Question 10. Amniocentesis is a technique to :

  1. Estimate essential amino acids in the body
  2. Detect chromosomal anomalies in the Foetus
  3. Reverse sex of the Foetus
  4. Correct genetic disorders of the Foetus.

Answer: 4. Correct genetic disorders of the Foetus.

Question 11.  Test tube baby is a technique where :

  1. Zygote is taken From the oviduct cultured and then implanted
  2. Ovum is taken out, then Fertilized and implanted
  3. Sperm and ovum are Fused and the zygote is grown in a test tube
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Ovum is taken out, then Fertilized and implanted

Question 12. Progesterone in the contraceptive pill :

  1. Prevents ovulation
  2. inhibits estrogen
  3. Checks attachment oF zygote to endometrium
  4. All the above.

Answer: 1. Prevents ovulation

NEET Biology MCQs

Question 13. Indian population Forms what percentage of the world population?

  1. About 10%
  2. About 7%
  3. About 20%
  4. About 21%.

Answer: 1. About 10%

Question 14. Infant mortality in India is :

  1. 14/1000
  2. 45/1000
  3. 62/1000
  4. 72/1000.

Answer: 4.72/1000.

Question 15. Infant mortality rale is minimum in :

  1. Sweden
  2. Japan
  3. England
  4. The USA.

Answer: 2. Japan

NEET Biology MCQs

Question 16. On which day, the world population touched 5th billion?

  1. May 2, 1985
  2. July 2, 1986
  3. May 2, 1987
  4. July 2, 1987.

Answer: 4. July 2, 1987.

Question 17. Replacement rate is estimated to be :

  1. 1.8
  2. 2.0
  3. 2.1
  4. 3.5.

Answer: 2.2.0

Reproductive Health NEET Questions Question 18. According to the 200i census, the Indian population was :

  1. 684 million
  2. 844 million
  3. 1027 million
  4. 228 million.

Answer: 3. 1027 million

Question 19.  In India, the First census was conducted in :

  1. 1851
  2. 1872
  3. 1921
  4. 1951.

Answer: 2.1872

Question 20. “theory of Four Humors” was proposed by :

  1. Theophrastus
  2. Aristotle
  3. Alexander
  4. Pluto.

Answer: 1.theophrastus

NEET Biology MCQs

Question 21. The population explosion’ being witnessed is mainly due to :

  1. Better job Facilities
  2. Increase in agricultural production
  3. Better health care
  4. None of these.

Answer: 3. Better health care

Question 22. The higher population in cities is mainly due to the:

  1. More Opportunities for Education
  2. Availability of clean drinking water
  3. Better sanitation
  4. Higher-income resources.

Answer: 4. Higher income resources.

Question 23. Population explosion has occurred in the last:

  1. 500 years
  2. 300 years
  3. 100 years
  4. 50 years.

Answer: 3. 100 years

Question 24. July 2 is observed as :

  1. World population day
  2. No tobacco day
  3. World environment day
  4. World Health Day.

Answer: 1. World Population Day

NEET Biology Questions

Question 25. the First case oF iVF-Et techniques success, was reported by :

  1. Bayliss and Starling Taylor
  2. Robert Steptoe and Gilbert Brown
  3. Louis Joy Brown and Banting Best
  4. Patrick Steptoe and Robert Edwards.

Answer: 4. Patrick Steptoe and Robert Edwards.

Question 26. the loss of Forests, urbanization and increasing pollution due to :

  1. Population explosion
  2. Global warming
  3. Greenhouse Effect
  4. Ozone depletion.

Answer: 1. Population explosion

Question 27. The high increase in human population is due to :

  1. Increase in the average lifespan
  2. Better medical Facilities
  3. Decrease in death rate
  4. All of these.

Answer: 4. All of these.

Question 28. A national level appears to build up a reproductive!)’  healthy Soviets were taken up in our country in:

  1. 1950s
  2. 1960s
  3. 1980s
  4. 1990s

Answer: 1.1950s

Question 29. Emergency contraceptives are collective iF used within :

  1. 72 hrs of coitus
  2. On 72 ins oF ovulation
  3. 72 lu-s oF menstruation
  4. 72 hrs oF implantation

Answer: 1. 72 hrs of coitus

NEET MCQs On Human Reproduction

Question 30. Choose the right one among the statements given below:

  1. lUDs arc is generally inserted by the user herselF
  2. lUDs increase phagocytosis reaction in the uterus
  3. lUDs suppress gametogenesis
  4. lUDs once inserted need not be replaced

Answer: 2.lUDs increase phagocytosis reaction in the uterus

Question 31. The following statements are given regarding MtP. Choose the correct options given below :

1.MtPs are generally advised during the First trimester

2.MtPs are used as a contraceptive method

3.MtPs are always surgical

4.MtPs require the assistance of qualified medical personnel

    1. 2 and 3
    2. 2 and 3
    3. 1 and 4
    4. 1 and 2

Answer: 4.1 and 2

Question 32. From the sexually transmitted diseases mentioned below identify one which does not specifically affect the sex organs

  1. Syphilis
  2. AiDS
  3. Gonorrhea
  4. Genital warts

Answer: 2. AIDS

NEET MCQs On Human Reproduction

Question 33. Condoms are one of the most popular contraceptives for the following reasons:

  1. These are effective barriers To insemination
  2. They do not interfere with the coital act
  3. These help in reducing the risk of STD
  4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 34. Choose the correct statement regarding the ZiFt procedure :

  1. Ova Collected From a Female donor is transferred to the Fallopian tube to Facilitate zygote Formation
  2. A zygote is collected From a Female donor and transferred to the Fallopian tube
  3. A zygote is collected From a Female donor and transferred to the uterus
  4. Ova Collected From a Female donor and transferred to the uterus

Answer: 2. Zygote is collected From a Female donor and transferred to the Fallopian tube

NEET Reproductive Health previous year Questions

Question 35. Diaphragms are contraceptive devices used by the Females. Choose the correct option From the statements given below :

1. They are introduced into the uterus

2 . They are placed to cover the cervical region

3. They act as physical barriers For sperm entry

4. They act as spermicidal agents

    1. 1 and 2,
    2. 1 and 3,
    3. 2and 3,
    4. 3 and 4.

Answer: 3. 2and 3,

NEET Biology Multiple Choice Questions – Biodiversity and Wildlife Conservation

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NEET Biology Biodiversity And Wildlife Conservation Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Forest and wildlife are:

  1. Non-renewable resources
  2. Renewable natural resources
  3. Inexhaustible resources
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Renewable natural resources

Question 2. Which one of the following forests is more diverse?

  1. Coniferous evergreen
  2. Deciduous evergreen
  3. Tropical rain forest
  4. Subtropical rain forest.

Answer: 3. Tropical rainforest

Question 3. Deciduous forests are characteristic of the region having:

  1. Severe winter only
  2. Warm summer only
  3. Less winter and warm summer
  4. Severe winter and warm summer.

Answer: 4. Severe winter and warm summer

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 4. Which one of the following is most effective in controlling floods?

  1. Deforestation
  2. Reforestation
  3. Constructing dams
  4. Digging deep canals.

Answer: 2. Reforestation

NEET Biology previous year MCQs

Question 5. Indian bustard bird is on the verge of extinction due to:

  1. Deforestation
  2. Climate changes
  3. Hunting
  4. All of the above.

Answer: 3. Hunting

Question 6. Tropical evergreen forests are found in India in:

  1. Himachal Pradesh
  2. Madhya Pradesh
  3. Assam
  4. Tamil Nadu.

Answer: 2. Madhya Pradesh

Question 7. Which of the following birds has gained importance as wildlife in recent years?

  1. Pheasants
  2. Egrets
  3. Indian Bustard
  4. Pelican.

Answer: 3. Indian Bustard

Question 8. Corbett National Park, first to be established, is present in:

  1. U.P. and famous for tiger
  2. Rajasthan and famous for Blackbuck
  3. Punjab and home for Antelopes
  4. H.P. and famous for birds.

Answer: 1. U.P. and famous for tiger

Question 9. Which of the following birds in India is on the verge of extinction?

  1. Pink-headed duck
  2. Passenger pigeon
  3. Indian Bustard
  4. Sandpiper.

Answer: 3. Indian Bustard

NEET Biology previous year MCQs

Question 10. What percentage of the total land area is covered by forests in India?

  1. 32%
  2. 21%
  3. 23%
  4. 25%.

Answer: 3. 23%

Question 11. Conifers are the dominant vegetation of:

  1. Tropical zone
  2. Cold temperate region
  3. Polar region
  4. Equatorial region.

Answer: 2. Cold temperate region

Question 12. How many species of plants are threatened with extinction?

  1. 25,000
  2. 20.000
  3. 15,000
  4. 10,000.

Answer: 1. 25,000

Question 13. With reference to the conservation of wildlife, how many ‘Project Tiger’ areas have been selected:

  1. 17
  2. 18
  3. 19
  4. 20.

Answer: 1. 17

Question 14. In which state of India is the Gir Lion sanctuary situated?

  1. Maharashtra
  2. M.P.
  3. Gujrat
  4. Rajasthan.

Answer: 3. Gujrat

NEET Biology previous year MCQs

Question 15. The most effective means of conservation is to:

  1. Remove predators
  2. Preserve habitat
  3. Vaccination against diseases
  4. Census the species during the breeding season.

Answer: 2. Preserve habitat

Question 16. The bird ‘Dodo’ became extinct because of:

  1. Its beautiful feathers
  2. Hunting
  3. Its curved beak
  4. It’s melodious songs.

Answer: 2. Hunting

Question 17. Which is the only home of the yellow-maned Indian Lion?

  1. Corbett National Park
  2. Gir Forest, Gujarat
  3. Sariska Tiger Project
  4. Kanha Forest

Answer: 2. Gir Forest, Gujarat

Question 18. Indian Rhinoceros is the most protected species in National Park:

  1. Corbett
  2. Kaziranga
  3. Bandipur
  4. Gir.

Answer: 2. Kaziranga

Question 19. What for IUCN stands:

  1. International Understanding on Coal and Nuclear Fuel
  2. International Union for Controlling Noosphere
  3. International Union for Conservation of Nature
  4. International Union for Co-operation on Nuclear Weapons.

Answer: 3. International Union for Conservation of Nature

Question 20. Small parks tend to support only:

  1. k-selected species
  2. r-selected species
  3. Climax species
  4. Species with small niches.

Answer: 2. r-selected species

Environmental Science MCQs For NEET

Question 21. The main causes of the extinction of wildlife is:

  1. Air pollution
  2. Water pollution
  3. Industrial gases
  4. Deforestation.

Answer: 4. Deforestation.

Question 22. Deforestation causes:

  1. Diseases
  2. Epidemics
  3. Soil erosion
  4. Rainfall.

Answer: 3. Soil erosion

Question 23. Quinine is obtained from:

  1. Cinchona plant
  2. Bamboo plant
  3. Sandalwood
  4. Rosha grass.

Answer: 1. Cinchona plant

Question 24. Rare species are those:

  1. With small populations in the world
  2. Which are likely to become endangered
  3. Which are in danger of extinction
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. With small populations in the world

Question 25. Biologists celebrate every year 5th June as:

  1. Darwin’s birthday
  2. World Environment day
  3. World Health Organisation day
  4. World Population Day.

Answer: 2. World Environment Day

Question 26. On which date life day is celebrated?

  1. July 15
  2. June 5
  3. August 21
  4. December 16.

Answer: 2. June 5

Environmental Science MCQs For NEET

Question 27. Project Tiger was launched in:

  1. 1972
  2. 1981
  3. 1975
  4. 1961.

Answer: 1. 1972

Question 28. Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve Project is concerned – with the conservation scheme of:

  1. Tamil Nadu
  2. Karnataka
  3. Kerala
  4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 29. Biosphere reserve areas are:

  1. 13
  2. 17
  3. 19
  4. 25.

Answer: 1. 13

Question 30. Wildlife Protection Act was made in:

  1. 1982
  2. 1972
  3. 1988
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. 1972

Question 31. In national parks which of the following are not allowed:

  1. Forestry
  2. Grazing
  3. Cultivation and private ownership
  4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 32. World Forest Day is observed on:

  1. 28th February
  2. 6th October
  3. 21st March
  4. 5th June.

Answer: 3. 21st March

Environmental Science MCQs For NEET

Question 33. The concept of critical habitats is:

  1. Territory of an animal
  2. Breeding, nursing, feeding and resting area
  3. A boundary beyond which an animal will not move
  4. Another name for wildlife sanctuary.

Answer: 2. Breeding, nursing, feeding and resting area

Question 34. The species which are in the immediate danger of extinction are called:

  1. Rare species
  2. Threatened species
  3. Endangered species
  4. All of the above.

Answer: 3. Endangered species

Question 35. The percentage of endangered living species is:

  1. 40
  2. 20
  3. 18
  4. 10.

Answer: 4. 10.

Question 36. Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary is situated at:

  1. Balagaon—Orissa
  2. Nilgiri — Tamil Nadu
  3. Idukki —Kerala
  4. Nainital —U.P.

Answer: 3. Idukki —Kerala

Environmental Science MCQs For NEET

Question 37. Ranthambore National Park is situated in:

  1. Punjab
  2. Rajasthan
  3. Gujarat
  4. Madhya Pradesh.

Answer: 2. Rajasthan

Question 38. Deforestation causes:

  1. Soil erosion
  2. Reduced rainfall
  3. More floods
  4. All of these.

Answer: 4. All of these.

Question 39. Quinine is:

  1. Plant product
  2. Animal product
  3. Synthetic drug
  4. Microbial product.

Answer: 1. Plant product

Question 40. White tigers are conserved in:

  1. Corbett National Park
  2. Kanha National Park—Mandla, Balaghat”
  3. Tandoba National Park, Chandrapur
  4. Bandipur National Park, Mysore

Answer: 1. Corbett National Park

Question 41. Flamingoes in India are preserved at:

  1. Sambar Lake
  2. Lake Mansarovar
  3. Rann of Kutch
  4. Chilka Lake.

Answer: 4. Chilka Lake.

Question 42. Deforestation may reduce the chances of:

  1. Frequent cyclones
  2. Soil erosion
  3. Rainfall
  4. Landslides.

Answer: 3. Rainfall

NEET MCQs On Ecology And Biodiversity

Question 43. Earth summit at Rio-de-Janeiro (Brazil) was related to:

  1. Land survey
  2. Soil fertility
  3. Conservation of genetic resources of animals and plants
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Conservation of genetic resources of animals and plants

Question 44. Cultigens include:

  1. Domestic animals
  2. Wild animals
  3. Cultivated plants
  4. Both (1) and (3).

Answer: 4. Both (1) and (3).

Question 45. If environmental restoration is started right now, resolving the present man-made ecological crisis will take about:

  1. 100 yrs
  2. 200 yrs
  3. 300 yrs
  4. 50 yrs.

Answer: 1. 100 yrs

Question 46. Man disturbs natural food chains by:

  1. Use of fossil fuel
  2. Family planning
  3. Introduction of exotic species
  4. All the above.

Answer: 3. Introduction of exotic species

Question 47. Silent Valley of Kerala is being preserved because it has:

  1. Rare plants and animals
  2. Only natural forest of India
  3. Costly timber plants
  4. Recreational value.

Answer: 1. Rare plants and animals

Question 48. MAB stands for:

  1. Man and Biosphere
  2. Man, Antibiotic and Bacteria
  3. Man and Biotic community
  4. Mayer, Andersand and Bisby.

Answer: 1. Man and Biosphere

NEET MCQs On Ecology And Biodiversity

Question 49. Kaziranga Wildlife Sanctuary is famous for:

  1. Tiger
  2. Rhino
  3. Elephant
  4. Musk deer.

Answer: 2. Rhino

Question 50. The ‘threatened species ’ refers to the species which are:

  1. Endangered
  2. Rare
  3. Vulnerable
  4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 51. The number of vertebrate species facing danger of extinction is about:

  1. 10
  2. 100
  3. 1000
  4. 10,000.

Answer: 3. 1000

Question 52. The concept of “Biosphere Reserve” was conceived by:

  1. ZSI
  2. BSI
  3. UNESCO
  4. Govt, of India.

Answer: 3. UNESCO

Question 53. Which of the following animals has become almost extinct in India?

  1. Wolf
  2. Rhinoceros
  3. Cheetah
  4. Hippopotamus.

Answer: 3. Cheetah

NEET MCQs On Ecology And Biodiversity

Question 54. Whales when washed ashore will die because:

  1. Their body temp will increase
  2. They cannot respire
  3. Their skin will crack
  4. Their bones will be crushed because of the weight of the body.

Answer: 4. Their bones will be crushed because of the weight of the body

Question 55. The famous Chipko movement was started by:

  1. Bahuguna
  2. Rajiv Gandhi
  3. Menaka Gandhi
  4. Salim Ali.

Answer: 1. Bahuguna

Question 56. When was MAB launched by UNESCO?

  1. 1971
  2. 1975
  3. 1981
  4. 1972.

Answer: 1. 1971

Question 57. A species in immediate danger of extinction is:

  1. Endangered
  2. Vulnerable
  3. Rare
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Endangered

Question 58. Identify the correct match between tiger reserve and its state:

  1. Corbett- Madhya Pradesh
  2. Planau- Orissa
  3. Manas -Assam
  4. Bandipur – Tamil Nadu.

Answer 2. Planau- Orissa

Question 59. The First National Park of India is:

  1. Kanha N.P.
  2. Periyar N.P.
  3. Corbett N.P.
  4. Bandipur N.P

Answer: 3. Corbett N.P.

NEET MCQs On Ecology And Biodiversity

Question 60. Which of the following is a matching pair of sanctuary and its main protected animals?

  1. North Eastern Himalayan Region – Samba
  2. Sunderban – Rhino
  3. Gir-Lion
  4. Kaziranga – Musk Deer.

Answer: 3. Gir-Lion

Question 61. About what species of earth’s species will be destroyed if all the tropical rainforests are destroyed?

  1. 10
  2. 20
  3. 50
  4. 90.

Answer: 3. 50

Question 62. Species most vulnerable to extinction from human activities are those with:

  1. Low carrying capacity
  2. High population growth rates
  3. Large niches
  4. Many natural predators.

Answer: 1. Low carrying capacity

Question 63. Which of the following types of animals does man chiefly protect?

  1. Feeble animals
  2. Harmless animals
  3. Useful animals
  4. Animals are likely to perish.

Answer: 4. Animals likely to perish.

Question 64. The red panda is preserved at:

  1. Dachigam National Park (JK)
  2. Sasan Gir N.P. (Gujarat)
  3. Kangchcnd Zong N.P, (Sikkim)
  4. Sintlipal N.P.(Orissa).

Answer: 3. Kangchcnd Zong N.P, (Sikkim)

Question 65. “Chipko Movement” is the world’s most known eco-development programme started by Sunder Lai Bahuguna (1973). It is related to:

  1. Conservation of Forests
  2. Afforestation
  3. Planting
  4. Population.

Answer: 1. Conservation of Forests

Question 66. Which is correct for threatened (T) species:

  1. It is a species to be conserved to avoid its becoming rare, endangered or vulnerable species
  2. It is an endangered species like the Rhino; and Asiatic Lion which is in danger of extinction
  3. It is a vulnerable species like musk deer, or black buck which is likely to move into the endangered category in the near future
  4. It is a rare species like wild Asiatic Ass with a small population in certain geographical areas.

Answer: 1. It is a species to be conserved to avoid its becoming rare, endangered or vulnerable species

Wildlife Conservation Quiz Questions

Question 67. Vulnerable (V) species are those:

  1. Which live in the national park
  2. Which are wild
  3. Which require conservation
  4. Which are likely to be in danger of extinction in the near future.

Answer: 4. Which are likely to be in danger of extinction in the near future?

Question 68. Rare (R) species:

  1. Those who are in danger of extinction
  2. Those with small populations in certain geographical areas
  3. Those which are found in the silent valley of Kerala
  4. Those which are likely to be endangered.

Answer: 2. Those with small population in certain geographical areas

Biodiversity and Conservation NEET  Question 69. A biosphere reserve preserves:

  1. Genetic resources of organisms
  2. Traditional lifestyles of tribals
  3. Wild population
  4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 70. Animals and plants can be best protected in:

  1. Sanctuaries
  2. Zoos
  3. National Parks
  4. Botanical gardens.

Answer: 3. National Parks

Question 71. Conservation of wildlife is essential to:

  1. Protect ecosystem
  2. Safeguard the environment of the earth
  3. Protect threatened wildlife
  4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 72. The symbol of WWF-N is:

  1. Tiger
  2. Rhododendron
  3. White Bear
  4. Red Panda.

Answer: 4. Red Panda.

Question 73. Threatened species often include:

  1. Endangered species
  2. Vulnerable species
  3. Rare species
  4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 74. Species which occur in small populations and are restricted to only certain geographical areas are placed under the category:

  1. Endangered species
  2. Vulnerable species
  3. Rare species
  4. All of these.

Answer: 3. Rare species

Wildlife Conservation Quiz Questions

Question 75. Conservation of living resources is a complex operation and is concerned with:

  1. Plants and animals
  2. All living organisms and non-living elements of the environment on which they depend
  3. Protection of wildlife and the forests in which these inhabit
  4. Plants, animals and microbes.

Answer: 2. All living organisms and non-living elements of the environment on which they depend

NEET Questions Biodiversity Question 76. Which one of the following would be more appropriate for producing high-yielding varieties?

  1. More application of fertilizers, irrigation and use of pesticides
  2. Breeding with wild varieties of organisms with genetic potentiality to respond to improved inputs
  3. Development of disease-resistant varieties of plants
  4. Selection of wild organisms and their subsequent preservation.

Answer: 2. Breeding with wild varieties of organisms with genetic potentiality to respond to improved inputs

Question 77. Had Cinchona been eliminated before its use was discovered, man would have been deprived of:

  1. Use of its bark as dalchini
  2. Tejpat used as a spice
  3. Antimalarial drug
  4. Valuable timber.

Answer: 3. Antimalarial drug

Question 78. Kanha Biosphere Reserve is to be established in:

  1. UP
  2. MP
  3. Meghalaya
  4. Orissa.

Answer: 2. MP

Question 79. Cold deserts of India occur in

  1. Rann of Kutch and Gujarat
  2. Thar
  3. N.E. States
  4. Lahul Spiti and Ladakh.

Answer: 4. Lahul Spiti and Ladakh.

Question 80. In wildlife sanctuary:

  1. Harvesting of trees for timber and forest products is permitted
  2. Only wild fauna are protected
  3. Private ownership is allowed
  4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above

Question 81. A number of Biosphere reserves in the world is:

  1. 143
  2. 243
  3. 75
  4. 374.

Answer: 2. 243

Question 82. Marine invertebrates are protected in:

  1. Gulf of Mannar
  2. Gulf of Cambay
  3. Bay of Bengal
  4. All of the above.

Answer: 1. Gulf of Mannar

Wildlife Conservation Quiz Questions

Question 83. What is common to Lantana, Eichhomia and African catfish?

  1. All are endangered species of India
  2. All are keystone species
  3. All arc mammals found in India
  4. All the species are neither threatened nor indigenous species of India.

Answer: 4. All the species are neither threatened nor indigenous species of India.

Question 84. The extinction of passenger pigeons was due to:

  1. Increased number of predatory birds.
  2. Over-exploitation by humans
  3. Non-availability of the food
  4. Bird flue vims infection

Answer: 2. Over-exploitation by humans

Question 85. Which of the following statements is correct?

  1. Parthenium is an endemic species of our country
  2. African catfish is not a threat to indigenous catfishes
  3. Steller’s sea cow is an extinct animal
  4. Lantana is popularly known as carrot grass.

Answer: 2. African catfish is not a threat to indigenous catfishes

Question 86. Among the ecosystems mentioned below, where can one find maximum biodiversity?

  1. Mangroves
  2. Desert
  3. Coral reefs
  4. Alpine Meadows

Answer: 3. Coral reefs

Biodiversity and Conservation MCQ Question 87. Which of the following forests is known as the ‘lungs of the planet Earth’?

  1. Tiaga forest
  2. Tundra forest
  3. Amazon rain forest
  4. Rain forests of North East India

Answer: 3. Amazon rainforest

Question 88. The active chemical drug reserpine is obtained from:

  1. Datura
  2. Rauwolfia
  3. Atropa
  4. Papaver

Answer: 2. Rauwolfia

Question 89. Which of the following groups of plants exhibit more species diversity?

  1. Angiosperms
  2. Algae
  3. Bryophytes
  4. Fungi

Answer: 4. Fungi

Question 90. Which of the below-mentioned regions exhibit less seasonal variations?

  1. Tropics
  2. Temperates
  3. Alpines
  4. Both (1) and (2).

Answer: 1. Tropics

Question 91. The historic convention on Biological Diversity held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992 is known as:

  1. CITES Convention
  2. The Earth Summit
  3. G-16 Summit
  4. MAB Programme

Answer: 2. The Earth Summit

Question 92. What is common to the techniques

  1. In-vitro fertilisation,
  2. Cryopreservation and
  3. Tissue culture?
  1. All are in situ conservation methods.
  2. All are ex-situ conservation methods
  3. All require ultra modem equipment and large space
  4. All are methods of conservation of extinct organisms

Answer: 2. All are ex-situ conservation methods

Question 93. Select the incorrect statement.

  1. Species diversity increases as we move away from the equator towards the poles.
  2. Stellar’s sea cow and passenger pigeon became extinct due to over-exploitation by man.
  3. Lantana and Eicltlwmia are invasive weed species in India.
  4. Among animals, insects are the most species-rich taxonomic group.

Answer: 1. Species diversity increases as we move away from the equator towards the poles.

NEET Biology Multiple Choice Questions – Environmental Issues

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NEET Biology Environment Pollution And Global Environment Issues Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Excess nitrates in the field get mixed up with drinking water. It may result in:

  1. Killing of intestinal bacteria
  2. Upsetting enzyme production
  3. Converting nitrates into nitrites harms haemoglobin leading to anaemia
  4. Producing more amino acids.

Answer: 3. Converting nitrates into nitrites harms haemoglobin leading to anaemia

Question 2. Global warming can be controlled by:

  1. Reducing reforestation, increasing the use of fossil fuel.
  2. Increasing deforestation, slowing down the growth of the human population
  3. Increasing deforestation, reducing the efficiency of energy usage
  4. Reducing deforestation, cutting down the use of fossil fuel.

Answer: 4. Reducing deforestation, cutting down the use of fossil fuel.

Question 3. The Air Prevention and Control of Pollution Act came into force in:

  1. 1981
  2. 1985
  3. 1990
  4. 1975

Answer: 1. 1981

Question 4. Water pollution can be stopped best by:

  1. Treating effluents to remove injurious chemicals
  2. Rearing more fishes
  3. Cultivating useful water plants
  4. Spraying with DDT.

Answer: 1. Treating effluents to remove injurious chemicals

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 5. Organic waste products:

  1. Should be buried deep in the soil
  2. Can be used for the production of energy
  3. Should be treated with chemicals to prevent the breeding of organisms
  4. Should be dumped into the sea

Answer: 2. Can be used for the production of energy

NEET Biology MCQs

Question 6. Noise pollution causes:

  1. Deafness
  2. Increase in B.P.
  3. Heart trouble
  4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 7. During the combustion of fuels, gases released are :

  1. CO2 and CO
  2. CO2 and CO2 and SO2
  3. CO2, CO, SO2 and H2O
  4. CO2, CO, H2S and SO2

Answer: 3. CO2, CO, SO2 and H2O

Question 8. The environmental pollutant that can cause birth defects is:

  1. SO2
  2. CO
  3. Smog
  4. Radioactivity.

Answer: 4. Radioactivity.

Question 9. As a general rule, ionizing radiation is most damaging to:

  1. Mature, stable cells
  2. Actively dividing cells
  3. Highly specialized cells
  4. Cells in which food is stored.

Answer: 2. Actively dividing cells

NEET Biology MCQs

Question 10. It is said that Taj may be destroyed due to:

  1. Flood in Yamuna River
  2. The decomposition of marble as a result of high-temperature
  3. Air pollutants released from the oil refinery of Mathura
  4. All of the above.

Answer: 3. Air pollutants released from the oil refinery of Mathura

Question 11. Which of the following is normally not an atmospheric pollutant?

  1. Hydrocarbon
  2. CO2
  3. CO
  4. SO2

Answer: 2. CO2

Question 12. The presence of ozone in the atmosphere of Earth:

  1. Hinders a higher rate of photosynthesis
  2. Has been responsible for increasing the average global temperature in the recent past
  3. Helps in checking the ultraviolet rays to reach earth
  4. Is advantageous since it supplies oxygen for people travelling in jets.

Answer: 3. Helps in checking the ultraviolet rays to reach earth

Question 13. What will happen if our water resources continue to be polluted by industrial wastes?

  1. Sufficient food will not be available to water organisms
  2. Sufficient O2 will not be available to water organisms
  3. B.O.D. value of water will decrease
  4. Drinking water will not be available.

Answer: 2. Sufficient O2 will not be available to water organisms

NEET Biology MCQs

Question 14. In Bhopal gas tragedy, the gas released was:

  1. Methyl isocyanate
  2. Ethyl isocyanate
  3. Sodium isocyanate
  4. Potassium isocyanate.

Answer: 1. Methyl isocyanate

Question 15. Aerosols are:

  1. Chemicals released in the air in the form of mist or vapour with force
  2. Gases released from the exhaust pump
  3. A mixture of carbon particles and mist
  4. Soluble effluents are released in water.

Answer: 1. Chemicals released in the air in the form of mist or vapour with force

Question 16. The component of living cells affected by pollutant SO2 is:

  1. Nucleus
  2. All cell membrane system
  3. Cell wall
  4. Membrane system.

Answer: 2. All cell membrane system

Question 17. The ‘Love Canal Incidence’ is concerned with:

  1. Chemical plant accident
  2. River pollution
  3. Toxic waste dump
  4. Man-made bacteria.

Answer: 3. Toxic waste dump

NEET Biology MCQs

Question 18. The “solution to pollution is dilution.” This can be best correlated to

  1. Air pollution
  2. Water pollution
  3. Noise pollution
  4. Satiation pollution.

Answer: 2. Water pollution

Question 19. Which of the following pollutants is not produced by the exhaust of motor vehicles?

  1. CO
  2. Hydrocarbon
  3. Flyash
  4. SO2

Answer: 3. Flyash

Question 20. Minamata disease is a pollution-related disease which results from:

  1. Release of industrial waste mercury into fishing water
  2. Oil spills into the sea
  3. Accumulation of arsenic in the atmosphere
  4. Release of human organic wastes into drinking water.

Answer: 1. Release of industrial waste mercury into fishing water

Question 21. The most outstanding danger at present for the survival of living beings on the earth is:

  1. Radiation hazard
  2. Automobiles
  3. Industrial effluents
  4. Detergents

Answer: 1. Radiation hazard

Question 22. What does the term ‘overkill’ deal with?

  1. Pesticide poisoning
  2. Soil erosion
  3. Nuclear holocaust
  4. Global warming.

Answer: 3. Nuclear holocaust

Question 23. Radiation is a health hazard because it causes:

  1. Haemophilia
  2. Leukaemia
  3. Pneumonia
  4. Polio.

Answer: 2. Leukaemia

Ecology And Environment NEET MCQs

Question 24. In which industry, do workers suffer from Byssinosis?

  1. Cardboard
  2. Textile
  3. Plastic
  4. Paper.

Answer: 2. Textile

Question 25. Spraying of DDT on crops produces pollution of:

  1. Air only
  2. Air and soil
  3. Air, soil and water
  4. Air and water.

Answer: 3. Air, soil and water

Question 26. The most widely existing pollutants in the air are:

  1. CO
  2. CO2
  3. SO2
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. CO

Question 27. If water pollution continues at its present rate, it will eventually:

  1. Stop the water cycle
  2. Prevent precipitation
  3. Make oxygen molecules unavailable to aquatic life
  4. Make nitrates unavailable to aquatic life.

Answer: 3. Make oxygen molecules unavailable to aquatic life

Question 28. Which of the following air pollutants is the chief cause of acid rain?

  1. H2S
  2. CO
  3. SO2
  4. CO2

Answer: 3. SO2

Ecology And Environment NEET MCQs

Question 29. Which part of the human body is first to be affected by nuclear radiation?

  1. Bone marrow
  2. Liver
  3. Lungs
  4. Ear.

Answer: 1. Bone marrow

Question 30. Opuntia was a menace a few decades back in India. It was almost eradicated by:

  1. Spraying DDT
  2. Using tractors
  3. Cochineal insect introduction
  4. Using 2, 4-D.

Answer: 3. Cochineal insect introduction

Question 31. Photochemical smog is caused by the formation of

  1. Aluminium ions
  2. Methane
  3. Sulphur
  4. Free radicals of oxygen.

Answer: 4. Free radicals of oxygen.

Question 32. Where did the epidemic bone softening disease ‘Itai Itai’ occur first?

  1. Myanmar
  2. Japan
  3. South Korea
  4. U.S.A.

Answer: 2. Japan

Question 33. Non-biodegradable toxic pollutants, as they pass through food webs, undergo biological:

  1. Oxidation
  2. Reduction
  3. Magnification
  4. Hydrate.

Answer: 3. Magnification

Ecology And Environment NEET MCQs

Question 34. WHO’s recommendations about the industrial noise limit is:

  1. 105 dB
  2. 75 dB
  3. 135 dB
  4. 165 dB.

Answer: 2. 75 dB

Question 35. Contamination with radioactivity is dangerous because it causes:

  1. Biological magnification
  2. Gene mutation
  3. Photochemical smog
  4. Ozone destruction.

Answer: 2. Gene mutation

Question 36. A pollutant is any substance, chemical or other factor, that changes:

  1. Natural geochemical cycles
  2. The natural balance of our environment
  3. The natural flora of our environment
  4. The natural wildlife of our region.

Answer: 2. The natural balance of our environment

Question 37. The molecular action of ultraviolet light is mainly reflected through:

  1. Photodynamic action
  2. Destruction of hydrogen bonds between DNA strands
  3. Formation of pyrimidine
  4. Destruction of ester bonds.

Answer: 2. Destruction of hydrogen bonds between DNA strands

Question 38. In big cities, automobiles are responsible for air pollution:

  1. 50%
  2. 70%
  3. 80%
  4. 100%.

Answer: 3. 80%

Question 39. An important source of aerosol in the upper atmosphere is:

  1. Sea
  2. Air
  3. Jet aeroplane emission
  4. Soil.

Answer: 3. Jet aeroplane emission

Ecology And Environment NEET MCQs

Question 40. Enriched air, if inhaled for a long time, causes:

  1. Allergy
  2. Bronchitis
  3. Disturbance of psychomotor function
  4. Diarrhoea.

Answer: 3. Disturbance of psychomotor function

Question 41. In a small town, pasture is contaminated with airborne fluorides. Grazing animals in that area will suffer from:

  1. Goitre disease
  2. Thyroid disease
  3. Dental disease
  4. Beri-beri.

Answer: 3. Dental disease

Question 42. Strengthening of the concept of environmental monitoring is due to concern for the:

  1. Quality of environment
  2. Quantity of environment
  3. Quality of monitor
  4. Pure air.

Answer: 1. Quality of environment

Question 43. Mudball technique has been proposed by:

  1. Rice Research Institute, Cuttack
  2. CSIR, New Delhi
  3. Punjab Agriculture University, Ludhiana
  4. The International Rice Research Institute in the Philippines.

Answer: 4. The International Rice Research Institute in the Philippines.

Question 44. Biomagnification is a process of:

  1. Magnification of animals
  2. Enlargement of aquatic animals
  3. The concentration of dangerous chemicals in the body of members of the food web
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Concentration of dangerous chemicals into the body of members of the food web

Question 45. Environmental monitoring helps in all except in:

  1. Identifying pollution problem
  2. Prescribing environmental quality standards
  3. Predicting pollution abatement strategies
  4. Planning pollution abatement strategies.

Answer: 3. Predicting pollution abatement strategies

NEET Biology previous year MCQs

Question 46. Automobiles discharge hydrocarbons and nitrous oxide into the atmosphere which is further converted to:

  1. Carbon monoxide
  2. Ozone and other pollutants
  3. Radioactive substance
  4. Hydrochloric acid and nitrogen dioxide.

Answer: 4. Hydrochloric acid and nitrogen dioxide.

Question 47. In Kolkata, adults are suffering from bronchitis TB. it is due to:

  1. Impure water
  2. Adulterated food
  3. Polluted air
  4. Polluted soil.

Answer: 3. Polluted soil.

Question 48. Air pollution is highest in:

  1. Kolkata
  2. Lucknow
  3. Panchmarhi
  4. Bhopal.

Answer: 1. Kolkata

Question 49. Nowadays DDT is not effective in killing mosquitoes because:

  1. The mosquito population has become strong
  2. DDT is adulterated
  3. DDT has selection pressure on the genetic variability
  4. Mosquitoes have developed adaptive resistance to pesticides.

Answer: 4. Mosquitoes have developed adaptive resistance to pesticides.

Question 50. The population of hawks and eagles is declining because:

  1. Of food scarcity
  2. Of game lovers
  3. Excessive use of poisoned pesticides
  4. Very few dead animals are found in the fields.

Answer: 3. Of excessive use of poisoned pesticides

Question 51. Certain epiphytic lichens indicate changing levels of atmospheric pollution, especially of:

  1. SO2
  2. CO2
  3. NO2
  4. SO3

Answer: 1. SO2

NEET Biology previous year MCQs

Question 52. The ozone layer is chiefly disturbed by:

  1. A large number of automobiles
  2. A large number of factories
  3. Supersonic jets
  4. Chimney exhausts.

Answer: 3. Supersonic jets

Question 53. Carbon monoxide is a very harmful pollutant because it:

  1. Inactivates nerves
  2. Combines with oxygen
  3. Forms a stable compound with haemoglobin
  4. Inhibits Krebs’ cycle.

Answer: 3. Forms a stable compound with haemoglobin

Question 54. B.O.D. of a river was found to be very low, which means water:

  1. Was clean
  2. Was polluted
  3. Contains algae
  4. Contains other dissolved minerals.

Answer: 1. Was clean

Question 55. SO2 pollution can be controlled by all the methods except by:

  1. Removing sulphur after combustion
  2. Precombustion desulphurisation
  3. Electricity
  4. Photochemical oxidants.

Answer: 3. Electricity

Question 56. Nuclear power generates:

  1. Photochemical pollution
  2. SO2 pollution
  3. Air pollution
  4. Thermal pollution.

Answer: 4. Thermal pollution.

Question 57. Many organic substances or organisms help in clearing the water when found in

  1. High concentration
  2. Low concentration
  3. Moderate concentration
  4. Neutral concentration.

Answer: 2. Low concentration

Question 58. When pollution load is higher in the lakes it cannot take place self-purification because:

  1. There is no O2 to sustain microbial activity
  2. No sunlight is present
  3. Microbes die
  4. Pollutants settle down automatically.

Answer: 3. Microbes die

NEET Biology previous year MCQs

Question 59. The level of tolerance of DDT is 10 ppm in the case of Daphnia, therefore Dciphnia:

  1. Can live up to this concentration
  2. Will die if the concentration is lower than this
  3. Can tolerate ten times more concentration of DDT than 10² ppm.
  4. Cannot tolerate DDT at all.

Answer: 1. Can live up to this concentration

Question 60. A better method of pest control is:

  1. The use of chemical pesticide
  2. The use of radioactive substance
  3. By using pesticides taking into account the number and composition of pest population
  4. Use of steam.

Answer: 4. Use of steam.

Question 61. The pollutants emitted by jet aeroplanes in the outer atmosphere as fluorocarbons are known as:

  1. Photochemical oxidants
  2. Aerosols
  3. Loess
  4. Smog.

Answer: 2. Aerosols

Question 62. The chemical which causes damage to WBC, bone marrow, spleen, lymph, nodes and lungs is:

  1. Iodine-131
  2. Calcium
  3. Strontium-90
  4. Iodine-127.

Answer: 1. Iodine-131

Question 63. Name the chemicals which cause bone cancer and tissue degeneration:

  1. Iodine-131
  2. Strontium-90
  3. Iodine-127
  4. Calcium.

Answer: 2. Strontium-90

Question 64. The nuclear explosion causes mainly:

  1. Noise pollution
  2. Soil pollution
  3. Water pollution
  4. Air pollution.

Answer: 4. Air pollution.

NEET MCQs On Climate Change

Question 65. UV radiation to disinfect polluted water is not generally recommended because:

  1. It has no residual germicidal effect
  2. It is not effective against most micro-organisms
  3. The colour and turbidity of water reduce its disinfection potential
  4. Both (1) and (3).

Answer: 2. It is not effective against most micro-organisms

Question 66. UV radiations from sunlight cause the reaction that produces:

  1. CO
  2. SO2
  3. Ozone
  4. NO2

Answer: 3. Ozone

Question 67. What was the cause of the “Yusho” disease which occurred in 1968 from a leak in a canning factory?

  1. DBCP
  2. PCB
  3. Formaldehyde
  4. Mercury.

Answer: 2. PCB

Question 68. Which of the following is the main factor of water pollution?

  1. Smoke
  2. Industrial waste
  3. Ammonia
  4. Detergents.

Answer: 2. Industrial waste

Question 69. Activated sludge is associated with the management of waste and it is a kind of:

  1. Chemical treatment
  2. Mechanical means
  3. Biological treatment
  4. Nuclear means.

Answer: 2. Mechanical means

Question 70. Which of the following is the largest source of formaldehyde vapour pollution in a room?

  1. Utensil
  2. Furniture
  3. Cooking Range
  4. Book.

Answer: 2. Furniture

NEET MCQs On Climate Change

Question 71. The term ‘nuclear winter’ is associated with:

  1. Nuclear war
  2. Nuclear disarmament
  3. Nuclear weapon testing
  4. Aftermath of a nuclear holocaust.

Answer: 4. Aftermath of a nuclear holocaust.

Question 72. The ozone layer in the upper atmosphere is destroyed by

  1. HCl
  2. Photochemical smog
  3. SO2
  4. Chlorofiuoro carbons.

Answer: 4. Chlorofiuoro carbons.

Question 73. The most dangerous radioactive air pollutant is:

  1. Slrontium-90
  2. P-32
  3. S-35
  4. Ca-40.

Answer: 1. Slrontium-90

Question 74. Acid rain is caused by:

  1. SO2
  2. SO2 and NO2
  3. CO2
  4. O2

Answer: 2. SO2 and NO2

Question 75. Which of the following is a qualitative pollutant:

  1. CO2
  2. Insecticide
  3. Plastic
  4. Both (2) and (3).

Answer: 3. Plastic

NEET MCQs On Climate Change

Question 76. DDT is a/an:

  1. Antibiotic
  2. Biodegradable pollutant
  3. Non-biodegradable pollutant
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Non-biodegradable pollutant

Question 77. The decomposition of domestic wastes under natural processes is known as:

  1. Industrial pollution
  2. Thermal pollution
  3. Biodegradable process
  4. Non-biodegradable process.

Answer: 3. Biodegradable process

Question 78. Which of the following causes fibrosis in the lungs?

  1. Lead
  2. CFCs
  3. Asbestos
  4. DDT.

Answer: 3. Asbestos

NEET MCQs On Climate Change

Question 79. Which of the following is a secondary pollutant?

  1. CCl2F2
  2. DDT
  3. (C2H5)4 Pb
  4. PAN.

Answer: 4. PAN

Environmental Issues MCQ NEET Question 80. The air pollution at the source can be controlled by:

  1. Separating the pollutants from harmless gases
  2. Converting the pollutants to innocuous products before their release in the air
  3. Both of them
  4. None of these.

Answer: 3. Both of them

Question 81. Biochemical oxygen demand means:

  1. Amount of oxygen taken up by the micro-organisms present in water
  2. Amount of oxygen released by the micro-organisms present in the water
  3. Amount of nutrients taken up by the micro-organisms present in the water
  4. None of these.

Answer: 1. Amount of oxygen taken up by the micro-organisms present in water

Question 82. Hot water contains dissolved oxygen and then the BOD:

  1. Decreases
  2. Increases
  3. Stabilises
  4. None of these.

Answer: 1. Decreases

Question 83. The gas which is produced in rice paddy and is associated with global warming is:

  1. CH4
  2. Cl
  3. CO2
  4. H2S.

Answer: 1. CH4

Question 84. The newspaper contains one of the following toxic materials. It is:

  1. Cd
  2. Pb
  3. Mg
  4. Hg.

Answer: 2. Pb

Question 85. Which of the following cities has the highest SO2 pollution?

  1. Milan
  2. Seoul
  3. New Delhi
  4. New York.

Answer: 1. Milan

NEET Biology MCQs

Important NEET Questions Biology Question 86. Match the following:

Environmental Pollution And Global Environmental Issues Match The Column Question 85

  1. 1 – (C), 2 – (B), 3 – (D), 4 – (A)
  2. 1 – (B), 2 – (C), 3 – (A), 4 – (D)
  3. 1 – (C), 2 – (D), 3 – (C), 4 – (A)
  4. 1 – (D), 2 – (C), 3 – (A), 4 – (B).

Answer: 1. 1 – (C), 2 – (B), 3 – (D), 4 – (A)

Question 87. The nitrifying bacteria are:

  1. Autotrophic
  2. Holophytic
  3. Parasitic
  4. Chemosynthetic.

Answer: 4. Chemosynthetic.

Question 88. Foul smell in the water of tanks, ponds etc is due to:

  1. Anaerobiosis
  2. Aerobiosis
  3. Biological magnification
  4. Psammophytes.

Answer: 1. Anaerobiosis

NEET Biology MCQs

Question 89. Checking of reradiating heat by atmospheric dust, water vapour, ozone, CO2 etc. is known as:

  1. Greenhouse effect
  2. Radioactive effect
  3. Ozone layer effect
  4. Solar effect.

Answer: 1. Greenhouse effect

Question 90. Photochemical smog is related to the pollution of:

  1. Soil
  2. Water
  3. Noise
  4. Air.

Answer: 4. Air.

Question 91. The most important causative pollutant of soil may be:

  1. Plastics
  2. Iron junks
  3. Detergents
  4. Glass junks.

Answer: 1. Plastics

Question 92. UV radiation from sunlight causes the reaction that produces:

  1. CO
  2. Ozone
  3. Fluorides
  4. SO2

Answer: 2. Ozone

NEET Biology MCQs

Question 93. The greenhouse effect is enhanced in the environment by the gas:

  1. CO2
  2. CO
  3. Fluorocarbon
  4. Methane.

Answer: 1. CO2

Question 94. The most hazardous metal pollutant of automobile exhaust is:

  1. Lead
  2. Copper
  3. Mercury
  4. Cadmium.

Answer: 1. Lead

Question 95. Which substance provides protection from carcinogens?

  1. Aflatoxin
  2. Sterigmatoeytin
  3. Penicillin
  4. Tocopherol.

Answer: 4. Tocopherol.

Question 96. What is the main cause of desertification?

  1. Developmental activities
  2. Tourism
  3. Overgrazing
  4. Irrigated agriculture.

Answer: 1. Developmental activities

Question 97. Taj Mahal is threatened due to the effect of:

  1. Chlorine
  2. Sulphur dioxide
  3. Oxygen
  4. Hydrogen.

Answer: 2. Sulphur dioxide

Question 98. When a huge amount of sewage is dumped into a river, the BOD will:

  1. Increase
  2. Remain unchanged
  3. Slightly decrease
  4. Decrease.

Answer: 1. Increase

Question 99. “Mango necrosis” is due to:

  1. CO2
  2. CO
  3. PAN
  4. SO2

Answer: 4. SO2

Question 100. Minamata disease of Japan which afflicted people with paralysis was traced to:

  1. Algae contaminated with Arsenic
  2. Fish contaminated with Mg
  3. Fruits contaminated with Nickle
  4. Rice contaminated with biofertilizer.

Answer: 2. Fish contaminated with Mg

Question 101. The green scum seen in the freshwater bodies is:

  1. Blue-green algae
  2. Red algae
  3. Green algae
  4. Both (1) and (3).

Answer: 4. Both (1) and (3)

Ecology And Environment NEET MCQs

Question 102. The loudness of a sound that a person can withstand without discomfort is about.

  1. 150 dB.
  2. 215 dB.
  3. 30dB.
  4. 80 dB.

Answer: 4. 80 dB.

Question 103. The major source of noise pollution worldwide is due to:

  1. Office equipment
  2. Transport system
  3. Sugar, textile and paper industries
  4. Oil refineries and thermal power plants.

Answer: 2. Transport system

Question 104. Match correctly the following and choose the correct option.

The correct matches is:

  1. 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B
  2. 1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D
  3. 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C
  4. 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A.

Answer: 1. 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B

Question 105. Catalytic converters are fitted into automobiles to reduce the emission of harmful gases. Catalytic converters change unburnt hydrocarbons into:

  1. Carbon dioxide and water
  2. Carbon mono oxide
  3. Methane
  4. Carbon dioxide and methane.

Answer: 1. Carbon dioxide and water

Question 106. Why is it necessary to remove sulphur from petroleum products?

  1. To reduce the emission of sulphur dioxide in exhaust fumes
  2. To increase the efficiency of automobile engines
  3. To use sulphur removed from petroleum for commercial purposes
  4. To increase the life span of engine silencers.

Answer: 1. To reduce the emission of sulphur dioxide in exhaust fumes

Question 107. Which one of the following impurities is easiest to remove from wastewater?

  1. Bacteria
  2. Colloids
  3. Dissolved solids
  4. Suspended solids.

Answer: 4. Suspended solids.

Environmental Issues MCQ NEET Question 108. Which one of the following diseases is not due to contamination of water?

  1. Hepatitis-B
  2. Jaundice
  3. Cholera
  4. Typhoid.

Answer: 1. Hepatitis-B

Question 109. Nuisance growth of aquatic plants and bloom-forming algae in natural waters is generally due to high concentrations of:

  1. Carbon
  2. Sulphur
  3. Calcium
  4. Phosphorus.

Answer: 4. Phosphorus.

Question 110. Algal blooms impart a distinct colour to water due to:

  1. Their pigments
  2. Excretion of coloured substances
  3. Formation of coloured chemicals in water facilitated by physiological degradation of algae.
  4. Absorption of light by algal cell wall.

Answer: 1. Their pigments

Question 111. Match the items in column A and column B and choose the correct option:

Environmental Pollution And Global Environmental Issues Match The Column Question 111

  1. 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – C
  2. 1 – C, 2 – B, 3 – D, 4 – A
  3. 1 – C, 2 – D, 3 – A, 4 – B
  4. 1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – A.

Answer: 3. 1 – C, 2 – D, 3 – A, 4 – B

Question 112. In the textbook, you came across the Three Mile Island and Chornobyl disasters associated with the accidental leakage of radioactive wastes. In India, we had the Bhopal gas tragedy. It is associated with which of the following?

  1. CO2
  2. Methyl Iso-Cyanate
  3. CFC’s
  4. Methy Cyanate.

Answer: 2. Methyl Iso-Cyanate

Question 113. Match the items of column A with column B and select the correct option.

Environmental Pollution And Global Environmental Issues Match The Column Question 113

  1. 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – A
  2. 1 – C, 2 – B, 3 – A
  3. 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – C
  4. 1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – B

Answer: 4. 1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – B

NEET Biology Multiple Choice Questions – Principles And Processes Of Biotechnology

by

NEET Biology Principles And Process Of Biotechnology Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Clonal cell lines can be obtained by

  1. Autoradiography
  2. Tissue culture
  3. Centrifugation
  4. Cell fractionation.

Answer: 2. Tissue culture

Question 2. Which is the non-invasive technique of genetic counseling?

  1. Amniocentesis
  2. Chorionic biopsy
  3. Fetal blood sampling
  4. Ultrasonography

Answer: 4. Ultrasonography

Question 3. Who among the following discovered the enzyme restriction endonuclease?

  1. Hamilton Othanel Smith
  2. Sir Godfrey Hounsfield
  3. F. Jacob
  4. Andre Lwoff.

Answer: 1. Hamilton Othanel Smith

NEET Biology MCQs

Question 4. The First hormone artificially produced by culturing bacteria is:

  1. Insulin
  2. Thyroxine
  3. Testosterone
  4. Adrenaline

Answer: 1. Insulin

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 5. When the number of genes increases in response to some signal, the effect is called:

  1. Gene dosage
  2. Gene pool
  3. Gene amplification
  4. Gene frequency.

Answer: 3. Gene amplification

Question 6. A number of bacteria with recombinant DNA of the same type form:

  1. Clone library
  2. Gene library
  3. Gene pool
  4. Gene frequency.

Answer: 2. Gene library

Question 7. Restriction enzymes may be used for

  1. Making recombinant DNA
  2. Gene mapping
  3. Diagnosis of genetic diseases
  4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 8. When scientists make an animal superior by view of genotype, introducing some foreign genes in it, the phenomenon is called

  1. Tissue culture
  2. Biotechnology
  3. Genetic engineering
  4. Immunization.

Answer: 3. Genetic engineering

NEET Biology MCQs

Question 9. Many copies of a DNA molecule in a test tube are procured by:

  1. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
  2. Molecular chain reaction (MCR)
  3. Ephemeral chain reaction (ECR)
  4. All of them.

Answer: 1. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

Question 10. Genetic diagnosis by DNA testing

  1. Detects only mutant and normal alleles.
  2. Can be done only on eggs or sperm.
  3. Involves hybridization to ribosomal RNA.
  4. Utilizes restriction enzymes and a polymorphic site.

Answer: 1. Detects only mutant and normal alleles.

Question 11. DNA can be introduced into any cell by

  1. Injection
  2. Being complexed with calcium salts.
  3. Being placed along with the cell into a gene gun.
  4. Gel electrophoresis.

Answer: 2. Being complexed with calcium salts.

Question 12. Bam HI, Eco RI, and Sma H are the types of

  1. Restriction endooxidascs
  2. Restriction endonucleases
  3. Restriction exonucleases
  4. Restriction polymerases.

Answer: 2. Restriction endonucleases

NEET Biology MCQs

Question 13. The collection of bacteria with gDNA is called

  1. DNA clones
  2. DNA library
  3. Genomic DNA library
  4. DNA library.

Answer: 1. DNA clones

Question 14. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

  1. RNA polymerase – RNA primer
  2. Restriction enzymes-Genetic Engineering
  3. Central Dogma – codon
  4. Okazaki fragments-splicing.

Answer: 2. Restriction enzymes-Genetic Engineering

Question 15. Which one of the following scientists developed the process of DNA fingerprinting?

  1. Kary B. Mullis
  2. T.H. Morgan
  3. H.O. Smith
  4. Alec Jeffreys

Answer: 4. Alec Jeffreys

Question 16. DNA fingerprinting method is very useful for

  1. DNA tests for identity and relationships
  2. Forensic studies
  3. Polymorphism
  4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 17. In DNA fingerprinting

  1. A positive identification can be made
  2. Multiple restriction enzymes digest/generate unique fragments
  3. The polymerase chain reaction amplifies fewer DNA
  4. The variability of repeated sequences between two restriction sites is evaluated.

Answer: 4. The variability of repeated sequences between two restriction sites is evaluated

Question 18. In Northern blotting, RNAs are separated by gel electrophoresis and the RNA bands are transferred onto a membrane of

  1. Diazobenzyl oximetry
  2. Diazobenzene
  3. Diazobromine
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Diazobenzyl oximetry

NEET Biology MCQs

Question 19. In Southern blotting is separated by gel electrophoresis

  1. DNA
  2. m-RNA
  3. t-RNA
  4. Protein.

Answer: 1. DNA

Question 20. Protein engineering is used to study the proteins to compare the catalytic properties of

  1. Normal and mutated form of the enzyme
  2. The normal form of the enzyme
  3. A mutated form of the enzyme
  4. Normal and mutated forms of proteins.

Answer: 1. Normal and mutated form of enzyme

Question 21. Transgenic animals are produced by injecting foreign genes into the

  1. Egg
  2. Nucleus of unfertilized egg
  3. Nucleus of fertilized egg
  4. Nucleus of sperm.

Answer: 3. Nucleus of fertilized egg

Question 22. Western blotting technique was developed by:

  1. Alwin
  2. Edwin
  3. Towbin
  4. Thomas.

Answer: 3. Towbin

Biotechnology MCQs For NEET

Question 23. The process used for separation of protein in polyacrylamide gel is called:

  1. Southern blotting
  2. Northern blotting
  3. Western blotting
  4. Eastern blotting.

Answer: 3. Western blotting

Question 24. What is C-DNA?

  1. Circular DNA
  2. Cloned DNA
  3. DNA produced from reverse transcription of RNA
  4. Cytoplasmic DNA.

Answer: 2. Cloned DNA

Question 25. Which of the following organelles is associated with genetic engineering?

  1. Plastids
  2. Plasmids
  3. Chloroplast
  4. Mitochondria.

Answer: 2. Plasmids

Question 26. The minimum length of cistron in base pairs which synthesizes a polypeptide of 50 amino acids is:

  1. 50 bp
  2. 100 bp
  3. 150 bp
  4. 200 bp

Answer: 3. 150 bp

NEET MCQs On Biotechnology

Question 27. The recent techniques used for separating fragments of DNA is

  1. Northern blotting
  2. Southern blotting
  3. Eastern blotting
  4. Western blotting

Answer: 2. Southern blotting

Question 28. Plasmids are autonomously replicating mini chromosomes found in

  1. Bacteriophage lambda
  2. Leishmania Donovan
  3. Escherichia coli
  4. Paramecium caudatum.

Answer: 3. Escherichia coli

Question 29. Genetic engineering is possible because:

  1. The phenomenon of transduction in bacteria is well-understood
  2. We can see DNA by electron microscope
  3. We can cut DNA at specific sites by endonucleases like DNA asel
  4. Restriction endonucleases purified from bacteria can be used in vitro.

Answer: 4. Restriction endonucleases purified from bacteria can be used in vitro.

Question 30. Restriction endonucleases are

  1. Present in mammalian cells for degradation of DNA when the cell dies
  2. Synthesized by bacteria as part of their defense mechanism
  3. Used for in vitro DNA synthesis
  4. Both (2) and (3).

Answer: 4. Both (2) and (3).

Question 31. In bacteria, genes for antibiotic resistance are usually located in

  1. Chromosomal DNA
  2. Cytoplasm
  3. Mitochondria
  4. Plasmids.

Answer: 4. Plasmids.

NEET MCQs On Biotechnology

Question  32. Which one of the following is related to genetic engineering?

  1. Plasmids
  2. Mitochondria
  3. Mutations
  4. Ribosome

Answer: 1. Plasmids

Question 33. Improvement of the genotype of an organism by the addition of some foreign genes is

  1. Genetic diversity
  2. Gene handling
  3. Tissue culture
  4. Genetic engineering.

Answer: 4. Genetic diversity

Question 34. Two bacteria found to be very useful in genetic engineering experiments are

  1. Nitrosomonas and Klebsiella
  2. Escherichia and Agrobacterium
  3. Nitrobacter and Azotobacter
  4. Rhizobium and Diplococcus.

Answer: 2. Escherichia and Agrobacterium

Question 35. The term hybridoma implies:

  1. DNA-RNA hybrid
  2. Recombination of DNA molecules
  3. Somatic hybridisation
  4. Gametic fusion.

Answer: 3. Somatic hybridization

Question 36. Restriction enzymes are isolated chiefly from

  1. Algae
  2. Fungi
  3. Protozoans
  4. Prokaryotes

Answer: 4. Prokaryotes

Question 37. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

  1. Cosmid contains gene coding for viral protein
  2. Cosmid replicates like plasmids
  3. Cosmid has antibiotic antibiotic-resistant marker gene
  4. Cos site has 12 bases helping to join the complete genome to make it circular.

Answer: 1. Cosmid contains gene coding for viral protein

NEET MCQs On Biotechnology

Question 38. Harris and J.F. Watkins in 1965 first time reported the fusion of following cell lines to form hybrids

  1. Mouse and man
  2. Mouse and hamster
  3. Mouse and chick erythrocytes
  4. Mouse and drosophila

Answer: 1. Mouse and man

Question  39. The genetic recombinants obtained by the insertion of the plasmid into 1 phage genome is called

  1. Cosmid
  2. Phasmid
  3. Phagmid
  4. Foreign DNA.

Answer: 2. Phasmid

Biotechnology Principles and Processes MCQs Question 40. Synthetic DNA or sDNA is

  1. DNA synthesized in the lab without any template
  2. DNA synthesized in the cell without any template
  3. DNA synthesized in the lab. without any nucleotide
  4. DNA is synthesized in the cell without any nucleotide.

Answer: 1. DNA synthesized in the lab without any template

Question 41. A technique used to make numerous copies of a specific segment of DNA quickly and accurately

  1. Ligase chain reaction
  2. Transcription
  3. Polymerase chain reaction
  4. Translation.

Answer: 3. Polymerase chain reaction

Question 42. The human genome contains about:

  1. 10,000 nucleotides
  2. 10,000 genes
  3. 6 billion nucleotides
  4. 6 billion genes

Answer: 3. 6 billion nucleotides

Question 43. A collection of organisms, usually viruses, bacteria, or yeast, which have been transformed by the addition of extra genes from another species

  1. Gene replication
  2. Gene cloning
  3. Gene pool
  4. Gene library.

Answer: 4. Gene library.

Best MCQs For NEET Biology

Question 44. The colony hybridization procedure for the identification of plasmid clones is called

  1. Southern blotting
  2. Grunstcin-Hogncss assay
  3. DNA probes
  4. Molecular assay.

Answer: 2. Grunstcin-Hogncss assay

Question 45. TATAATG sequence near the RNA start point of the prokaryotic promoter is

  1. Nicks
  2. DNA marker
  3. Palindrome
  4. Pribnow box.

Answer: 4. Pribnow box.

Question 46. Which one of the following scientists got the Nobel Prize for his invention of polymerase chain reaction (PCR)?

  1. F. Sanger
  2. Paul Berg
  3. Alec Jeffreys
  4. Kary B. Mullis.

Answer: 4. Kary B. Mullis.

Best MCQs For NEET Biology

Question 47. An artificial process of infecting cells with naked viral DNA is:

  1. Translation
  2. Transduction
  3. Transfection
  4. Transgenic.

Answer: 3. Transfection

Question 48. Producing a ‘giant mouse’ in the laboratory was possible through:

  1. Gene mutation
  2. Gene duplication
  3. Gene synthesis
  4. Gene manipulation.

Answer: 4. Gene manipulation.

Question 49. One of the following is transgenic organisms:

  1. Holly sheep and Flavr savr tomato
  2. Holly sheep and Cotton Bt
  3. Dolly Sheep and Cotton Ct
  4. Flavr savr tomato and Cotton Bt.

Answer: 4. Flavr savr tomato and Cotton Bt.

Question 50. An environmental agent that triggers transcription from an operon is a

  1. Depressor
  2. Inducer
  3. Regulator
  4. Controlling element.

Answer: 2. Inducer

Question 51. Which of the following would not be used in preparing recombinant DNA?

  1. Plasmids
  2. Pages
  3. Restriction enzymes
  4. DNA polymerase 3

Answer: 4. DNA polymerase 3

Question 52. The ability to absorb foreign DNA is

  1. Sexduction
  2. Competence
  3. Hfr
  4. Transduction.

Answer: 2. Competence

Best MCQs For NEET Biology

Question 53. RNA processing is

  1. An event that occurs after RNA transcribed
  2. The rejection of old, worn-out RNA
  3. An event that occurs before RNA is transcribed
  4. Both (1) and (3).

Answer: 1. An event that occurs after RNA transcribed

Question 54. There are special proteins that help to open up the DNA double helix in front of the replication fork. These proteins are

  1. DNA gyrase
  2. DNA polymerase 1
  3. DNA ligase
  4. DNA topoisomerase.

Answer: 1. DNA gyrase

Question 55. Who got the Nobel prize in medicine for their discovery of ‘G-proteins’ and the role of these proteins in the cells :

  1. Robert and Philip Sharp
  2. Gilman and Rodbell
  3. Fischer and Krebs
  4. Ervin Nahar and Bert Sakmann.

Answer: 2. Gilman and Rodbell

Question 56. A gene is made up of

  1. DNA
  2. RNA
  3. Either DNA or RNA
  4. Amino acids.

Answer: 3. Either DNA or RNA

Question 57. The message from nuclear DNA for the synthesis of specific cytoplasmic proteins is carried by

  1. mRNA
  2. t-RNA
  3. s-RNA
  4. rRNA.

Answer: 1. mRNA

NEET Important Questions On Biotechnology

Question 58. Exonucleases cleaving nucleotides one at a time from the end of the polynucleotide chain are

  1. Specific for 5’end of RNA strand
  2. Specific for 3′ end of RNA strand
  3. Specific for both 5′ and 3′ ends of nucleotide strands.
  4. Non-specific for 5′ and 3′ ends of nucleotide strand.

Answer: 3. Specific for both 5′ and 3′ ends of nucleotide strands.

Question 59. Complete transduction is

  1. Transfer of whole genome with the help of virus
  2. Picking up of one or more genes by phage and transferring it to a second host
  3. Integration of genes brought by viral particles into the genome of a new host.
  4. Both 2 and 3.

Answer: 3. Integration of genes brought by viral particles into the genome of a new host.

Question 60. The inducible/lac operon system operates in

  1. Catabolic pathway
  2. Anabolic pathway
  3. Intermediate metabolism
  4. All the above.

Answer: 1. Catabolic pathway

Question 61. Nif genes is a group of proteins

  1. 15 genes
  2. 15 nucleotides
  3. 15 proteins
  4. 10 genes.

Answer: 1. 15 genes

Question 62. Nitrogen-fixing genes are called

  1. Nif genes
  2. Plasmid genes
  3. Leg genes
  4. Cos genes

Answer: 1. Nif genes

Biotechnology Principles and Processes NEET Question 63. Humulin is a

  1. Pig insulin
  2. Human insulin
  3. Viral insulin
  4. Human clone

Answer: 2. Human insulin

Question 64. Mishandling of genetic engineering may cause

  1. Genetic erosion
  2. Green revolution
  3. Silver revolution
  4. White revolution.

Answer: 1. Genetic erosion

NEET Important Questions On Biotechnology

Question 65. Genetic engineering is helpful in

  1. Gene regulation
  2. Gene translation
  3. Gene therapy
  4. Alcohol production.

Answer: 3. Gene therapy

Question 66. The Human Genome Project was the thought of:

  1. Jean Dausset
  2. Watson
  3. Crick
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Jean Dausset

Question 67. The genome map was produced under the human genome project in

  1. 1992
  2. 1994
  3. 1996
  4. 2000.

Answer: 2. 1994

Question 68. The colonies of recombinant bacteria appear white in contrast to the blue colonies of non-recombinant bacteria because of:

  1. Insertional inactivation of alpha-galactosidase in non-recombinant bacteria
  2. Insertional inactivation of alpha-galactosidase in recombinant bacteria
  3. Inactivation of glycosidase enzyme in recombinant bacteria
  4. Non-recombinant bacteria containing beta-galactosidase

Answer: 3. Inactivation of glycosidase enzyme in recombinant bacteria

Question 69. Genes that are involved in turning on or off the transcription of a set of structural genes are called

  1. Polymorphic genes
  2. Operator genes
  3. Redundant genes
  4. Regulatory genes

Answer: 2. Operator genes

Question 70. DNA fingerprinting method is very useful for:

  1. DNA tests for identity and relationships
  2. Forensic studies
  3. Polymorphism
  4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 71. Transgenic organisms are produced by

  1. Deleting sex chromosomes
  2. Inducing gene mutations
  3. Introducing foreign genes
  4. Arresting spindle fiber formation.

Answer: 3. Introducing foreign genes

Question 72. The basis for DNA fingerprinting is

  1. Occurrence of restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP)
  2. Phenotypic differences between individuals
  3. Availability of cloned DNA
  4. Knowledge of human karyotype.

Answer: 1. Occurrence of restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP)

Question 73. Genetically bacteria have been successfully used in the commercial production of:

  1. Human insulin
  2. Testosterone
  3. Thyroxine
  4. Melatonin.

Answer: 1. Human insulin

NEET Important Questions On Biotechnology

Question 74. Which of the following is associated with genetic engineering?

  1. Plastids
  2. Plasmids
  3. Mutations
  4. Hybrid vigor.

Answer: 2. Plasmids

Question 75. PCR stands for:

  1. Polymerase Cyclic Reaction
  2. Polymerase Chain Reaction
  3. Polyethyl Cytosine Reaction
  4. Polymerization Chain Reaction.

Answer: 2. Polymerase Chain Reaction

Question 76. This segment of DNA has restriction sites 1 and 2 which create restriction fragments a, b, and c. Which of the following gel (s) produced by electrophoresis would represent the separation and identity of these fragments?

Principles And Processes Of Biotechnology Segment Of DNA Has Restriction Sites

Answer: 2

Question 77. DNA fragments generated by the restriction endonu¬cleases in a chemical reaction can be separated by

  1. Polymerase chain reaction
  2. Electrophoresis
  3. Restriction mapping
  4. Centrifugation

Answer: 2. Electrophoresis

Question 78. Yeast has become important in genetic engineering because it:

  1. Has plasmids that can be genetically engineered
  2. Allows the study of eukaryotic gene regulation and expression
  3. Grows readily and rapidly in the laboratory
  4. All of the above

Answer: 4. All of the above

Question 79. The gene for cloning may be chemically synthesized:

  1. When the exact sequence of nucleotides is known
  2. Through the use of restriction enzymes and gel electrophoresis to separate restriction fragments
  3. By the Sanger method
  4. By making complementary DNA from genes without introns.

Answer: 1. When the exact sequence of nucleotides is known

NEET Important Questions On Biotechnology

Question 80. You are attempting to introduce a gene that imparts larval moth resistance to bean plants. Which of the following vectors are you most likely to use?

  1. Phage DNA
  2. Bacterial plasmid
  3. Ti plasmid
  4. Yeast plasmid.

Answer: 3. Ti plasmid

Question 81. The genome of Caenorhabditis elegant consists of:

  1. 3 billion base pairs and 30,000 genes
  2. 12 million base pairs and 6,000 genes
  3. 4.7 million base pairs and 4,000 genes
  4. 97 million base pairs and 18,000 genes
  5. 180 million base pairs and 13,000 genes.

Answer: 4. 180 million base pairs and 13,000 genes.

Question 82. Taq polymerase enzyme is found in

  1. Thermits aqucitecus
  2. E.coli
  3. Pseudomonas
  4. Agrobacterium.

Answer: 1. Thermits aqucitecus

Biotechnology Principles and Processes MCQs Question 83. Petroleum-lysing bacteria are being engineered for the removal of oil spills. What is the most realistic danger of these bacteria to the environment?

  1. Mutations leading to the production of a strain pathogenic to humans
  2. Extinction of natural microbes due to the competitive advantage of the “petro-bacterium”
  3. Destruction of natural oil deposits
  4. Poisoning of the food chain.

Answer: 3. Destruction of natural oil deposits

NEET Biology MCQs

Question 84. An attenuated virus:

  1. Is a virus that is non-pathogenic
  2. In an elongated viral particle
  3. Can transfer recombinant DNA to other viruses
  4. Will not produce an immune response.

Answer: 1. Is a virus that is non-pathogenic

Question 85. Which of the following is a difficulty in getting prokaryotic cells to express eukaryotic genes?

  1. The signals that control gene expression are different and prokaryotic promoter regions must be added to the vector
  2. The genetic code differs between the two because prokaryotes substitute the base uracil for thymine
  3. Prokaryotic cells cannot transcribe introns because their genes do not have them
  4. The ribosomes of prokaryotes are not large enough to handle long eukaryotic genes.

Answer: 1. The signals that control gene expression are different and prokaryotic promoter regions must be added to the vector