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NEET Biology Organism And Environment Species And Population Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. The annual growth rate for developing countries is:

1. 5%
2. 2%
3. 2.5%
4. 8%.

Answer: 3. 2.5%

Question 2. The study of the interrelationship between living organisms and their environment is called:

1. Phytosociology
2. Phytogeography
3. Ecology
4. Ecosystem.

Answer: 3. Ecology

Question 3. Plants and animals living in a given area constitute:

1. Population
2. Ecosystem
3. Community
4. Plankton.

Answer: 3. Community

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Question 4. The carrying capacity of an environment is determined by:

1. Birth rate
2. Death rate
3. Limiting resources
4. Population growth rate.

Answer: 3. Limiting resources

Organisms And Populations NEET Questions

Question 5. If there is a large gap between the birth rate and death rate in Haryana we can infer that Haryana would tend to have:

1. More of old men
2. More school-going children
3. Lower rate of fertility
4. Low dependency ratio.

Answer: 1. More of old men

Question 6. Demography is the study of statistics that deals with:

1. Geography
2. Population growth
3. Local concentration of individuals
4. Family pedigrees.

Answer: 2. Population growth

Question 7. The parameter for describing a population is:

1. Time
2. Number and kind
3. Space or area
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 8. The most thickly populated state in India is:

1. U.P.
2. Tamil Nadu
3. West Bengal
4. Kerala.

Answer: 3. West Bengal

Question 9. The most thinly populated state in India is:

1. Sikkim
2. Himachal Pradesh
3. Rajasthan
4. Arunachal Pradesh.

Answer: 4. Arunachal Pradesh.

Organisms And Populations NEET Questions

Question 10. Which of the following is monogamous

1. Seal
2. Deer
3. Woodpecker
4. Swan.

Answer: 4. Swan

Question 11. Which of the following is polygamous?

1. Rat
2. Wolf
3. Deer
4. Fox.

Answer: 3. Deer

Question 12. Which of the following lives in flocks?

1. Deer
2. Duck
3. Elephant
4. Monkey.

Answer: 2. Duck

Question 13. Animals found in herds is:

1. Mice
2. Swan
3. Parrot
4. Deer.

Answer: 4. Deer

Question 14. The human population first began to grow exponentially at the time of:

1. Tool using revolution
2. Agricultural revolution
3. Industrial revolution
4. First World War.

Answer: 2. Agricultural revolution

Question 15. About how many people starve to death each day?

1. 1000
2. 10,000
3. 70,000
4. 600,000.

Answer: 3. 70,000

Organisms And Populations NEET Questions

Question 16. The growth of the human population is most rapid in the:

1. Tropical and subtropical regions
2. Temperate region
3. Asia
4. North America.

Answer: 1. Tropical and subtropical regions

Question 17. What constitutes the most important boundary between different species?

1. Territory
2. Morphology
3. Reproductive isolation
4. Mode of nutrition

Answer: 3. Reproductive isolation

Question 18. Offspring of a stallion and Janet is called :

1. Stajon
2. Hinny
3. Mule
4. Mare.

Answer: 2. Hinny

Question 19. Population density is expressed by :

1. D = N + S
2. D = N x S
3. D = N÷S
4. D = N-S.

Answer: 3. LD = N÷S

Question 20. Fingers and legs are shorter in colder regions. It is:

1. Jorden’s rule
2. Lindeman’s rule
3. Allen’s rule
4. Gloger’s rule.

Answer: 3. Allen’s rule

Organisms And Populations NEET Questions

Question 21. Population whose members reproduce asexually are termed:

1. Panimictic
2. Ecotype
3. Apomictic
4. Amphimictic

Answer: 3. Apomictic

Question 22. Population whose members reproduce are termed:

1. Panimictic
2. Apomictric
3. Species
4. Amphimictic.

Answer: 4. Amphimictic

Question 23. The study of interactions of an individual organism or a single species with the living and non-living components of its environment is:

1. Autoecology
2. Autoecious
3. Autogamy
4. Autonomy.

Answer: 1. Autoecology

Question 24. Ecological studies of plants were first started by:

1. Warming
2. Daubenmire
3. Good
4. Raunkier.

Answer: 1. Warming

Question 25. Synecology refers to the ecological study of:

1. A population of species growing together
2. Animals
3. Plants
4. Microbes.

Answer: 1. A population of species growing together

Question 26. All the living organisms on earth constitute:

1. Community
2. Biosphere
3. Species
4. Biome.

Answer: 2. Biosphere

NEET Important Questions On Ecology

Question 27. Individuals of the same species in a particular locality constitute:

1. Population
2. Hydrosphere
3. Flora
4. Fauna.

Answer: 1. Population

Question 28. Migration refers to:

1. One-way outward movement
2. One-way inward movement
3. Periodic departure and return
4. Death of individuals.

Answer: 3. Periodic departure and return

Question 29. Which of the following is an example of proto-cooperation?

1. Echiuroid worm and small annelid
2. Sea anemone and hermit crab
3. Nitrogen-fixing bacteria and leguminous plants
4. Trichophyta in the gut of termite.

Answer: 2. Sea anemone and hermit crab

Question 30. Gametophyte and sporophyte stages of a fern plant should ecologically be considered as:

1. Two distinct species
2. Two stages of a species
3. Two varieties of a species
4. Two organisms of a colony.

Answer: 2. Two stages of a species

Question 31. Which of the following is related to synecology?

1. Same species
2. Different species
3. Both(1) and (2)
4. None of above

Answer: 2. Different species

NEET Important Questions On Ecology

Question 32. Competition is most severe in two:

1. Species
2. Families
3. Niche
4. Orders

Answer: 1. Species

Question 33. The territory is defended against:

1. Predator
2. Any intruder
3. Intruder of another species
4. Intruder of the same species.

Answer: 4. Intruder of the same species

Question 34. Which of the following shows the polymorphism?

1. Caricci papaya
2. Apis indicia
3. Volvox
4. Both (2) and (3).

Answer: 4. Both (2) and (3)

NEET Questions Organisms and Populations Question 35. Cross-fertilization in plants is a kind of:

1. Competitive interaction
2. Co-operative interaction
3. Parental care
4. All the above.

Answer: 2. Co-operative interaction

Question 36. An interaction between two or more organisms when the resources necessary for them are limited refers to:

1. Co-operation
2. Competition
3. Aggregation
4. Family formation.

Answer: 2. Competition

Question 37. Flams and animals living in a given area form:

1. Community
2. Population
3. Plankton
4. Ecosystem.

Answer: 1. Community

Best MCQs For NEET Biology

Question 38. Sub-groups of a population capable of interbreeding are called as:

1. Subpopulation
2. Dummies
3. Demes
4. Biomes

Answer: 3. Demes

Question 39. In red deer, the herd is:

1. Matriarchal
2. Patriarchal
3. Matriarchal or Patriarchal
4. Not applicable.

Answer: 1. Matriarchal

Question 40. The biotic potential is counteracted by:

1. Limitation of food supply
2. Competition with other organisms
3. The producer is the largest
4. Both (1) and (2).

Answer: 1. Limitation of food supply

Question 41. The carrying capacity is determined by its:

1. Death rate
2. Filming resource
3. Population growth rate
4. Both (2) and (3).

Answer: 2. Flimiting resource

Question 42. A population can grow exponentially:

1. When food is the only limiting resource
2. When first invading a suitable and previously unoccupied habitat
3. Only if there is no predation
4. Only in the laboratory.

Answer: 2. When first invading a suitable and previously unoccupied habitat

Question 43. Which of the following does not directly affect biotic potential?

1. A female’s age of first reproduction
2. Carrying capacity of the environment
3. Length of time a female is fertile
4. Average number of offspring per brood or litter.

Answer: 2. Carrying capacity of the environment

Question 44. Which of the following chemical compounds helps in transmitting the message to other species of members?

1. Alternative
2. Ptyalin
3. Pheromones
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Pheromones

Question 45. The sympatric population cannot be isolated by:

1. Behavioral barriers
2. Seasonal barriers
3. Habitat barriers
4. Geographical barriers.

Answer: 4. Geographical barriers

Best MCQs For NEET Biology

Question 46. Term-species in ecology refers to:

1. Autoecology
2. Synecology
3. Community ecology
4. Paleoecology.

Answer: 1. Autoecology

Question 47. Population surge 230 years ago was due to:

1. Industrial revolution
2. Agricultural revolution
3. Cultural revolution.
4. Intellectual revolution.

Answer: 1. Industrial revolution

Question 48. The leveling of an S-shaped curve describing population growth is caused by:

1. Carrying capacity
2. The competitive exclusion
3. Environmental resistance
4. A change in the biotic potential.

Answer: 3. Environmental resistance

Question 49. The abundance of a species population within its habitat is called:

1. Niche density
2. Absolute density
3. Relative density
4. Regional density.

Answer: 1. Niche density

Question 50. Mule is produced by breeding:

1. Mule and mare
2. Horse and female ass
3. Horse and mare
4. Male ass and bitch.

Answer: 1. Mule and and mare

Best MCQs For NEET Biology

Question 51. When the population reaches carrying capacity:

1. Mortality rate = Birth rate
2. Mortality rate > Birth rate
3. Mortality rate < Birth rate
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Mortality rate = Birth rate

Question 52. Pheromones are secreted by certain exocrine cutaneous gland affect.

1. Genitalia
2. Skin colour
3. Breast
4. Mutual behavior of members of a species.

Answer: 4. Mutual behavior of members of a species

Question 53. The area covered by members of a species in search of food and mates is called:

1. Range
2. Home range
3. Territory
4. Habitat.

Answer: 2. Home range

Question 54. Crow also incubates the eggs of:

1. Pigeon
2. Dove
3. Cuckoo
4. Weaver bird.

Answer: 3. Cuckoo

Question 55. Pheromones of insects are:

1. Growth promoters
2. Growth inhibitors
3. Means of communication
4. Chemicals of unknown utility.

Answer: 3. Means of communication

Best MCQs For NEET Biology

Question 56. Population density of terrestrial organisms is measured in terms of individuals per:

1. Metre
2. Metre²
3. Metre³
4. Metre⁴

Answer: 2. Metre²

Question 57. Population density of aquatic organisms is expressed in terms of individuals per:

1. Metre
2. Metre²
3. Metre³
4. Metre⁴

Answer: 3. Metre³

Question 58. Which of the following factors is not a determinant of population size?

1. Birth rate
2. Immigration
3. Emigration
4. Migration.

Answer: 4. Migration.

Organisms and Populations Biology NEET Question 59. The dominant individual in a herd is

1. Always a female
2. Always a male
3. Usually a male
4. Usually a female

Answer: 3. Usually a male

Question 60. Tiger has a:

1. Monogamous fixed partnership
2. Patriarchy group
3. Matriarchy group
4. Solitary life

Answer: 2. Patriarchy group

Question 61. Which of these helps in the survival of a species?

1. Group formation
2. Maintenance of territory
3. Communication
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above

Question 62. Honey bees perform dancing motions to signal:

1. Distance of food source
2. Direction of food source
3. Availability of food
4. Distance and direction of food source.

Answer: 4. Distance and direction of food source

Ecology MCQs For NEET

Question 63. Emigration affects the population in:

1. Animals
2. Land plants
3. Animals and land plants
4. Land plants and aquatic plants.

Answer: 1. Animals

Question 64. Brown-skinned human race:

1. Mongoloid
2. Polynesian
3. Red Indian
4. Australoid

Answer: 2. Polynesian

Question 65. The members or a form of polymorphic species:

1. Interbreed with members in their own form
2. Do not reproduce sexually
3. Interbreed with members of other forms only
4. Interbreed among themselves and with members of other forms also.

Answer: 4. Interbreed among themselves and with members of other forms also

Question 66. Cooperative interaction is essential for the perpetuation of:

1. Animals
2. Plants
3. Both animals and plants
4. Neither animals nor plants.

Answer: 3. Both animals and plants

Question 67. The aggregate of processes that determine the size and composition of any population is termed as:

1. Population density
2. Population explosion
3. Population dispersal
4. Population dynamics.

Answer: 4. Population dynamics

Question 68. When a tiger attacks cheetahs, the stag with the best antlers is surrounded by other individuals to protect it. It is an example of

1. Cooperation
2. Group formation
3. Altruism
4. Herding.

Answer: 3. Altruism

Question 69. Which of the following leads a solitary life?

1. Swan
2. Man
3. Spider
4. Monkey.

Answer: 3. Spider

Question 70. Family formation is a characteristic feature of:

1. All animals
2. A few animals
3. Majority of animals
4. Almost all animals.

Answer: 2. A few animals

Ecology MCQs For NEET

Question 71. Which among the following does not lead a monogamous life?

1. Seal
2. Fox
3. Swan
4. Wolf.

Answer: 1. Seal

Question 72. Rats are:

1. Monogamous
2. Bigamous
3. Polygamous
4. Do not have fixed partners

Answer: 4. Do not have fixed partners

Question 73. Ants communicate through:

1. Sound
2. Pheromones
3. Contact
4. Both (2) and (3)

Answer: 2. Pheromones

Question 74. Altruistic behavior is found in:

1. Honey bee
2. Termites
3. Spotted deer
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Ecology MCQs For NEET

Question 75. The factors which do not affect the population size is:

1. Immigration
2. Emigration
3. Migration
4. Birth rate.

Answer: 3. Migration

Question 76. The rapid decline in a population due to a high mortality rate is:

1. Population density
2. Population crash
3. Population explosion
4. All the above.

Answer: 2. Population crash

Question 77. According to the 1991 Census, the urban population of India was about:

1. 30%
2. 34%
3. 51%
4. 24%.

Answer: 4. 24%

Question 78. Genetically adapted population to a particular habit is:

1. Mule
2. Ecotype
3. Ecosphere
4. Ecology.

Answer: 1. Mule

Question 79. A fertile hybrid between the captive tiger and a lioness is:

1. Mule
2. Liger
3. Tigress
4. Tigon.

Answer: 4. Tigon.

Ecology MCQs For NEET

Question 80. Which of the following chemical compounds help in transmitting the message to other members of the same species?

1. Hormone
2. Ptyaiin
3. Pheromones
4. None of above.

Answer: 3. Pheromones

Question 81. The population tends to increase as individuals are added by:

1. Natality
2. Immigration
3. None of the above
4. Both of these.

Answer: 4. Both of these.

Question 82. The population tends to decrease by:

1. Mortality
2. Emigration
3. None of these
4. Both of these

Answer: 4. Both of these

Question 83. The most distinct and easily observation unit is:

1. Cell
2. Tissue
3. Organs
4. Individual organism.

Answer: 4. Individual organism.

Question 84. The occurrence of two forms among the organisms of the same kind is known as:

1. Dimorphism
2. Trimorphism
3. Polymorphism
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Dimorphism

Question 85. A green alga Volvox, a colonial form consists of over:

1. 100 cells
2. 1000 cells
3. 10,000 cells
4. 60,000 cells.

Answer: 4. 60,000 cells

Question 86. The chemicals of intraspecific communication are:

1. Allochemics
2. Kairomones
3. Auxins
4. Pheromones.

Answer: 4. Pheromones

Question 87. Human society is a product of:

1. Instinctive behaviour
2. Learnt behaviour
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Learnt behavior

Question 88. Match the terms in Column A with suitable terms in Column B.

1. (1-c), (2-d), (3-a), (4-e); (5-b)
2. (1-c), (2-d), (3—b), (4-e); (5-b)
3. (1-c), (2-d), (3-a), (4-e); (5-b)
4. (1-D), (2-c). (3-a), (4-e); (5-b).

Answer: 3. (1-c), (2-d), (3-a), (4-e); (5-b)

Question 89. Which of the following morphological forms is also known as ecophenes?

1. Ecospecies
2. Ecad
3. Ecotype
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Ecotype

Question 90. The relationship between one species and another within a community that has evolved through interactions is based upon:

1. Requirement and mode of obtaining food only
2. Requirement and mode of obtaining shelter only
3. On the habits of the species only
4. All of these.

Answer: 4. All of these.

Organisms And Populations NEET Questions

Question 91. The interaction among organisms in a community called as biotic factors influence:

1. The structure of a community only
2. Composition of a community only
3. The function of a community only
4. All of these.

Answer: 4. All of these.

Question 92. According to the species equilibrium theory, smaller islands have fewer species because they have:

1. High rate of extinction
2. Lower rate of colonization
3. A smaller species pool to draw from
4. Lower birth rates.

Answer: 1. High rate of extinction

Question 93. Competition between individuals of the species is called:

1. Interspecific
2. Intraspecific
3. Feedback
4. All of the above.

Answer: 2. Intraspecific

Question 94. Which of the following levels of organization emphasizes the structural aspects in terms of relation and requirement of organisms?

1. Autecological level
2. Synecological level
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Autecological level

Question 95. Synecology is the study of:

1. Biosphere
2. Individuals
3. Environment
4. Community in relation to the environment.

Answer: 4. Community in relation to environment.

Organisms And Populations NEET Questions

Question 96. The leaves are absent in the xerophyte:

1. Calotropis procera
2. Zizyphus jujube
3. Acacia nilotica
4. Cippciris aphylla.

Answer: 4. Cippciris aphylla

Question 97. The relationship between one species and another within a community that has evolved through interactions is based upon:

1. Requirement and mode of obtaining food only
2. Requirement and mode of obtaining shelter only
3. On the habits of the species only
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Organisms And Populations NEET Questions

Question 98. The interaction among organisms in a community called as biotic factors influence:

1. The structure of a community only
2. Composition of a community only
3. The function of a community only
4. All of the above.

Answer: 3. Function of a community only

Question 99. The scientific study of mimicry was carried out first by:

1. Darwin
2. Bates
3. Muller
4. Von Frich.

Answer: 2. Bates

Question 100. A butterfly of India when resting with folded wings resembles a dead leaf. This mechanism of protection is called:

1. Mimicry
2. Hiding
3. Congregation
4. Camouflage.

Answer: 1. Mimicry

NEET Important Questions On Ecology

Question 101. A stick insect (Carausium) mimics a thin dry branch and a dead leaf or an oak leaf butterfly (Kallima) looks like a dead leaf. It is:

1. Concealing protective mimicry
2. Warning mimicry
3. Concealing aggressive mimicry
4. Warning alluring mimicry.

Answer: 1. Concealing protective mimicry

Question 102. The mimetic imitates other organism in:

1. Shape and size
2. Color
3. Action and attitude
4. Any of the above.

Answer: 3. Action and attitude

Question 103. Types of aggressive mimicry are

1. Concealment type
2. Alluring type
3. Warning type
4. Both (1) and (2).

Answer: 4. Both (1) and (2).

Question 104. The first scientific account of mimicry was given by:

1. Bates
2. Darwin
3. Raunkier
4. Haeckel.

Answer: 1. Bates

Question 105. Which one is not an example of concealing protective mimicry?

1. Sea Dragons (Phyllopteryx) resemble seaweeds
2. The Geometrid moth’s caterpillar resembles small branches.
3. The praying mantis looks like branches
4. Leaf insect (Phyllium) looks like a green leaf.

Answer: 3. Praying mantis looks like branches

Question 106. The palatable viceroy butterfly (Limenitis archippus) resembles a distasteful monarch butterfly (Doncisus plexippus) for its protection. This is called:

1. Aggressive Mimicry
2. Warning Mimicry
3. Concealing Mimicry
4. Alluring Mimicry.

Answer: 2. Warning Mimicry

NEET Important Questions On Ecology

Question 107. When a predator (mimic) remains hidden from prey to catch it suddenly as in praying mantis, it shows:

1. Concealing aggressive mimicry
2. Concealing protective mimicry
3. Warning mimicry
4. Alluring mimicry.

Answer: 1. Concealing aggressive mimicry

Organisms and Populations NEET Questions Question 108. When the mimic attracts its prey, it is called:

1. Warning mimicry
2. Alluring mimicry
3. Protective coloration
4. Camouflage.

Answer: 2. Alluring mimicry

Question 109. When a palatable female butterfly (for example, a Viceroy butterfly) copies an unpalatable species (Monarch butterfly) the type of adaptation is called:

1. Batesian mimicry
2. Mullerian mimicry
3. Cryptic adaptation
4. Warning coloration.

Answer: 1. Batesian mimicry

NEET Biology Animal Nutrition and Digestive System  Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Which of the following animal products can be used by an animal as a source of energy?

1. Carbohydrates only
2. Fats only
3. Carbohydrates, fats or proteins
4. Carbohydrates or fats.

Answer: 3. Carbohydrates, fats or proteins

Question 2. The inadequate amount of iodine in the diet would lead to an enlargement of:

1. stomach
2. thyroid gland
3. gonad
4. pancreas.

Answer: 2. thyroid gland

Question 3. The stomach of a ruminant is divided into:

1. oesophagus and duodenum
2. omasum, reticulum, abomasum and rumen
3. ileum and duodenum
4. omasum and abomasum chambers.

Answer: 2. omasum, reticulum, abomasum and rumen

Question 4. Glucose, galactose and fructose all have the same molecular size and composition and their absorption through the mucosal cells takes place :

1. at the same rate
2. glucose is absorbed most rapidly
3. fructose is absorbed most rapidly
4. galactose is absorbed most rapidly.

Answer: 4. galactose is absorbed most rapidly

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 5. A high carbohydrate, low protein diet for prolonged periods in children may lead to a deficiency disease called :

1. marasmus
2. rickets
3. keratitis
4. kwashiorkor.

Answer: 4. kwashiorkor

Digestive System MCQs NEET

Question 6. Which of the following hormones is not produced by the alimentary canal?

1. Insulin
2. Cholecystokinin
3. Gastrin
4. Secretin.

Answer: 1. Insulin

Question 7. The bile secreted by the liver cells passes into the gall bladder through :

1. hepatopancreatic duct
2. cystic duct
3. hepatic duct
4. hepato gall duct.

Answer: 2. cystic duct

Question 8. Removal of the stomach produces :

1. dumping syndrome
2. Turner’s syndrome
3. emphysema
4. midget.

Answer: 1. dumping syndrome

Question 9. Gastro-colic reflex is meant for :

1. the removal of bacteria from the body
2. the removal of faeces from the body
3. the synthesis of vitamins in the body
4. None of the above.

Answer: 4. None of the above

Question 10. The enzyme which is found from Protozoa to Mammalia is known as :

1. amylase
2. trypsin
3. pepsin
4. lipase.

Answer: 2. trypsin

Question 11. The molecule used by most animals for long-term energy storage is :

1. glycogen
2. starch
3. fats
4. cholesterol.

Answer: 3. fats

Digestive System MCQs NEET

Question 12. A polypeptide secreted into the blood by the cells in the stomach wall stimulates the production of HCI by parietal cells of the stomach:

1. gastrin
2. secretin
3. pancreozymin
4. rennin.

Answer: 1. gastrin

Question 13. Which one of the following will not take place when glucose is taken as food?

1. Ingestion
2. Digestion
3. Absorption
4. Assimilation.

Answer: 2. Digestion

Question 14. The greenish faecal matter excreted by the newborn child is :

1. meconium
2. macrophages
3. jaundice
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. meconium

Question 15. Energy is stored in muscles and the liver as :

1. glycogen
2. starch
3. fats
4. cholesterol.

Answer: 1. glycogen

Digestive System MCQs NEET

Question 16. Vermiform appendix in man is seen attached to :

1. colon
2. caecum
3. rectum
4. ileum.

Answer: 2. caecum

Question 17. Bile augments the digestion of:

1. glycogen
2. fat
3. starch
4. protein.

Answer: 2. fat

Question 18. Which of the following is not a human salivary gland?

1. Parotid glands
2. Submaxillary
3. Sublingual
4. Infraorbital.

Answer: 4. Infraorbital

Question 19. The chemical name of vitamin K is :

1. plastoquinone
2. plastocyanin
3. phycocyanin
4. phylloquinone.

Answer: 4. phylloquinone

Question 20. Which one of the following disaccharides gives rise to two molecules of glucose on hydrolysis?

1. Lactose
2. Sucrose
3. Maltose
4. Galactose.

Answer: 3. Maltose

NEET MCQs On Digestive System

Question 21. An animal with a diet deficient in at least one essential nutrient is said to be :

1. starving
2. undernourished
3. malnourished
4. suffering from Kwashiorkor disease.

Answer: 3. malnourished

Question 22. The liver is called the reticular gland because :

1. it contains reticular tissue
2. its shape is reticular
3. lobules branches and anastomoses with one other to form a network
4. hepatic duct and cystic ducts unite to form bile ducts.

Answer: 3. lobules branches and anastomoses with one other to form a network

Question 23. Brunner’s glands secrete :

1. mucus
2. secretin and cholecystokinin
3. enterokinase
4. hydrochloric acid.

Answer: 1. mucus

Question 24. Which of the following vitamins serves as a coenzyme?

1. Vit. B,
2. Vit. B2
3. Niacin
4. All the above.

Answer: 1. Vit. B

NEET MCQ  Question 25. Choose the wrong statement.

1. Lipases and nucleases are not present in pancreatic juice.
2. Goblet cells secrete mucus.
3. Brunner’s glands are sub-mucosal glands.
4. Carboxypeptidase catalyses the conversion of proteins.
5. Bile contains no enzymes.

Answer: 2. Goblet cells secrete mucus

NEET MCQs On Digestive System

Question 26. The alimentary canal of prawn is:

1. incomplete
2. complete
3. long
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. complete

Question 27. How many of the 20 amino acids are essential amino acids for an adult human?

1. Eight
2. Six
3. Thirteen
4. Fourteen.

Answer: 1. Eight

Question 28. The gastric juice secreted by gastric glands is :

1. alkaline
2. neutral
3. acidic
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. acidic

Question 29. Most vitamins function as :

1. lubricant for active transport
2. a foundation for building bones
3. transport molecules within the plasma membrane
4. coenzymes.

Answer: 4. coenzymes

NEET MCQs On Digestive System

Question 30. The three secretions that mix with food in the small intestine are :

1. saliva, gastric juice and bile
2. gastric juice, bile and pancreatic juice
3. bile, pancreatic juice and intestinal juice
4. pancreatic juice, intestinal juice and gastric juice.

Answer: 3. bile, pancreatic juice and intestinal juice

Question 31. Enzymes are organic(proteinaceous) chemicals which accelerate biochemical reactions in cells by :

1. increasing the temperature of cells
2. increasing the energy of activation of the reacting molecules
3. lowering the pH of the cells
4. decreasing the energy of activation of reacting molecules.

Answer: 4. decreasing the energy of activation of reacting molecules

Question 32. The cells that produce dilute hydrochloric acid in the stomach are:

1. parietal cells
2. goblet cells
3. digestive cells
4. paneth cells.

Answer: 1. parietal cells

Question 33. The isolated patches of lymphoid tissue of the intestine are known as :

1. hepatic cells
2. Islets of Langerhans
3. Peyer’s patches
4. Kupffer cells.

Answer: 3. Peyer’s patches

Question 34. Gastric juice contains :

1. ptyalin
2. pepsin
3. erepsin
4. lipase.

Answer: 2. pepsin

Question 35. Bile is:

1. acidic
2. alkaline
3. neutral
4. None of these.

Answer: 2. alkaline

NEET Important Questions on Animal Nutrition

Question 36. Salts and digestive enzymes present in pancreatic juice amount to :

1. 5%
2. 3%
3. 2%
4. 8%.

Answer: 3. 2%

Question 37. Which one is a nitrogenous polysaccharide?

1. Chitin
2. Cellulose
3. Glycogen
4. Starch.

Answer: 1. Chitin

Question 38. A mineral is an atom that can be used by an animal in a form that is:

1. an organic molecule
2. an inorganic molecule or ion
3. bonded 6 vitamins.
4. bonded to several water molecules.

Answer: 2. an inorganic molecule or ion

Question 39. How many teeth in a man are grown twice in life?

1. 32
2. 28
3. 20
4. 12.

Answer: 3. 20

Question 40. The swallowing of bolus food in rabbits is called :

1. defaecation
2. deglutition
3. regurgitation
4. digestion.

Answer: 2. deglutition

Question 41. The pancreatic juice does not contain :

1. trypsin
2. amylopsin
3. pepsin
4. lipase.

Answer: 3. pepsin

Human Digestive System MCQs For NEET

Question 42. The blood capillaries of intestinal villi absorb all but:

1. amino acids
2. glucose
3. salts
4. fatty acids and glycerol.

Answer: 4. fatty acids and glycerol

Question 43. The factor which governs the absorption of digested food by intestinal villi is:

1. peristalsis
2. osmosis
3. emulsification
4. selective absorption.

Answer: 4. selective absorption

Question 44. Caecum in rabbits is concerned with :

1. digestion of starch
2. digestion of cellulose
3. digestion
4. digestion of lipids.

Answer: 3. digestion

Question 45. In the pancreas, pancreatic juice and hormones are secreted by:

1. same cells
2. different cells
3. same cells at different times
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. different cells

Question 46. The dental formula of man is:

Answer: 3.

Question 47. Teeth are derivatives of:

1. epidermis of skin
2. dermis of skin
3. The bone of the skeleton of the jaw
4. Both and (B).

Answer: 2. dermis of skin

Human Digestive System MCQs For NEET

Question 48. Teeth are :

1. living structure
2. dead structure
3. partly dead and partly living
4. exact nature is not known.

Answer: 3. partly dead and partly living

Question 49. Another term for digestion is:

1. dehydration synthesis
2. absorption
3. hydrolysis
4. monomer interchange.

Answer: 3. hydrolysis

Question 50. Diastema is the toothless gap in ambit

1. between right ami left incisor
2. between incisors ami premolars
3. between premolars and molars
4. behind the molars.

Answer: 2. between incisors ami premolars

Question 51. Teeth of frog are :

1. diphyodont
2. pleurodont
3. acrodont
4. thecodont.

Answer: 3. acrodont

Question 52. The tube that connects the pharynx to the middle ear is called:

1. Eustachian tube
2. omentum tube
3. pharyngcoacoustic tube
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. eustachian tube

Question 53. The Alimentary canal runs in between :

1. oesophagus to stomach
2. oral aperture to the anus
3. stomach to anus
4. mouth to cloaca.

Answer: 4. mouth to cloaca

Question 54. The pan of intestine that is ‘U’ shaped is called :

1. pyloric intestine
2. duodenum
3. ileum
4. colon.

Answer: 2. duodenum

Human Digestive System MCQs For NEET

Question 55. The pans of the small intestine are :

1. duodenum and colon
2. colon and rectum
3. jejunum, duodenum and ileum
4. ileum and colon.

Answer: 3. jejunum, duodenum and ileum

Question 56. The large intestine of man is composed of :

1. rectum and colon
2. ileum and colon
3. rectum and ileum
4. caecum, colon and rectum.

Answer: 4. caecum, colon and rectum

Question 57. Opening of the stomach into the duodenum is guarded by :

1. pyloric valve
2. ileocecal valve
3. stomach valve
4. cardiac valve.

Answer: 1. pyloric valve

Question 58. Digestion is brought about by :

1. enzymes
2. acids
3. vitamins and minerals
4. alkaline solution.

Answer: 1. enzymes

Best MCQs For NEET Biology

Question 59. Which of the following characters is shared by the liver of the frog and man?

1. Glisson’s capsule
2. Presence of hepatic cord cells
3. Secretion of bile
4. Five lobes.

Answer: 2. Presence of hepatic cord cells

Digestive System MCQ Question 60. Pancreatic juice contains :

1. Trypsin, Lipase and Maltase
2. Pepsin, Trypsin and Maltase
3. Trypsin, Chymotrypsin, Amylase and Lipase.
4. Trypsin, Pepsin and Amylase.

Answer: 3. Trypsin, Chymotrypsin, Amylase and Lipase

Question 61. Which of the following is not a protein-digesting enzyme?

1. Trypsin
2. Rennin
3. Pepsin
4. Ptyalin.

Answer: 4. Ptyalin

Question 62. The final product of protein digestion is :

1. amino acids
2. glucose
3. peptones and proteoses
4. peptide.

Answer: 1. amino acids

Question 63. The exact sequence of events during the digestion of proteins is :

1. proteins → peptones → amino acid → metaproteins and peptides
2. proteins → proteases and peptones → peptides → amino acids
3. proteins → acid metaprotcins → proteo¬ses → amino acids → peptides
4. proteins -A primary proteins → peptides → amino acids.

Answer: 2. proteins → proteases and peptones → peptides → amino acids

Question 64. Enterogasterone stops the secretion of :

1. trypsin
2. gastric juice
3. bile
4. pancreatic juice.

Answer: 2. gastric juice

Best MCQs For NEET Biology

Question 65.  Cholecystokinin brings the release of :

1. pancreatic juice
2. gastric juice
3. intestinal juice
4. bile.

Answer: 4. bile.

Question 66. Proenzyme pepsinogen is activated by :

1. Enterokinase
2. Enterocrinin
3. HCL
4. Gastrin.

Answer: 3. HCL

Question 67. Secretin and pancreozymin bring the release of :

1. pancreatic juice
2. gastric juice
3. bile
4. intestinal juice.

Answer: 1. pancreatic juice

Question 68. Digestion within a digestive tract is :

1. incomplete
2. same as absorption
3. extracellular
4. an irreversible process.

Answer: 3. extracellular

Best MCQs For NEET Biology

Question 69. The liver can synthesize :

1. Vitamin E
2. Vitamin D
3. Vitamin A
4. Vitamin K.

Answer: 3. Vitamin A

Question 70. Absorption of glucose involves :

1. hydration
2. dehydration
3. phosphorylation
4. sulphonation.

Answer: 3. phosphorylation

Question 71. Vitamin B is :

1. fat-soluble
2. water-soluble
3. insoluble
4. no change.

Answer: 2. water-soluble

Question 72. The one difference between a frog and a man is that the frog has no :

1. pancreas
2. thyroid
3. salivary gland
4. adrenal gland.

Answer: 3. salivary gland

Question 73. Rickets, scurvy and poor vision are caused by to deficiency of:’ ‘

1. vitamins D, C and A
2. vitamins BJ2 B6andC
3. vitamins B6, B12 and A
4. vitamins B, D and A.

Answer: 1. vitamins D, C and A

Question 74. Gastric secretion is regulated by :

1. neural mechanism
2. hormonal mechanism
3. neural and hormonal control
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. neural and hormonal control

Question 75. Iron is needed in the diet mainly to :

1. synthesize haemoglobin
2. aid the healing of wounds
3. clean the blood
4. strengthen the bones.

Answer: 1. synthesize haemoglobin

Best MCQs For NEET Biology

Question 76. With regard to nutrient-eating habits a human is.

1. a herbivore
2. an omnivore
3. a carnivore
4. a granivore

Answer: 2. an omnivore

Question 77. The abnormal metabolism of one of the following causes Gaucher’s iliscave :

1. fats
2. proteins
3. carbohydrates
4. All the above

Answer: 1. fats

Question 78. The main motion of lacteal is to both

1. lipids
2. glycogen
3. milK
4. proteins.

Answer: 1. lipids

Question 79. The main function of prolonged chewing is to rupture :

1. membrane
2. muscle bundles
3. connective tissue
4. cell walls.

Answer: 4. cell walls

Question 80. Which one of the following arcs is reabsorbed in the alimentary canal as such?

1. Albumen of egg
2. Polysaccharide
3. Fat-soluble vitamin
4. Protein.

Answer: 3. Fat-soluble vitamin

Question 81. Islets of Langerhans are :

1. exocrine
2. excretory
3. endocrine
4. digestive.

Answer: 3. Endocrine

Digestive System MCQs NEET

Question 82. What makes the chyme in human digestion move to the duodenum from the stomach?

1. Peristaltic movement
2. Gravitational pull
3. Circulation of blood
4. Gravitational push.

Answer: 1. Gravitational pull

Question 83. The activator of intestinal juice is :

1. succus entericus
2. secretin
3. enterozymase
4. enterocrinin.

Answer: 4. enterocrinin

Question 84. Which of the following is related to the digestive system in molluscs?

1. Byssus Thread
2. Osphradium
3. Statocyst
4. Radula.

Answer: 4. Radula.

Question 85. The nutrition in Hydra is holozoic. The entire process may be divided into four parts :

A. ingestion

B. digestion

C. excretion

D. egestion

1. A, C, and D are correct
2. A, B, and D are correct
3. A, B, and C are correct
4. A, C, and D are correct.

Answer: 2. A, B, and D are correct

Question 86. In man, the bile juice secreted by the liver per day is :

1. 250 ml
2. 600 ml
3. 1000 ml
4. 1,500 ml.

Answer: 2. 600 ml

Question 87. The method of intake of food in the case of ciliate paramecium is :

1. holozoic
2. saprozoic
3. saprophytic
4. holophytic.

Answer: 1. holozoic

Digestive System MCQs NEET

Question 88. The dental formula indicates the type of teeth and their number in sequence. Which sequence below is correct?

1. Incisors, premolars, canines and molars
2. Incisors, canines, premolars and molars
3. Incisors, premolars, molars and canines ,
4. Canines, incisors, prcmolars and molars..

Answer: 2. Incisors, canines, premolars and molars

Question 89. Carbohydrate splitting enzyme is secreted by :

1. liver
2. zymogen veils of gastric glands
3. salivary glands
4. crypts of lieberkuhn

Answer: 3. salivary glands

Question 90. The major utility of breaking lift of fond into small bits during chewing is :

1. to reduce the area of food eaten up l
2. to increase the surface area of food eaten up
3. to enjoy the taste of food
4. to make flic food soluble.

Answer: 2. to increase the surface area of food eaten up

Question 91. Peyer’s patches produce :

1. enterokinase
2. lymphocytes
3. mucus
4. trypsin.

Answer: 2. lymphocytes

Question 92. In the colon constriction of its surface forms a series of small pockets called :

1. taeniae
2. crypts of Lciberkuhn
3. sacculus rotundas
4. haustra.

Answer: 4. haustra

NEET MCQs On Digestive System

Question 93. The dietary component which is assimilated without any change is :

1. cane sugar
2. milk
3. vitamins
4. maltose.

Answer: 3. vitamins

NEET Digestive System Question 94. Gastric juice has a pH of about:

1. 10
2. 8.8
3. 6
4. 2.

Answer: 4. 2

Question 95. The glucagon is produced by :

1. P-cells of the endocrine pancreas
2. exocrine pancreas
3. a-cells endocrine pancreas
4. pancreatic duct.

Answer: 3. a-cells endocrine pancreas

Question 96. Pepsin changes :

1. proteins into peptones
2. fats into fatty acids
3. milk into curd
4. starch into sugar.

Answer: 1. proteins into peptones

Question 97. Lipase changes :

1. proteins into peptones
2. starch into sugar
3. fats into fatty acids
4. None of these.

Answer: 3. fats into fatty acids

NEET MCQs On Digestive System

Question 98. Trypsin reduces proteins and peptones to :

1. amino acids
2. nucleic acids
3. glycogen
4. None of these.

Answer: 1. amino acids

Question 99. Succus entericus acts in :

1. alkaline medium
2. strongly acidic medium
3. neutral medium
4. weakly acidic medium.

Answer: 1. alkaline medium

Question 100. The function of the bile salts is:

1. to catalyse chemical reactions
2. to emulsify the fats
3. absorption of fat-soluble nutrients
4. Both (2) and (3).

Answer: 4. Both (2) and (3)

Question 101. The gastric enzyme pepsin can shrink down protein into peptones in a medium which is:

1. strongly alkaline
2. weakly alkaline
3. acidic
4. at a neutral pH

Answer: 3. acidic

Question 102. liver, the biggest gland in the body, is concerned with the secretion of:

1. hormones controlling digestion
2. digestive enzymes
3. bile
4. mucus.

Answer: 3. bile

NEET MCQs On Digestive System

Question 103. The precursor of trypsin is synthesized in the :

1. stomach
2. duodenum
3. liver
4. pancreas.

Answer: 4. pancreas

Question 104. The enzyme crepsin helps the breakdown of peptones into amino acids in the :

1. stomach
2. duodenum
3. large intestine
4. pancreas.

Answer: 3. large intestine

Question 105. The muscular movement of the alimentary canal is known as :

1. cyclosis
2. peristalsis
3. maceration
4. metachronal waves.

Answer: 2. peristalsis

Question 106. Deficiency in the quantity of vitamin D causes :

1. haemorrhage
2. rickets
3. scurvy
4. beri-beri.

Answer: 2. rickets

Question 107. Deficiency in the quantity of vitamin C causes :

1. haemorrhage
2. scurvy
3. muscular dystrophy
4. reproductive impairment.

Answer: 2. scurvy

Question 108. Bile is green in colour due to the presence of:

1. bilirubin and biliverdin
2. haemoglobin
3. sodium glycocholate
4. sodium taurocholate.

Answer: 1. bilirubin and biliverdin

NEET Important Questions on Animal Nutrition

Question 109. The hard substance that forms teeth is :

1. bone
2. enamel
3. dentine
4. tendon.

Answer: 3. dentine

Question 110. The teeth which are embedded in sockets are called:

1. homodont
2. thecodont
3. diphyodont
4. heterodont.

Answer: 2. thecodont

Question 111. Which of the following components of food can be directly absorbed by blood without any chemical breakdown in the alimentary canal?

1. proteins
2. fats
3. vitamins
4. starch.

Answer: 3. vitamins

Question 112. The animals that can eat various plants and animal materials are called:

1. cannibal
2. carnivorous
3. omnivorous
4. herbivorous.

Answer: 3. omnivorous

Question 113. In which part of the alimentary canal is NH3 produced during the digestion of food?

1. Liver
2. Intestine
3. Stomach
4. Caecum.

Answer: 4. Caecum.

Question 114. A principal gastrointestinal hormone is :

1. prolactin
2. choline esterase
3. secretin
4. Acetyl Co-A.

Answer: 3. secretin

Question 115. The enzyme which coagulates milk is called :

1. pepsin
2. trypsin
3. lactase
4. renin

Answer: 4. renin

NEET Important Questions on Animal Nutrition

Question 116. The process involving the conversion of solid substances into liquid material finally results in the absorption along the gut wall, they are then incorporated into the cells as complex substances. The process is called :

1. combination
2. assimilation
3. absorption
4. defalcation.

Answer: 2. assimilation

Question 117. Acidic thick fluid food in the stomach is called:

1. chyle
2. chyme
3. liquid
4. vitaminous food.

Answer: 2. chyme

Question 118. A lubricant, mucin, in saliva, is made of:

1. polyunsaturated fats
2. glycoproteins
3. actin and myosin
4. phospholipid.

Answer: 2. glycoproteins

NEET Important Questions on Animal Nutrition

Question 119. Synthesis of glycogen from sugar in the liver is known as :

1. Glycogenesis
2. Glycolysis
3. Glycogenolysis
4. Glycogen.

Answer: 1. Glycogenesis

Question 120. About how much saliva does a person produce each day?

1. 100 ml
2. 1 to 1.5 litre
3. 500 ml
4. 250 ml.

Answer: 2. 1 to 1.5 litre

Question 121. Gastric juice contains the following enzymes :

1. pepsin and rennin
2. amylase and pepsin
3. propepsin and prorenin
4. insulin and glycogen.

Answer: 1. pepsin and rennin

Question 122. The function of HC1 in the stomach is to :

1. kill micro-organisms
2. convert pepsinogen to pepsin
3. dissolve enzymes
4. Both and (B).

Answer: 4. Both and (B)

Question 123. Amylase is an enzyme for which the substrate is :

1. starch
2. proteins
3. cane sugar
4. fats.

Answer: 1. starch

Question 124. A good source of lipase is :

1. gastric juice
2. saliva
3. bile
4. pancreatic juice.

Answer: 4. pancreatic juice

Question 125. The formula for sucrose is C12H22On. This means sucrose is composed of:

1. 3 elements
2. 45 elements
3. 1 element
4. 22 elements

Answer: 1. 3 elements

Question 126. All enzymes are chemically speaking :

1. carbohydrates
2. proteins
3. lipids
4. lipoproteins.

Answer: 2. proteins

Human Digestive System MCQs For NEET

Question 127. The lacteals are central lymph vessels which are found in :

1. liver
2. pancreas
3. spleen
4. villi.

Answer: 4. villi

Question 128. Which of the following does not produce any digestive enzyme?

1. Intestinal mucosa
2. Gastric mucosa
3. Liver
4. Pancreas.

Answer: 3. Liver

Question 129. Surgical removal of gall bladder in human beings would lead to :

1. impairment of digestion of fat
2. jaundice
3. impairment of digestion of protein
4. No effect during digestion.

Answer: 4. No effect during digestion

Question 130. In the process of peristalsis :

1. circular muscles of the digestive tube con¬tract and those directly in front of it relax
2. the longitudinal muscles of the digestive tube contract and relax alternatively
3. both processes occur simultaneously
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. circular muscles of the digestive tube con¬tract and those directly in front of it relax

Question 131. The spleen is attached somewhere to the alimentary canals of frogs and rabbits:

1. has an important role in digestion
2. has a semi-important role in digestion
3. has no role in digestion
4. checks the blood circulation in the alimentary canal.

Answer: 3. has no role in digestion

Question 132. The fundamental requirement of food is for:

1. growth and metabolism
2. hunger
3. repair
4. metabolism.

Answer: 1. growth and metabolism

Question 133. Pseudorumination is :

1. eating the skin
2. zymogens
3. chewing the cud
4. swallowing the food.

Answer: 2. zymogens

Question 134. Inactive enzyme precursors such as pepsinogen for pep¬sin are called:

1. zymogens
2. polyglycolide
3. activates
4. cholenzymes.

Answer: 1. zymogens

Question 135. Most digestion and all absorption of food takes place in the:

1. stomach
2. caecum
3. small intestine
4. large intestine.

Answer: 3. small intestine

Question 136. The main advantage of having a digestive tract with a mouth and anus is :

1. it permits different parts of the gut to become specialized to perform different functions of the digestive process in turn
2. it permits an animal without teeth to have a means of grinding its food.
3. it permits animals to eat larger organisms as food
4. it permits animals to eat food in larger chunks.

Answer: 1. it permits different parts of the gut to become specialized to perform different functions of the digestive process in turn

Human Digestive System MCQs For NEET

Question 137. In humans, the digestion of food is completed in the :

1. mouth
2. stomach
3. small intestine
4. large intestine
5. rectum.

Answer: 3. small intestine

Question 138. A portion of the stomach that has evolved extremely thickened muscular walls and is quite efficient at grind¬ing hard food is called a (n):

1. rumen
2. gizzard
3. crop
4. omasum
5. caecum.

Answer: 2. gizzard

Question 139. Which of the following is not a function of the mammalian liver?

1. Secretion of digestive enzymes for export to the gut
2. Regulation of blood glucose and amino acid contents
3. Production of the nitrogenous waste urea
4. Production of plasma proteins for the blood.

Answer: 1. Secretion of digestive enzymes for export to the gut

Question 140. Bacteria entered with contaminated food are killed in the stomach by ;

1. MCI
2. Pepsin
3. Rennin
4. Sodium bicarbonate.

Answer: 3. Rennin

Question 141. The pylorus in frogs is found between :

1. stomach and duodenum
2. duodenum and ileum
3. ileum and colon
4. oesophagus and stomach.

Answer: 1. stomach and duodenum

Human Digestive System MCQs For NEET

Question 142. Vitamins are :

1. inorganic substances that cannot be syn¬thesized by animals
2. inorganic substances that can be synthesized by the animals
3. organic substances that can be synthesized by animals
4. organic substances only synthesized in animal cells.

Answer: 3. organic substances that can be synthesized by animals

Question 143. In the ileum which of the following is absorbed?

1. Vit. K
2. Bile salts
3. Glucose
4. Fat.

Answer: 3. Fat.

Question 144. Casein contained in the milk is a :

1. bacterium
2. protein
3. fat
4. oligosaccharide.

Answer: 2. protein

Human Digestive System MCQs For NEET

Question 145. Cod liver oil is a rich source of:

1. iodine
2. vitamin A
3. vitamin B
4. vitamin C.

Answer: 2. vitamin A

Question 146. The vitamins we must consume daily are :

1. fat-soluble
2. water-soluble
3. both (1) and (2)
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. water-soluble

Question 147. Enterokinase helps in the conversion of :

1. caseinogen into casein
2. proteins into polypeptides
3. pepsinogen into pepsin
4. trypsinogen into trypsin.

Answer: 4. trypsinogen into trypsin

Question 148. Match the items in column I (vitamin ) with those in column II (Deficiency diseases )

1. A-3, B-2, C-4. D-1
2. A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
3. A-2, B-2, C-1, D-3
4. A-3, B-4, C-4, D-2.

Answer: 3. A-2, B-2, C-1, D-3

Question 149. Substances which prevent deficiency diseases are called vitamins:

1. Pavlov
2. Funk
3. Schwann
4. Glisson.

Answer: 2. Funk

Question 150. Which one of the following statements about glycogen is correct?

1. It is a disaccharide stored in the liver which can react with ammonia to form proteins.
2. It is synthesised in the liver and takes part in the formation of bile and lipase,
3. It is a polysaccharide which is synthesised and stored only in liver cells.
4. It is synthesised in blood and stored in the liver and muscles to provide glucose in times of need.

Answer: 4. It is synthesised in blood and stored in the liver and muscles to provide glucose in times of need

Question 151. A dental disease characterised by mottling of teeth is due to the presence of a certain chemical element in drink¬ing water. Which is that element?

1. Boron
2. Chlorine
3. Fluorine
4. Mercury.

Answer: 3. Fluorine

NEET Digestive System Question 152. The saliva of man contains an enzyme known as:

1. erepsin
2. ptyalin
3. amylase.
4. maltase.

Answer: 2. ptyalin

Question 153. The human intestine lacks:

1. symbiotic bacteria of human
2. enzymes to digest cellulose
3. developed vermiform appendix
4. All the above.

Answer: 3. Developed vermiform appendix

Question 154. Canesugar injected into the blood is :

1. changed to fructose
2. changed to glucose and fructose
3. undergoes no appreciable change
4. changed to glucose.

Answer: 3. undergoes no appreciable change

Question 155. Fundus in sanguivorous animals is:

1. round and tubular
2. round and saccular
3. long and branched
4. long and tubular.

Answer: 4. long and tubular

Question 156. After digestion, amino acids are:

1. absorbed into lymph
2. absorbed into the portal circulation
3. excreted to the extent of 50%
4. converted into glucose in the intestine.

Answer: 2. absorbed into the portal circulation

Question 157. The rate of absorption of sugars by the small intestine is greatest for:

1. pentoses
2. hexoses
3. disaccharides
4. oligosaccharides.

Answer: 2. hexoses

Question 158. Which of the following are reabsorbed in the alimen¬tary canal as such?

1. albumen of egg
2. polysaccharides
3. fat-soluble vitamin
4. proteins.

Answer: 3. fat-soluble vitamin

Question 159. The activator of intestinal juice is :

1. succus entericus
2. secretin
3. entero-zymase
4. enterocrinin.

Answer: 4. enterocrinin

Question 160. Brunner’s gland is present in :

1. duodenum
2. jejunum
3. ileum
4. rectum.

Answer: 1. duodenum

NEET Biology Respiration In Plants Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. While a muscle is in the process of reducing an oxygen debt :

1. Lactate is converted into pyruvate
2. All the NAD* is in the reduced form
3. Pyruvate is converted into lactate
4. NADH acts as an oxygen acceptor.

Answer: 1. Lactate is converted into pyruvate

Question 2. NAD functions in cell respiration as a (an):

1. energy currency
2. enzyme
3. coenzyme
4. hydrogen donor.

Answer: 3. coenzyme

Respiration In Plants MCQs For NEET

Question 3. Which of the following statements about oxidative phos¬phorylation is not true?

1. More of the ATP in a normal cell is formed by oxidative phosphorylation via the electron transport chain than by substrate-level phosphorylation UJ;
2. In eukaryotes, the formation of ATP by oxidative phosphorylation requires that the inner mitochondrial membrane remains intact
3. NAD is a carrier molecule that travels down the electron transport chain to release ATP during oxidative phosphorylation
4. In eukaryotes, the electron transport chain and the enzymes of the citric acid cycle are located in nvmitoc- conidia whereas the enzymes of glycolysis are located in the cytoplasm
5. The role of oxygen is to act as an acceptor for electrons.

Answer : 3. In eukaryotes, the electron transport chain and the enzymes of the citric acid cycle are located in nvmitoc- conidia whereas the enzymes of glycolysis are located in the cytoplasm

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 4. Transfer of energy in animal cells is in the form of:

1. ATP
2. ADP
3. Protein
4. Monohexose phosphate.

Answer: 1. ATP

Question 5. Directly largest amount of phosphate bond energy is produced in the process of respiration during the:

1. Glycolysis
2. Anaerobic respiration
3. Krebs’ cycle
4. Fermentation.

Answer: 1. Glycolysis

Question 6. The end products of Krebs’ cycle are :

1. 3 (NADH2), 1 FADH2,2 GTP
2. 4(NADH2),1GTP
3. 2 (NADH2), 2(FADH2), 1 GTP
4. 3 (NADH2), 1 (FADH2), 1 GTP.

Answer: 4. 3 (NADH2), 1 (FADH2), 1 GTP.

Question 7. One NADH2 yields how many ATP molecules?

1. Three
2. Six
3. Four
4. One.

Answer: 1. Three

Respiration In Plants MCQs For NEET

Question 8. Acetyl Co-A combines with which of the following compounds to form citric acid :

1. Oxalosuccinic acid
2. Oxaloacetic acid
3. Citric acid
4. Ketoglutaric acid.

Answer:  2. Oxaloacetic acid

Question 9. Respiratory quotient (RQ) is represented by C02/02 and R.Q. for organic acid is :

1. more than one
2. less than one
3. One
4. infinity.

Answer: 1. more than one

Question 10. Oxidative phosphorylation is the formation of :

1. NADPH2 in respiration
2. ATP in respiration
3. NADH2 in photosynthesis
4. ATP in photosynthesis.

Answer: 2. ATP in respiration

Question 11. In the process of respiration, the potential energy stored in organic compounds is released in the form of:

1. physical energy
2. chemical energy
3. kinetic energy
4. radiant energy.

Answer:  2. chemical energy

Question 12. Glycolysis operates in :

1. cytoplasm
2. endoplasmic reticulum
3. perinuclear space
4. Golgi body.

Answer: 1. cytoplasm

Question 13. The process of respiration which results in the formation of pyruvic acid is :

1. phosphorylation
2. glycolysis
3. photorespiration
4. Krebs’ cycle.

Answer: 2. glycolysis

Question 14. Respiratory Quotient (R.Q.) is the ratio of:

1. 02 consumed to C02 evolved
2. water and C02
3. carbohydrates and 02
4. C02 evolved and 02 was consumed.

Answer: 4. C02 evolved and 02 was consumed.

Respiration In Plants MCQs For NEET

Question 15. In anaerobic respiration, the end product is :

1. starch
2. pyruvic acid
3. sugar
4. ethyl alcohol and C02.

Answer: 4. ethyl alcohol and C02.

Question 16. Energy-rich compounds produced in respiration are:

1. adenosine diphosphate
2. adenosine triphosphate
3. adenosine monophosphate
4. adenosine acetate.

Answer: 2. adenosine triphosphate

Question 17. One molecule of glucose on complete oxidation releases how much energy?

1. 2870 KJ
2. 1292 KJ
3. 247 KJ
4. 3800 KJ.

Answer: 1. 2870 KJ

Question 18. Which mineral acts as an activator in isocitric acid de-hydrogenase enzyme in Krebs’ cycle?

1. Mn
2. Fe
3. Mg
4. Mo.

Answer: 3. Mg

Question 19. During complete aerobic respiration, how much ATP is gained in prokaryotes?

1. 40 ATP
2. 8 ATP
3. 38 ATP
4. 24 ATP.

Answer: 3. 38 ATP

Question 20. In proteins, R.Q. value is:

1. Less than unity
2. More than unity
3. Zero
4. Unity.

Answer: 1. Less than unity

Respiration In Plants MCQs For NEET

Question 21. The inner membranes of mitochondria and chloroplasts :

1. are relatively permeable to H+
2. have ATP enzymes attached to one face only
3. contain molecules of the electron transport system
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 22. K (J is found to be always unity in :

1. Fats
2. carbohydrates
3. proteins
4. organic acids.

Answer: 2. carbohydrates

Question 23. How much ATP is produced during anaerobic respiration?

1. 8 ATP
2. 2 ATP
3. 5 ATP
4. 6ATP.

Answer: 2. 2 ATP

Question 24. If naked peas sce<ls are kept in four respiratory flasks then they would germinate best if the flask contains :

1. C02
2. N2
3. 02
4. H2

Answer: 3. 02

Question 25. What is the link between glycolysis and Krebs’ cycle?

1. oxaloacetic acid
2. Acetyl CoA
3. citric acid
4. pyruvic acid.

Answer: 2. Acetyl CoA

Question 26. Name the scientist who found how the energy of glucose was released in aerobic respiration.

1. Pasteur
2. Calvin
3. Krebs
4. Hopkins

Answer: 3. Krebs

Question 27. In glycolysis the net gain is two ATP molecules and two molecules are released:

1. NAD
2. FADH
3. NADH2
4. FAD.

Answer: 3. NADH2

Plant Respiration NEET Questions

Question 28. The scries of reactions in the TCA cycle take place in :

1. ribosome
2. grana
3. mitochondria
4. endoplasmic reticulum.

Answer: 3. mitochondria

Question 29. In the Krchs’ cycle, citric acid is activated by :

1. aconitase
2. malate dehydrogenase
3. succinyl coenzyme A
4. coenzyme A.

Answer: 1. aconitase

Question 30. In the ‘FCA cycle, the acid reacts with acetyl coenzyme A:

1. fumaric acid
2. succinic acid
3. oxaloacetic acid
4. malic acid.

Answer : 3. oxaloacetic acid

Question 31. Oxidative phosphorylation is the synthesis of :

1. ADI* during the aerobic respiration
2. NADP during the anaerobic respiration
3. ATP during aerobic respiration
4. phytochrome.

Answer: 3. ATP during the aerobic respiration

Question 32. When two molecules of Tripalmitin are used as a respiratory substrate the RQ is:

1. 4
2. 0.7
3. 1
4. Infinity.

Answer: 2. 0.7

Plant Respiration NEET Questions

Question 33. Glucose is converted into pyruvic acid through a series of reactions with a net gain of: ,

1. 2 molecules of ATP
2. 36 molecules of ATP
3. 4 molecules of ATP
4. 38 molecules of ATP.

Answer: 1. 2 molecules of ATP

Question 34. The maximum rate of respiration in many plants of the tropics can be observed in the range of:

1. ()°C—25°C
2. 20° C to 45° C
3. 60°C—IOO°C
4. Above 100° C.

Answer: 2. 20° C to 45° C

Question 35. In woody stems, respiration takes place through :

1. pores
2. stomata
3. lenticels
4. injured parts.

Answer: 3.  lenticels

Question 36. During ATP synthesis electrons pass through :

1. phytochromes
2. cytochromes
3. water
4. oxygen.

Answer: 2. cytochromes

Question 37. R.Q. for Oxalic acid is :

1. 4
2. I
3. Infinity
4. 0.9.

Answer: 1. 4

Question 38. In plants glucose used as a respiratory substrate is derived from :

1. starch
2. maltose
3. sucrose
4. galactose.

Answer: 3. sucrose

Plant Respiration NEET Questions

Question 39. During glycolysis, fructose 1,6 biphosphate is produced by the action of which enzyme?

1. Mutase
2. Phospho fructokinase
3. Invcrtasc
4. Hexokinase.

Answer: 2. Phospho fructokinase

Question 40. In the conversion of pyruvic acid to C02, which does not take place :

1. pyruvic acid to succinic acid
2. pyruvic acid to lactic acid
3. pyruvic acid to malic acid
4. None of these.

Answer: 1. pyruvic acid to succinic acid

Question 41. The function of cellular respiration is to :

1. make NADH
2. make ATP
3. gel rid of glucose
4. get rid of C02

Answer: 4. get rid of C02

Question 42. It is not advisable to sleep under trees at night because :

1. They release 02 at night.
2. They release C02 at night.
3. They release both CO-> and 02 at night
4. They produce none of the above.

Answer: 2. They release C02 at night.

Question 43. The function of mitochondrial cristae is to.

1. increase the availability of phospholipids
2. store coenzyme A
3. increase the surface area of the inner membrane
4. prevent the escape of 0-> gas.

Answer : 3. increase the surface area of the inner membrane

Question 44. The number of molecules of pyruvic acid formed from one molecule of glucose at the end of glycolysis is :

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4.

Answer: 2. 2

Question 45. Oxidative phosphorylation takes place on :

1. grana
2. crista
3. mitochondrial matrix
4. ribosomes.

Answer: 3. mitochondrial matrix

Plant Respiration NEET Questions

Question 46. Which among the following is the most appropriate rea¬-‘ son for storing green-colored apples at low temperatures?

1. The rate of respiration is reduced
2. The rate of photosynthesis is reduced
3. The rates of photosynthesis and respiration are reduced
4. Respiration and photosynthesis are completely inhibited.

Answer: 2. The rate of photosynthesis is reduced

Question 47. The other name of Glycolysis is :

1. BMP pathway
2. TCA pathway
3. I IMP pathway
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. BMP pathway

Question 48. One molecule of ATP yields how much energy?

1. 8.9 K cal
2. 6.5 K cal
3. 34KJ
4. 3.4 KJ.

Answer: 3. 34KJ

Question 49. In which kind of plants CO, compensation is usually higher:

1. C4 plants
2. C3 plants
3. CAM plants
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. CAM plants

Question 50. ATP is:

1. an enzyme that brings about oxidation
2. a hormone
3. a molecule with high energy phosphate bond
4. a protein.

Answer: 3. a molecule with high energy phosphate bond

Question 51. Which of the following processes make direct use of oxygen?

1. Glycolysis
2. Fermentation
3. Krebs’ citric acid cycle
4. Electron transport.

Answer: 4. Electron transport.

Question 52. Which of the following is not true of glycolysis?

1. Substrate-level phosphorylation takes place
2. CO and 11,0 are end products
3. ATP is generated
4. ATP is used.

Answer: 2. CO, and 11,0 are end products

Question 53. When a yeast is producing wine, which of the following is not produced?

1. Pyruvic acid
2. Ethanol
3. CO,
4. Acetyl Co A.

Answer: 4. Acetyl Co A.

NEET Important Questions On Respiration

Question 54. In the conversion of pyruvic acid to acetyl CoA, pyruvic acid is :

1. oxidized
2. reduced
3. broken into one carbon fragment
4. isomerized.

Answer: 2. reduced

Question 55. The function of coenzyme A is to :

1. isomerize pyruvic acid
2. isomerize NAD
3. activate acetyl group
4. facilitate oxidative phosphorylation.

Answer: 3. activate acetyl group

Question 56. How many carbon atoms are in an oxaloacetic acid molecule, which joins with an acetyl group during step 1 of the Kerbs’ citric acid cycle?

1. 6
2. 4
3. 3
4. 2.

Answer: 2. 4

Question 57. At the end of the Krebs’ citric acid cycle, most of the energy removed from glucose molecule has been transferred to :

1. Citric acid
2. Oxaloacetic acid
3. ATP
4. NADH2 and FADH2

Answer: 2. Oxaloacetic acid

Question 58. In ETS, the final acceptor of protons is :

1. Cyt. b
2. Cyt. a3,
3. Oxygen
4. Ubiquinone (substance).

Answer: 3. Oxygen

Question 59. The atom within each cytochrome molecule that actually accepts and releases electrons is :

1. Carbon
2. Iron
3. Zinc
4. Oxygen.

Answer: 2. Iron

Question 60. Oxygen which forms part of the ETS, enters the mitochondrion as an atom in :

1. Glucose
2. Pyruvic acid
3. C02
4. Oxygen gas.

Answer: 4. Oxygen gas.

NEET Important Questions On Respiration

Question 61. Fatty acids enter cellular respiration as :

1. one carbon fragment
2. two carbon fragments
3. long chains of 16-20 carbon atoms
4. three-carbon fragments.

Answer: 2. two carbon fragments

Question 62. Within the mitochondrion, the proton gradient develops across the :

1. inner membrane
2. outer membrane
3. intermembrane space
4. matrix.

Answer: 3. intermembrane space

Question 63. Match the items in Column 1 with those in Column 2 :

1. (1—E), (2—B), (3—D). (4—A), (5—C)
2. (1—A). (2—C). (3—A). (4—D), (5—C)
3. (1—B), (2—D), (3—A). (4—E), (5—C)
4. (1—B), (2—C). (3—D), (4—A), (5—E),

Answer: 2. (1—A). (2—C). (3—A). (4—D), (5—C)

Question 64. Which is true for glycolysis under aerobic conditions?

1. Only ATP is produced
2. Only NADH2 is produced
3. Both ATP and NADH2 arc produced
4. Neither ATP nor NADH is produced.

Answer: 3. Both ATP and NADH2 arc produced

Question 65. Which is not true for the TCA cycle when one acetyl group is oxidized?

1. Two CO, molecules are released
2. Three NADf molecules and one FAD molecule are reduced
3. One GTP molecule is produced
4. 38 ATP molecules are produced.

Answer: 4. 38 ATP molecules are produced.

Question 66. An organism which does not produce water as a waste of the respiratory process is likely to be :

1. green plant
2. autotroph
3. anaerobe
4. aerobic organism.

Answer: 3. anaerobe

NEET Important Questions On Respiration

Question 67. A high concentration of oxygen above 25% :

1. reduces respiration
2. increases respiration
3. does not have any effect
4. leads to the bursting of cells.

Answer: 1. reduces respiration

Question 68. If CO, is given off in respiration, why does the amount of CO, in the atmosphere remain relatively constant?

1. CO, forms carbonate rocks
2. CO is a buffer
3. CO is converted in photosynthesis to carbohydrates
4. CO is split up during photosynthesis.

Answer: 3. CO, is converted in photosynthesis to carbohydrates

Question 69. How many molecules of ATP are produced directly from one molecule of glucose during glycolysis :

1. 6
2. 8
3. 0 2
4. 38.

Answer: 3. 0 2

Respiration in Plants NEET Questions MCQ Question 70. In ETS, complex IV refers to :

1. succinate dehydrogenase
2. cytochrome oxidase
3. ATP synthetase
4. Ubiquinone.

Answer: 2. cytochrome oxidase

Question 71. Sir Hans Adolf Krebs (1900-1987) shared the Nobel Prize for Physiology and Medicine (1953) along with :

1. A. Todd.
2. 11. Theorell.
3. Fritz Lipmann
4. Linus Pauling.

Answer: 3. Fritz Lipmann

Question 72. The end product of the fermentation of sugars by Psuedomoiuts bacteria is :

1. lactic acid and alcohol
2. CO2
3. ethyl alcohol +C02
4. butyl alcohol.

Answer: 1. lactic acid and alcohol

Question 73. Which of these is not true for fermentation?

1. NADH donates electrons to the ETS
2. beginning with glucose
3. Net gain of only 2 ATP
4. Occurs in cytosol.

Answer: 1. NADH donates electrons to the ETS

Aerobic And Anaerobic Respiration MCQs

Question 74. Protein-rich pulses have R.Q. equal to :

1. One
2. More than one
3. Less than one
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Less than one

Question 75. The mineral activator needed for the enzyme carboxylase of the TCA cycle is :

1. Mg
2. Fe
3. Mo
4. Mn

Answer: 1. Mg

Respiration in Plants NEET Questions MCQ Question 76. A huge amount of starch is stored in potatoes, which are underground. This is made possible by :

1. Synthesis of sugar in potatoes
2. Migration of starch from aerial parts to the tubers
3. Migration of starch from dead soil into the tubers
4. The activity of enzymes that convert starch into sugar and back to starch after it has reached the potato.

Answer: 4. Activity of enzymes that convert starch into sugar and back to starch after it has reached the potato.

Question 77. Which of the following leaves will show the maximum rate of respiration?

1. Young leaves
2. Mature leaves
3. Senescent leaves
4. None of these.

Answer: 1. Young leaves

Question 78. Respiration in methane-forming bacteria and de-nitric-flying bacteria is :

1. Aerobic
2. Facultative aerobic
3. Facultative anaerobic
4. Obligatory anaerobic.

Answer: 4. Obligatory anaerobic.

Question 79. During respiration, there are:

1. gain in the dry weight
2. loss in the dry weight
3. no change in the dry weight
4. all the above are correct depending on the type of respiratory substrate.

Answer: 2. loss in the dry weight

Best MCQs For NEET Biology

Question 80. In animal cells, the first phase in the breakdown of glucose is :

1. Fermentation
2. ETS
3. Krebs’ cycle
4. Glycolysis.

Answer: 4. Glycolysis.

Respiration in Plants NEET Questions MCQ Question 81. A molecule of ATP is formed when an electron passes from :

1. Cyt. c to Cyt. a
2. Cyt. b to Cyt. c
3. Cyt. a to Cyt. c
4. Cyt. c to Cyt b.

Answer: 2. Cyt. b to Cyt. c

Question 82. Most of the energy is supplied by mitochondria through :

1. Breakdown of proteins
2. Reduction of NADP
3. Breakdown of sugars
4. Oxidizing TCA substrates.

Answer: 4. Oxidising TCA substrates.

Question 83. The end product of glycolysis is :

1. Glucose
2. Pyruvic acid
3. Ethyl alcohol
4. Carbon dioxide.

Answer: 2. Pyruvic acid

Question 84. Which is the link between glycolysis and Krebs’ cycle :

1. Glucose
2. Cytochrome
3. Acetyl Co A
4. Pyruvic acid.

Answer: 3. Acetyl Co A

Question 85. The end products of fermentation are :

1. 02 and ethyl alcohol
2. 02 and acetaldehyde
3. C02 and ethyl alcohol
4. C02 and acetaldehyde.

Answer: 3. C02 and ethyl alcohol

Best MCQs For NEET Biology

Question 86. In eukaryotes, a net gain of ATP in the complete oxidation of one molecule of glucose is:

1. 20 ATP
2. 36 ATP
3. 38 ATP
4. 56 ATP.

Answer: 2. 36 ATP

Question 87. In ETS, which is the cytochrome that reacts with oxygen?

1. Cyt a
2. Cyt b
3. Cyt b6
4. Cyt a3

Answer: 4. Cyt a3

Question 88. Instantaneous sources of energy are:

1. Starch
2. Protein
3. Glucose
4. Sucrose.

Answer: 3. Glucose

Question 89. R.Q. is less than one in succulent plants because of:

1. incomplete reduction
2. complete reduction
3. incomplete oxidation
4. complete oxidation.

Answer: 3. incomplete oxidation

Question 90. Oxidative phosphorylation is the formation of :

1. NADPH2 in respiration
2. ATP in respiration
3. NADPH2 in photosynthesis
4. ATP in photosynthesis.

Answer: 2. ATP in respiration

Question 91. In hexose monophosphate shunt the number of C02 molecules evolved is :

1. Same as in glycolysis
2. Less than glycolysis
3. More than glycolysis
4. Much less than glycolysis.

Answer: 3. More than glycolysis

Question 92. Which of the following observations most strongly support the view that mitochondria contain electron-transfer enzymes aggregated into compact associations?

1. A contractile protein capable of utilizing ATP has been obtained from mitochondria
2. Mitochondria have a highly folded inner wall
3. Disruption of mitochondria yields membrane fragments which are able to synthesize ATP
4. Mitochondria in animal embryos have a tendency to concentrate in cells which become part of locomotory structures.

Answer: 3. Disruption of mitochondria yields membrane fragments which are able to synthesize ATP

Question 93. Maximum energy becomes available per mole of glucose when it is metabolized through :

1. Glycolysis in the skeletal muscle of a sprinter
2. Fermentation into ethanol by yeast
3. Fermentation into methanol by enteric bacteria
4. Aerobic respiration.

Answer:  4. Aerobic respiration

Mineral Nutrition In Plants Multiple Choice Questions.

Question 1. Iron is mainly absorbed in :

1. Ferrous form
2. Ferric form
3. Combined form
4. All the above.

Answer:  4. Ferrous form

Question 2. Micronutrients are those elements :

1. Not important for plant growth
2. Required in large quantity
3. Required in small quantities and are important as macro-nutrients
4. Not present in the soil.

Answer: 3. Required in small quantities and are important as macro-nutrients

Question 3. Which of the following micronutrients can be absorbed by foliage?

1. Hydrogen
2. Potassium
3. Sodium
4. Zinc.

Answer: 2. Potassium

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 4. Which of the following elements are not absorbed from the soil?

1. Nitrogen
2. Iron
3. Boron
4. Carbon.

Answer: 4. Carbon.

Question 5. Which of the following is a component of chlorophyll?

1. Calcium
2. Sodium
3. Zinc
4. Magnesium.

Answer:  4. Magnesium.

Question 6. Bidirectional translocation of minerals takes place through :

1. Xylem
2. Phloem
3. Parenchyma
4. Cambium.

Answer: 1. Xylem

Mineral Nutrition Mcqs For Neet

Question 7. The most abundant element in plants is :

1. Oxygen
2. Nitrogen
3. Carbon
4. Hydrogen.

Answer : 3. Carbon

Question 8. Minerals of soil are derived from :

1. Rocks
2. Clay
3. Carbon
4. Organisms.

Answer: 1. Rocks

Question 9. Trace elements are :

1. Required in very minute quantity
2. Radioactive
3. Those which draw other elements
4. First discovered in protoplasm.

Answer: 1.  Required in very minute quantity

Question 10. Pre-mature leaf-fall is caused by to deficiency of :

1. Zinc
2. Cobalt
3. Nitrogen
4. Potassium.

Answer : 3. Nitrogen

Question 11. The chlorophyll is not formed without :

1. Potassium
2. Magnesium
3. Calcium
4. Phosphorus.

Answer: 2.  Magnesium

Mineral Nutrition Mcqs For Neet

Question 12. The movement of mineral ions into plant root cells as a result of diffusion is called :

1. Endocytosis
2. Osmosis
3. Passive absorption
4. Active absorption.

Answer: 3. Passive absorption

Question 13. Woodward (1669) observed that plants grow better in muddy water than in rainwater because :

1. Muddy water had macronutrients dissolved in it
2. Muddy water had micronutrients dissolved in it
3. Muddy water had most of the essential elements dissolved in it
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Muddy water had most of the essential elements dissolved in it

Question 14. Who gave the criteria of essentiality?

1. R. Hill
2. F.F. Blackman
3. M.P. Kaushik
4. D.L. Arnon.

Answer: 4. D.L. Arnon.

Question 15. Which one of the following elements is essential for the photolysis of water?

1. Chlorine
2. Calcium
3. Sodium
4. Sulphur.

Answer: 1. Chlorine

Mineral Nutrition Mcqs For Neet

Question 16. Which one of the following plants cannot fix atmospheric nitrogen directly?

1. Bean
2. Castor
3. Gram
4. Pea.

Answer: 2. Castor

Question 17. In the nitrogen cycle, nitrite is converted to nitrate by :

1. Azotobacter
2. Rhizobium
3. Nitrosowonas
4. Nitrobacter.

Answer: 4. Nitrobacter.

Question 18. Plants absorb mineral salts from the soil solution through:

1. A semipermeable membrane into the cytoplasm by selective absorption
2. Perforations at the apex of root hair cells
3. The cell wall which is permeable
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1.  A semipermeable membrane into the cytoplasm by selective absorption

Mineral Nutrition In Plants Mcqs Neet

Question 19. Deficiency of iron causes :

1. Bending of leaf tip
2. Interveinal chlorosis first in young leaves
3. Decrease in protein synthesis
4. Reduced leaves and stunted growth.

Answer: 2. Interveinal chlorosis first in young leaves

Question 20. The function of Mg and Fe is:

1. Synthesis of chlorophyll
2. Synthesis of proteins
3. Synthesis of fat
4. Synthesis of organic acids.

Answer: 1. Synthesis of chlorophyll

Question 21. Which of the following elements is involved in nitrogen metabolism in the reduction of nitrates?

1. Zinc
2. Molybdenum
3. Boron
4. Manganese.

Answer: 2.  Molybdenum

Question 22. The mineral constituent of the cell wall is :

1. Iron
2. Sulphur
3. Potassium
4. Calcium.

Answer: 4.  Calcium.

Question 23. Active uptake of minerals by roots mainly depends on the :

1. Availability of oxygen Light
2. Temperature
3. Availability of carbon dioxide.

Answer: 1.  Availability of oxygen Light

Mineral Nutrition In Plants Mcqs Neet

Question 24. Which of the following is a macronutrient?

1. Ca
2. Mn
3. Zn
4. Cu.

Answer: 1.  Ca

Question 25. Which of the following is a trace element?

1. Zn
2. Ca
3. P
4. Mg.

Answer: 1. Zn

Question 26. Synthesis of IAA requires:

1. Iron
2. Zinc
3. Calcium
4. Nitrogen.

Answer: 2. Zinc

Question 27. Which of the following is common to ferredoxin and cytochrome? ,

1. Na
2. K
3. Fe
4. Mg.

Answer : 3. Fe

Question 28. The brown colour of the leaves of cabbage is due to the deficiency of:

1. Boron
2. Nitrogen
3. Sulphur
4. Calcium.

Answer: 1. Boron

Neet Mcqs On Essential Minerals In Plants

Question 29. Most of the minerals in inorganic form are transported through :

1. xylem
2. Phloem
3. Cortex
4. Cambium.

Answer: 1. xylem

Mineral Nutrition MCQ Question 30. The mass flow hypothesis explains the transport of:

1. Water
2. Food materials
3. Salts
4. Auxins.

Answer:  2. Food materials

Question 31. Which of the following does not require carrier molecules during transport through cell membranes?

1. Na+ and K+ transport
2. Active transport of sugars and amino acids
3. Simple diffusion
4. Facilitated diffusion.

Answer: 3. Simple diffusion

Question 32. In a citrus plantation, all the plants were found to be suffering from the die-back disease and spraying of fungicides was of no help. This problem was due to the deficiency of:

1. Auxins
2. Zinc
3. Gibberellic acid
4. Copper.

Answer: 4. Copper.

Question 33. In fruit trees a disease exanthema is caused by the deficiency of:

1. Na
2. Ca
3. Cu
4. P

Answer: 3. Cu

Neet Mcqs On Essential Minerals In Plants

Question 34. Active transport of molecules from outside to inside across a membrane requires:

1. Cyclic AMP
2. Acetylcholine
3. ATP (energy)
4. Choline.

Answer:  3. ATP (energy)

Question 35. If chlorophyll is burnt, what will be left?

1. Fe
2. Na
3. Mg
4. Mn.

Answer: 3.  Mg

Mineral Nutrition MCQ Question 36. Deficiency of molybdenum causes:

1. Poor development of vasculature
2. Bending of leaves
3. Chlorosis of leaves
4. Mottling or necrosis of leaves.

Answer: 4.  Mottling or necrosis of leaves

Question 37. Which one of the following elements plays an important role in biological nitrogen fixation?

1. Molybdenum
2. Manganese
3. Copper
4. Zinc.

Answer: 1. Molybdenum

Question 38. Photolysis of water is increased by :

1. Manganese
2. Zinc
3. Boron
4. Copper.

Answer: 1.  Manganese

Neet Mcqs On Essential Minerals In Plants

Question 39. The role of inorganic nutrients in plant growth was at first indicated by :

1. Wood ward
2. Knop ‘
3. Stewart
4. De Saussure.

Answer: 2.  Knop ‘

Question 40. Which of the following essential mineral elements is not a constituent of any enzyme, but stimulates the reactions of many enzymes?

1. Potassium
2. Zinc
3. Manganese
4. Magnesium.

Answer: 1. Potassium

Question 41. The essential nutrient element required by plants in the least quantity is :

1. Chlorine
2. Zinc
3. Molybdenum
4. Manganese.

Answer: 3. Molybdenum

Question 42. Ammonium sulfate is a :

1. Enzyme
2. Fertilizer
3. Weed killer
4. Pesticide.

Answer: 2. Fertilizer

Question 43. For normal growth of plants one of the following is not required :

1. Magnesium
2. Lead
3. Potassium
4. Iron.

Answer: 2. Lead

Macro And Micronutrients In Plants Mcqs For Neet

Question 44. The essential element for the synthesis of auxin is :

1. Zn
2. Phosphorus
3. Sulphur
4. Potassium.

Answer: 1. Zn

Question 45. Pre-mature leaf-fail is caused due to the deficiency of :

1. Molybdenum
2. Sodium
3. Phosphorus
4. Sulphur.

Answer: 3. Phosphorus

Question 46. Which one of the following can fix atmospheric nitrogen directly?

1. Pea
2. Brassica
3. Castor
4. Petunia.

Answer: 1. Pea

Biology MCQ Mineral Nutrition Question 47. Mg and Fe are required by the plants for the :

1. Energy transfer is concerned with photosynthesis
2. Synthesis of chlorophyll pigments in leaves
3. Mechanism of stomatal opening and closing
4. Translocation of carbohydrates from the leaf to the stem.

Answer: 2. Synthesis of chlorophyll pigments in leaves

Question 48. The non-essential elements in the plant are:

1. Calcium
2. Barium
3. Iron
4. Magnesium.

Answer: 2.  Barium

Macro And Micronutrients In Plants Mcqs For Neet

Question 49. An example of an anaerobic nitrogen-fixing saprophytic bacterium is :

1. Azotobacter
2. Rhizobium
3. Clostridium
4. Pseudomonas.

Answer: 3.  Clostridium

Question 50. Organisms which fix free nitrogen in the soil are :

1. Green algae
2. Ferns
3. Blue-green algae
4. Mosses.

Answer: 3.  Blue-green algae

Question 51. Nodules with nitrogen-fixing bacteria are present in the roots of:

1. Cotton
2. Gram
3. Wheat
4. Maize.

Answer: 2.  Gram

Question 52. Members of the bean family are particularly important for the rotation of crops:

1. Because they add green manure
2. They add nitrates to the soil
3. They make the soil porous
4. They add calcium to the soil.

Answer: 2.  They add nitrates to the soil

Question 53. Nitrogen is an essential component of :

1. Fats
2. Carbohydrates
3. Proteins
4. Hormones.

Answer: 3. Proteins

Question 54. The most important element associated with proto-plasm and proteinaceous materials of plants is :

1. Oxygen
2. Nitrogen
3. Potassium
4. Sulphur.

Answer: 2. Nitrogen

Question 55. Which is a micronutrient?

1. Calcium
2. Zinc
3. Magnesium
4. Phosphorus.

Answer: 2.  Zinc

Macro And Micronutrients In Plants Mcqs For Neet

Question 56. Minerals are absorbed by roots mainly by :

1. Active absorption
2. Diffusion
3. Donnan equilibrium
4. Transfusion.

Answer: 1.  Active absorption

NEET Biology Mineral Nutrition In Plants Question 57. Which of the following elements can plants take directly from air?

1. Phosphorus
2. Nitrogen
3. Carbon
4. Calcium.

Answer: 3.  Carbon

Question 58. Chlorosis in plants occurs due to :

1. High sunlight intensity
2. Low light intensity
3. Yellow pigment
4. Deficiency of magnesium and iron in the soil.

Answer: 4.  Deficiency of magnesium and iron in the soil.

Question 59. Hydroponics is ;

1. The study of soil conservators
2. Culture of plants in water
3. The study of plant ecology
4. None of the above.

Answer:  2. Culture of plants in water

Question 60. Non-essential elements for the proper growth of the plant are:

1. Potassium
2. Calcium
3. Magnesium
4. Culture of plants in water

Answer: 1.  Potassium

Question 61. Nitrogen is usually absorbed by the plant in the form of:

1. Nitrogen peroxide
2. Free nitrogen
3. Nitrate
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Nitrate

Mineral Nutrition Mcqs For Neet

Question 62. Insectivorous plants can grow well in a soil deficient in: _

1. Calcium
2. Magnesium
3. Nitrogen
4. Iron.

Answer: 3.  Nitrogen

Question 63. Without essential mineral nutrients leaves of many plants turn yellow because of:

1. Plasmolysis
2. Etiolation
3. chlorosis
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. chlorosis

NEET Biology Mineral Nutrition In Plants Question 64. Which element is essential as an electron carrier?

1. Iron
2. Zinc
3. Potassium
4. Calcium.

Answer: 1.  Iron

Question 65. Enzyme-catalyzed reactions can be inhibited by :

1. Mg2++
2. Zn2++
3. Cu2++
4. Hg2++.

Answer: 4.  Hg2++.

Question 66. If a dried leaf is taken in a crucible and heated to 600°C, a grey-coloured powder is left behind. It is referred to as:

1. Dry weight
2. Plant ash
3. Wilting percentage
4. Protein content of the plant.

Answer: 2.  Plant ash

Question 67. In the nodules of roots in leguminous plants, we find :

1. N2 producing bacteria
2. Denitrifying bacteria
3. Fixing bacteria
4. Ammonifying bacteria.

Answer: 3.  Fixing bacteria

Question 68. Which of the following is an obligate stem parasite?

1. Cuscuta
2. Orobanche
3. Dalbergia sissoo
4. Monotropa.

Answer: 1. Cuscuta

Mineral Nutrition Mcqs For Neet

Question 69. Which of the following is a partial root parasite?

1. Sanlalum album
2. Rafflesia
3. Monotropa
4. Mango,

Answer: 1.  Sanlalum album

Question 70. Pick up the saprophytic angiosperm :

1. Neottia
2. Agaricus
3. Eucalyptus
4. Cuscuta.

Answer: 1.  Neottia

Question 71. Helotism is master and slave relationship found in :

1. Lichens
2. Mysmicophytes
3. Nepenthes
4. Cuscuta.

Answer: 1.  Lichens

Question 72. The insectivorous plant, Nepenthes is also known as:

1. Sundew plant
2. Ficus
3. Pitcher plant
4. Dischidia.

Answer: 3. Pitcher plant

Question 73. The traps of carnivorous plants contain :

1. Polysaccharides
2. Digestive enzymes
3. Phospholipids
4. Weedicidcs.

Answer: 2. Digestive enzyme

Question 74. Which of the following formulae describes nitrogen fixation?

1. N₂ +3H₂→ 2NH₃
2. 2NH⁺₄ +202 + 8e→ N2 + 4H₂0
3. 2NH3 →N₂+ 3H2 ‘
4. 2N₂+ glucose —> 2 Amino acids.

Answer: 1. N₂ +3H₂→ 2NH₃

Neet Mcqs On Essential Minerals In Plants

Question 75. Mineral uptake by a terrestrial plant is limited by insufficient:

1. Blue light
2. Soil water
3. Apoplast
4. Phellogen.

Answer: 2.  Soil water

Question 76. Plants that have mutualistic relations with nitrogen¬fixing bacteria provide the bacteria with :

1. N2
2. Enzymes
3. Sugars
4. Nitrite.

Answer: 3.  Sugars

Question 77. The nodule in a plant root where nitrogen-fixing bacteria live forms from cells of the :

1. Epidermis.
2. Cortex.
3. Endodermis
4. Vascular cylinder.

Answer: 2.  Cortex.

Mineral Nutrition MCQ  Question 78. Plants, such as clover and beans, that have nitrogen-fixing bacteria in their roots are in which of the following families?

1. Orchidaceae
2. Asteraceae
3. Solanaceae
4. Leguminosae.

Answer: 2. Asteraceae

Question 79. Contact exchange of ions occurs:

1. Between root and soil particles
2. Root and soil solution
3. Cell and external solution
4. All the above.

Answer: 1.  Between root and soil particles

Question 80. Bacteria that fix nitrogen for such plants as clover and beans are in which of the following genera?

1. Denitrovibrio
2. Rhizobium
3. Pseudomonas
4. Nitrobacter.

Answer: 2.  Rhizobium

Neet Mcqs On Essential Minerals In Plants

Question 81. Salt respiration is :

1. Excretion of salt through respiratory channels
2. Decrease in respiration during salt absorption
3. Additional respiration involved in salt absorption
4. Linking of ion movement with respiratory chain.

Answer: 3.  Additional respiration involved in salt absorption

Question 82. Which of the following plants will enrich the soil with nitrogen?

1. Corn
2. Alfalfa
3. Wheatgrass
4. Beets.

Answer: 2.  Alfalfa

Question 83. Organisms that fix nitrogen in aquatic habitats are :

1. Green algae
2. Cyanobacteria
3. Crown algae

Protozoa.

Answer: 2.  Cyanobacteria

Question 84. ‘Grey-Speck’ disease is caused by the deficiency of:

1. Molybdenum
2. Zinc
3. Manganese
4. Boron.

Answer: 3.  Manganese

Mineral Nutrition MCQ  Question 85. The need of individual plants for any particular element is normally defined in terms of:

1. Critical period
2. Critical condition
3. Critical concentration
4. None of the above.

Answer:  3.  Critical concentration

Question 86. Permeability of protoplasm is accelerated by :

1. Na
2. K
3. Ca
4. P.

Answer: 2. K

Question 87. Black necrosis of the stem and root tip is caused by the deficiency of:

1. Magnesium
2. Chlorine
3. Copper
4. Boron.

Answer: 4. Boron.

Mineral Nutrition In Plants Mcqs Neet

Question 88. Which of the following is not caused by a deficiency of mineral nutrition?

1. Necrosis
2. Etiolation
3. Chlorosis
4. Shortening of internodes.

Answer:  Etiolation

Mineral Nutrition MCQ  Question 89. Which of the following is not essential for plant growth?

1. Zn
2. I,
3. K
4. Fe.

Answer: 2.  I

Question 90. Which of the following nutrient elements is most important for protein synthesis?

1. N,
2. K
3. Mg
4. Fe.

Answer: 1. N

Question 91. Which of die following is not a major element?

1. Zn
2. Ca
3. Mg
4. P.

Answer: 1. Zn

Question 92. Nitrogen fixation by bacteria requires the enzyme :

1. Decarboxylase
2. Nitrogenase
3. Nitrogen deaminase
4. Nitrodioxidase.

Answer: 2. Nitrogenase

Question 93. Zinc is essential for:

1. Biosynthesis of chlorophylls
2. Biosynthesis of 3—IA A
3. Stomatal closing
4. Oxidation of carbohydrates.

Answer: 2.  Biosynthesis of 3—IA A

Question 94. Plants that have naturalistic relations with nitrogen¬fixing bacteria receive from the bacteria :

1. Ammonium
2. Amino acids
3. Nitrate
4. Nitrite.

Answer:  1. Ammonium

Mineral Nutrition In Plants Mcqs Neet

Mineral Nutrition MCQ  Question 95. An association between a fungus and a root of a higher plant is termed mycorrhiza which is an example of:

1. Parasitism
2. Helotism
3. Symbiosis
4. Myrmecophily.

Answer: 3.  Symbiosis

Question 96. Which of the following groups of plants can grow in nitrogen-deficient soils?

1. Lichens
2. Gymnosperms
3. Bryophytes
4. Insectivorous plants.

Answer: 4. Insectivorous plants.

Question 97. The theory which suggests that C02 produced in respiration plays an important role in mineral absorption is:

1. Contact exchange theory
2. Carbonic acid exchange theory
3. Active absorption dietary
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2.  Carbonic acid exchange theory

Question 98. Nodulation of legumes is reduced in deficiency of:

1. Sulphur and potassium
2. Sulphur and boron
3. Manganese and copper
4. Zinc and iron.

Answer: 2. Sulphur and boron

Question 99. Presence of phosphorus:

1. Brings about healthy root growth
2. Promotes fruit ripening
3. Retards protein formation

None.

Answer: 3. Retards protein formation

Biology MCQ Mineral Nutrition Question 100. A balancing element is :

1. Ca
2. Mg
3. K
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 101. Match List I ( nutrient) with List II (deficiency symp¬tom in leaf) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

Answer: 2.

Question 102. The soluble resources of phosphorus and nitrogen in soil generally get depleted because they are usually found as:

1. A disproportionate mixture of negatively and positively charged ions
2. Negatively charged ions
3. Only positively charged ions
4. A balanced mixture of negatively and positively charged ions.

Answer: 2.  Negatively charged ions

Question 103. At times of heavy rain, minerals in the upper layers of the soil are moved downward by a process known as:

1. Smearing
2. Leaching
3. Weathering
4. Gravitation.

Answer: 2. Leaching

NEET Biology Photosynthesis And Translocation Of Organic Solutes Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. The oxygen from H->0 is incorporated into :

1. Oxygen gas
2. Water
3. Carbohydrates
4. NADPH + H+.

Answer: 1. Oxygen gas

Question 2. Engelmatin’s experiment with Spirogyra demonstrated that :

1. The full spectrum of sunlight is needed for photosynthesis
2. Only red wavelengths are effective in causing photosynthesis
3. Only blue wavelengths are effective
4. Both blue and red wavelengths are effective.

Answer: 4. Both blue and red wavelengths are effective.

Question 3. Red and blue light support the highest rates of synthesis because :

1. These are the only wavelengths reaching from the sun
2. These are the only wavelengths that cannot be absorbed
3. Chlorophyll absorbs these wavelengths more than other wavelengths
4. These wavelengths have the highest energy visible spectrum.

Answer: 3. Chlorophyll absorbs these wavelengths more than other wavelengths

Question 4. The role of phycobilins in photosynthesis is to :

1. Absorb and transfer energy to chlorophyll
2. Donate electrons to the electron transport
3. Fix carbon dioxide
4. Carry hydrogen or electrons.

Answer: 1. Absorb and transfer energy to chlorophyll

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 5. A cell that lacks chloroplast does not:

1. Evolve carbon dioxide
2. Liberate oxygen
3. Require water
4. Utilize carbohydrates.

Answer: 2. Liberate oxygen

Photosynthesis MCQs For NEET

Question 6. Energy is transferred from the light reaction step to the dark reaction step by :

1. Chlorophyll
2. ADP
3. ATP
4. RuBP.

Answer: 3. ATP

Question 7. The thylakoids are removed and kept in a culture medium containing C02 and H2. If the set-up is exposed to light, hexose sugar are not formed as the end product. The most appropriate reason for this will be :

1. The light trapping device is non-functional
2. Enzymes involved in CO2 imitation are not available for the process.
3. The pigment (P?Q0 and P680) are not linked
4. Carbon assimilation cannot take, place in the light.

Answer: 2. Enzymes involved in CO2 imitation are not available for the process.

Question 8. In photosynthesis the oxygen evolveci1 and oxygen in glucose come from :

1. H90 and C02 respectively
2. H20
3. co2
4. C02 and H20 respectively.

Answer: 1. H90 and C02 respectively

Question 9. Algae float in the water during day time and sink during night time because :

1. They become light due to the consumption of food materials in respiration
2. They lose weight at night
3. They come up to enjoy the sunshine
4. They become buoyant in light due to the accumulation of oxygen bubbles released in photosynthesis.

Answer: 4. They become buoyant in light due to the accumulation of oxygen bubbles released in photosynthesis.

Solute Transport And Translocation MCQ Question 10. Quantosome contains :

1. 200 chlorophyll molecules
2. 230 chlorophyll molecules
3. 250 chlorophyll molecules
4. 300 chlorophyll molecules.

Answer : 3. 250 chlorophyll molecules

Question 11. In photosynthesis chlorophyll serves as :

1. Hydrogen acceptor
2. A raw material
3. An energy converter
4. As end product.

Answer : 3. An energy converter

Question 12. The first step in photosynthesis is :

1. Absorption of light by Pigment system I
2. Production of ATP and NADPH2
3. Absorption of light by chlorophylls of both Pigment systems I and II
4. Production of ATP.

Answer : 3. Absorption of light by chlorophylls of both Pigment systems I and II

Photosynthesis MCQs For NEET

Question 13. “Assimilatory Power” is :

1. ATP
2. NADPH2
3. Both (A) and (B)
4. solar energy.

Answer : 3. Both (A) and (B)

Question 14. In C3 plants initial acceptor of C02 is :

1. fructose 6-P04
2. Ribulose 1, 5 diphosphate
3. Ribulose phosphate
4. Xylulose 5-P04.

Answer: 2. Ribulose 1, 5 diphosphate

Question 15. The site of dark reaction in plastid is :

1. Granal lamella
2. Stroma
3. Stromal lamella
4. Outer membrane.

Answer: 2. Stroma

Question 16. The products of the light reaction in photosynthesis are :

1. ADP and Glucose
2. ATP and NADPH2
3. Ferredoxin and Cytochrome b6.
4. Plastoquinone and Cytochrome

Answer: 2. ATP and NADPH2

Question 17. Chloroplasts fix:

1. 02
2. H2
3. C02
4. N2.

Answer: 3. C02

Photosynthesis MCQs For NEET

Question 18. The first stable product of carbon assi£nilation in C3 plants is: etc 

1. 3-Phosphoglyceraldehyde
2. Glucose otorlq.
3. Starch
4. Pyruvic acid.

Answer: 1. 3-Phosphoglyceraldehyde

Question 19. All photosynthetic green plants contain :

1. chlorophyll a
2. Chlorophyll b
3. Chlorophyll c
4. Chlorophyll d.

Answer: 1. chlorophyll a

Question 20. The principle of limiting factor was proposed by :

1. Stephen Hales
2. Ingenhousz
3. Blackman
4. Calvin.

Answer: 3. Blackman

Question 21. The sequence of dark reaction of photosynthesis was discovered by :

1. Blackman
2. Calvin
3. Robin Hill
4. Levitt.

Answer: 2. Calvin

Question 22. Photophosphorylation takes place :

1. During day time
2. During night
3. During both day and night
4. On rainy days only.

Answer: 1. During day time

Question 23. The process of conversion of light energy into chemical energy is called :

1. Photoperiodism
2. Photophosphorylation
3. Phototropism
4. Photolysis.

Answer: 2. Photophosphorylation

Question 24. In C4 plants carbon dioxide is initially fixed with :

1. Adenosine triphosphate
2. Ribulose diphosphate
3. Phosphoenol pyruvate
4. Citric acid.

Answer: 3. Phosphoenolpyruvate

Question 25. Etiolated plants are formed due to a lack of:

1. Light
2. Hg
3. Fe
4. Mg.

Answer: 1. Light

NEET MCQs on Photosynthesis

Question 26. In photosystem I, the trap centre of energy is :

1. P 700
2. Carotene
3. P 680
4. Xanthophyll.

Answer: 1. P 700

Question 27. In photosystem II, the trap centre of energy is :

1. P-700
2. Carotene
3. P-680
4. Xanthophyll.

Answer: 3. P-680

Question 28. In Photosynthesis, the sunlight :

1. Is converted into kinetic energy
2. Is converted into chemical energy
3. Is used as a catalyst.
4. Plays no role.

Answer: 2. Is converted into chemical energy

Question 29. The role of light in photosynthesis was discovered by :

1. Priestley
2. Von Helmont
3. Ingenhousz
4. De Saussure.

Answer: 3. Ingenhousz

Transport In Plants MCQ  Question 30. The role of chlorophyll in photosynthesis is the absorption :

1. And decomposition of water
2. Of C02 and water
3. Of light and photolysis of water
4. Of strong light in the form of chemical energy.

Answer: 3. Of light and photolysis of water

Question 31. During photosynthesis the C02 as one of the raw materials enters and leaves through :

1. Lenticels
2. Hydathodes
3. Stomata
4. The general surface of leaves.

Answer: 3. Stomata

Question 32. The ratio of the volume of 02 liberated to the volume of C02 absorbed during photosynthesis is known as :

1. Respiratory quotient
2. Photosynthetic quotient ‘
3. Tidal volume
4. Expiratory reserve volume.

Answer: 2. Photosynthetic quotient ‘

Question 33. The Hill (Light) reaction or photochemical phase of photosynthesis results in the production of:

1. ATP
2. 02
3. NADPH2
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

NEET MCQs on Photosynthesis

Question 34. Which clement is essential for the photolysis of water 7

1. Nitrogen
2. Chlorine
3. Carbon
4. Oxygen.

Answer: 2. Chlorine

Question 35. In which of the following phases of photosynthesis is C02 usually utilised?

1. Photochemical phase
2. Photolysis
3. Photophosphorylation
4. Dark reaction,

Answer: 4. Dark reaction,

Question 36. In C4 plants initial C02 fixation takes place in the chloroplasts of:

1. Guard cells
2. Spongy mesophyll
3. Palisade tissue
4. Bundle sheath.

Answer: 2. Spongy mesophyll

Question 37. What happens during photosynthetic phosphorylation?

1. ATP is formed
2. ATP is not formed
3. 02 is evolved from C02
4. Water does not join the process.

Answer: 1. ATP is formed

Question 38. In a chloroplast, the site for the light reaction is :

1. Grana
2. Stroma
3. Lamella
4. Unit membrane.

Answer: 1. GranaGrana

Question 39. Leaves appear green because they :

1. Absorb green light
2. Reflect green light
3. Both absorb and reflect green light
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Reflect green light

NEET MCQs on Photosynthesis

Question 40. Which is a C4 plant?

1. Tomato
2. Saccharum
3. Potato
4. Pea.

Answer: 2. Saccharum

Question 41. C4 plants are different from C3 plants with reference to the following :

1. Types of end products of photosynthesis
2. The initial acceptor of C02 is phosphoenol pyruvate
3. Types of pigments involved.
4. No ATP was consumed.

Answer: 2. Initial acceptor of C02 is phosphoenol pyruvate

Question 42. Photorespiration includes :

1. Hatch and Slack’s cycle
2. Glycolate cycle x
3. Krebs’ cycle
4. Calvin cycle.

Answer: 2. Glycolate cycle x

Question 43. Photorespiration takes place only in:

1. Green parts of the plant
2. All the living cells of the plant
3. Mitochondria
4. Root.

Answer: 1. Green parts of the plant

Question 44. The leads appear yellow when grown in :

1. Light
2. dark
3. At Hig temperature
4. At low temperatures.

Answer: 2. dark

Question 45. In the process of photosynthesis, the first step is :

1. Absorption of CO0
2. Absorption of 02
3. Excitation of an electron of chlorophyll by a photon of light
4. Photolysis of water.

Answer: 3. Excitation of an electron of chlorophyll by a photon of light

Question 46. The substrate for photorespiration is :

1. Aspartate
2. Malate
3. Pyruvate
4. Glycolate.

Answer: 4. Glycolate.

NEET Important Questions on Photosynthesis

Question 47. Chlorophyll ‘a’ is characterized by the side group of:

1. Phytol
2. Keto
3. Methyl
4. Aldehyde.

Answer: 3. Methyl

Question 48. Assimilatory powers produced during photosynthesis are:

1. H20 and 02
2. RuDP and RuMP
3. C6H1206 and PGAL
4. ATP and NADPH2.

Answer: 4. ATP and NADPH2.

Question 49. C4 plants differ from C3 plants with respect to :

1. Number of ATP molecules consumed
2. First product
3. The substrate which accepts carbon dioxide
4. All the above.

Answer: 2. First product

Question 50. C02 fixation during C4 pathways occurs in the chloro- plast of:

1. Guard cells
2. Bundle sheath cells
3. Spongy parenchyma
4. Mesophyll cells.

Answer: 2. Bundle sheath cells

Question 51. In plants, the synthesis of chlorophyll occurs in the presence of

1. Phytochrome
2. Cytochrome
3. Light
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Light

Question 52. Persons who got Nobel Prizes for their work in photosynthesis are :

1. Calvin and Borlang
2. Calvin and Benson
3. Beadle and Tatum
4. Flemming and Waksman.

Answer: 2. Calvin and Benson

Question 53. Chlorophyll is soluble :

1. In water
2. In organic solvents
3. In H20 and organic acids
4. None of these.

Answer: 2. In organic solvents

NEET Important Questions on Photosynthesis

Question 54. The process of photophosphorylation was studied by :

1. Calvin
2. Amon
3. Priestley
4. Blackman.

Answer: 2. Amon

Question 55. The ‘Dark Reaction’ in photosynthesis is called so because it :

1. Cannot occur in light
2. Needs only darkness
3. Does not require light energy
4. Occurs more rapidly at night.

Answer: 3. Does not require light energy

Question 56. In photosynthesis‘02 is liberated due to :

1. Hydrolysis of carbohydrates
2. Breakdown Of Chlorophyll
3. Photolysis of water
4. Reduction of Carbon dioxide.

Answer: 3. Photolysis of water

Question 57. The correct formula of chlorophyll ‘a’ is :

1. C₅₅H₇₂O₅N₄Mg
2. C₅₅H₇₀O₆N₄Mg
3. C₅₅H₇₄0₅N₄Mg
4. C₅₅H₇₀O₅M₅Mg.

Answer: 1. C₅₅H₇₂O₅N₄Mg

NEET Important Questions on Photosynthesis

Question 58. Agranal chloroplasts are a characteristic feature of one of the following: ’

1. Bundle sheath of sugarcane leaves
2. Mesophyll of Pea leaves
3. Bundle sheath of mango leaves
4. Mesophyll of maize leaves.

Answer: 1. Bundle sheath of sugarcane leaves

Question 59. Which of the following is present at 3 carbon atoms of n pyrrole ring of chlorophyll a molecule?

1. Aldehyde group
2. Carboxyl group
3. Methyl group
4. Mg.

Answer: 4. Mg.

Question 60. Which of the following occurs in the C3 cycle?

1. Reductive carboxylation
2. Oxidative carboxylation
3. Photophosphorylation
4. Oxidative phosphorylation.

Answer: 1. Reductive carboxylation

Question 61. Which of the following wavelengths is active in view of photosynthesis?

1. 400—500 nm
2. 400—700 nm
3. 200-150 nm
4. 510—600 nm.

Answer: 2. 400—700 nm

Question 62. Which pigment is absent in chloroplast? ,

1. Chlorophyll
2. Anthocyanin
3. Xanthophylls
4. Carotenoids.

Answer: 2. Anthocyanin

Question 63. The C4 cycle was discovered by :

1. Calvin
2. Hatch and Slacks
3. Amon
4. Blackman.

Answer: 2. Hatch and Slacks

Photosynthesis And Translocation NEET Questions

Question 64. The plant which is used for the study of photosynthesis research is:

1. Chlamydomonas
2. Chlorella
3. Hydrilla
4. Spinach leaves.

Answer: 2. Chlorella

Question 65. Chlorophyll absorbs :

1. Red light
2. Blue light
3. Greenlight
4. Both blue and red light.

Answer: 4. Both blue and red light.

Question 66. The Discovery of the Emerson effect has shown the existence of:

1. Light and dark reaction
2. Photorespiration
3. Photophosphorylation
4. Two distinct pigment systems.

Answer: 4. Two distinct pigment systems.

Question 67. Starch is detected in the leaf:

1. By white appearance
2. With iodine solution
3. Starch granules
4. Presence of an energy store.

Answer: 2. With iodine solution

Photosynthesis And Translocation NEET Questions

Question 68. Cyclic phosphorylation produces :

1. ATP and NADPH2.
2. NADPH2 only
3. ATP only
4. ATP, NADPH2 and 02.

Answer: 3. ATP only

Question 69. The path of the C02 molecule during the dark reaction of photosynthesis was successfully traced by the use of :

1. X-rays
2. O18
3. C14
4. p32

Answer: 3. C14

Photosynthesis And Translocation NEET Questions

 Question 70. Maximal rates of |photosynthesis are obtained in the:

1. Greenlight
2. Red light
3. Far-red
4. Ultraviolet.

Answer: 2. Red light

Question 71. In C4 plants, C02 is first fixed in:

1. Palisade parenchyma
2. Guard cells
3. Bundle sheath
4. Spongy mesophyll

Answer: 4. Spongy mesophyll

Question 72. The electron donor in the photosynthetic process taking place in the eukaryotic plants is:

1. H2S
2. CO2
3. ATP
4. H20.

Answer: 4. H20.

Question 73. Tropical plants show high efficiency of C02 fixation because of:

1. Calvin cycle
2. Hatch and Slack pathway
3. EMP pathway
4. Krebs’ cycle.

Answer: 2. Hatch and Slack pathway

Photosynthesis And Translocation NEET Questions

Question 74. Which of the following enzymes is used for the carboxylation of RuDP?

1. carboxylase
2. Ribulose diphosphate carboxylase
3. Peroxidase
4. Phosphopentokinase.

Answer: 2. Ribulose diphosphate carboxylase

Question 75. Q10 is:

1. The respiratory quotient
2. Temperature coefficient
3. Constant in the quantum equation
4. A scale of quality.

Answer: 2. Temperature co-efficient

Question 76. Grana refers to :

1. Stacks of thylakoids in plastids of higher plants
2. A constant in the quantum equation
3. Glycolysis of glucose
4. A by-product of photosynthesis.

Answer: 1. Stacks of thylakoids in plastids of higher plants

Question 77. When a green cell transfers light energy into chemical energy which of the following reactions would take place?

1. ADP + iP = ATP
2. ATP – iP =s ADP
3. AMP + iP = AFP
4. GDP + P = GTP.

Answer: 1. ADP + iP = ATP

Question 78. Starch containing plastids are termed :

1. Chloroplasts
2. Chromoplasts
3. Amyloplasts
4. Leucoplasts.

Answer: 3. Amyloplasts

Best MCQs For NEET Biology

Photosynthesis MCQ Question 79. The electron carriers which in close association with photosynthetic pigment systems form an electron transport chain are :

1. Present in the cytoplasm
2. Present on the outer membrane of green plastids
3. Bound to thylakoids
4. Dissolved in stroma of chloroplasts.

Answer: 3. Bound to thylakoids

Question 80. Photorespiration is favoured by :

1. High 02 and low C09
2. Low 02 and high C02
3. Low temperature and high 02
4. Low light and high 02.

Answer: 1. High 02 and low C09

Question 81. Which of the following statements is correct about the C4 type of photosynthesis?

1. The C4 cycle is an independent cycle
2. The C4 cycle is adjunct to the Calvin cycle
3. RuBP carboxylase has a higher affinity for CC)2
4. Carboxylase is present in the bundle sheath cells.

Answer: 2. The C4 cycle is adjunct to the Calvin cycle

Question 82. C02 is used during :

1. Light reaction
2. Dark reaction
3. Photolysis
4. Grana.

Answer: 2. Dark reaction

Question 83. NADP+ is reduced to NADPH2 in:

1. Photosystem-I
2. Photosystem-II
3. Photolysis
4. Krebs’ cycle.

Answer: 2. Photosystem-II

Question 84. The light energy used by the higher plants for photo¬synthesis is only about:

1. 1-2%
2. 30%
3. 70%
4. 85%.

Answer: 1. 1-2%

Best MCQs For NEET Biology

Question 85. Calvin used which plant to trace out the carbon path.

1. Spirogyra
2. Chlamydomonas
3. Chlorococcum
4. Chlorella and Scenedesmus.

Answer: 4. Chlorella and Scenedesmus.

Question 86. Calvin cycle was investigated by the use of:

1. C12
2. O16
3. C16
4. C14.

Answer: 4. C14.

Question 87. Photorespiration is favoured by :

1. High 02 and low C02 levels
2. Low light intensity
3. Low 02 and high CO-, levels
4. Low temperature.

Answer: 1. High 02 and low C02 levels

Question 88. The isotopes that have proved useful in research on photosynthesis are :

1. O18 and O14
2. C11 andP32
3. P32 and O18
4. C14 and O18.

Answer: 4. C14 and O18

Question 89. Photosynthesis rate per unit of light energy would be more in:

1. Intermittent sunlight
2. Normal sunlight
3. Bright regular sunlight
4. Weak sunlight.

Answer: 1. Intermittent sunlight

Question 90. What is the smallest photosynthetically functional unit?

1. Photon
2. Electron
3. Quantosome
4. Chlorophyll.

Answer: 3. Quantosome

Question 91. Which one of the following crops is an efficient converter of solar energy and has a net productivity value of 2 to 4 kg. m2 per year?

1. Bajra
2. Sugarcane
3. Wheat
4. Rice.

Answer: 2. Sugarcane

Best MCQs For NEET Biology

Question 92. In the C4 plants, the C4 cycle occurs in the mesophyll cells and the C3 cycle occurs in the bundle sheath cells. But in CAM plants:

1. C4 and C3 cycles occur in the mesophyll cells only
2. The C4 cycle occurs very rarely.
3. The C4 cycle occurs in bundle sheath cells and the C3 cycle in mesophyll cells; to
4. C4 and C3 cycles occur in bundle sheath cells.

Answer: 1. C4 and C3 cycles occur in the mesophyll cells only

Question 93. Photorespiration occurs in :

1. C3 plants
2. All plants
3. Algae only
4. C4 plant

Answer: 1. C3 plants

Question 94. The plants like sugarcane, maize^Qypenis etc. show high efficiency^ ,C02 fixation because of:

1. Hatch-Slack cycle
2. Photophosphorylation
3. Blackman’s law of limiting factor
4. Calvin cycle.

Answer: 1. Hatch-Slack cycle

Question 95. Photosynthetic rate is independent of:

1. temperature
2. Light intensity
3. Light quality
4. Light duration.

Answer: 4. Light duration.

Question 96. In C4 plants. Calvin cycle

1. Does not operate because PEP carboxylase fixes most of the CO, and leaves only a little of it for Calvin cycle
2. Operates in the stroma of bundle sheath
3. Operates in the grana of bundle sheath chloroplast
4. Operates in the mesophyll chloroplast only.

Answer: 2. Operates in the stroma of bundle sheath

Question 97. Which one of the following is the most appropriate reason for storing green-coloured apples at low temperatures?

1. Photosynthesis and respiration are completely inhibited
2. The rate of respiration is reduced
3. The rate of photosynthesis is reduced
4. The rate of photosynthesis and respiration are reduced.

Answer: 4. Rate of photosynthesis and respiration are reduced.

Question 98. The specific function of light energy in the photosynthesis process is to :

1. Activate chlorophyll
2. Split water
3. Reduce CO,
4. Synthesise glucose.

Answer: 2. Split water

Photosynthesis MCQs For NEET

Question 99. Which of the following wavelengths of light is absorbed maximum for photosynthesis?

1. 640 nm
2. 440 nm
3. 680 nm
4. 700 nm.

Answer: 3. 680 nm

Question 100. Quanta required for assimilation of one mol. of CO,/0, liberation in photosynthesis are :

1. 8
2. 6
3. 4
4. 2.

Answer: 1. 8

Question 101. In an experiment to demonstrate the liberation of oxygen during photosynthesis in a fresh spring of the aquatic plant Hydrilla, 2 sets were arranged. The first set was with ordinary tap water (control set-up) and the second set was with an equal volume of brown aerated water. The evolution of Of, bubbles in the brown aerated water set will :

1. Increase only initially
2. Rapidly decrease
3. Remain unaltered
4. Cease to occur almost instantaneously.

Answer: 2. Rapidly decrease

Question 102. Which of the following is not a C4 plant?

1. Cyperus
2. Potato
3. Saccharum officinarum
4. All the above.

Answer: 2. Potato

Photosynthesis MCQs For NEET

Question 103. Purple sulphur bacteria are :

1. Saprophytic
2. Chemosynthetic
3. Heterotrophic
4. Photosynthetic.

Answer: 4. Photosynthetic

Question 104. The connecting link between respiration and photosynthesis is :

1. Ribulose-1, 5-diphosphate
2. 3-phosphoglyceraldehyde
3. Glucose
4. Sedo heptulose-1, 7, diphosphate.

Answer: 2. 3-phosphoglyceraldehyde

Question 105. Non-cyclic photophosphorylation involves :

1. Pigment system II only
2. Pigment system I only
3. Both pigment systems I and II
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Both pigment systems I and II

Question 106. The pigment that absorbs red and far-red light in plants is:

1. Cytochrome
2. Xanthophyll
3. Phytochrome
4. Carotene.

Answer: 3. Phytochrome

Question 107. When PGA is changed into phosphoglyceraldehyde during photosynthesis, which of the following reactions occurs?

1. Oxidation
2. Reduction
3. Electrolysis
4. Hydrolysis.

Answer: 2. Reduction

NEET MCQs on Photosynthesis

Question 108. During ATP synthesis, electrons pass through :

1. C02
2. 02
3. H20
4. Cytochromes.

Answer: 4. Cytochromes.

Question 109. 85-90% (or nine-tenth) of all the photosynthesis of the world is carried out by :

1. Large trees with millions of branches and leaves
2. Algae of the ocean
3. Ferns of forest
4. Scientists in the laboratory.

Answer: 2. Algae of the ocean

Question 110. Chemiosmosis requires a membrane, a proton pump and :

1. ATPase only
2. Proton gradient
3. NADPH
4. Proton gradient and ATPs

Answer: 4. Proton gradient and ATPs

Question 111. The main difference between the two light reactions of photosynthesis is :

1. Photosystem I emits electrons to be transferred to Photosystem II
2. Photosystem I generates strong reductant NADPH and Photosystem II a strong oxidant
3. Photosystem I produces a strong oxidant and photosystem II a strong reductant NADPH
4. Photosystem I produces ATP while Photosystem II does not produce ATP.

Answer: 2. Photosystem I generates strong reductant NADPH and Photosystem II a strong oxidant

Question 112. The C4 plants show :

1. Higher transpiration and no photorespiration
2. Low transpiration and no photorespiration
3. High transpiration and photorespiration
4. Low transpiration and photorespiration.

Answer: 2. Low transpiration and no photorespiration

Question 113. The light reactions of photosynthesis are initiated by :

1. P 700 and P 680
2. P 700, P 680 and Chi. b
3. All components of chi. a
4. P 700, P 695, P 680 and Chi. b.

Answer: 1. P 700 and P 680

Question 114. According to a recent Z-scheme, the electron released on behalf of PS II is accepted by :

1. Quinone
2. Ferredoxin
3. F.R.S.
4. Phaeophytin.

Answer: 1. Quinone

Question 115. The gap electron of PS II is filled due to the supply of electrons from :

1. Plastocyanin
2. Plastoquinone
3. Photolysis of water
4. Fe-S protein.

Answer: 3. Photolysis of water

Question 116. The PS II is thought to be bound to :

1. Mn-Protein
2. Fe-S protein iL
3. Quinones
4. Cytochromes.

Answer: 1. Mn-Protein

Question 117. If isolated chloroplasts suspended in an aqueous medium are supplied with inorganic phosphates, ADP, and NADP are illuminated they show :

1. Complete photosynthesis
2. Only Hill reaction
3. Only cyclic phosphorylation
4. Non-cyclic photophosphorylation.

Answer: 4. Non-cyclic photophosphorylation.

Question 118. The scientist who discovered atmospheric CO, concentration to be suboptimal for photosynthesis is :

1. Godlewski
2. Bossingault
3. Dutrochet
4. De Saussure.

Answer: 1. Godlewski

NEET MCQs on Photosynthesis

Question 119. Wilmott’s bubbler is meant to prove:

1. CO is necessary for photosynthesis
2. Light is necessary for photosynthesis
3. Oxygen is evolved during photosynthesis
4. Chlorophyll is essential for photosynthesis.

Answer: 3. Oxygen is evolved during photosynthesis

Question 120. The sap that flows out of the tire stem comes from :

1. xylem
2. Phloem
3. Medullary rays
4. Pith.

Answer: 2. Phloem

Question 121. Though potato tubers do not manufacture organic food, it is stored in them in large amounts. This is due to :

1. Conversion of starch into the tuber
2. Synthesis of food in the leaves, its translocation to the tubers and conversion into starch
3. Synthesis of hexose sugar
4. Formation of sugars and their conversion into starch in the tubers themselves.

Answer: 2. Synthesis of food in the leaves, its translocation to the tubers and conversion into s

Question 122. C4 plants are better adapted to tropical and desert areas because:

1. Sunlight is more intense and the growing season is longer
2. They can maintain a high rate of photosynthesis under water stress conditions
3. They possess chloroplasts only in bundles in bundle sheaths
4. Of all the above.

Answer: 3. They possess chloroplasts only in bundles in bundle sheaths

Question 123. In the following diagram if A represents water and carbon dioxide then

1. I is photosynthesis, El is respiration and B is CH20 and oxygen
2. I-is photosynthesis, Il-is respiration and B is C02 and H20
3. I is respiration, II is photosynthesis and B is CH20 and O,
4. I is respiration, II is photosynthesis and B is C02 and water.

Answer: 3. I is respiration, II is photosynthesis and B is CH20 and O,

Question 124. The difference between NAD+ and NADP4- is :

1. One carries electrons to the electron transport system and the other carries them to synthetic reactions
2. Only NAD+ production requires niacin in the diet
3. One contains high-energy phosphate bonds and the other does not
4. All of the above are correct.

Answer: 1. One carries electrons to the electron transport system and the other carries them to synthetic reactions

Question 125. A major drawback of Munch’s hypothesis is :

1. It involves a turgor pressure gradient
2. It explains unidirectional flow only
3. It involves permeability throughout the mass
4. Translocation is by the mass flow of solutes.

Answer: 2. It explains unidirectional flow only

Question 126. ‘High energy’ electrons from PS-I pass to NADP where they combine with hydrogen ions, which come from the initial photolysis of water, to form :

1. ADP
2. NADPH2
3. FAD
4. NAD.

Answer: 2. NADPH2

Question 127. In C4 plants, as opposed to C3 plants, the enzyme PEPase fixes carbon dioxide to PEP to form :

1. Phosphoglycerate
2. Oxalo succinate
3. Oxaloacetate
4. Dihydroxy acetone phosphate.

Answer: 3. Oxaloacetate

Question 128. If the plant is first exposed to light of 7300 A length and then to light of 6600 A, the plant:

1. Will show inhibited growth activity
2. Will resume normal growth activity
3. Will not grow at all
4. Will die.

Answer: 2. Will resume normal growth activity

Question 129. The cyclic electron pathway begins after :

1. Photosystem I complex absorbs solar energy
2. Photosystem II complex absorbs solar energy
3. Both photosystem I and II absorb solar energy
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Photosystem II complex absorbs solar energy

NEET Biology Pteridophyta Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Which of the following plant’s arcs is known as vascular cryptogams?

1. Angiosperms
2. Bryophytes
3. Ptcridophytcs
4. Gymnosperms.

Answer: 3. Ptcridophytcs

Question 2. The gametophytic generation in pteridophytes is commonly called:

1. Thallus
2. Plant body
3. Pro thallus
4. Protoncma.

Answer: 3. Pro thallus

Question 3. The male sex organs produced by the gametophyte are:

1. Sporangium
2. Archegonia
3. Sorus
4. Anthcridia.

Answer: 4. Anthcridia.

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 4. Ferns arc mostly :

1. Isogamous
2. Heterosporous
3. Homosporous
4. Asexual.

Answer: 3. Homosporous

Question 5. Stele in fern’s rhizome is of mostly :

1. Siphonostelc
2. Solenostelc
3. Dictyostele
4. All of the above.

Answer: 3. Dictyostele

Pteridophyta MCQs For NEET

Question 6. Stele is defined as:

1. At the xylem elements of the vascular bundle
2. The cortex portion of the stem
3. Phloem of the vascular elements
4. Vascular tissue surrounded by pericycle and endodermis.

Answer: 4. Vascular tissue surrounded by pericycle and endodermis.

Question 7. The sac-like structure in which spores are enclosed in

1. Strobilus
2. Sorus
3. Sporangium
4. Sporangiophere

Answer: 3. Sporangium

Question 8. Some of the pteridophytes and gymnosperms the sporophyll aggregate at the apices of the main stem or its branches to form definite compact structures. The compact structures are called:

1. Sporangiophore
2. Sorus
3. Sporangium
4. Strobilus or cone.

Answer: 4. Strobilus or cone.

Question 9. The condition where a pteridophyte produces two kinds of spores and sporangia is termed as :

1. Homospory
2. Homothallism
3. Heterospory
4. Apospory.

Answer: 3. Heterospory

Question 10. Pteridophytes are characterized by :

1. Presence of a vascular system
2. Absence of flowers
3. Absence of fruits
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Pteridophyta MCQs For NEET

Question 11. The main plant body of pteridophyte is :

1. Gametophyte
2. Sporophyte
3. Sporangium
4. Prothallus.

Answer: 2. Sporophyte

Question 12. Fem differs from selaginella by one of the following:

1. Absence of heterosporous form
2. In rhizoids
3. In the arrangement of leaves
4. All the above.

Answer: 1. Absence of heterosporous form

Question 13. The prothallus represents :

1. Gametophyte of fem
2. Sporophyte of angiosperm
3. Sporophyte of gymnosperm
4. Sporophyte of fem.

Answer: 1. Gametophyte of fem

Question 14. Pteridophytes differ from bryophytes in :

1. Having motile sperms
2. Having vascular tissues
3. Archegonia
4. Alternation of generations.

Answer: 2. Having vascular tissues

Question 15. Adaxial outgrowth from the base of leaves in selaginella is called:

1. Stipule
2. Ligule
3. Trabeculae
4. Velum.

Answer: 2. Ligule

Question 16. The function of ligule is :

1. Hygroscopic
2. Permutation
3. Reproduction
4. All the above.

Answer: 1. Hygroscopic

Question 17. Rhizophore of selaginella is :

1. Phototropic
2. Phototactic
3. Gcotropic
4. Hygroscopic.

Answer: 3. Gcotropic

Question 18. Selaginella is characterized by the presence of:

1. Homospory
2. Ligule
3. Flower
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Ligule

Question 19. Rhizophore positive geotropic structure of selaginella is :

1. Root
2. Stem
3. A new organ called subgenres
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. A new organ called subgenres

Question 20. The dominant generation in selaginella is :

1. Haploid
2. Gametophyte
3. Triploid
4. Diploid.

Answer: 4. Diploid.

Question 21. When a spore germinates within a sporangium, it is called :

1. Precocious
2. Epigeal
3. Heteroecious
4. Hypogeal.

Answer: 1. Precocious

Pteridophyta MCQs For NEET

Question 22. One character common for selaginella and fem is :

1. Heterospory
2. Protostele
3. Development of sporangium
4. Absence of ovule.

Answer: 4. Absence of ovule.

Question 23. Microsporangia and megasporangia are found in same strobilus in :

1. Fem
2. Selaginella
3. Pinus
4. Moss.

Answer: 2. Selaginella

Question 24. Heterospory is the production of :

1. Sexual and asexual spores
2. Mega and microspores
3. Haploid and diploid spores
4. Haploid and tetraploid spores.

Answer: 2. Mega and microspores

Question 25. Prothallus of dryopteris is :

1. Haploid
2. Diploid
3. Triploid
4. Tetraploid.

Answer: 1. Haploid

MCQs on Pteridophyta Question 26. Rhizophore in selaginella is :

1. Exogenous in origin
2. Endogenous in origin
3. Internal in origin
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Exogenous in origin

Question 27. The number of megaspores in Selaginella rupestris is:

1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four.

Answer: 1. One

Question 28. Selaginella differs from moss in having:

1. Well-developed vascular system
2. Motile sperms
3. An independent gametophyte
4. Both a and c.

Answer: 1. Well-developed vascular system

Question 29. Development of embryo in selaginella is :

1. Meroblastic
2. Holoblastic
3. Aposporous
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Meroblastic

Question 30. In selaginella, male gametes are :

1. Monoflagellated
2. Biflagellated
3. Multiflagellated
4. Aflagellate.

Answer: 2. Biflagellated

Pteridophyta MCQs For NEET

Question 31. Gametangia of fern are produced on :

1. Leaves
2. Sorus
3. Prothallius
4. Ramcntn.

Answer: 3. Prothallius

Question 32. Mciistclos a found in:

1. Stem of cycas
2. Needle of pinus
3. Leaf of patterns ferm
4. Rhizome of fern

Answer: 4. Rhizome of fern

Question 33. According to available loss iris which of the following went to install hand vascular 

1. Psilopliv tales
2. Lycopods
3. Horse-tail
4. Cycas

Answer: 1. Psilopliv tales

MCQs on Pteridophyta Question 34. Sporangia and spore-bearing leaf in fem is called a

1. Ramentum
2. Sorus
3. Lndusium
4. Sporophyll.

Answer: 4. Sporophyll.

Question 35. Which of the following is not heterosporous?

1. Dryopteris
2. Selaginella
3. Marsilea
4. Pinus.

Answer: 1. Dryopteris

Question 36. The annulus of the sporangium of the ferns assists in the spore dispersal by:

1. Losing water from its cells
2. Taking up water from the air
3. Collapsing in the face of strong wind
4. Losing the air of its cells.

Answer: 1. Losing water from its cells

Question 37. In many ferns, spore dissemination is affected by

1. Annulus
2. Lndusium
3. Tapetum
4. Soms.

Answer: 1. Annulus

NEET Biology Plant Kingdom MCQs

Question 38. Actinostele is related to :

1. Dictyostele
2. Protostele
3. Siphonostele
4. Solenostele.

Answer: 2. Protostele

Question 39. The tallest pteridophyte is :

1. Equisetum
2. Cyathaea
3. Dryopteris
4. Lycopodium.

Answer: 2. Cyathaea

Question 40. Gametophyte of fem is known as :

1. Protonema
2. Germling
3. Prothallus
4. Capsule.

Answer: 3. Prothallus

Question 41. Two distinct generations in a single life history are common in :

1. Bacillus
2. Mango
3. Pteris
4. Spirogyra.

Answer: 3. Pteris

Question 42. A stele without a central pith is called :

1. Solenostele
2. Protostele
3. Dictyostele
4. Siphonostele.

Answer: 4. Siphonostele.

Question 43. Multiflagellate antherozoids are found in :

1. Spirogyra
2. Ulothrix
3. Funaria
4. Dryopteris.

Answer: 4. Dryopteris.

Question 44. Vessels are absent in :

1. Spirogyra and ulothrix
2. Rhizopus and funeral
3. Dryopteris and cycas
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 45. Eed habit originated in :

1. Pteridophytes
2. Gymnosperms
3. Angiosperms
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Pteridophytes

Question 46. The leaves in ferns show :

1. Hypostomatic condition
2. Presence of sori on the ventral surface
3. Circinate ptyxis
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 47. Pteris and cycas resemble each other in the presence of:

1. Cambium
2. Vessels
3. Ciliated sperms
4. Seeds.

Answer: 3. Ciliated sperms

Question 48. Which of the following is a fossil pteridophyte?

1. Lycopodium
2. Selaginella
3. Psilotum
4. Rhynia.

Answer: 2. Selaginella

NEET Biology Plant Kingdom MCQs

Question 49. In Dryopteris, antherozoids are :

1. Coiled and multi-flagellate
2. Coilet,l and hi flagellate
3. Sickle-shaped and multi-flagellate
4. Sickle-shaped and hi flagellate

Answer: 1. Coiled and multi flagellate

Question 50. In pteridophytes. The reduction division occurs, when:

1. Spores are formed
2. Gametes are formed
3. Prothallus is formed
4. Sex organs are formed.

Answer: 1. Spores are formed

Question 51. Ramenta are found in

1. Fern
2. Mosses
3. Maize
4. Dicots

Answer: 1. Fern

Question 52. Lycopodium is :

1. Isogamous
2. Homosporous
3. Heterosporous
4. Heterogamous

Answer: 2. Homosporous

Question 53. Which of the following pteridophytes shows die chloroplast having pyrenoids :

1. Equisetum
2. Selaginella
3. Pteridium
4. Marsilea.

Answer: 2. Selaginella

Question 54. Heterospory and seed habit are often discussed about a structure called :

1. Spathe
2. Bract
3. Petiole
4. Ligule.

Answer: 4. Ligule.

NEET Biology Plant Kingdom MCQs

Question 55. The opening mechanism of sporangium in dryopteris is effectively operated by :

1. Annulus only
2. Stomium only
3. Annulus and stomium both
4. Apical opening.

Answer: 3. Annulus and stomium both

Question 56. Which of the following has amphiphloic siphonostele?

1. Rhizome of marsilea
2. Stem of lycopodium
3. Rhizome of pteris
4. Stem of equisetum.

Answer: 1. Rhizome of Marsilea

Pteridophyta vs Bryophyta MCQs

Question 57. Which one of the following is common to pteridophytes and bryophytes?

1. Dependent gametophyte on sporophyte
2. Sporophyte dependent on gametophyte
3. Multicelled sex organs with sterile jacket wall
4. Absence of sporophyte.

Answer: 3. Multicelled sex organs with sterile jacket wall

Question 58. While entering the neck of an archegonium in fem, sperms show:

1. Phototaxy
2. Chemotaxis
3. Themiotaxy
4. Cyclosis.

Answer: 2. Chemotaxy

Question 59. 200-Million years ago, the dominant flora of die earth was of:

1. Archaebacteria
2. Mosses and ferns
3. Gymnosperms
4. Angiosperms.

Answer: 3. Gymnosperms

Question 60. “Maidenhair fem” is:

1. Dryopteris
2. Azolla
3. Adiantum
4. Pteris.

Answer: 3. Adiantum

Best MCQs For NEET Biology

Question 61. chlorophyll or chloroplast is present in spores of

1. Lycopodium
2. Selaginella
3. Dryopteris
4. Marsilea.

Answer: 1. Lycopodium

Question 62. The process by which an embryo develops without involving gametic fusion is called :

1. Apospory
2. Syngamy
3. Apogamy
4. Isogamy.

Answer: 3. Apogamy

NEET Biology Plant Kingdom Bryophyta Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. The proponent of moss resembles the green alga. It differs from green alga in having:

1. Buds
2. Colourlcss rhizoids
3. Oblique sepia and discoid chloroplast
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 2. Sex organs in funerals develop :

1. At The axils of leaves
2. At the lip of the gametophore
3. In the protonema
4. Inside the capsule.

Answer: 2. At the lip of gametophore

Question 3. The green upright sterile hair-like structure among antheridia of funeral are known as :

1. Apophysis
2. Perigonial teeth
3. Trabeculae
4. Paraphyses.

Answer: 4. Paraphyses.

Question 4. A bryophyte of considerable economic importance is :

1. Marchantia
2. Riccia
3. Funaria
4. Sphagnum.

Answer: 4. Sphagnum.

Bryophyta MCQs For NEET

Question 5. In funaria meiosis occurs :

1. At the time of spore formation
2. When the nucleus of the zygote divides
3. At the time of the formation of Sperms
4. At the time of egg formation.

Answer: 1. At the time of spore formation

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 6. Anchorage organs of the funeral are :

1. Unicellular rhizoids
2. Adventitious roots
3. Multicellular rhizoids
4. True roots.

Answer: 3. Multicellular rhizoids

Question 7. Which one of the following is absent in the sporophyte of the funeral?

1. Foot
2. Seta
3. Elaters
4. Columella.

Answer: 3. Elaters

Question 8. Apophysis is :

1. Part of peristome of funaria
2. Sterile filaments among antheridia of moss
3. Terminal part of sporophylls of Pteris
4. The lower portion of the moss capsule.

Answer: 4. Lower portion of moss capsule.

Question 9. In the funeral, intermingled with the archegonia are present upright hairs called :

1. Scales
2. Rhizoids
3. Paraphysis
4. Periphyses.

Answer: 3. Paraphysis

Bryophyta MCQs For NEET

Question 10. Which of the following is a diploid?

1. Capsule of moss
2. Gametophyte, archegonia, and egg of moss
3. Gamclophyte, antheridia, and sperm of moss
4. Gametophyte and spore of moss.

Answer: 1. Capsule of moss

Question 11. Which of the following is not associated with moss capsules?

1. Trabeculae
2. Peristome
3. Columella
4. Stomium.

Answer: 4. Stomium.

Question 12. The function of the peristome in moss is

1. Spore dispersal
2. Nutritive
3. Protective
4. Absorption of water and mineral,

Answer: 1. Spore dispersal

Question 13. In which of the following sporophytes remains attached to gametophytes?

1. Fungi
2. Gymnosperms
3. Algae
4. Bryophytes

Answer: 4. Bryophytcs

Question 14. The function of craters is :

1. Absorption of food
2. Conduction of sap
3. Spore dispersal
4. To provide support.

Answer: 3. Spore dispersal

Bryophyta MCQs For NEET

Question 15. A bryophyte differs from pteridophyte in:

1. Archegonia
2. Lack of vascular tissue
3. Antheridia
4. Sperms

Answer: 2. Lack of vascular tissue

Question 16. Development of sporophyte from gametophyte cells without fertilization is called :

1. Apospory
2. Apogamy
3. Parthenogenesis
4. Syngamy.

Answer: 2. Apogamy

Question 17. In bryophytes, diploid chromosome number occurs in :

1. Spore mother cell
2. Gametes
3. Sperms
4. Meiospores.

Answer: 1. Spore mother cell

Question 18. Gemmae are vegetative reproductive structures found in:

1. Angiosperms
2. Bryophytes
3. Algae
4. Gymnosperms.

Answer: 2. Bryophytes

Question 19. Which bryophyte has simplest sporophyte :

1. Riccia
2. Marchantia
3. Anthoceros
4. Funaria.

Answer: 1. Riccia

Plant Kingdom MCQs NEET

Question 20. Female sex organ in riccia and funaria is called:

1. Paraphysis
2. Oospore
3. Archegonium
4. Artheridium.

Answer: 3. Archegonium

Question 21. When gametophyte develops from sporophyte without the production of spores it is called:

1. Apogamy
2. Parthenogenesis
3. Apospory
4. Sporogenesis.

Answer: 3. Apospory

Question 22. At the funeral leaves are arranged on the stem :

1. Oppositely
2. Spirally
3. Opposite and decussate
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Spirally

Question 23. The development of a sporophyte directly from the unfertilized egg is called :

1. Apospory
2. Parthenogenesis
3. Apogamy
4. Syngamy.

Answer: 2. Parthenogenesis

Plant Kingdom MCQs NEET

Question 24. In funaria, annulus separates:

1. Apophysis and theca
2. Theca and operculum
3. Columella and apophysis
4. Opercuium and apophysis

Answer: 2. Theca and operculum

Question 25. The gametophyte produced by apospory is

1. Haploid
2. Triploid
3. Polypolid
4. Diploid

Answer: 4. Diploid

Question 26. Funana is a bryophyte because it :

1. Has no true roots and stems
2. Has sporophyte attached to the gametophyte
3. Is non-vascular
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 27. In funeral :

1. Outer peristome teeth are hygroscopic than the inner teeth
2. Both types of teeth are hygroscopic
3. Inner teeth are responsible for the dispersal
4. Outer teeth are diploid and inner haploid.

Answer: 1. Outer peristome teeth are more hygroscopic than the inner teeth

Question 28. In bryophytes, anlherozoids are :

1. Biflagellate
2. Multi flagellate
3. Sometimes biflagellate and sometimes multiplayer- late
4. Biflagellate in a few species and multiflagellate in the rest.

Answer: 1. Biflagellate

NEET Important Questions On Bryophyta

Question 29. In mosses:

1. Gametophyte is independent of sporophyte
2. Sporophytes are partly dependent on gametophyte
3. Both 1 and 2
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Sporophyte is partly dependent on gametophyte

Question 30. Funaria may be differentiated from pinus by the character:

1. No fruits are produced
2. No seeds are produced
3. Antheridia and archegonia are present
4. Presence of sporophyte.

Answer: 2. No seeds are produced

Question 31. Spores of funaria give rise to :

1. Prothallus
2. Sporophyte
3. Protonema
4. Gametophyte.

Answer: 3. Protonema

NEET Important Questions On Bryophyta

Question 32. Protonema is a stage in the life history of:

1. Cycas
2. Funaria
3. Riccia
4. Angiosperm.

Answer: 2. Funaria

Question 33. Gametophytic generation is dominant in:

1. Angiosperm
2. Gymnosperm
3. Pteridophyta
4. Bryophyta.

Answer: 4. Bryophyta.

Question 34. In funaria stomata occur :

1. In the epidermis of the stem
2. In the capsule epidermis
3. In the leaf epidermis
4. All the above.

Answer: 2. All the above.

Question 35. Conducting tissue of moss is made of :

1. Xylem and phloem
2. Parenchyma
3. Collenchyma
4. Xylem.

Answer: 2. Parenchyma

Question 36. The apophysis region of the capsule is concerned with :

1. Photosynthesis
2. Formation of spores
3. Dispersal of spores
4. Retention of moisture.

Answer: 1. Photosynthesis

Question 37. Protonema of funaria is:

1. Tlialloid
2. Foliose
3. Filamentous
4. Cruslaccous.

Answer: 3. Filumentous

Bryophyta vs Pteridophyta MCQs

Question 38. The green photosynthetic region of the capsule is called :

1. Paralysis
2. Apophysis
3. Pcrigonial leaves
4. Trabeculae.

Answer: 2. Apophysis

Question 39. In funaria the leaves which surround the antheridia! Cluster arc called :

1. Perichaetial leaves
2. Foliage leaves
3. Scale leaves
4. Perigonial leaves.

Answer: 4. Perigonial leaves.

Question 40. At the funeral, the leaves surrounding the archegonial cluster are called:

1. Perichaetial leaves
2. Perigonial leaves
3. Acicular leaves
4. Foliage leaves.

Answer: 1. Perichaetial leaves

Question 41. One character common in Funeral and Dryopteris is:

1. Stele is protostele
2. Heterosporous sporophyte
3. Monoecious gametophyte
4. Dioecious gametophyte.

Answer: 3. Monoecious gametophyte

Question 42. In funeral, rhizoids arise from :

1. Basal region
2. Apical region
3. Dorsal region
4. Ventral region.

Answer: 1. Basal region

Bryophyta vs Pteridophyta MCQs

Question 43. The evidence for the aquatic origin of bryophytes is :

1. Ciliated sperms
2. Green colour
3. Protonema thread
4. Some are still aquatic.

Answer: 1. Ciliated sperms

Question 44. Spores in a funeral are:

1. Three layered
2. Two layered
3. Four layered
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Two layered

Question 45. Mosses show :

1. Isomorphic alternation of generations
2. Heteromorphic alternation of generations
3. Haplobiontic life cycle
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Heteromorphic alternation of generations

Question 46. Funaria is similar to cycas in the character :

1. Fruits are produced
2. No seeds are produced
3. Antheridia and archegonia are present
4. A pollen tube is present.

Answer: 3. Antheridia and archegonia are present

Question 47. The body of the funeral is :

1. Simple rosette thallus
2. Differentiated into root, central axis, and leaves
3. Differentiated into rhizoids, stems, and leaves
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Differentiated into rhizoids, stem and leaves

Best MCQs For NEET Biology

Question 48. Annulus in funaria capsule separates :

1. Operculum from columella
2. Theca from columella
3. Operculum from theca
4. Olumclla from apophysis.

Answer: 3. Operculum from theca

Question 40. Antherozoids of Marchantia are :

1. Short, curved, and biflagellate
2. Short, straight and multi-flagellate
3. Long, straight, and biflagellate
4. Long. Curved and biflagellate.

Answer: 1. Short, curved, and biflagellate

Question 50. Antheridium in a funeral is :

1. Pear-shaped
2. Club-shaped
3. Flask-shaped
4. Spherical.

Answer: 2. Club-shaped

Question 51. The sporophyte of a funeral is composed of:

1. Capsule only
2. Spore sacs and spores
3. Foot and capsule
4. Foot, seta, and capsule.

Answer: 4. Foot, seta, and capsule.

Question 52. Peristome in funaria constitute :

1. 16 Teeth
2. 16 + 16 Teeth
3. 32+16 Teeth
4. 16 + 32 Teeth.

Answer: 2. 16 + 16 Teeth

Best MCQs For NEET Biology

Question 53. The central middle part of the moss capsule is sterile and is called:

1. Apophysis
2. Operculum
3. Columella
4. Spore sacs.

Answer: 3. Columella

Question 54. The mode of nutrition of sporophyte of moss is :

1. Parasitic
2. Autotrophic
3. Saprophytic
4. Semi-parasitic.

Answer: 4. Semi-parasitic.

Question 55. The producing part in the capsule is :

1. Columella
2. Operculum
3. Spore sac
4. Apophysis.

Answer: 3. Spore sac

Question 56. Funaria gametophyte is :

1. Dioecious
2. Monoecious and autoecious
3. Monoecious
4. Heterothallic.

Answer: 2. Monoecious and autoecious

Question 57. Calyptra develops from :

1. Neck of archegonium
2. Venter wall of archegonium
3. Paraphysis
4. An outgrowth of the gametophyte.

Answer: 2. Venter wall of archegonium

Question 58. Anlheridia intermixed with paraphysis arc seen in:

1. Marchantia
2. Funaria
3. Riccia
4. Anthoceros.

Answer: 2. Funaria

Question 59. Primary protonema of moss is :

1. Haploid
2. Diploid
3. Sporophyte
4. Triploid.

Answer: 1. Haploid

Best MCQs For NEET Biology

Question 60. The center of the moss axis is occupied by :

1. Xylem
2. Phloem
3. Pith
4. Conducting tissue.

Answer: 4. Conducting tissue.

Question 61. In riccia, the archegonium is :

1. Rounded
2. Cup-shaped
3. Star-shaped
4. Flask-shaped.

Answer: 4. Flask-shaped.

Question 62. In most, antheridia and archegonia occur at the tips of two different branches of the same plant. The condition is called :

1. Monoecious and autoecious
2. Monoecious and paroecious
3. Monoecious and synoecious
4. Dioecious.

Answer: 1. Monoecious and autoecious

Question 63. The leafy gametophore is developed from protonema in :

1. Riccia
2. Marchantia
3. Funaria
4. Anthoceros.

Answer: 3. Funaria

Question 64. Spore mother cells in the funeral are :

1. Haploid
2. Tetraploid
3. Diploid
4. Triploid.

Answer: 3. Diploid

Question 65. In archegonium the cell above the egg cell is called :

1. Neck canal cell
2. Neck cell
3. Venter canal cell
4. Cover cell.

Answer: 3. Venter canal cell

Question 66. In the funeral, the spore germinates to produce :

1. Prothallus
2. Protonema
3. Proembryo
4. Embryo.

Answer: 2. Protonema

Question 67. The tallest moss in the world is :

1. Funaria
2. Pogonatum
3. Polytrichuni
4. Dawsonia.

Answer: 4. Dawsonia.

NEET Biology Kingdom Fungi Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. The branch of botany which is concerned with the study of fungi is called:

1. Parasitology
2. Mycology
3. Bacteriology
4. Embryology.

Answer: 3. Bacteriology

Question 2. The parasitic fungi take their food from the host with the help of:

1. Talparaphysis
2. Soredia
3. Hausloria
4. Conidia.

Answer: 2. Soredia

Question 3. Fungi that are used as food :

1. Rusts
2. Smuts
3. Mushrooms
4. Downy mildews.

Answer: 2. Smuts

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 4. Multinuclcatc and aseptate hyphae of rhizopus are called

1. Oidia
2. Hcterolhallic
3. Chlamydospores
4. Coenocytic.

Answer: 4.  Coenocytic.

Question 5. Sporangia in rhizopus are borne on :

1. Rhizoidal hyphae
2. Lateral branch of sporangiophore
3. Tips of sporangiophores
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Tips of sporangiophores

NEET Biology MCQs

Question 6. Commercial mushrooms are grown in soil enriched with horse manure. These mushrooms are :

1. Autotrophic
2. Parasitic
3. Saprophytic
4. Chemosynthetic

Answer: 3. Saprophytic

Question 7. Mushroom is :

1. Puccinia
2. Parasitic
3. Agaricus
4. Chemosynthetic.

Answer: 1. Puccinia

Question 8. Who found the phenomenon of heterothallism in Rhizopus

1. Aiexopouios
2. Blakeslee
3. Lyenger
4. R.n. Singh

Answer: 2. Blakeslee

Question 9. Sporangiospores are :

1. Flagellated
2. Biflagellated
3. Multinucleated
4. Ciliated

Answer: 3. Multinucleated

Question 10. Torula stage is found in medium

1. Rich in sugars
2. Pesticides
3. Antibiotics
4. Rich in fats.

Answer: 1. Rich in sugars

Question 11. Sexual reproduction in rhizopus is by

1. Spores
2. Oidia
3. Conjugation of two gametangia
4. Conidia.

Answer: 3. Conjugation of two gametangia

NEET Biology MCQs

Question 12. Yeast is an important source of:

1. Proteins
2. Sugars
3. Riboflavin
4. Vitamin c

Answer: 2. Sugars

Question 13. Ascocurp of penh llllnni is :

1. Crithccitiiu
2. Apntliccium
3. Acroslromn
4. Clcistotlicdum.

Answer: 4. Clcistotlicdum.

Question 14. Early blight and late blight arc caused respectively by :

1. Aspergillus and penicillium
2. 11Sthugo and puccinia
3. Graphiola and agarlcus
4. Aliemaria and phytophthora.

Answer: 4. Aliemaria and phytophthora.

Question 15. Citric acid is commercially manufactured from :

1. Mucor
2. Citromyccs pfefferiaur
3. Aspergillus
4. Saccharomyces.

Answer: 3. Aspergillus

Question 16. The protective sterile covering in the ascocarp is :

1. Upidcrm
2. Epicarp
3. Peridium
4. Periderm

Answer: 3. Peridium

Question 17. The hyphae of rhizopus are :

1. Branched, tubular and coenocytic
2. Branched and septate
3. Unbranched and septate
4. Unbranched, unicellular and tubular.

Answer: 1. Branched, tubular and coenocytic

Question 18. Torula stage is observed in :

1. Puccinia
2. Mucor
3. Agaricus
4. Penicillium.

Answer: 2. Mucor

NEET Biology MCQs

Question 19. Yeasts are used commercially in :

1. Butter industry
2. Wine and baking industry
3. Tobacco industry
4. Textile industry

Answer: 2. Wine and baking industry

Question 20. In Rhizopus, which of the stages does not contain ‘n’ number of chromosomes

1. Hyphae
2. Stolon
3. Rhizoids
4. Zygospore

Answer: 4. Zygospore

Question 21. The majority of the species of rhizopus are :

1. Parasitic
2. Saprophytic
3. Epiphytic
4. Lithophytic.

Answer: 2. Saprophytic

Question 22. When fungi feed on dead organic matter, they are called

1. Parasite
2. Saprophytes
3. Lithophytes
4. Dimorphic.

Answer: 2. Saprophytes

Question 23. Which of the following is used commonly in genetical experiments:

1. Mucor
2. Rhizopus
3. Morchella
4. Neurospora.

Answer: 4. Neurospora.

Question 24. Which of the following is unicellular and uninucleate?

1. Rhizopus nigricans
2. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
3. Puccinia graminis
4. Morchella esculenta.

Answer: 2. Saccharomyces cerevisiae

NEET Biology MCQs

Question 25. In a lichen, the fungal partner belongs to :

1. Phycomycetes
2. Ascomycetes
3. Basidiomycetes
4. Deuteromycetes

Answer: 2. Ascomycetes

Question 26. “Foolish seedling disease of rice” has been behind the discovery of which growth hormones?

1. Auxins
2. Ethylene
3. Gibberellins
4. Cytokinins.

Answer: 3. Gibberellins

Question 27. Plasmodium is a thallus found in:

1. Myxomycetes
2. Phycomycetes
3. Ascomycetes
4. Basidiomycetes.

Answer: 1. Myxomycetes

Question 28. Fungi reproduce by only asexual methods in :

1. Myxomycetes
2. Ascomycetes
3. Basidiomycetes
4. Deuteromycetes.

Answer: 4. Deuteromycetes.

NEET Biology MCQs

Question 29. Zygospore of mucor germinates to form :

1. Mycelium
2. Promycelium
3. Hyphae
4. Germ tube.

Answer: 2. Promycelium

Question 30. Penicillin is produced from :

1. Penicillium chrysogenum
2. Penicillium claviform
3. Penicillium expansum
4. Penicillium divarication.

Answer: 1. Penicillium chrysogenum

Question 31. Black rust of wheat is caused by :

1. Rhizopus
2. Yeast
3. Penicillium
4. Puccinia tritici.

Answer: 4. Puccinia tritici.

Question 32. A facultative parasite is one which :

1. Always requires a living host
2. Is normally saprophytic but can also become parasitic
3. Is normally a parasite but can also become a saprophyte
4. Always requires dead organic matter.

Answer: 2. Is normally saprophytic but can also become parasitic

Kingdom Fungi MCQs For NEET

Question 33. The severe famine of West Bengal of 1942-43 was due to the destruction of rice crop by a fungus :

1. Helminthosporium
2. Penicillium
3. Puccinia
4. Rhizopus.

Answer: 1. Helminthosporium

Question 34. Yeast (saccharomyces) belongs to :

1. Phycomycetes
2. Ascomycetes
3. Basidiomycetes
4. Deuteromycetes.

Answer: 2. Ascomycetes

Question 35. Rhizopus belongs to :

1. Zygomycetes
2. Ascomycetes
3. Deuteromycetes
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Zygomycetes

Kingdom Fungi MCQs For NEET

Question 36. Fleming discovered penicillin from :

1. Penicillium camembert
2. P. Notatum
3. P. Chrysogenum
4. P. Expansum.

Answer: 2. P. Notatum

Question 37. How many ascospores are formed in saccharomyces cerevisiae:

1. 2
2. 4
3. 8
4. 16.

Answer: 2. 4

Question 38. Yeast is found abundantly in :

1. Horse dung
2. Nose of fishes
3. Moist bread
4. Organic substances are rich in sugar.

Answer: 4. Organic substances rich in sugar.

Question 39. The yeast cell wall is made up of:

1. Pectin
2. Carbohydrate
3. Glucose and mannose
4. Fungal cellulose.

Answer: 4. Fungal cellulose.

Question 40. When a portion of fungal mycelium is used in the formation of reproductive structure :

1. Eucarpic
2. Acarpic
3. Holocarpic
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Eucarpic

Kingdom Fungi MCQs For NEET

Question 41. An alga and a fungus remain in lichens in :

1. Parasitic relationship
2. Symbiotic relationship
3. Saprophytic relationship
4. Epiphytic relationship.

Answer: 2. Symbiotic relationship

Question 42. Wheat rust is caused by :

1. Albugo
2. Ustilago
3. Aspergillus
4. Puccinia.

Answer: 4. Puccinia

Question 43. ‘Smuts’ belong to the genus :

1. Puccinia
2. Ustilago
3. Altemaria
4. Phytophthora.

Answer: 2. Ustilago

Question 44. Which of the following is a fungal disease?

1. Tuberculosis
2. Smallpox
3. Rabies
4. Ringworm.

Answer: 4. Ringworm.

Question 45. ‘Ergot of rye’ is caused by :

1. Puccinia
2. Ustilago
3. Ciaviceps
4. Alternaria.

Answer: 3. Ciaviceps

Fungi Important Questions For NEET

Question 46. In yeast, cell wall contains :

1. Amylose and glucose
2. Glucose and mannose
3. Glucose and muramic acid
4. Sucrose and mannose.

Answer: 2. Glucose and mannose

Question 47. The coprophilous fungi inhabit:

1. Dung
2. Deadwood
3. Decaying leaves
4. Food.

Answer: 1. Dung

Question 48. Bakane disease is connected with the discovery of :

1. Ga
2. Iaa
3. Aba
4. 2, 4 — D.

Answer: 1. Ga

Question 49. Mycorrhiza is a relationship between :

1. Algae and fungi
2. Fungi and the roots of higher plants
3. Fungi and rhizoids of lower plants
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Fungi and the roots of higher plants

Question 50. Which one of the following is edible?

1. Agaricus
2. Rhizopus
3. Neurospora
4. Peronospora.

Answer: 1. Agaricus

Question 51. Aflatoxins are produced by some :

1. Bacteria
2. Fungi
3. Viruses
4. Algae.

Answer: 2. Fungi

Fungi Important Questions For NEET

Question 52. Fungi in the division oomycete are known as :

1. Egg fungi
2. Sac fungi
3. Club fungi
4. Cup fungi.

Answer: 1. Egg fungi

Question 53. Heterothallism prevents :

1. Breeding
2. Inbreeding
3. Crossbreeding
4. Interbreeding.

Answer: 2. Inbreeding

Question 54. Dolipore septum is a characteristic feature of:

1. Phycomycetes
2. Zygomycetes
3. Ascomycetes
4. Basidiomycetes.

Answer: 4. Basidiomycetes.

Question 55. Apothecial cups are the characteristic of:

1. Aspergillus
2. Saccharomyces
3. Peziza
4. Agaricus.

Answer: 3. Peziza

Fungi Important Questions For NEET

Question 56. Dikaryotisation in basidiomycetes takes place :

1. Plasmogamy
2. Plasmogamy and karyogamy
3. Clamp connection formation
4. Karyogamy is followed by meiosis.

Answer: 3. Clamp connection formation

Question 57. Smut of maize is caused by :

1. Ustilago avenae
2. Ustilago maydis
3. Ustilago hordei
4. Ustilago nuda.

Answer: 2. Ustilago maydis

Question 58. Funga l hyphae penetrate the hard cell walls of their hosts with the help of:

1. Enzymes
2. Hormones
3. Sharp tips
4. Sugar exudates.

Answer: 1. Enzymes

Question 59. The hyphal system is called mycelium in:

1. Algae
2. Fungi
3. Bryophytes
4. Pteridophytes.

Answer: 2. Fungi

Question 60. Penicillin was first discovered by :

1. Alexander fleming
2. P. Ehrlich
3. Robert Koch
4. S. Waksman.

Answer: 1. Alexander Fleming

Fungi Important Questions For NEET

Question 61. Select the correctly matched pair.

1. Cause of Irish potato famine – altemaria solani
2. Cause of Bengal potato famine – helminths – emporium
3. Black wart disease of potato – phytophthora infestans
4. Late blight of potato – cytoplasm candida.

Answer: 3. Black wart disease of potato – phytophthora infestans

Question 62. To digest the food that lies in external, medium fungi secrete:

1. Enzymes
2. Hormones
3. Sugar
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Enzymes

Question 63. Which of the following is a fungicide?

1. Enzymes
2. Bordeaux mixture
3. 2-4 D
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Bordeaux mixture

Question 64. Late blight of potatoes is caused by :

1. Altemaria solani
2. Phytophthora infestans
3. Albugo candida
4. Fusarium moniliforme.

Answer: 2. Phytophthora infestans

Question 65. White rust of “crucifers” is caused by :

1. Albugo candida
2. Pythium
3. Cercospora
4. Phyllactinia.

Answer: 1. Albugo candida

NEET Biology Plant Kingdom MCQs

Question 66. Yeast cells are the best source of:

1. Biotin
2. Vitamin (b11, b12)
3. Vitamin a
4. Vitamin d.

Answer: 2. Vitamin D.

Kingdom Fungi NEET MCQ Question 67. Fungal extract of which fungus is used as poison?

1. Lentinus
2. Volveriella
3. Amanita
4. Armillaria.

Answer: 3. Amanita

Question 68. All fungi are always :

1. Autotrophs
2. Heterotrophs
3. Saprophytes
4. Parasites.

Answer: 2. Heterotrophs

Question 69. Rhizopus is :

1. Parasite
2. Obligate parasite
3. Epiphyte
4. Saprophyte

Answer: 4. Saprophyte

Question 70. Aecidial stages of puccinia develop on :

1. Wheat leaves
2. Wheat stem
3. The upper surface of the barberry leaf
4. The lower surface of barberry leaf.

Answer: 4. Lower surface of barberry leaf.

NEET Biology Plant Kingdom MCQs

Question 71. ‘Reindeer moss’ is a lichen used as food by men. This belongs to the genus:

1. Cetraria
2. Lobaria
3. Usnea
4. Cladonia.

Answer: 4. Cladonia.

Question 72. Which of the following groups contain typically coenocytic forms :

1. Lichens
2. Phycomycetes
3. Liverworts
4. Chlorophyceae.

Answer: 2. Phycomycetes

Question 73. Dikaryon formation occurs in :

1. Phycomycetes and slime moulds
2. Ascomycetes and slime moulds
3. Basidiomycetes and Phycomycetes
4. Both ascomycetes and basidiomycetes.

Answer: 4. Both ascomycetes and basidiomycetes.

Question 74. A basidiomycetous fungus producing uredospores on wheat plants is :

1. Ustilago
2. Puccinia
3. Phytophthora
4. Altemaria.

Answer: 2. Puccinia

Question 75. When an entire body of a fungus is used in the formation of reproductive structure, the organism is called as :

1. Acarpic
2. Holocarpic
3. Eucarpic
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Holocarpic

Question 76. Asci are formed in :

1. Ascobolus
2. Saccharomyces
3. Penicilliurn
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

NEET Biology Plant Kingdom MCQs

Question 77. Which of the following stages in rhizopus is diploid?

1. Zygospore
2. Hypha
3. Stolon
4. Spore.

Answer: 1. Zygospore

Question 78. “Fungi imperfecti” reproduce by :

1. Sexual method
2. Asexual method
3. Vegetative methods
4. Sexual and asexual methods.

Answer: 2. Asexual method

Question 79. The yeasts and mushrooms differ from algae because they :

1. Cannot carry out photosynthesis
2. Lack of cellulosic cell wall
3. Reproduce by sexual methods
4. Are terrestrial as well as aquatic.

Answer: 1. Cannot carry out photosynthesis

Question 80. Which group is a pioneer of xerophytic succession?

1. Algae
2. Fungi
3. Bryophytes
4. Lichens.

Answer: 4. Lichens.

NEET Biology Plant Kingdom MCQs

Question 81. The absorptive nutrition of fungi is aided by :

1. Dikaryon formation
2. Spore formation
3. The fact that they are all parasites
4. Their large surface area-to-volume ratio.

Answer: 4. Their large surface area-to-volume ratio.

Question 82. Branched conidiophores are found in :

1. Penicilliurn
2. Rhizopus
3. Ustilago
4. Saccharomyces.

Answer: 1. Penicilliurn

Question 83. Mushroom is a :

1. Saprophyte
2. Photosynthesises the food material
3. Facultative parasite
4. Obligate parasite.

Answer: 1. Saprophyte

Question 84. Among the following which one is an example of heterothallism :

1. Pteris
2. Rhizopus
3. Cycas
4. Castor beans.

Answer: 2. Rhizopus

Question 85. In which of the following plants, columella is present in sporangium?

1. Yeast
2. Spirogyra
3. Ulothrix
4. Rhizopus.

Answer: 4. Rhizopus.

NEET Biology Plant Kingdom MCQs

Question 86. Powdery mildew of crops is caused by :

1. Ascomycetes (Erysiphe)
2. Basidiomycetes (mushroom)
3. Phycomycetes (Albugo)
4. Bacteria.

Answer: 1. Ascomycetes (Erysiphe)

Question 87. Which of the following is not a prokaryote?

1. Bacteria
2. Yeast
3. Blue-green algae
4. Viruses.

Answer: 2. Yeast

Question 88. Which statement about fungal nutrition is not true?

1. Some fungi are active predators
2. Some fungi form mutualistic associations with other organisms
3. Fungi can make some of the compounds that are vitamins for animals
4. Facultative parasites can grow only on their specific hosts.

Answer: 3. Fungi can make some of the compounds that are vitamins for animals

Question 89. The organism used for alcohol fermentation is :

1. Saccharomyces
2. Aspergillus
3. Pseudomonas
4. Penicillium.

Answer: 1. Aspergillus

Question 90. Which causes the disease of potatoes?

1. Pythium debaryanum
2. Phytophthora infestans
3. Peronospora destructor
4. Synchytrium endobioticum.

Answer: 2. Phytophthora infestans

Question 91. Gametangial copulation (conjugation) is common in :

1. Ascomycetes
2. Zygomycetes
3. Chytridiales
4. Deuteromycetes.

Answer: 2. Zygomycetes

Fungi vs Bacteria MCQs For NEET

Question 92. A fungus which requires only a single host for the completion of its life cycle is called :

1. Heteroecious
2. Autoecious
3. Heterothallic
4. Heterosporous.

Answer: 2. Autoecious

Question 93. A thick strand of underground hyphae resembling a root is called as :

1. Rhizoid
2. Rhizophore
3. Rhizomorph
4. Radicle

Answer: 3. Rhizomorph

Kingdom Fungi NEET MCQ Question 94. In yeast meiosis occurs in:

1. Ascospores
2. Ascus mother cell
3. Bud
4. Pseudomycelium.

Answer: 2. Ascus mother cell

Question 95. A group of algal cells imprisoned in fungal mycelium serving for vegetative multiplication of lichen called :

1. Isidium
2. Soredium
3. Cephalodium
4. Helotism.

Answer: 2. Soredium

Question 96. Which of the following is mainly caused by the preparation of alcohol?

1. Lactobacillus
2. Azotobacter
3. Penicillium
4. Saccharomyces.

Answer: 4. Saccharomyces.

Question 97. Motile sperms are absent in :

1. Rhizopus
2. Funaria
3. Fern
4. Cycas.

Answer: 1. Rhizopus

Fungi vs Bacteria MCQs For NEET

Question 98. The first antibiotic isolated was :

1. Neomycin
2. Terramycin
3. Streptomycin
4. Penicillin.

Answer: 4. Penicillin.

Question 99. Organisms which obtain their food from nonliving material in the environment are called :

1. Sporophytes
2. Epiphytes
3. Parasites
4. Saprophytes.

Answer: 4. Saprophytes.

Question 100. In rhizopus sexual fusion takes place between :

1. Two gametangia
2. Two gametes
3. Two hyphae
4. Two sporangia.

Answer: 1. Two gametangia

Question 101. The source of infection for wheat rust in wheat plants is :

1. Uredospore
2. Teleutospore
3. Basidiospore
4. Aeciospore.

Answer: 4. Aeciospore.

Question 102. Select the correctly matched pair :

1. Bioindicator of pollution – lichen
2. Litmus yielding lichen – paramecia saxatilis
3. Claviceps purpurea — smut of barley
4. Fungus usnea – source of streptomycin

Answer: 1. Bioindicator of pollution – lichen

Question 103. The taxonomy of true fungi is based on :

1. Life history
2. Mode of nutrition
3. Sexual reproductive structures
4. Complexity of vegetative structure.

Answer: 3. Sexual reproductive structures

Question 104. Which one of the following is achlorophyllous :

1. Chlorobium
2. Chlamydomonas
3. Yeast
4. Euglena.

Answer: 3. Yeast

Fungi vs Bacteria MCQs For NEET

Question 105. The common black mould is :

1. Rhizopus
2. Aspergillus
3. Saccharomyces
4. Penicillium.

Answer: 1. Rhizopus

Question 106. Open ascocarp is :

1. Apothecium
2. Perithecium
3. Ascoonium
4. Cleistothecium.

Answer: 1. Apothecium

Question 107. Hypertrophy of floral parts is caused by :

1. Cystopus or albugo
2. Aspergillus
3. Cephaleuros
4. All the above.

Answer: 1. Cystopus or albugo

Question 108. Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic relationship between higher plants and :

1. Virus
2. Fungi
3. Algae
4. Bacteria.

Answer: 2. Fungi

Fungi vs Bacteria MCQs For NEET

Question 109. Identify the wrongly matched pair :

1. Smut disease of cultivated plants – ustilago
2. Smut of wheat – Puccinia
3. Loose smut of wheat – ustilago tritici
4. Late blight of potatoes – phytophthora infestans.

Answer: 2. Smut of wheat – Puccinia

Question 110. Binucleate spores of Puccinia graminis released from barberry leaf and responsible for initial infection in a wheat plant are called:

1. Pycniospores
2. Aeciospores
3. Uredospores
4. Teleutospores.

Answer: 2. Aeciospores

Question 111. The sequence of structures in a conidial mycelium of penicillium spinulosum shall be :

1. Foot cell → condiophore → phialides → conidia
2. Conidiophore→ foot cell → sterigmata→ conidia
3. Foot cell → phialides →conidia
4. Conidiophore → phialides → conidia.

Answer: 4. Conidiophore →phialides→ conidia.

Question 112. The conidia of penicillium are :

1. Thick-walled, uninucleate
2. Thin-walled uni-or multinucleate
3. Thick-walled multinucleate
4. Thin or thick-walled, multinucleate.

Answer: 2. Thin-walled uni-or multinucleate

Question 113. In penicillium aspergillus the conidial chains borne at the tips of: