Sainavle

Mineral Nutrition In Plants Multiple Choice Questions.

Question 1. Iron is mainly absorbed in :

1. Ferrous form
2. Ferric form
3. Combined form
4. All the above.

Answer:  4. Ferrous form

Question 2. Micronutrients are those elements :

1. Not important for plant growth
2. Required in large quantity
3. Required in small quantities and are important as macro-nutrients
4. Not present in the soil.

Answer: 3. Required in small quantities and are important as macro-nutrients

Question 3. Which of the following micronutrients can be absorbed by foliage?

1. Hydrogen
2. Potassium
3. Sodium
4. Zinc.

Answer: 2. Potassium

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 4. Which of the following elements are not absorbed from the soil?

1. Nitrogen
2. Iron
3. Boron
4. Carbon.

Answer: 4. Carbon.

Mineral Nutrition NEET Question 5. Which of the following is a component of chlorophyll?

1. Calcium
2. Sodium
3. Zinc
4. Magnesium.

Answer:  4. Magnesium.

Question 6. Bidirectional translocation of minerals takes place through :

1. Xylem
2. Phloem
3. Parenchyma
4. Cambium.

Answer: 1. Xylem

Question 7. The most abundant element in plants is :

1. Oxygen
2. Nitrogen
3. Carbon
4. Hydrogen.

Answer : 3. Carbon

Question 8. Minerals of soil are derived from :

1. Rocks
2. Clay
3. Carbon
4. Organisms.

Answer: 1. Rocks

Question 9. Trace elements are :

1. Required in very minute quantity
2. Radioactive
3. Those which draw other elements
4. First discovered in protoplasm.

Answer: 1.  Required in very minute quantity

Mineral Nutrition NEET  Question 10. Pre-mature leaf-fall is caused by to deficiency of :

1. Zinc
2. Cobalt
3. Nitrogen
4. Potassium.

Answer : 3. Nitrogen

Question 11. The chlorophyll is not formed without :

1. Potassium
2. Magnesium
3. Calcium
4. Phosphorus.

Answer: 2.  Magnesium

Question 12. The movement of mineral ions into plant root cells as a result of diffusion is called :

1. Endocytosis
2. Osmosis
3. Passive absorption
4. Active absorption.

Answer: 3. Passive absorption

Question 13. Woodward (1669) observed that plants grow better in muddy water than in rainwater because :

1. Muddy water had macronutrients dissolved in it
2. Muddy water had micronutrients dissolved in it
3. Muddy water had most of the essential elements dissolved in it
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Muddy water had most of the essential elements dissolved in it

Question 14. Who gave the criteria of essentiality?

1. R. Hill
2. F.F. Blackman
3. M.P. Kaushik
4. D.L. Arnon.

Answer: 4. D.L. Arnon.

Question 15. Which one of the following elements is essential for the photolysis of water?

1. Chlorine
2. Calcium
3. Sodium
4. Sulphur.

Answer: 1. Chlorine

Question 16. Which one of the following plants cannot fix atmospheric nitrogen directly?

1. Bean
2. Castor
3. Gram
4. Pea.

Answer: 2. Castor

Question 17. In the nitrogen cycle, nitrite is converted to nitrate by :

1. Azotobacter
2. Rhizobium
3. Nitrosowonas
4. Nitrobacter.

Answer: 4. Nitrobacter.

Mineral Nutrition NEET  Question 18. Plants absorb mineral salts from the soil solution through:

1. A semipermeable membrane into the cytoplasm by selective absorption
2. Perforations at the apex of root hair cells
3. The cell wall which is permeable
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1.  A semipermeable membrane into the cytoplasm by selective absorption

Question 19. Deficiency of iron causes :

1. Bending of leaf tip
2. Interveinal chlorosis first in young leaves
3. Decrease in protein synthesis
4. Reduced leaves and stunted growth.

Answer: 2. Interveinal chlorosis first in young leaves

Question 20. The function of Mg and Fe is:

1. Synthesis of chlorophyll
2. Synthesis of proteins
3. Synthesis of fat
4. Synthesis of organic acids.

Answer: 1. Synthesis of chlorophyll

Question 21. Which of the following elements is involved in nitrogen metabolism in the reduction of nitrates?

1. Zinc
2. Molybdenum
3. Boron
4. Manganese.

Answer: 2.  Molybdenum

Question 22. The mineral constituent of the cell wall is :

1. Iron
2. Sulphur
3. Potassium
4. Calcium.

Answer: 4.  Calcium.

Question 23. Active uptake of minerals by roots mainly depends on the :

1. Availability of oxygen Light
2. Temperature
3. Availability of carbon dioxide.

Answer: 1.  Availability of oxygen Light

Mineral Nutrition NEET  Question 24. Which of the following is a macronutrient?

1. Ca
2. Mn
3. Zn
4. Cu.

Answer: 1.  Ca

Question 25. Which of the following is a trace element?

1. Zn
2. Ca
3. P
4. Mg.

Answer: 1. Zn

Question 26. Synthesis of IAA requires:

1. Iron
2. Zinc
3. Calcium
4. Nitrogen.

Answer: 2. Zinc

Mineral Nutrition MCQ Question 27. Which of the following is common to ferredoxin and cytochrome? ,

1. Na
2. K
3. Fe
4. Mg.

Answer : 3. Fe

Question 28. The brown colour of the leaves of cabbage is due to the deficiency of:

1. Boron
2. Nitrogen
3. Sulphur
4. Calcium.

Answer: 1. Boron

Question 29. Most of the minerals in inorganic form are transported through :

1. xylem
2. Phloem
3. Cortex
4. Cambium.

Answer: 1. xylem

Mineral Nutrition MCQ Question 30. The mass flow hypothesis explains the transport of:

1. Water
2. Food materials
3. Salts
4. Auxins.

Answer:  2. Food materials

Question 31. Which of the following does not require carrier molecules during transport through cell membranes?

1. Na+ and K+ transport
2. Active transport of sugars and amino acids
3. Simple diffusion
4. Facilitated diffusion.

Answer: 3. Simple diffusion

Question 32. In a citrus plantation, all the plants were found to be suffering from the die-back disease and spraying of fungicides was of no help. This problem was due to the deficiency of:

1. Auxins
2. Zinc
3. Gibberellic acid
4. Copper.

Answer: 4. Copper.

Question 33. In fruit trees a disease exanthema is caused by the deficiency of:

1. Na
2. Ca
3. Cu
4. P

Answer: 3. Cu

Question 34. Active transport of molecules from outside to inside across a membrane requires:

1. Cyclic AMP
2. Acetylcholine
3. ATP (energy)
4. Choline.

Answer:  3. ATP (energy)

Question 35. If chlorophyll is burnt, what will be left?

1. Fe
2. Na
3. Mg
4. Mn.

Answer: 3.  Mg

Mineral Nutrition MCQ Question 36. Deficiency of molybdenum causes:

1. Poor development of vasculature
2. Bending of leaves
3. Chlorosis of leaves
4. Mottling or necrosis of leaves.

Answer: 4.  Mottling or necrosis of leaves

Question 37. Which one of the following elements plays an important role in biological nitrogen fixation?

1. Molybdenum
2. Manganese
3. Copper
4. Zinc.

Answer: 1. Molybdenum

Question 38. Photolysis of water is increased by :

1. Manganese
2. Zinc
3. Boron
4. Copper.

Answer: 1.  Manganese

Question 39. The role of inorganic nutrients in plant growth was at first indicated by :

1. Wood ward
2. Knop ‘
3. Stewart
4. De Saussure.

Answer: 2.  Knop ‘

Question 40. Which of the following essential mineral elements is not a constituent of any enzyme, but stimulates the reactions of many enzymes?

1. Potassium
2. Zinc
3. Manganese
4. Magnesium.

Answer: 1. Potassium

Question 41. The essential nutrient element required by plants in the least quantity is :

1. Chlorine
2. Zinc
3. Molybdenum
4. Manganese.

Answer: 3. Molybdenum

Biology MCQ Mineral Nutrition Question 42. Ammonium sulfate is a :

1. Enzyme
2. Fertilizer
3. Weed killer
4. Pesticide.

Answer: 2. Fertilizer

Question 43. For normal growth of plants one of the following is not required :

1. Magnesium
2. Lead
3. Potassium
4. Iron.

Answer: 2. Lead

Question 44. The essential element for the synthesis of auxin is :

1. Zn
2. Phosphorus
3. Sulphur
4. Potassium.

Answer: 1. Zn

Question 45. Pre-mature leaf-fail is caused due to the deficiency of :

1. Molybdenum
2. Sodium
3. Phosphorus
4. Sulphur.

Answer: 3. Phosphorus

Question 46. Which one of the following can fix atmospheric nitrogen directly?

1. Pea
2. Brassica
3. Castor
4. Petunia.

Answer: 1. Pea

Biology MCQ Mineral Nutrition Question 47. Mg and Fe are required by the plants for the :

1. Energy transfer is concerned with photosynthesis
2. Synthesis of chlorophyll pigments in leaves
3. Mechanism of stomatal opening and closing
4. Translocation of carbohydrates from the leaf to the stem.

Answer: 2. Synthesis of chlorophyll pigments in leaves

Question 48. The non-essential elements in the plant are:

1. Calcium
2. Barium
3. Iron
4. Magnesium.

Answer: 2.  Barium

Question 49. An example of an anaerobic nitrogen-fixing saprophytic bacterium is :

1. Azotobacter
2. Rhizobium
3. Clostridium
4. Pseudomonas.

Answer: 3.  Clostridium

Question 50. Organisms which fix free nitrogen in the soil are :

1. Green algae
2. Ferns
3. Blue-green algae
4. Mosses.

Answer: 3.  Blue-green algae

Biology MCQ Mineral Nutrition Question 51. Nodules with nitrogen-fixing bacteria are present in the roots of:

1. Cotton
2. Gram
3. Wheat
4. Maize.

Answer: 2.  Gram

Question 52. Members of the bean family are particularly important for the rotation of crops:

1. Because they add green manure
2. They add nitrates to the soil
3. They make the soil porous
4. They add calcium to the soil.

Answer: 2.  They add nitrates to the soil

Question 53. Nitrogen is an essential component of :

1. Fats
2. Carbohydrates
3. Proteins
4. Hormones.

Answer: 3. Proteins

Question 54. The most important element associated with proto-plasm and proteinaceous materials of plants is :

1. Oxygen
2. Nitrogen
3. Potassium
4. Sulphur.

Answer: 2. Nitrogen

Question 55. Which is a micronutrient?

1. Calcium
2. Zinc
3. Magnesium
4. Phosphorus.

Answer: 2.  Zinc

Question 56. Minerals are absorbed by roots mainly by :

1. Active absorption
2. Diffusion
3. Donnan equilibrium
4. Transfusion.

Answer: 1.  Active absorption

NEET Biology Mineral Nutrition In Plants Question 57. Which of the following elements can plants take directly from air?

1. Phosphorus
2. Nitrogen
3. Carbon
4. Calcium.

Answer: 3.  Carbon

Question 58. Chlorosis in plants occurs due to :

1. High sunlight intensity
2. Low light intensity
3. Yellow pigment
4. Deficiency of magnesium and iron in the soil.

Answer: 4.  Deficiency of magnesium and iron in the soil.

Question 59. Hydroponics is ;

1. The study of soil conservators
2. Culture of plants in water
3. The study of plant ecology
4. None of the above.

Answer:  2. Culture of plants in water

Question 60. Non-essential elements for the proper growth of the plant are:

1. Potassium
2. Calcium
3. Magnesium
4. Culture of plants in water

Answer: 1.  Potassium

Question 61. Nitrogen is usually absorbed by the plant in the form of:

1. Nitrogen peroxide
2. Free nitrogen
3. Nitrate
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Nitrate

Question 62. Insectivorous plants can grow well in a soil deficient in: _

1. Calcium
2. Magnesium
3. Nitrogen
4. Iron.

Answer: 3.  Nitrogen

Question 63. Without essential mineral nutrients leaves of many plants turn yellow because of:

1. Plasmolysis
2. Etiolation
3. chlorosis
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. chlorosis

NEET Biology Mineral Nutrition In Plants Question 64. Which element is essential as an electron carrier?

1. Iron
2. Zinc
3. Potassium
4. Calcium.

Answer: 1.  Iron

Question 65. Enzyme-catalyzed reactions can be inhibited by :

1. Mg2++
2. Zn2++
3. Cu2++
4. Hg2++.

Answer: 4.  Hg2++.

Question 66. If a dried leaf is taken in a crucible and heated to 600°C, a grey-coloured powder is left behind. It is referred to as:

1. Dry weight
2. Plant ash
3. Wilting percentage
4. Protein content of the plant.

Answer: 2.  Plant ash

Question 67. In the nodules of roots in leguminous plants, we find :

1. N2 producing bacteria
2. Denitrifying bacteria
3. Fixing bacteria
4. Ammonifying bacteria.

Answer: 3.  Fixing bacteria

Question 68. Which of the following is an obligate stem parasite?

1. Cuscuta
2. Orobanche
3. Dalbergia sissoo
4. Monotropa.

Answer: 1. Cuscuta

Question 69. Which of the following is a partial root parasite?

1. Sanlalum album
2. Rafflesia
3. Monotropa
4. Mango,

Answer: 1.  Sanlalum album

Question 70. Pick up the saprophytic angiosperm :

1. Neottia
2. Agaricus
3. Eucalyptus
4. Cuscuta.

Answer: 1.  Neottia

NEET Biology Mineral Nutrition In Plants Question 71. Helotism is master and slave relationship found in :

1. Lichens
2. Mysmicophytes
3. Nepenthes
4. Cuscuta.

Answer: 1.  Lichens

Question 72. The insectivorous plant, Nepenthes is also known as:

1. Sundew plant
2. Ficus
3. Pitcher plant
4. Dischidia.

Answer: 3. Pitcher plant

Question 73. The traps of carnivorous plants contain :

1. Polysaccharides
2. Digestive enzymes
3. Phospholipids
4. Weedicidcs.

Answer: 2. Digestive enzyme

Question 74. Which of the following formulae describes nitrogen fixation?

1. N₂ +3H₂→ 2NH₃
2. 2NH⁺₄ +202 + 8e→ N2 + 4H₂0
3. 2NH3 →N₂+ 3H2 ‘
4. 2N₂+ glucose —> 2 Amino acids.

Answer: 1. N₂ +3H₂→ 2NH₃

Question 75. Mineral uptake by a terrestrial plant is limited by insufficient:

1. Blue light
2. Soil water
3. Apoplast
4. Phellogen.

Answer: 2.  Soil water

Question 76. Plants that have mutualistic relations with nitrogen¬fixing bacteria provide the bacteria with :

1. N2
2. Enzymes
3. Sugars
4. Nitrite.

Answer: 3.  Sugars

Question 77. The nodule in a plant root where nitrogen-fixing bacteria live forms from cells of the :

1. Epidermis.
2. Cortex.
3. Endodermis
4. Vascular cylinder.

Answer: 2.  Cortex.

Mineral Nutrition MCQ  Question 78. Plants, such as clover and beans, that have nitrogen-fixing bacteria in their roots are in which of the following families?

1. Orchidaceae
2. Asteraceae
3. Solanaceae
4. Leguminosae.

Answer: 2. Asteraceae

Question 79. Contact exchange of ions occurs:

1. Between root and soil particles
2. Root and soil solution
3. Cell and external solution
4. All the above.

Answer: 1.  Between root and soil particles

Question 80. Bacteria that fix nitrogen for such plants as clover and beans are in which of the following genera?

1. Denitrovibrio
2. Rhizobium
3. Pseudomonas
4. Nitrobacter.

Answer: 2.  Rhizobium

Question 81. Salt respiration is :

1. Excretion of salt through respiratory channels
2. Decrease in respiration during salt absorption
3. Additional respiration involved in salt absorption
4. Linking of ion movement with respiratory chain.

Answer: 3.  Additional respiration involved in salt absorption

Question 82. Which of the following plants will enrich the soil with nitrogen?

1. Corn
2. Alfalfa
3. Wheatgrass
4. Beets.

Answer: 2.  Alfalfa

Question 83. Organisms that fix nitrogen in aquatic habitats are :

1. Green algae
2. Cyanobacteria
3. Crown algae

Protozoa.

Answer: 2.  Cyanobacteria

Question 84. ‘Grey-Speck’ disease is caused by the deficiency of:

1. Molybdenum
2. Zinc
3. Manganese
4. Boron.

Answer: 3.  Manganese

Mineral Nutrition MCQ  Question 85. The need of individual plants for any particular element is normally defined in terms of:

1. Critical period
2. Critical condition
3. Critical concentration
4. None of the above.

Answer:  3.  Critical concentration

Question 86. Permeability of protoplasm is accelerated by :

1. Na
2. K
3. Ca
4. P.

Answer: 2. K

Question 87. Black necrosis of the stem and root tip is caused by the deficiency of:

1. Magnesium
2. Chlorine
3. Copper
4. Boron.

Answer: 4. Boron.

Question 88. Which of the following is not caused by a deficiency of mineral nutrition?

1. Necrosis
2. Etiolation
3. Chlorosis
4. Shortening of internodes.

Answer:  Etiolation

Mineral Nutrition MCQ  Question 89. Which of the following is not essential for plant growth?

1. Zn
2. I,
3. K
4. Fe.

Answer: 2.  I

Question 90. Which of the following nutrient elements is most important for protein synthesis?

1. N,
2. K
3. Mg
4. Fe.

Answer: 1. N

Question 91. Which of die following is not a major element?

1. Zn
2. Ca
3. Mg
4. P.

Answer: 1. Zn

Question 92. Nitrogen fixation by bacteria requires the enzyme :

1. Decarboxylase
2. Nitrogenase
3. Nitrogen deaminase
4. Nitrodioxidase.

Answer: 2. Nitrogenase

Question 93. Zinc is essential for:

1. Biosynthesis of chlorophylls
2. Biosynthesis of 3—IA A
3. Stomatal closing
4. Oxidation of carbohydrates.

Answer: 2.  Biosynthesis of 3—IA A

Question 94. Plants that have naturalistic relations with nitrogen¬fixing bacteria receive from the bacteria :

1. Ammonium
2. Amino acids
3. Nitrate
4. Nitrite.

Answer:  1. Ammonium

Mineral Nutrition MCQ  Question 95. An association between a fungus and a root of a higher plant is termed mycorrhiza which is an example of:

1. Parasitism
2. Helotism
3. Symbiosis
4. Myrmecophily.

Answer: 3.  Symbiosis

Question 96. Which of the following groups of plants can grow in nitrogen-deficient soils?

1. Lichens
2. Gymnosperms
3. Bryophytes
4. Insectivorous plants.

Answer: 4. Insectivorous plants.

Question 97. The theory which suggests that C02 produced in respiration plays an important role in mineral absorption is:

1. Contact exchange theory
2. Carbonic acid exchange theory
3. Active absorption dietary
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2.  Carbonic acid exchange theory

Question 98. Nodulation of legumes is reduced in deficiency of:

1. Sulphur and potassium
2. Sulphur and boron
3. Manganese and copper
4. Zinc and iron.

Answer: 2. Sulphur and boron

Question 99. Presence of phosphorus:

1. Brings about healthy root growth
2. Promotes fruit ripening
3. Retards protein formation

None.

Answer: 3. Retards protein formation

Biology MCQ Mineral Nutrition Question 100. A balancing element is :

1. Ca
2. Mg
3. K
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 101. Match List I ( nutrient) with List II (deficiency symp¬tom in leaf) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

Answer: 2.

Question 102. The soluble resources of phosphorus and nitrogen in soil generally get depleted because they are usually found as:

1. A disproportionate mixture of negatively and positively charged ions
2. Negatively charged ions
3. Only positively charged ions
4. A balanced mixture of negatively and positively charged ions.

Answer: 2.  Negatively charged ions

Question 103. At times of heavy rain, minerals in the upper layers of the soil are moved downward by a process known as:

1. Smearing
2. Leaching
3. Weathering
4. Gravitation.

Answer: 2. Leaching

NEET Biology Photosynthesis And Translocation Of Organic Solutes Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. The oxygen from H->0 is incorporated into :

1. Oxygen gas
2. Water
3. Carbohydrates
4. NADPH + H+.

Answer: 1. Oxygen gas

Question 2. Engelmatin’s experiment with Spirogyra demonstrated that :

1. The full spectrum of sunlight is needed for photosynthesis
2. Only red wavelengths are effective in causing photosynthesis
3. Only blue wavelengths are effective
4. Both blue and red wavelengths are effective.

Answer: 4. Both blue and red wavelengths are effective.

Question 3. Red and blue light support the highest rates of synthesis because :

1. These are the only wavelengths reaching from the sun
2. These are the only wavelengths that cannot be absorbed
3. Chlorophyll absorbs these wavelengths more than other wavelengths
4. These wavelengths have the highest energy visible spectrum.

Answer: 3. Chlorophyll absorbs these wavelengths more than other wavelengths

Question 4. The role of phycobilins in photosynthesis is to :

1. Absorb and transfer energy to chlorophyll
2. Donate electrons to the electron transport
3. Fix carbon dioxide
4. Carry hydrogen or electrons.

Answer: 1. Absorb and transfer energy to chlorophyll

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Solute Transport And Translocation MCQ Question 5. A cell that lacks chloroplast does not:

1. Evolve carbon dioxide
2. Liberate oxygen
3. Require water
4. Utilize carbohydrates.

Answer: 2. Liberate oxygen

Question 6. Energy is transferred from the light reaction step to the dark reaction step by :

1. Chlorophyll
2. ADP
3. ATP
4. RuBP.

Answer: 3. ATP

Question 7. The thylakoids are removed and kept in a culture medium containing C02 and H2. If the set-up is exposed to light, hexose sugar are not formed as the end product. The most appropriate reason for this will be :

1. The light trapping device is non-functional
2. Enzymes involved in CO2 imitation are not available for the process.
3. The pigment (P?Q0 and P680) are not linked
4. Carbon assimilation cannot take, place in the light.

Answer: 2. Enzymes involved in CO2 imitation are not available for the process.

Question 8. In photosynthesis the oxygen evolveci1 and oxygen in glucose come from :

1. H90 and C02 respectively
2. H20
3. co2
4. C02 and H20 respectively.

Answer: 1. H90 and C02 respectively

Question 9. Algae float in the water during day time and sink during night time because :

1. They become light due to the consumption of food materials in respiration
2. They lose weight at night
3. They come up to enjoy the sunshine
4. They become buoyant in light due to the accumulation of oxygen bubbles released in photosynthesis.

Answer: 4. They become buoyant in light due to the accumulation of oxygen bubbles released in photosynthesis.

Solute Transport And Translocation MCQ Question 10. Quantosome contains :

1. 200 chlorophyll molecules
2. 230 chlorophyll molecules
3. 250 chlorophyll molecules
4. 300 chlorophyll molecules.

Answer : 3. 250 chlorophyll molecules

Question 11. In photosynthesis chlorophyll serves as :

1. Hydrogen acceptor
2. A raw material
3. An energy converter
4. As end product.

Answer : 3. An energy converter

Question 12. The first step in photosynthesis is :

1. Absorption of light by Pigment system I
2. Production of ATP and NADPH2
3. Absorption of light by chlorophylls of both Pigment systems I and II
4. Production of ATP.

Answer : 3. Absorption of light by chlorophylls of both Pigment systems I and II

Question 13. “Assimilatory Power” is :

1. ATP
2. NADPH2
3. Both (A) and (B)
4. solar energy.

Answer : 3. Both (A) and (B)

Question 14. In C3 plants initial acceptor of C02 is :

1. fructose 6-P04
2. Ribulose 1, 5 diphosphate
3. Ribulose phosphate
4. Xylulose 5-P04.

Answer: 2. Ribulose 1, 5 diphosphate

Solute Transport And Translocation MCQ Question 15. The site of dark reaction in plastid is :

1. Granal lamella
2. Stroma
3. Stromal lamella
4. Outer membrane.

Answer: 2. Stroma

Question 16. The products of the light reaction in photosynthesis are :

1. ADP and Glucose
2. ATP and NADPH2
3. Ferredoxin and Cytochrome b6.
4. Plastoquinone and Cytochrome

Answer: 2. ATP and NADPH2

Question 17. Chloroplasts fix:

1. 02
2. H2
3. C02
4. N2.

Answer: 3. C02

Question 18. The first stable product of carbon assi£nilation in C3 plants is: etc 

1. 3-Phosphoglyceraldehyde
2. Glucose otorlq.
3. Starch
4. Pyruvic acid.

Answer: 1. 3-Phosphoglyceraldehyde

Question 19. All photosynthetic green plants contain :

1. chlorophyll a
2. Chlorophyll b
3. Chlorophyll c
4. Chlorophyll d.

Answer: 1. chlorophyll a

Question 20. The principle of limiting factor was proposed by :

1. Stephen Hales
2. Ingenhousz
3. Blackman
4. Calvin.

Answer: 3. Blackman

Solute Transport And Translocation MCQ Question 21. The sequence of dark reaction of photosynthesis was discovered by :

1. Blackman
2. Calvin
3. Robin Hill
4. Levitt.

Answer: 2. Calvin

Question 22. Photophosphorylation takes place :

1. During day time
2. During night
3. During both day and night
4. On rainy days only.

Answer: 1. During day time

Question 23. The process of conversion of light energy into chemical energy is called :

1. Photoperiodism
2. Photophosphorylation
3. Phototropism
4. Photolysis.

Answer: 2. Photophosphorylation

Question 24. In C4 plants carbon dioxide is initially fixed with :

1. Adenosine triphosphate
2. Ribulose diphosphate
3. Phosphoenol pyruvate
4. Citric acid.

Answer: 3. Phosphoenolpyruvate

Question 25. Etiolated plants are formed due to a lack of:

1. Light
2. Hg
3. Fe
4. Mg.

Answer: 1. Light

Transport In Plants MCQ  Question 26. In photosystem I, the trap centre of energy is :

1. P 700
2. Carotene
3. P 680
4. Xanthophyll.

Answer: 1. P 700

Question 27. In photosystem II, the trap centre of energy is :

1. P-700
2. Carotene
3. P-680
4. Xanthophyll.

Answer: 3. P-680

Question 28. In Photosynthesis, the sunlight :

1. Is converted into kinetic energy
2. Is converted into chemical energy
3. Is used as a catalyst.
4. Plays no role.

Answer: 2. Is converted into chemical energy

Question 29. The role of light in photosynthesis was discovered by :

1. Priestley
2. Von Helmont
3. Ingenhousz
4. De Saussure.

Answer: 3. Ingenhousz

Transport In Plants MCQ  Question 30. The role of chlorophyll in photosynthesis is the absorption :

1. And decomposition of water
2. Of C02 and water
3. Of light and photolysis of water
4. Of strong light in the form of chemical energy.

Answer: 3. Of light and photolysis of water

Question 31. During photosynthesis the C02 as one of the raw materials enters and leaves through :

1. Lenticels
2. Hydathodes
3. Stomata
4. The general surface of leaves.

Answer: 3. Stomata

Question 32. The ratio of the volume of 02 liberated to the volume of C02 absorbed during photosynthesis is known as :

1. Respiratory quotient
2. Photosynthetic quotient ‘
3. Tidal volume
4. Expiratory reserve volume.

Answer: 2. Photosynthetic quotient ‘

Question 33. The Hill (Light) reaction or photochemical phase of photosynthesis results in the production of:

1. ATP
2. 02
3. NADPH2
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 34. Which clement is essential for the photolysis of water 7

1. Nitrogen
2. Chlorine
3. Carbon
4. Oxygen.

Answer: 2. Chlorine

Question 35. In which of the following phases of photosynthesis is C02 usually utilised?

1. Photochemical phase
2. Photolysis
3. Photophosphorylation
4. Dark reaction,

Answer: 4. Dark reaction,

Transport In Plants MCQ  Question 36. In C4 plants initial C02 fixation takes place in the chloroplasts of:

1. Guard cells
2. Spongy mesophyll
3. Palisade tissue
4. Bundle sheath.

Answer: 2. Spongy mesophyll

Question 37. What happens during photosynthetic phosphorylation?

1. ATP is formed
2. ATP is not formed
3. 02 is evolved from C02
4. Water does not join the process.

Answer: 1. ATP is formed

Question 38. In a chloroplast, the site for the light reaction is :

1. Grana
2. Stroma
3. Lamella
4. Unit membrane.

Answer: 1. GranaGrana

Question 39. Leaves appear green because they :

1. Absorb green light
2. Reflect green light
3. Both absorb and reflect green light
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Reflect green light

Question 40. Which is a C4 plant?

1. Tomato
2. Saccharum
3. Potato
4. Pea.

Answer: 2. Saccharum

Transport In Plants MCQ  Question 41. C4 plants are different from C3 plants with reference to the following :

1. Types of end products of photosynthesis
2. The initial acceptor of C02 is phosphoenol pyruvate
3. Types of pigments involved.
4. No ATP was consumed.

Answer: 2. Initial acceptor of C02 is phosphoenol pyruvate

Question 42. Photorespiration includes :

1. Hatch and Slack’s cycle
2. Glycolate cycle x
3. Krebs’ cycle
4. Calvin cycle.

Answer: 2. Glycolate cycle x

Question 43. Photorespiration takes place only in:

1. Green parts of the plant
2. All the living cells of the plant
3. Mitochondria
4. Root.

Answer: 1. Green parts of the plant

Question 44. The leads appear yellow when grown in :

1. Light
2. dark
3. At Hig temperature
4. At low temperatures.

Answer: 2. dark

Question 45. In the process of photosynthesis, the first step is :

1. Absorption of CO0
2. Absorption of 02
3. Excitation of an electron of chlorophyll by a photon of light
4. Photolysis of water.

Answer: 3. Excitation of an electron of chlorophyll by a photon of light

Question 46. The substrate for photorespiration is :

1. Aspartate
2. Malate
3. Pyruvate
4. Glycolate.

Answer: 4. Glycolate.

Important MCQs On Photosynthesis Question 47. Chlorophyll ‘a’ is characterized by the side group of:

1. Phytol
2. Keto
3. Methyl
4. Aldehyde.

Answer: 3. Methyl

Question 48. Assimilatory powers produced during photosynthesis are:

1. H20 and 02
2. RuDP and RuMP
3. C6H1206 and PGAL
4. ATP and NADPH2.

Answer: 4. ATP and NADPH2.

Question 49. C4 plants differ from C3 plants with respect to :

1. Number of ATP molecules consumed
2. First product
3. The substrate which accepts carbon dioxide
4. All the above.

Answer: 2. First product

Question 50. C02 fixation during C4 pathways occurs in the chloro- plast of:

1. Guard cells
2. Bundle sheath cells
3. Spongy parenchyma
4. Mesophyll cells.

Answer: 2. Bundle sheath cells

Important MCQs On Photosynthesis Question 51. In plants, the synthesis of chlorophyll occurs in the presence of

1. Phytochrome
2. Cytochrome
3. Light
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Light

Question 52. Persons who got Nobel Prizes for their work in photosynthesis are :

1. Calvin and Borlang
2. Calvin and Benson
3. Beadle and Tatum
4. Flemming and Waksman.

Answer: 2. Calvin and Benson

Question 53. Chlorophyll is soluble :

1. In water
2. In organic solvents
3. In H20 and organic acids
4. None of these.

Answer: 2. In organic solvents

Question 54. The process of photophosphorylation was studied by :

1. Calvin
2. Amon
3. Priestley
4. Blackman.

Answer: 2. Amon

Question 55. The ‘Dark Reaction’ in photosynthesis is called so because it :

1. Cannot occur in light
2. Needs only darkness
3. Does not require light energy
4. Occurs more rapidly at night.

Answer: 3. Does not require light energy

Important MCQs On Photosynthesis Question 56. In photosynthesis‘02 is liberated due to :

1. Hydrolysis of carbohydrates
2. Breakdown Of Chlorophyll
3. Photolysis of water
4. Reduction of Carbon dioxide.

Answer: 3. Photolysis of water

Question 57. The correct formula of chlorophyll ‘a’ is :

1. C₅₅H₇₂O₅N₄Mg
2. C₅₅H₇₀O₆N₄Mg
3. C₅₅H₇₄0₅N₄Mg
4. C₅₅H₇₀O₅M₅Mg.

Answer: 1. C₅₅H₇₂O₅N₄Mg

Question 58. Agranal chloroplasts are a characteristic feature of one of the following: ’

1. Bundle sheath of sugarcane leaves
2. Mesophyll of Pea leaves
3. Bundle sheath of mango leaves
4. Mesophyll of maize leaves.

Answer: 1. Bundle sheath of sugarcane leaves

Question 59. Which of the following is present at 3 carbon atoms of n pyrrole ring of chlorophyll a molecule?

1. Aldehyde group
2. Carboxyl group
3. Methyl group
4. Mg.

Answer: 4. Mg.

Question 60. Which of the following occurs in the C3 cycle?

1. Reductive carboxylation
2. Oxidative carboxylation
3. Photophosphorylation
4. Oxidative phosphorylation.

Answer: 1. Reductive carboxylation

Photosynthesis MCQ Question 61. Which of the following wavelengths is active in view of photosynthesis?

1. 400—500 nm
2. 400—700 nm
3. 200-150 nm
4. 510—600 nm.

Answer: 2. 400—700 nm

Question 62. Which pigment is absent in chloroplast? ,

1. Chlorophyll
2. Anthocyanin
3. Xanthophylls
4. Carotenoids.

Answer: 2. Anthocyanin

Question 63. The C4 cycle was discovered by :

1. Calvin
2. Hatch and Slacks
3. Amon
4. Blackman.

Answer: 2. Hatch and Slacks

Question 64. The plant which is used for the study of photosynthesis research is:

1. Chlamydomonas
2. Chlorella
3. Hydrilla
4. Spinach leaves.

Answer: 2. Chlorella

Photosynthesis MCQ Question 65. Chlorophyll absorbs :

1. Red light
2. Blue light
3. Greenlight
4. Both blue and red light.

Answer: 4. Both blue and red light.

Question 66. The Discovery of the Emerson effect has shown the existence of:

1. Light and dark reaction
2. Photorespiration
3. Photophosphorylation
4. Two distinct pigment systems.

Answer: 4. Two distinct pigment systems.

Question 67. Starch is detected in the leaf:

1. By white appearance
2. With iodine solution
3. Starch granules
4. Presence of an energy store.

Answer: 2. With iodine solution

Question 68. Cyclic phosphorylation produces :

1. ATP and NADPH2.
2. NADPH2 only
3. ATP only
4. ATP, NADPH2 and 02.

Answer: 3. ATP only

Question 69. The path of the C02 molecule during the dark reaction of photosynthesis was successfully traced by the use of :

1. X-rays
2. O18
3. C14
4. p32

Answer: 3. C14

Photosynthesis MCQ uestion 70. Maximal rates of |photosynthesis are obtained in the:

1. Greenlight
2. Red light
3. Far-red
4. Ultraviolet.

Answer: 2. Red light

Question 71. In C4 plants, C02 is first fixed in:

1. Palisade parenchyma
2. Guard cells
3. Bundle sheath
4. Spongy mesophyll

Answer: 4. Spongy mesophyll

Question 72. The electron donor in the photosynthetic process taking place in the eukaryotic plants is:

1. H2S
2. CO2
3. ATP
4. H20.

Answer: 4. H20.

Question 73. Tropical plants show high efficiency of C02 fixation because of:

1. Calvin cycle
2. Hatch and Slack pathway
3. EMP pathway
4. Krebs’ cycle.

Answer: 2. Hatch and Slack pathway

Photosynthesis MCQ Question 74. Which of the following enzymes is used for the carboxylation of RuDP?

1. carboxylase
2. Ribulose diphosphate carboxylase
3. Peroxidase
4. Phosphopentokinase.

Answer: 2. Ribulose diphosphate carboxylase

Question 75. Q10 is:

1. The respiratory quotient
2. Temperature coefficient
3. Constant in the quantum equation
4. A scale of quality.

Answer: 2. Temperature co-efficient

Question 76. Grana refers to :

1. Stacks of thylakoids in plastids of higher plants
2. A constant in the quantum equation
3. Glycolysis of glucose
4. A by-product of photosynthesis.

Answer: 1. Stacks of thylakoids in plastids of higher plants

Question 77. When a green cell transfers light energy into chemical energy which of the following reactions would take place?

1. ADP + iP = ATP
2. ATP – iP =s ADP
3. AMP + iP = AFP
4. GDP + P = GTP.

Answer: 1. ADP + iP = ATP

Question 78. Starch containing plastids are termed :

1. Chloroplasts
2. Chromoplasts
3. Amyloplasts
4. Leucoplasts.

Answer: 3. Amyloplasts

Photosynthesis MCQ Question 79. The electron carriers which in close association with photosynthetic pigment systems form an electron transport chain are :

1. Present in the cytoplasm
2. Present on the outer membrane of green plastids
3. Bound to thylakoids
4. Dissolved in stroma of chloroplasts.

Answer: 3. Bound to thylakoids

Question 80. Photorespiration is favoured by :

1. High 02 and low C09
2. Low 02 and high C02
3. Low temperature and high 02
4. Low light and high 02.

Answer: 1. High 02 and low C09

Question 81. Which of the following statements is correct about the C4 type of photosynthesis?

1. The C4 cycle is an independent cycle
2. The C4 cycle is adjunct to the Calvin cycle
3. RuBP carboxylase has a higher affinity for CC)2
4. Carboxylase is present in the bundle sheath cells.

Answer: 2. The C4 cycle is adjunct to the Calvin cycle

Question 82. C02 is used during :

1. Light reaction
2. Dark reaction
3. Photolysis
4. Grana.

Answer: 2. Dark reaction

Question 83. NADP+ is reduced to NADPH2 in:

1. Photosystem-I
2. Photosystem-II
3. Photolysis
4. Krebs’ cycle.

Answer: 2. Photosystem-II

Question 84. The light energy used by the higher plants for photo¬synthesis is only about:

1. 1-2%
2. 30%
3. 70%
4. 85%.

Answer: 1. 1-2%

Solute Transport And Translocation MCQ Question 85. Calvin used which plant to trace out the carbon path.

1. Spirogyra
2. Chlamydomonas
3. Chlorococcum
4. Chlorella and Scenedesmus.

Answer: 4. Chlorella and Scenedesmus.

Question 86. Calvin cycle was investigated by the use of:

1. C12
2. O16
3. C16
4. C14.

Answer: 4. C14.

Question 87. Photorespiration is favoured by :

1. High 02 and low C02 levels
2. Low light intensity
3. Low 02 and high CO-, levels
4. Low temperature.

Answer: 1. High 02 and low C02 levels

Question 88. The isotopes that have proved useful in research on photosynthesis are :

1. O18 and O14
2. C11 andP32
3. P32 and O18
4. C14 and O18.

Answer: 4. C14 and O18

Question 89. Photosynthesis rate per unit of light energy would be more in:

1. Intermittent sunlight
2. Normal sunlight
3. Bright regular sunlight
4. Weak sunlight.

Answer: 1. Intermittent sunlight

Solute Transport And Translocation MCQ Question 90. What is the smallest photosynthetically functional unit?

1. Photon
2. Electron
3. Quantosome
4. Chlorophyll.

Answer: 3. Quantosome

Question 91. Which one of the following crops is an efficient converter of solar energy and has a net productivity value of 2 to 4 kg. m2 per year?

1. Bajra
2. Sugarcane
3. Wheat
4. Rice.

Answer: 2. Sugarcane

Question 92. In the C4 plants, the C4 cycle occurs in the mesophyll cells and the C3 cycle occurs in the bundle sheath cells. But in CAM plants:

1. C4 and C3 cycles occur in the mesophyll cells only
2. The C4 cycle occurs very rarely.
3. The C4 cycle occurs in bundle sheath cells and the C3 cycle in mesophyll cells; to
4. C4 and C3 cycles occur in bundle sheath cells.

Answer: 1. C4 and C3 cycles occur in the mesophyll cells only

Question 93. Photorespiration occurs in :

1. C3 plants
2. All plants
3. Algae only
4. C4 plant

Answer: 1. C3 plants

Question 94. The plants like sugarcane, maize^Qypenis etc. show high efficiency^ ,C02 fixation because of:

1. Hatch-Slack cycle
2. Photophosphorylation
3. Blackman’s law of limiting factor
4. Calvin cycle.

Answer: 1. Hatch-Slack cycle

Question 95. Photosynthetic rate is independent of:

1. temperature
2. Light intensity
3. Light quality
4. Light duration.

Answer: 4. Light duration.

Solute Transport And Translocation MCQ Question 96. In C4 plants. Calvin cycle

1. Does not operate because PEP carboxylase fixes most of the CO, and leaves only a little of it for Calvin cycle
2. Operates in the stroma of bundle sheath
3. Operates in the grana of bundle sheath chloroplast
4. Operates in the mesophyll chloroplast only.

Answer: 2. Operates in the stroma of bundle sheath

Question 97. Which one of the following is the most appropriate reason for storing green-coloured apples at low temperatures?

1. Photosynthesis and respiration are completely inhibited
2. The rate of respiration is reduced
3. The rate of photosynthesis is reduced
4. The rate of photosynthesis and respiration are reduced.

Answer: 4. Rate of photosynthesis and respiration are reduced.

Question 98. The specific function of light energy in the photosynthesis process is to :

1. Activate chlorophyll
2. Split water
3. Reduce CO,
4. Synthesise glucose.

Answer: 2. Split water

Solute Transport And Translocation MCQ Question 99. Which of the following wavelengths of light is absorbed maximum for photosynthesis?

1. 640 nm
2. 440 nm
3. 680 nm
4. 700 nm.

Answer: 3. 680 nm

Question 100. Quanta required for assimilation of one mol. of CO,/0, liberation in photosynthesis are :

1. 8
2. 6
3. 4
4. 2.

Answer: 1. 8

Question 101. In an experiment to demonstrate the liberation of oxygen during photosynthesis in a fresh spring of the aquatic plant Hydrilla, 2 sets were arranged. The first set was with ordinary tap water (control set-up) and the second set was with an equal volume of brown aerated water. The evolution of Of, bubbles in the brown aerated water set will :

1. Increase only initially
2. Rapidly decrease
3. Remain unaltered
4. Cease to occur almost instantaneously.

Answer: 2. Rapidly decrease

Question 102. Which of the following is not a C4 plant?

1. Cyperus
2. Potato
3. Saccharum officinarum
4. All the above.

Answer: 2. Potato

Question 103. Purple sulphur bacteria are :

1. Saprophytic
2. Chemosynthetic
3. Heterotrophic
4. Photosynthetic.

Answer: 4. Photosynthetic

Question 104. The connecting link between respiration and photosynthesis is :

1. Ribulose-1, 5-diphosphate
2. 3-phosphoglyceraldehyde
3. Glucose
4. Sedo heptulose-1, 7, diphosphate.

Answer: 2. 3-phosphoglyceraldehyde

Question 105. Non-cyclic photophosphorylation involves :

1. Pigment system II only
2. Pigment system I only
3. Both pigment systems I and II
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Both pigment systems I and II

Solute Transport And Translocation MCQ Question 106. The pigment that absorbs red and far-red light in plants is:

1. Cytochrome
2. Xanthophyll
3. Phytochrome
4. Carotene.

Answer: 3. Phytochrome

Question 107. When PGA is changed into phosphoglyceraldehyde during photosynthesis, which of the following reactions occurs?

1. Oxidation
2. Reduction
3. Electrolysis
4. Hydrolysis.

Answer: 2. Reduction

Question 108. During ATP synthesis, electrons pass through :

1. C02
2. 02
3. H20
4. Cytochromes.

Answer: 4. Cytochromes.

Question 109. 85-90% (or nine-tenth) of all the photosynthesis of the world is carried out by :

1. Large trees with millions of branches and leaves
2. Algae of the ocean
3. Ferns of forest
4. Scientists in the laboratory.

Answer: 2. Algae of the ocean

Question 110. Chemiosmosis requires a membrane, a proton pump and :

1. ATPase only
2. Proton gradient
3. NADPH
4. Proton gradient and ATPs

Answer: 4. Proton gradient and ATPs

Question 111. The main difference between the two light reactions of photosynthesis is :

1. Photosystem I emits electrons to be transferred to Photosystem II
2. Photosystem I generates strong reductant NADPH and Photosystem II a strong oxidant
3. Photosystem I produces a strong oxidant and photosystem II a strong reductant NADPH
4. Photosystem I produces ATP while Photosystem II does not produce ATP.

Answer: 2. Photosystem I generates strong reductant NADPH and Photosystem II a strong oxidant

Important MCQs On Photosynthesis Question 112. The C4 plants show :

1. Higher transpiration and no photorespiration
2. Low transpiration and no photorespiration
3. High transpiration and photorespiration
4. Low transpiration and photorespiration.

Answer: 2. Low transpiration and no photorespiration

Question 113. The light reactions of photosynthesis are initiated by :

1. P 700 and P 680
2. P 700, P 680 and Chi. b
3. All components of chi. a
4. P 700, P 695, P 680 and Chi. b.

Answer: 1. P 700 and P 680

Question 114. According to a recent Z-scheme, the electron released on behalf of PS II is accepted by :

1. Quinone
2. Ferredoxin
3. F.R.S.
4. Phaeophytin.

Answer: 1. Quinone

Question 115. The gap electron of PS II is filled due to the supply of electrons from :

1. Plastocyanin
2. Plastoquinone
3. Photolysis of water
4. Fe-S protein.

Answer: 3. Photolysis of water

Question 116. The PS II is thought to be bound to :

1. Mn-Protein
2. Fe-S protein iL
3. Quinones
4. Cytochromes.

Answer: 1. Mn-Protein

Question 117. If isolated chloroplasts suspended in an aqueous medium are supplied with inorganic phosphates, ADP, and NADP are illuminated they show :

1. Complete photosynthesis
2. Only Hill reaction
3. Only cyclic phosphorylation
4. Non-cyclic photophosphorylation.

Answer: 4. Non-cyclic photophosphorylation.

Important MCQs On Photosynthesis Question 118. The scientist who discovered atmospheric CO, concentration to be suboptimal for photosynthesis is :

1. Godlewski
2. Bossingault
3. Dutrochet
4. De Saussure.

Answer: 1. Godlewski

Question 119. Wilmott’s bubbler is meant to prove:

1. CO is necessary for photosynthesis
2. Light is necessary for photosynthesis
3. Oxygen is evolved during photosynthesis
4. Chlorophyll is essential for photosynthesis.

Answer: 3. Oxygen is evolved during photosynthesis

Question 120. The sap that flows out of the tire stem comes from :

1. xylem
2. Phloem
3. Medullary rays
4. Pith.

Answer: 2. Phloem

Question 121. Though potato tubers do not manufacture organic food, it is stored in them in large amounts. This is due to :

1. Conversion of starch into the tuber
2. Synthesis of food in the leaves, its translocation to the tubers and conversion into starch
3. Synthesis of hexose sugar
4. Formation of sugars and their conversion into starch in the tubers themselves.

Answer: 2. Synthesis of food in the leaves, its translocation to the tubers and conversion into s

Question 122. C4 plants are better adapted to tropical and desert areas because:

1. Sunlight is more intense and the growing season is longer
2. They can maintain a high rate of photosynthesis under water stress conditions
3. They possess chloroplasts only in bundles in bundle sheaths
4. Of all the above.

Answer: 3. They possess chloroplasts only in bundles in bundle sheaths

Question 123. In the following diagram if A represents water and carbon dioxide then

1. I is photosynthesis, El is respiration and B is CH20 and oxygen
2. I-is photosynthesis, Il-is respiration and B is C02 and H20
3. I is respiration, II is photosynthesis and B is CH20 and O,
4. I is respiration, II is photosynthesis and B is C02 and water.

Answer: 3. I is respiration, II is photosynthesis and B is CH20 and O,

Question 124. The difference between NAD+ and NADP4- is :

1. One carries electrons to the electron transport system and the other carries them to synthetic reactions
2. Only NAD+ production requires niacin in the diet
3. One contains high-energy phosphate bonds and the other does not
4. All of the above are correct.

Answer: 1. One carries electrons to the electron transport system and the other carries them to synthetic reactions

Question 125. A major drawback of Munch’s hypothesis is :

1. It involves a turgor pressure gradient
2. It explains unidirectional flow only
3. It involves permeability throughout the mass
4. Translocation is by the mass flow of solutes.

Answer: 2. It explains unidirectional flow only

Question 126. ‘High energy’ electrons from PS-I pass to NADP where they combine with hydrogen ions, which come from the initial photolysis of water, to form :

1. ADP
2. NADPH2
3. FAD
4. NAD.

Answer: 2. NADPH2

Question 127. In C4 plants, as opposed to C3 plants, the enzyme PEPase fixes carbon dioxide to PEP to form :

1. Phosphoglycerate
2. Oxalo succinate
3. Oxaloacetate
4. Dihydroxy acetone phosphate.

Answer: 3. Oxaloacetate

Question 128. If the plant is first exposed to light of 7300 A length and then to light of 6600 A, the plant:

1. Will show inhibited growth activity
2. Will resume normal growth activity
3. Will not grow at all
4. Will die.

Answer: 2. Will resume normal growth activity

Question 129. The cyclic electron pathway begins after :

1. Photosystem I complex absorbs solar energy
2. Photosystem II complex absorbs solar energy
3. Both photosystem I and II absorb solar energy
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Photosystem II complex absorbs solar energy

NEET Biology Pteridophyta Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Which of the following plant’s arcs is known as vascular cryptogams?

1. Angiosperms
2. Bryophytes
3. Ptcridophytcs
4. Gymnosperms.

Answer: 3. Ptcridophytcs

Question 2. The gametophytic generation in pteridophytes is commonly called:

1. Thallus
2. Plant body
3. Pro thallus
4. Protoncma.

Answer: 3. Pro thallus

Question 3. The male sex organs produced by the gametophyte are:

1. Sporangium
2. Archegonia
3. Sorus
4. Anthcridia.

Answer: 4. Anthcridia.

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 4. Ferns arc mostly :

1. Isogamous
2. Heterosporous
3. Homosporous
4. Asexual.

Answer: 3. Homosporous

NEET MCQs on Pteridophytes Question 5. Stele in fern’s rhizome is of mostly :

1. Siphonostelc
2. Solenostelc
3. Dictyostele
4. All of the above.

Answer: 3. Dictyostele

Question 6. Stele is defined as:

1. At the xylem elements of the vascular bundle
2. The cortex portion of the stem
3. Phloem of the vascular elements
4. Vascular tissue surrounded by pericycle and endodermis.

Answer: 4. Vascular tissue surrounded by pericycle and endodermis.

Question 7. The sac-like structure in which spores are enclosed in

1. Strobilus
2. Sorus
3. Sporangium
4. Sporangiophere

Answer: 3. Sporangium

Question 8. Some of the pteridophytes and gymnosperms the sporophyll aggregate at the apices of the main stem or its branches to form definite compact structures. The compact structures are called:

1. Sporangiophore
2. Sorus
3. Sporangium
4. Strobilus or cone.

Answer: 4. Strobilus or cone.

Question 9. The condition where a pteridophyte produces two kinds of spores and sporangia is termed as :

1. Homospory
2. Homothallism
3. Heterospory
4. Apospory.

Answer: 3. Heterospory

Question 10. Pteridophytes are characterized by :

1. Presence of a vascular system
2. Absence of flowers
3. Absence of fruits
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

NEET MCQs on Pteridophytes Question 11. The main plant body of pteridophyte is :

1. Gametophyte
2. Sporophyte
3. Sporangium
4. Prothallus.

Answer: 2. Sporophyte

Question 12. Fem differs from selaginella by one of the following:

1. Absence of heterosporous form
2. In rhizoids
3. In the arrangement of leaves
4. All the above.

Answer: 1. Absence of heterosporous form

Question 13. The prothallus represents :

1. Gametophyte of fem
2. Sporophyte of angiosperm
3. Sporophyte of gymnosperm
4. Sporophyte of fem.

Answer: 1. Gametophyte of fem

Question 14. Pteridophytes differ from bryophytes in :

1. Having motile sperms
2. Having vascular tissues
3. Archegonia
4. Alternation of generations.

Answer: 2. Having vascular tissues

Question 15. Adaxial outgrowth from the base of leaves in selaginella is called:

1. Stipule
2. Ligule
3. Trabeculae
4. Velum.

Answer: 2. Ligule

Question 16. The function of ligule is :

1. Hygroscopic
2. Permutation
3. Reproduction
4. All the above.

Answer: 1. Hygroscopic

Pteridophytes MCQs NEET Questions Question 17. Rhizophore of selaginella is :

1. Phototropic
2. Phototactic
3. Gcotropic
4. Hygroscopic.

Answer: 3. Gcotropic

Question 18. Selaginella is characterized by the presence of:

1. Homospory
2. Ligule
3. Flower
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Ligule

Question 19. Rhizophore positive geotropic structure of selaginella is :

1. Root
2. Stem
3. A new organ called subgenres
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. A new organ called subgenres

Question 20. The dominant generation in selaginella is :

1. Haploid
2. Gametophyte
3. Triploid
4. Diploid.

Answer: 4. Diploid.

Pteridophytes MCQs NEET Questions Question 21. When a spore germinates within a sporangium, it is called :

1. Precocious
2. Epigeal
3. Heteroecious
4. Hypogeal.

Answer: 1. Precocious

Question 22. One character common for selaginella and fem is :

1. Heterospory
2. Protostele
3. Development of sporangium
4. Absence of ovule.

Answer: 4. Absence of ovule.

Question 23. Microsporangia and megasporangia are found in same strobilus in :

1. Fem
2. Selaginella
3. Pinus
4. Moss.

Answer: 2. Selaginella

Question 24. Heterospory is the production of :

1. Sexual and asexual spores
2. Mega and microspores
3. Haploid and diploid spores
4. Haploid and tetraploid spores.

Answer: 2. Mega and microspores

Question 25. Prothallus of dryopteris is :

1. Haploid
2. Diploid
3. Triploid
4. Tetraploid.

Answer: 1. Haploid

MCQs on Pteridophyta Question 26. Rhizophore in selaginella is :

1. Exogenous in origin
2. Endogenous in origin
3. Internal in origin
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Exogenous in origin

Question 27. The number of megaspores in Selaginella rupestris is:

1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four.

Answer: 1. One

Question 28. Selaginella differs from moss in having:

1. Well-developed vascular system
2. Motile sperms
3. An independent gametophyte
4. Both a and c.

Answer: 1. Well-developed vascular system

Question 29. Development of embryo in selaginella is :

1. Meroblastic
2. Holoblastic
3. Aposporous
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Meroblastic

MCQs on Pteridophyta Question 30. In selaginella, male gametes are :

1. Monoflagellated
2. Biflagellated
3. Multiflagellated
4. Aflagellate.

Answer: 2. Biflagellated

Question 31. Gametangia of fern are produced on :

1. Leaves
2. Sorus
3. Prothallius
4. Ramcntn.

Answer: 3. Prothallius

Question 32. Mciistclos a found in:

1. Stem of cycas
2. Needle of pinus
3. Leaf of patterns ferm
4. Rhizome of fern

Answer: 4. Rhizome of fern

Question 33. According to available loss iris which of the following went to install hand vascular 

1. Psilopliv tales
2. Lycopods
3. Horse-tail
4. Cycas

Answer: 1. Psilopliv tales

MCQs on Pteridophyta Question 34. Sporangia and spore-bearing leaf in fem is called a

1. Ramentum
2. Sorus
3. Lndusium
4. Sporophyll.

Answer: 4. Sporophyll.

Question 35. Which of the following is not heterosporous?

1. Dryopteris
2. Selaginella
3. Marsilea
4. Pinus.

Answer: 1. Dryopteris

Question 36. The annulus of the sporangium of the ferns assists in the spore dispersal by:

1. Losing water from its cells
2. Taking up water from the air
3. Collapsing in the face of strong wind
4. Losing the air of its cells.

Answer: 1. Losing water from its cells

Question 37. In many ferns, spore dissemination is affected by

1. Annulus
2. Lndusium
3. Tapetum
4. Soms.

Answer: 1. Annulus

Question 38. Actinostele is related to :

1. Dictyostele
2. Protostele
3. Siphonostele
4. Solenostele.

Answer: 2. Protostele

Question 39. The tallest pteridophyte is :

1. Equisetum
2. Cyathaea
3. Dryopteris
4. Lycopodium.

Answer: 2. Cyathaea

Pteridophytes NEET Biology  Question 40. Gametophyte of fem is known as :

1. Protonema
2. Germling
3. Prothallus
4. Capsule.

Answer: 3. Prothallus

Question 41. Two distinct generations in a single life history are common in :

1. Bacillus
2. Mango
3. Pteris
4. Spirogyra.

Answer: 3. Pteris

Question 42. A stele without a central pith is called :

1. Solenostele
2. Protostele
3. Dictyostele
4. Siphonostele.

Answer: 4. Siphonostele.

Question 43. Multiflagellate antherozoids are found in :

1. Spirogyra
2. Ulothrix
3. Funaria
4. Dryopteris.

Answer: 4. Dryopteris.

Pteridophytes NEET Biology  Question 44. Vessels are absent in :

1. Spirogyra and ulothrix
2. Rhizopus and funeral
3. Dryopteris and cycas
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 45. Eed habit originated in :

1. Pteridophytes
2. Gymnosperms
3. Angiosperms
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Pteridophytes

Question 46. The leaves in ferns show :

1. Hypostomatic condition
2. Presence of sori on the ventral surface
3. Circinate ptyxis
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 47. Pteris and cycas resemble each other in the presence of:

1. Cambium
2. Vessels
3. Ciliated sperms
4. Seeds.

Answer: 3. Ciliated sperms

Question 48. Which of the following is a fossil pteridophyte?

1. Lycopodium
2. Selaginella
3. Psilotum
4. Rhynia.

Answer: 2. Selaginella

Pteridophytes NEET Biology  Question 49. In Dryopteris, antherozoids are :

1. Coiled and multi-flagellate
2. Coilet,l and hi flagellate
3. Sickle-shaped and multi-flagellate
4. Sickle-shaped and hi flagellate

Answer: 1. Coiled and multi flagellate

Question 50. In pteridophytes. The reduction division occurs, when:

1. Spores are formed
2. Gametes are formed
3. Prothallus is formed
4. Sex organs are formed.

Answer: 1. Spores are formed

Question 51. Ramenta are found in

1. Fern
2. Mosses
3. Maize
4. Dicots

Answer: 1. Fern

Question 52. Lycopodium is :

1. Isogamous
2. Homosporous
3. Heterosporous
4. Heterogamous

Answer: 2. Homosporous

Question 53. Which of the following pteridophytes shows die chloroplast having pyrenoids :

1. Equisetum
2. Selaginella
3. Pteridium
4. Marsilea.

Answer: 2. Selaginella

Question 54. Heterospory and seed habit are often discussed about a structure called :

1. Spathe
2. Bract
3. Petiole
4. Ligule.

Answer: 4. Ligule.

Question 55. The opening mechanism of sporangium in dryopteris is effectively operated by :

1. Annulus only
2. Stomium only
3. Annulus and stomium both
4. Apical opening.

Answer: 3. Annulus and stomium both

Question 56. Which of the following has amphiphloic siphonostele?

1. Rhizome of marsilea
2. Stem of lycopodium
3. Rhizome of pteris
4. Stem of equisetum.

Answer: 1. Rhizome of Marsilea

Pteridophytes NEET Biology  Question 57. Which one of the following is common to pteridophytes and bryophytes?

1. Dependent gametophyte on sporophyte
2. Sporophyte dependent on gametophyte
3. Multicelled sex organs with sterile jacket wall
4. Absence of sporophyte.

Answer: 3. Multicelled sex organs with sterile jacket wall

Question 58. While entering the neck of an archegonium in fem, sperms show:

1. Phototaxy
2. Chemotaxis
3. Themiotaxy
4. Cyclosis.

Answer: 2. Chemotaxy

Question 59. 200-Million years ago, the dominant flora of die earth was of:

1. Archaebacteria
2. Mosses and ferns
3. Gymnosperms
4. Angiosperms.

Answer: 3. Gymnosperms

Question 60. “Maidenhair fem” is:

1. Dryopteris
2. Azolla
3. Adiantum
4. Pteris.

Answer: 3. Adiantum

Question 61. chlorophyll or chloroplast is present in spores of

1. Lycopodium
2. Selaginella
3. Dryopteris
4. Marsilea.

Answer: 1. Lycopodium

Question 62. The process by which an embryo develops without involving gametic fusion is called :

1. Apospory
2. Syngamy
3. Apogamy
4. Isogamy.

Answer: 3. Apogamy

NEET Biology Plant Kingdom Bryophyta Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. The proponent of moss resembles the green alga. It differs from green alga in having:

1. Buds
2. Colourlcss rhizoids
3. Oblique sepia and discoid chloroplast
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 2. Sex organs in funerals develop :

1. At The axils of leaves
2. At the lip of the gametophore
3. In the protonema
4. Inside the capsule.

Answer: 2. At the lip of gametophore

Question 3. The green upright sterile hair-like structure among antheridia of funeral are known as :

1. Apophysis
2. Perigonial teeth
3. Trabeculae
4. Paraphyses.

Answer: 4. Paraphyses.

Question 4. A bryophyte of considerable economic importance is :

1. Marchantia
2. Riccia
3. Funaria
4. Sphagnum.

Answer: 4. Sphagnum.

Bryophytes Recommended MCQs NEET Question 5. In funaria meiosis occurs :

1. At the time of spore formation
2. When the nucleus of the zygote divides
3. At the time of the formation of Sperms
4. At the time of egg formation.

Answer: 1. At the time of spore formation

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 6. Anchorage organs of the funeral are :

1. Unicellular rhizoids
2. Adventitious roots
3. Multicellular rhizoids
4. True roots.

Answer: 3. Multicellular rhizoids

Question 7. Which one of the following is absent in the sporophyte of the funeral?

1. Foot
2. Seta
3. Elaters
4. Columella.

Answer: 3. Elaters

Question 8. Apophysis is :

1. Part of peristome of funaria
2. Sterile filaments among antheridia of moss
3. Terminal part of sporophylls of Pteris
4. The lower portion of the moss capsule.

Answer: 4. Lower portion of moss capsule.

Question 9. In the funeral, intermingled with the archegonia are present upright hairs called :

1. Scales
2. Rhizoids
3. Paraphysis
4. Periphyses.

Answer: 3. Paraphysis

Question 10. Which of the following is a diploid?

1. Capsule of moss
2. Gametophyte, archegonia, and egg of moss
3. Gamclophyte, antheridia, and sperm of moss
4. Gametophyte and spore of moss.

Answer: 1. Capsule of moss

Bryophytes Recommended MCQs NEET Question 11. Which of the following is not associated with moss capsules?

1. Trabeculae
2. Peristome
3. Columella
4. Stomium.

Answer: 4. Stomium.

Question 12. The function of the peristome in moss is

1. Spore dispersal
2. Nutritive
3. Protective
4. Absorption of water and mineral,

Answer: 1. Spore dispersal

Question 13. In which of the following sporophytes remains attached to gametophytes?

1. Fungi
2. Gymnosperms
3. Algae
4. Bryophytes

Answer: 4. Bryophytcs

Question 14. The function of craters is :

1. Absorption of food
2. Conduction of sap
3. Spore dispersal
4. To provide support.

Answer: 3. Spore dispersal

Question 15. A bryophyte differs from pteridophyte in:

1. Archegonia
2. Lack of vascular tissue
3. Antheridia
4. Sperms

Answer: 2. Lack of vascular tissue

Bryophytes Recommended MCQs NEET Question 16. Development of sporophyte from gametophyte cells without fertilization is called :

1. Apospory
2. Apogamy
3. Parthenogenesis
4. Syngamy.

Answer: 2. Apogamy

Question 17. In bryophytes, diploid chromosome number occurs in :

1. Spore mother cell
2. Gametes
3. Sperms
4. Meiospores.

Answer: 1. Spore mother cell

MCQs on Bryophyta for NEET Question 18. Gemmae are vegetative reproductive structures found in:

1. Angiosperms
2. Bryophytes
3. Algae
4. Gymnosperms.

Answer: 2. Bryophytes

Question 19. Which bryophyte has simplest sporophyte :

1. Riccia
2. Marchantia
3. Anthoceros
4. Funaria.

Answer: 1. Riccia

Question 20. Female sex organ in riccia and funaria is called:

1. Paraphysis
2. Oospore
3. Archegonium
4. Artheridium.

Answer: 3. Archegonium

Question 21. When gametophyte develops from sporophyte without the production of spores it is called:

1. Apogamy
2. Parthenogenesis
3. Apospory
4. Sporogenesis.

Answer: 3. Apospory

Question 22. At the funeral leaves are arranged on the stem :

1. Oppositely
2. Spirally
3. Opposite and decussate
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Spirally

MCQs on Bryophyta for NEET Question 23. The development of a sporophyte directly from the unfertilized egg is called :

1. Apospory
2. Parthenogenesis
3. Apogamy
4. Syngamy.

Answer: 2. Parthenogenesis

Question 24. In funaria, annulus separates:

1. Apophysis and theca
2. Theca and operculum
3. Columella and apophysis
4. Opercuium and apophysis

Answer: 2. Theca and operculum

Question 25. The gametophyte produced by apospory is

1. Haploid
2. Triploid
3. Polypolid
4. Diploid

Answer: 4. Diploid

Question 26. Funana is a bryophyte because it :

1. Has no true roots and stems
2. Has sporophyte attached to the gametophyte
3. Is non-vascular
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 27. In funeral :

1. Outer peristome teeth are hygroscopic than the inner teeth
2. Both types of teeth are hygroscopic
3. Inner teeth are responsible for the dispersal
4. Outer teeth are diploid and inner haploid.

Answer: 1. Outer peristome teeth are more hygroscopic than the inner teeth

MCQs on Bryophyta for NEET Question 28. In bryophytes, anlherozoids are :

1. Biflagellate
2. Multi flagellate
3. Sometimes biflagellate and sometimes multiplayer- late
4. Biflagellate in a few species and multiflagellate in the rest.

Answer: 1. Biflagellate

Question 29. In mosses:

1. Gametophyte is independent of sporophyte
2. Sporophytes are partly dependent on gametophyte
3. Both 1 and 2
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Sporophyte is partly dependent on gametophyte

Question 30. Funaria may be differentiated from pinus by the character:

1. No fruits are produced
2. No seeds are produced
3. Antheridia and archegonia are present
4. Presence of sporophyte.

Answer: 2. No seeds are produced

Question 31. Spores of funaria give rise to :

1. Prothallus
2. Sporophyte
3. Protonema
4. Gametophyte.

Answer: 3. Protonema

Plant Kingdom NEET MCQ For Biology Question 32. Protonema is a stage in the life history of:

1. Cycas
2. Funaria
3. Riccia
4. Angiosperm.

Answer: 2. Funaria

Question 33. Gametophytic generation is dominant in:

1. Angiosperm
2. Gymnosperm
3. Pteridophyta
4. Bryophyta.

Answer: 4. Bryophyta.

Question 34. In funaria stomata occur :

1. In the epidermis of the stem
2. In the capsule epidermis
3. In the leaf epidermis
4. All the above.

Answer: 2. All the above.

Question 35. Conducting tissue of moss is made of :

1. Xylem and phloem
2. Parenchyma
3. Collenchyma
4. Xylem.

Answer: 2. Parenchyma

Plant Kingdom NEET MCQ For Biology Question 36. The apophysis region of the capsule is concerned with :

1. Photosynthesis
2. Formation of spores
3. Dispersal of spores
4. Retention of moisture.

Answer: 1. Photosynthesis

Question 37. Protonema of funaria is:

1. Tlialloid
2. Foliose
3. Filamentous
4. Cruslaccous.

Answer: 3. Filumentous

Question 38. The green photosynthetic region of the capsule is called :

1. Paralysis
2. Apophysis
3. Pcrigonial leaves
4. Trabeculae.

Answer: 2. Apophysis

Question 39. In funaria the leaves which surround the antheridia! Cluster arc called :

1. Perichaetial leaves
2. Foliage leaves
3. Scale leaves
4. Perigonial leaves.

Answer: 4. Perigonial leaves.

Plant Kingdom NEET MCQ For Biology Question 40. At the funeral, the leaves surrounding the archegonial cluster are called:

1. Perichaetial leaves
2. Perigonial leaves
3. Acicular leaves
4. Foliage leaves.

Answer: 1. Perichaetial leaves

Question 41. One character common in Funeral and Dryopteris is:

1. Stele is protostele
2. Heterosporous sporophyte
3. Monoecious gametophyte
4. Dioecious gametophyte.

Answer: 3. Monoecious gametophyte

Question 42. In funeral, rhizoids arise from :

1. Basal region
2. Apical region
3. Dorsal region
4. Ventral region.

Answer: 1. Basal region

Question 43. The evidence for the aquatic origin of bryophytes is :

1. Ciliated sperms
2. Green colour
3. Protonema thread
4. Some are still aquatic.

Answer: 1. Ciliated sperms

Question 44. Spores in a funeral are:

1. Three layered
2. Two layered
3. Four layered
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Two layered

Question 45. Mosses show :

1. Isomorphic alternation of generations
2. Heteromorphic alternation of generations
3. Haplobiontic life cycle
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Heteromorphic alternation of generations

Plant Kingdom NEET MCQ For Biology Question 46. Funaria is similar to cycas in the character :

1. Fruits are produced
2. No seeds are produced
3. Antheridia and archegonia are present
4. A pollen tube is present.

Answer: 3. Antheridia and archegonia are present

Question 47. The body of the funeral is :

1. Simple rosette thallus
2. Differentiated into root, central axis, and leaves
3. Differentiated into rhizoids, stems, and leaves
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Differentiated into rhizoids, stem and leaves

Question 48. Annulus in funaria capsule separates :

1. Operculum from columella
2. Theca from columella
3. Operculum from theca
4. Olumclla from apophysis.

Answer: 3. Operculum from theca

Question 40. Antherozoids of Marchantia are :

1. Short, curved, and biflagellate
2. Short, straight and multi-flagellate
3. Long, straight, and biflagellate
4. Long. Curved and biflagellate.

Answer: 1. Short, curved, and biflagellate

Question 50. Antheridium in a funeral is :

1. Pear-shaped
2. Club-shaped
3. Flask-shaped
4. Spherical.

Answer: 2. Club-shaped

Plant Kingdom NEET MCQ For Biology Question 51. The sporophyte of a funeral is composed of:

1. Capsule only
2. Spore sacs and spores
3. Foot and capsule
4. Foot, seta, and capsule.

Answer: 4. Foot, seta, and capsule.

Question 52. Peristome in funaria constitute :

1. 16 Teeth
2. 16 + 16 Teeth
3. 32+16 Teeth
4. 16 + 32 Teeth.

Answer: 2. 16 + 16 Teeth

Question 53. The central middle part of the moss capsule is sterile and is called:

1. Apophysis
2. Operculum
3. Columella
4. Spore sacs.

Answer: 3. Columella

Question 54. The mode of nutrition of sporophyte of moss is :

1. Parasitic
2. Autotrophic
3. Saprophytic
4. Semi-parasitic.

Answer: 4. Semi-parasitic.

Question 55. The producing part in the capsule is :

1. Columella
2. Operculum
3. Spore sac
4. Apophysis.

Answer: 3. Spore sac

Plant Kingdom NEET MCQ For Biology Question 56. Funaria gametophyte is :

1. Dioecious
2. Monoecious and autoecious
3. Monoecious
4. Heterothallic.

Answer: 2. Monoecious and autoecious

Question 57. Calyptra develops from :

1. Neck of archegonium
2. Venter wall of archegonium
3. Paraphysis
4. An outgrowth of the gametophyte.

Answer: 2. Venter wall of archegonium

Question 58. Anlheridia intermixed with paraphysis arc seen in:

1. Marchantia
2. Funaria
3. Riccia
4. Anthoceros.

Answer: 2. Funaria

Question 59. Primary protonema of moss is :

1. Haploid
2. Diploid
3. Sporophyte
4. Triploid.

Answer: 1. Haploid

Question 60. The center of the moss axis is occupied by :

1. Xylem
2. Phloem
3. Pith
4. Conducting tissue.

Answer: 4. Conducting tissue.

Question 61. In riccia, the archegonium is :

1. Rounded
2. Cup-shaped
3. Star-shaped
4. Flask-shaped.

Answer: 4. Flask-shaped.

Plant Kingdom NEET MCQ For Biology Question 62. In most, antheridia and archegonia occur at the tips of two different branches of the same plant. The condition is called :

1. Monoecious and autoecious
2. Monoecious and paroecious
3. Monoecious and synoecious
4. Dioecious.

Answer: 1. Monoecious and autoecious

Question 63. The leafy gametophore is developed from protonema in :

1. Riccia
2. Marchantia
3. Funaria
4. Anthoceros.

Answer: 3. Funaria

Question 64. Spore mother cells in the funeral are :

1. Haploid
2. Tetraploid
3. Diploid
4. Triploid.

Answer: 3. Diploid

Question 65. In archegonium the cell above the egg cell is called :

1. Neck canal cell
2. Neck cell
3. Venter canal cell
4. Cover cell.

Answer: 3. Venter canal cell

Question 66. In the funeral, the spore germinates to produce :

1. Prothallus
2. Protonema
3. Proembryo
4. Embryo.

Answer: 2. Protonema

Question 67. The tallest moss in the world is :

1. Funaria
2. Pogonatum
3. Polytrichuni
4. Dawsonia.

Answer: 4. Dawsonia.

NEET Biology Kingdom Fungi Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. The branch of botany which is concerned with the study of fungi is called:

1. Parasitology
2. Mycology
3. Bacteriology
4. Embryology.

Answer: 3. Bacteriology

Question 2. The parasitic fungi take their food from the host with the help of:

1. Talparaphysis
2. Soredia
3. Hausloria
4. Conidia.

Answer: 2. Soredia

Question 3. Fungi that are used as food :

1. Rusts
2. Smuts
3. Mushrooms
4. Downy mildews.

Answer: 2. Smuts

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 4. Multinuclcatc and aseptate hyphae of rhizopus are called

1. Oidia
2. Hcterolhallic
3. Chlamydospores
4. Coenocytic.

Answer: 4.  Coenocytic.

MCQs on Kingdom Fungi NEET Question 5. Sporangia in rhizopus are borne on :

1. Rhizoidal hyphae
2. Lateral branch of sporangiophore
3. Tips of sporangiophores
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Tips of sporangiophores

Question 6. Commercial mushrooms are grown in soil enriched with horse manure. These mushrooms are :

1. Autotrophic
2. Parasitic
3. Saprophytic
4. Chemosynthetic

Answer: 3. Saprophytic

Question 7. Mushroom is :

1. Puccinia
2. Parasitic
3. Agaricus
4. Chemosynthetic.

Answer: 1. Puccinia

Question 8. Who found the phenomenon of heterothallism in Rhizopus

1. Aiexopouios
2. Blakeslee
3. Lyenger
4. R.n. Singh

Answer: 2. Blakeslee

Question 9. Sporangiospores are :

1. Flagellated
2. Biflagellated
3. Multinucleated
4. Ciliated

Answer: 3. Multinucleated

MCQs on Kingdom Fungi NEET Question 10. Torula stage is found in medium

1. Rich in sugars
2. Pesticides
3. Antibiotics
4. Rich in fats.

Answer: 1. Rich in sugars

Question 11. Sexual reproduction in rhizopus is by

1. Spores
2. Oidia
3. Conjugation of two gametangia
4. Conidia.

Answer: 3. Conjugation of two gametangia

Question 12. Yeast is an important source of:

1. Proteins
2. Sugars
3. Riboflavin
4. Vitamin c

Answer: 2. Sugars

Question 13. Ascocurp of penh llllnni is :

1. Crithccitiiu
2. Apntliccium
3. Acroslromn
4. Clcistotlicdum.

Answer: 4. Clcistotlicdum.

Question 14. Early blight and late blight arc caused respectively by :

1. Aspergillus and penicillium
2. 11Sthugo and puccinia
3. Graphiola and agarlcus
4. Aliemaria and phytophthora.

Answer: 4. Aliemaria and phytophthora.

Question 15. Citric acid is commercially manufactured from :

1. Mucor
2. Citromyccs pfefferiaur
3. Aspergillus
4. Saccharomyces.

Answer: 3. Aspergillus

MCQs on Kingdom Fungi NEET Question 16. The protective sterile covering in the ascocarp is :

1. Upidcrm
2. Epicarp
3. Peridium
4. Periderm

Answer: 3. Peridium

Question 17. The hyphae of rhizopus are :

1. Branched, tubular and coenocytic
2. Branched and septate
3. Unbranched and septate
4. Unbranched, unicellular and tubular.

Answer: 1. Branched, tubular and coenocytic

Question 18. Torula stage is observed in :

1. Puccinia
2. Mucor
3. Agaricus
4. Penicillium.

Answer: 2. Mucor

Question 19. Yeasts are used commercially in :

1. Butter industry
2. Wine and baking industry
3. Tobacco industry
4. Textile industry

Answer: 2. Wine and baking industry

Question 20. In Rhizopus, which of the stages does not contain ‘n’ number of chromosomes

1. Hyphae
2. Stolon
3. Rhizoids
4. Zygospore

Answer: 4. Zygospore

Kingdom Fungi NEET Questions Question 21. The majority of the species of rhizopus are :

1. Parasitic
2. Saprophytic
3. Epiphytic
4. Lithophytic.

Answer: 2. Saprophytic

Question 22. When fungi feed on dead organic matter, they are called

1. Parasite
2. Saprophytes
3. Lithophytes
4. Dimorphic.

Answer: 2. Saprophytes

Question 23. Which of the following is used commonly in genetical experiments:

1. Mucor
2. Rhizopus
3. Morchella
4. Neurospora.

Answer: 4. Neurospora.

Question 24. Which of the following is unicellular and uninucleate?

1. Rhizopus nigricans
2. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
3. Puccinia graminis
4. Morchella esculenta.

Answer: 2. Saccharomyces cerevisiae

Kingdom Fungi NEET Questions Question 25. In a lichen, the fungal partner belongs to :

1. Phycomycetes
2. Ascomycetes
3. Basidiomycetes
4. Deuteromycetes

Answer: 2. Ascomycetes

Question 26. “Foolish seedling disease of rice” has been behind the discovery of which growth hormones?

1. Auxins
2. Ethylene
3. Gibberellins
4. Cytokinins.

Answer: 3. Gibberellins

Question 27. Plasmodium is a thallus found in:

1. Myxomycetes
2. Phycomycetes
3. Ascomycetes
4. Basidiomycetes.

Answer: 1. Myxomycetes

Question 28. Fungi reproduce by only asexual methods in :

1. Myxomycetes
2. Ascomycetes
3. Basidiomycetes
4. Deuteromycetes.

Answer: 4. Deuteromycetes.

Kingdom Fungi NEET Questions Question 29. Zygospore of mucor germinates to form :

1. Mycelium
2. Promycelium
3. Hyphae
4. Germ tube.

Answer: 2. Promycelium

Question 30. Penicillin is produced from :

1. Penicillium chrysogenum
2. Penicillium claviform
3. Penicillium expansum
4. Penicillium divarication.

Answer: 1. Penicillium chrysogenum

Question 31. Black rust of wheat is caused by :

1. Rhizopus
2. Yeast
3. Penicillium
4. Puccinia tritici.

Answer: 4. Puccinia tritici.

Question 32. A facultative parasite is one which :

1. Always requires a living host
2. Is normally saprophytic but can also become parasitic
3. Is normally a parasite but can also become a saprophyte
4. Always requires dead organic matter.

Answer: 2. Is normally saprophytic but can also become parasitic

Kingdom Fungi NEET Questions Question 33. The severe famine of West Bengal of 1942-43 was due to the destruction of rice crop by a fungus :

1. Helminthosporium
2. Penicillium
3. Puccinia
4. Rhizopus.

Answer: 1. Helminthosporium

Question 34. Yeast (saccharomyces) belongs to :

1. Phycomycetes
2. Ascomycetes
3. Basidiomycetes
4. Deuteromycetes.

Answer: 2. Ascomycetes

Question 35. Rhizopus belongs to :

1. Zygomycetes
2. Ascomycetes
3. Deuteromycetes
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Zygomycetes

Question 36. Fleming discovered penicillin from :

1. Penicillium camembert
2. P. Notatum
3. P. Chrysogenum
4. P. Expansum.

Answer: 2. P. Notatum

Question 37. How many ascospores are formed in saccharomyces cerevisiae:

1. 2
2. 4
3. 8
4. 16.

Answer: 2. 4

Kingdom Fungi Questions NEET Question 38. Yeast is found abundantly in :

1. Horse dung
2. Nose of fishes
3. Moist bread
4. Organic substances are rich in sugar.

Answer: 4. Organic substances rich in sugar.

Question 39. The yeast cell wall is made up of:

1. Pectin
2. Carbohydrate
3. Glucose and mannose
4. Fungal cellulose.

Answer: 4. Fungal cellulose.

Question 40. When a portion of fungal mycelium is used in the formation of reproductive structure :

1. Eucarpic
2. Acarpic
3. Holocarpic
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Eucarpic

Question 41. An alga and a fungus remain in lichens in :

1. Parasitic relationship
2. Symbiotic relationship
3. Saprophytic relationship
4. Epiphytic relationship.

Answer: 2. Symbiotic relationship

Kingdom Fungi Questions NEET Question 42. Wheat rust is caused by :

1. Albugo
2. Ustilago
3. Aspergillus
4. Puccinia.

Answer: 4. Puccinia

Question 43. ‘Smuts’ belong to the genus :

1. Puccinia
2. Ustilago
3. Altemaria
4. Phytophthora.

Answer: 2. Ustilago

Question 44. Which of the following is a fungal disease?

1. Tuberculosis
2. Smallpox
3. Rabies
4. Ringworm.

Answer: 4. Ringworm.

Question 45. ‘Ergot of rye’ is caused by :

1. Puccinia
2. Ustilago
3. Ciaviceps
4. Alternaria.

Answer: 3. Ciaviceps

Kingdom Fungi Questions NEET Question 46. In yeast, cell wall contains :

1. Amylose and glucose
2. Glucose and mannose
3. Glucose and muramic acid
4. Sucrose and mannose.

Answer: 2. Glucose and mannose

Question 47. The coprophilous fungi inhabit:

1. Dung
2. Deadwood
3. Decaying leaves
4. Food.

Answer: 1. Dung

Question 48. Bakane disease is connected with the discovery of :

1. Ga
2. Iaa
3. Aba
4. 2, 4 — D.

Answer: 1. Ga

Question 49. Mycorrhiza is a relationship between :

1. Algae and fungi
2. Fungi and the roots of higher plants
3. Fungi and rhizoids of lower plants
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Fungi and the roots of higher plants

Kingdom Fungi Questions NEET Question 50. Which one of the following is edible?

1. Agaricus
2. Rhizopus
3. Neurospora
4. Peronospora.

Answer: 1. Agaricus

Question 51. Aflatoxins are produced by some :

1. Bacteria
2. Fungi
3. Viruses
4. Algae.

Answer: 2. Fungi

Question 52. Fungi in the division oomycete are known as :

1. Egg fungi
2. Sac fungi
3. Club fungi
4. Cup fungi.

Answer: 1. Egg fungi

Question 53. Heterothallism prevents :

1. Breeding
2. Inbreeding
3. Crossbreeding
4. Interbreeding.

Answer: 2. Inbreeding

Kingdom Fungi Questions NEET Question 54. Dolipore septum is a characteristic feature of:

1. Phycomycetes
2. Zygomycetes
3. Ascomycetes
4. Basidiomycetes.

Answer: 4. Basidiomycetes.

Question 55. Apothecial cups are the characteristic of:

1. Aspergillus
2. Saccharomyces
3. Peziza
4. Agaricus.

Answer: 3. Peziza

Question 56. Dikaryotisation in basidiomycetes takes place :

1. Plasmogamy
2. Plasmogamy and karyogamy
3. Clamp connection formation
4. Karyogamy is followed by meiosis.

Answer: 3. Clamp connection formation

Question 57. Smut of maize is caused by :

1. Ustilago avenae
2. Ustilago maydis
3. Ustilago hordei
4. Ustilago nuda.

Answer: 2. Ustilago maydis

Question 58. Funga l hyphae penetrate the hard cell walls of their hosts with the help of:

1. Enzymes
2. Hormones
3. Sharp tips
4. Sugar exudates.

Answer: 1. Enzymes

Kingdom Fungi NEET MCQ Question 59. The hyphal system is called mycelium in:

1. Algae
2. Fungi
3. Bryophytes
4. Pteridophytes.

Answer: 2. Fungi

Question 60. Penicillin was first discovered by :

1. Alexander fleming
2. P. Ehrlich
3. Robert Koch
4. S. Waksman.

Answer: 1. Alexander Fleming

Question 61. Select the correctly matched pair.

1. Cause of Irish potato famine – altemaria solani
2. Cause of Bengal potato famine – helminths – emporium
3. Black wart disease of potato – phytophthora infestans
4. Late blight of potato – cytoplasm candida.

Answer: 3. Black wart disease of potato – phytophthora infestans

Question 62. To digest the food that lies in external, medium fungi secrete:

1. Enzymes
2. Hormones
3. Sugar
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Enzymes

Kingdom Fungi NEET MCQ Question 63. Which of the following is a fungicide?

1. Enzymes
2. Bordeaux mixture
3. 2-4 D
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Bordeaux mixture

Question 64. Late blight of potatoes is caused by :

1. Altemaria solani
2. Phytophthora infestans
3. Albugo candida
4. Fusarium moniliforme.

Answer: 2. Phytophthora infestans

Question 65. White rust of “crucifers” is caused by :

1. Albugo candida
2. Pythium
3. Cercospora
4. Phyllactinia.

Answer: 1. Albugo candida

Question 66. Yeast cells are the best source of:

1. Biotin
2. Vitamin (b11, b12)
3. Vitamin a
4. Vitamin d.

Answer: 2. Vitamin D.

Kingdom Fungi NEET MCQ Question 67. Fungal extract of which fungus is used as poison?

1. Lentinus
2. Volveriella
3. Amanita
4. Armillaria.

Answer: 3. Amanita

Question 68. All fungi are always :

1. Autotrophs
2. Heterotrophs
3. Saprophytes
4. Parasites.

Answer: 2. Heterotrophs

Question 69. Rhizopus is :

1. Parasite
2. Obligate parasite
3. Epiphyte
4. Saprophyte

Answer: 4. Saprophyte

Question 70. Aecidial stages of puccinia develop on :

1. Wheat leaves
2. Wheat stem
3. The upper surface of the barberry leaf
4. The lower surface of barberry leaf.

Answer: 4. Lower surface of barberry leaf.

Kingdom Fungi NEET MCQ Question 71. ‘Reindeer moss’ is a lichen used as food by men. This belongs to the genus:

1. Cetraria
2. Lobaria
3. Usnea
4. Cladonia.

Answer: 4. Cladonia.

Question 72. Which of the following groups contain typically coenocytic forms :

1. Lichens
2. Phycomycetes
3. Liverworts
4. Chlorophyceae.

Answer: 2. Phycomycetes

Question 73. Dikaryon formation occurs in :

1. Phycomycetes and slime moulds
2. Ascomycetes and slime moulds
3. Basidiomycetes and Phycomycetes
4. Both ascomycetes and basidiomycetes.

Answer: 4. Both ascomycetes and basidiomycetes.

Question 74. A basidiomycetous fungus producing uredospores on wheat plants is :

1. Ustilago
2. Puccinia
3. Phytophthora
4. Altemaria.

Answer: 2. Puccinia

MCQs on Kingdom Fungi NEET  Question 75. When an entire body of a fungus is used in the formation of reproductive structure, the organism is called as :

1. Acarpic
2. Holocarpic
3. Eucarpic
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Holocarpic

Question 76. Asci are formed in :

1. Ascobolus
2. Saccharomyces
3. Penicilliurn
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 77. Which of the following stages in rhizopus is diploid?

1. Zygospore
2. Hypha
3. Stolon
4. Spore.

Answer: 1. Zygospore

Question 78. “Fungi imperfecti” reproduce by :

1. Sexual method
2. Asexual method
3. Vegetative methods
4. Sexual and asexual methods.

Answer: 2. Asexual method

MCQs on Kingdom Fungi NEET  Question 79. The yeasts and mushrooms differ from algae because they :

1. Cannot carry out photosynthesis
2. Lack of cellulosic cell wall
3. Reproduce by sexual methods
4. Are terrestrial as well as aquatic.

Answer: 1. Cannot carry out photosynthesis

Question 80. Which group is a pioneer of xerophytic succession?

1. Algae
2. Fungi
3. Bryophytes
4. Lichens.

Answer: 4. Lichens.

Question 81. The absorptive nutrition of fungi is aided by :

1. Dikaryon formation
2. Spore formation
3. The fact that they are all parasites
4. Their large surface area-to-volume ratio.

Answer: 4. Their large surface area-to-volume ratio.

Question 82. Branched conidiophores are found in :

1. Penicilliurn
2. Rhizopus
3. Ustilago
4. Saccharomyces.

Answer: 1. Penicilliurn

Question 83. Mushroom is a :

1. Saprophyte
2. Photosynthesises the food material
3. Facultative parasite
4. Obligate parasite.

Answer: 1. Saprophyte

MCQs on Kingdom Fungi NEET  Question 84. Among the following which one is an example of heterothallism :

1. Pteris
2. Rhizopus
3. Cycas
4. Castor beans.

Answer: 2. Rhizopus

Question 85. In which of the following plants, columella is present in sporangium?

1. Yeast
2. Spirogyra
3. Ulothrix
4. Rhizopus.

Answer: 4. Rhizopus.

Question 86. Powdery mildew of crops is caused by :

1. Ascomycetes (Erysiphe)
2. Basidiomycetes (mushroom)
3. Phycomycetes (Albugo)
4. Bacteria.

Answer: 1. Ascomycetes (Erysiphe)

Question 87. Which of the following is not a prokaryote?

1. Bacteria
2. Yeast
3. Blue-green algae
4. Viruses.

Answer: 2. Yeast

Question 88. Which statement about fungal nutrition is not true?

1. Some fungi are active predators
2. Some fungi form mutualistic associations with other organisms
3. Fungi can make some of the compounds that are vitamins for animals
4. Facultative parasites can grow only on their specific hosts.

Answer: 3. Fungi can make some of the compounds that are vitamins for animals

MCQs on Kingdom Fungi NEET  Question 89. The organism used for alcohol fermentation is :

1. Saccharomyces
2. Aspergillus
3. Pseudomonas
4. Penicillium.

Answer: 1. Aspergillus

Question 90. Which causes the disease of potatoes?

1. Pythium debaryanum
2. Phytophthora infestans
3. Peronospora destructor
4. Synchytrium endobioticum.

Answer: 2. Phytophthora infestans

Kingdom Fungi NEET MCQ Question 91. Gametangial copulation (conjugation) is common in :

1. Ascomycetes
2. Zygomycetes
3. Chytridiales
4. Deuteromycetes.

Answer: 2. Zygomycetes

Question 92. A fungus which requires only a single host for the completion of its life cycle is called :

1. Heteroecious
2. Autoecious
3. Heterothallic
4. Heterosporous.

Answer: 2. Autoecious

Question 93. A thick strand of underground hyphae resembling a root is called as :

1. Rhizoid
2. Rhizophore
3. Rhizomorph
4. Radicle

Answer: 3. Rhizomorph

Kingdom Fungi NEET MCQ Question 94. In yeast meiosis occurs in:

1. Ascospores
2. Ascus mother cell
3. Bud
4. Pseudomycelium.

Answer: 2. Ascus mother cell

Question 95. A group of algal cells imprisoned in fungal mycelium serving for vegetative multiplication of lichen called :

1. Isidium
2. Soredium
3. Cephalodium
4. Helotism.

Answer: 2. Soredium

Question 96. Which of the following is mainly caused by the preparation of alcohol?

1. Lactobacillus
2. Azotobacter
3. Penicillium
4. Saccharomyces.

Answer: 4. Saccharomyces.

Question 97. Motile sperms are absent in :

1. Rhizopus
2. Funaria
3. Fern
4. Cycas.

Answer: 1. Rhizopus

Kingdom Fungi NEET MCQ Question 98. The first antibiotic isolated was :

1. Neomycin
2. Terramycin
3. Streptomycin
4. Penicillin.

Answer: 4. Penicillin.

Question 99. Organisms which obtain their food from nonliving material in the environment are called :

1. Sporophytes
2. Epiphytes
3. Parasites
4. Saprophytes.

Answer: 4. Saprophytes.

Question 100. In rhizopus sexual fusion takes place between :

1. Two gametangia
2. Two gametes
3. Two hyphae
4. Two sporangia.

Answer: 1. Two gametangia

Question 101. The source of infection for wheat rust in wheat plants is :

1. Uredospore
2. Teleutospore
3. Basidiospore
4. Aeciospore.

Answer: 4. Aeciospore.

Kingdom Fungi Questions NEET Question 102. Select the correctly matched pair :

1. Bioindicator of pollution – lichen
2. Litmus yielding lichen – paramecia saxatilis
3. Claviceps purpurea — smut of barley
4. Fungus usnea – source of streptomycin

Answer: 1. Bioindicator of pollution – lichen

Question 103. The taxonomy of true fungi is based on :

1. Life history
2. Mode of nutrition
3. Sexual reproductive structures
4. Complexity of vegetative structure.

Answer: 3. Sexual reproductive structures

Question 104. Which one of the following is achlorophyllous :

1. Chlorobium
2. Chlamydomonas
3. Yeast
4. Euglena.

Answer: 3. Yeast

Question 105. The common black mould is :

1. Rhizopus
2. Aspergillus
3. Saccharomyces
4. Penicillium.

Answer: 1. Rhizopus

Kingdom Fungi Questions NEET Question 106. Open ascocarp is :

1. Apothecium
2. Perithecium
3. Ascoonium
4. Cleistothecium.

Answer: 1. Apothecium

Question 107. Hypertrophy of floral parts is caused by :

1. Cystopus or albugo
2. Aspergillus
3. Cephaleuros
4. All the above.

Answer: 1. Cystopus or albugo

Question 108. Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic relationship between higher plants and :

1. Virus
2. Fungi
3. Algae
4. Bacteria.

Answer: 2. Fungi

Question 109. Identify the wrongly matched pair :

1. Smut disease of cultivated plants – ustilago
2. Smut of wheat – Puccinia
3. Loose smut of wheat – ustilago tritici
4. Late blight of potatoes – phytophthora infestans.

Answer: 2. Smut of wheat – Puccinia

Question 110. Binucleate spores of Puccinia graminis released from barberry leaf and responsible for initial infection in a wheat plant are called:

1. Pycniospores
2. Aeciospores
3. Uredospores
4. Teleutospores.

Answer: 2. Aeciospores

Question 111. The sequence of structures in a conidial mycelium of penicillium spinulosum shall be :

1. Foot cell → condiophore → phialides → conidia
2. Conidiophore→ foot cell → sterigmata→ conidia
3. Foot cell → phialides →conidia
4. Conidiophore → phialides → conidia.

Answer: 4. Conidiophore →phialides→ conidia.

Kingdom Fungi Questions NEET Question 112. The conidia of penicillium are :

1. Thick-walled, uninucleate
2. Thin-walled uni-or multinucleate
3. Thick-walled multinucleate
4. Thin or thick-walled, multinucleate.

Answer: 2. Thin-walled uni-or multinucleate

Question 113. In penicillium aspergillus the conidial chains borne at the tips of:

1. Metulae
2. Sterigmata
3. Rami
4. Conidiophores.

Answer: 2. Sterigmata

Question 114. Which is regarded as drosophila of the plant kingdom?

1. Neurospora
2. Aspergillus
3. Penicillium
4. Yeast.

Answer: 1. Neurospora

Question 115. Mehta is famous for his work on :

1. Blast of rice
2. Brown leaf spot of rice
3. Wheat rust
4. White smut.

Answer: 3. Wheat rust

Question 116. Phytophthora infestans is characterised by :

1. Coenocytic mycelium
2. Exposed sporangiophores with sympodial branching
3. Cellulosic cell wall
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Kingdom Fungi Questions NEET Question 117. Ascocarp of penicillium is :

1. Cleistothecium
2. Perithecium
3. Apothecium
4. Ascostroma.

Answer: 1. Cleistothecium

Question 118. The term ‘lichen’ was first coined by :

1. Linnaeus
2. Theophrastus
3. Fritsch
4. John ray.

Answer: 2. Theophrastus

Question 119. Which food is used by a fungal partner made by an algal partner in a lichen?

1. Starch
2. Sugar
3. Mannitol
4. Glycogen.

Answer: 3. Mannitol

Question 120. After plasmogamy, the ascogonium of penicillium shows :

1. Formation of autogenous hyphae
2. Transverse septation into dikaryotic cells
3. Crozier formation
4. Coiling of antheridium around the ascogonium.

Answer: 2. Transverse septation into dikaryotic cells

Question 121. The two conidia of a chain in aspergillus are connected through a space called :

1. Separating disc
2. Connective
3. Isthmus
4. Disjunctor.

Answer: 2. Connective

Question 122. Which of the following refers to the perfect stage of Aspergillus?

1. Eurotium
2. Emericella
3. Both of these
4. None of these.

Answer: 3. Both of these

Question 123. Meiosis in aspergillus occurs inside the :

1. Crozier
2. Ascogenous hyphae
3. Ascus
4. Ascus mother cell.

Answer: 4. Ascus mother cell.

Question 124. Bunt of wheat/kamal bunt is caused by :

1. Ustilago tritici
2. Tillctia tritici
3. Puccinia graminis tritici
4. Puccinia recondida.

Answer: 2. Tillctia tritici

Question 125. Hyphal outgrowth arising from the lower cortex of the thallus of foliose lichens is called:

1. Mycelium
2. Rhizines
3. Haustoria
4. Rhizoids.

Answer: 2. Rhizines

Question 126. The edible fruiting bodies which are underground arc called :

1. Truffles
2. Puff balls
3. Ascocarp
4. Basidiocarp.

Answer: 1. Truffles

Question 127. Lichenin/lichen starch is present in :

1. Cells of phycobiont
2. Cell walls of phycobiont
3. Cells of mycobiont
4. Cell walls of mycobiont.

Answer: 4. Cell walls of mycobiont.

Question 128. The yeast/s showing diplobiontic life history :

1. Saccharomyces
2. Saccharomyces
3. Schizosaccharomyces
4. None.

Answer: 2. Saccharomycodes

Question 129. An anticancer drug is obtained from a giant puffball which is :

1. Amanita
2. Lycoperdon
3. Claviceps
4. Clavatia.

Answer: 4. Clavatia.

Question 130. Wilt of banana and tomato is caused by :

1. Sclerotia
2. Puccinia
3. Fusarium
4. Altemaria.

Answer: 3. Fusarium

Question 131. The source of griseofulvin an anti-ringworm drug is :

1. Torula
2. Penicillium griseofulvum
3. Penicillium chrysogenum
4. Candida.

Answer: 2. Penicillium griseofulvin

Question 132. Extract of sclerotia of a fungus is used to produce l.s.d. It is :

1. Cannabis (bhang)
2. Amanita
3. Claviceps
4. Poppy.

Answer: 3. Claviceps

Question 133. In this fungus, the zygote acts as an ascus and the diploid nucleus undergoes meiosis to form four ascospores:

1. Penicillium
2. Yeasts
3. Phycomycetes
4. All fungi.

Answer: 2. Yeasts

Question 134. What is unique in the cell wall of fungi?

1. Cellulose
2. Diaminopimelic acid
3. Acetyl glucosamine
4. Muramic acid.

Answer: 3. Acetyl glucosamine

Question 135. Point out the wrong pair:

1. Ascocarp—ascomycetes
2. Coenocytic mycelium—lower fungi
3. Clamp connections—oomycetes
4. Basidiocarp—clamp connections.

Answer: 1. Ascocarp—ascomycetes

Question 136. The passing of the life cycle by a fungus only on one host is known as:

1. Endurance
2. Autoecious
3. Heteroecism
4. Epiphytism.

Answer: 2. Autoecious

Question 137. A parasite which can act as a saprophyte as well is known as:

1. Obligate saprophyte
2. Facultative saprophyte
3. Obligate parasite
4. Facultative parasite.

Answer: 2. Facultative saprophyte

Question 138. The term heterogeneous means :

1. Presence of heterokaryon
2. Presence of heterothallism
3. Passing of life cycle on two hosts
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Passing of life cycle on two hosts

Question 139. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched

1. Angular leaf spot—
2. Wilt of cotton—
3. Leaf spot of cotton—
4. Red rot of sugarcane—

Answer: 3. Leaf spot of cotton—

Question 140. Match the terms in column 1 with those in column 2.

1. 1-E,2-A,3-B,4-C,5-D
2. 1-E,2-A,3-C,4-B,5-D
3. 1-E,2-A,3-B,4-D,5-C
4. 1-E,2-A,3-C,4-F,5-D

Answer: 1. 1-E,2-A,3-B,4-C,5-D

Question 141. Match list 1 wish list 2 and select the correct

1. A-4,B-2,3-3,4-1
2. A-3,B-2,3-4,4-1
3. A-4,B-3,3-2,4-1
4. A-3,B-2,3-1,4-d

Answer: 3. A-4,B-3,3-2,4-1

Question 142. The phenomenon in which plasmogamy, karyogamy and haploidisation do not follow a sequence in terms of time and space is called :

1. Heterozygosity
2. Parasexuality
3. Homozygosity
4. Heterothallism.

Answer: 2. Parasexuality

Question 143. Phytoalexins are:

1. Certain chemicals produced by pathogens to kill the host
2. Certain phenolic substances are produced by the host to kill the pathogens
3. Certain chemicals essential for better growth of plants
4. Certain inorganic substances help the pathogens to invade the host cells.

Answer: 2. Certain phenolic substances produced by the host to kill the pathogens

Question 144. In yeast, during budding, which process occurs?

1. Doubling of chromosomes
2. Spindle formation
3. Unequal division of cytoplasm
4. Synopsis.

Answer: 3. Unequal division of cytoplasm

Question 145. Which one of the following is not the mode of reproduction in yeast?

1. Budding
2. Fission
3. Plasmogamy
4. Oogamy.

Answer: 4. Oogamy.

Question 146. The umbrella-shaped structure of the basidiocarp of Agaricus is known as :

1. Gill
2. Stipe
3. Pileus
4. Hymenium.

Answer: 3. Pileus

Question 147. Dolipore septa are found in :

1. Deuteromycetes
2. Basidiomycetes
3. Zygomycetes
4. Phycomycetes.

Answer: 2. Basidiomycetes

Question 148. Hymenium in Agaricus represents the :

1. The rhizomorphs
2. Fertile layer of basidia
3. The presence of dolipore septal complex
4. The haplomycelium.

Answer: 2. Fertile layer of basidia

Question 149. Fairy rings are formed by :

1. Agaricus
2. Wood fungi
3. Moulds
4. Penicillium.

Answer: 1. Agaricus

Question 150. Massive fortifications produced in Agaricus are known as :

1. Basidiocarp
2. Pyrenocarp
3. Ascocarp
4. Cystocarp.

Answer: 1. Basidiocarp

Question 151. The part of the mushroom visible above the ground is :

1. Ascus
2. Basidium
3. Ascocarp
4. Basidiocarp.

Answer: 4. Basidiocarp.

Question 152. gills are seen in :

1. Bacteria
2. Oscillatoria
3. Ulothrix
4. Agaricus.

Answer: 4. Agaricus.

Question 153. Which of the following is an edible fungus?

1. Mucor
2. Verticillium
3. Agaricus
4. Fusarium.

Answer: 3. Agaricus

Question 154. Substances which are formed by host tissue in response to injury, physiological stimuli, infectious agents or their products which inhibit the growth of micro-organisms are called :

1. Inhibitions
2. Phytotoxins
3. Phytoalexins
4. Prohibitions.

Answer: 3. Phytoalexins

Question 155. Consider the following processes heterokaryon formation diploidisation of nucleus  restoration of diploid nuclei to their haploid state (apodization) parasexual cycle in fungi involves :

1. 1 and 2
2. 1 and 3
3. 2 and 3
4. 1,2 and 3.

Answer: 4. 1,2 and 3.

Question 156. Which one of the following substances plays an important role in the biochemical defence of host plants?

1. Mycotoxin
2. Phytoalexin
3. Vivotoxin
4. Pathotoxin.

Answer: 2. Phytoalexin

Question 157. The well-known famine in Ireland in the 40s has been attributed mainly to the failure of the potato crop which was infected by :

1. Alternaria solani
2. Phytophthora infestans
3. Phytophthora parasitic
4. Pythium aphanidematum.

Answer: 2. Phytophthora infestans

Question 158. Large strain cells are found in the yeast :

1. Saccharomyces
2. Saccharomyces
3. Both
4. None.

Answer: 1. Saccharomyces

Question 159. The structure first to enter a bud in yeast :

1. Mitochondrion
2. Nucleus
3. Endoplasmic reticulum
4. Vacuole.

Answer: Nucleus

Question 160. Yeast is used for the production of :

1. Ethyl alcohol
2. Acetic acid
3. Cheese
4. Curd.

Answer: 1. Ethyl alcohol

NEET Biology Kingdom Protista Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Protists which arc diploid reproduce sexually by the process of:

1. Zygotic meiosis
2. Cyst formation
3. Binary fission
4. Gametic meiosis.

Answer: 4. Gametic meiosis.

Question 2. Photosynthetic protists are :

1. Diatoms, euglenoids and slime moulds
2. Sareodincs Dinoflagellates and diatoms
3. Euglcnoids, diatoms and dinoflagellates
4. Ciiatcs. Zooflagellates and dinoflagellates.

Answer: 3. Sareodincs. Dinoflagellates and diatoms

Question 3. Unicellular organisms having mouth, gullet, anus, sensory structures and pellicle belong to the group:

1. Zoomastigina
2. Ciliophora
3. Sporozoa
4. Sarcodina.

Answer: 2. Ciliophora

Question 4. Red tide is caused by :

1. Gonyaulax
2. Noctiluca
3. Triceratops
4. Pyrocyst.

Answer: 1. Gonyaulax

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Kingdom Protista MCQs Question 5. Sea water glows during the night due to the occurrence of:

1. Gonyaulax
2. Noctiluca
3. Euglena
4. Cyclotella.

Answer: 2. Euglena

Question 6. Diatomaceous earth is formed due to the remains of the following parts of diatoms:

1. Cell wall
2. Chloroplast
3. Cytoplasm
4. All of these.

Answer: 1. Cell wall

Question 7. Pyorrhoea is caused by :

1. Entamoeba gingivalis
2. Trichomonas buccalis
3. Lieshmania donovani
4. Trypanosoma gambiense.

Answer: 2. Trichomonas buccalis

Question 8. The vegetative phase of slime moulds is called:

1. Cyst
2. Hypha
3. Plasmodium
4. Sporangium.

Answer: 3. Plasmodium

Question 9. Diatoms are also known as :

1. Cyanobacteria
2. Blue-green algae
3. Green algae
4. Golden brown algae.

Answer: 2. Blue-green algae

Kingdom Protista MCQs Question 10. Microfossils are often associated with petroleum-bearing formations belonging to :

1. Euglenoids
2. Dinoflagellates
3. Rotifers
4. Foraminiferans.

Answer: 2. Dinoflagellates

Question 11. Photosynthetic protists contribute a percentage of global photosynthesis:

1. 80
2. 70
3. 50
4. 50

Answer: 1. 80

Question 12. Which of the following is an insect vector for leishmania?

1. Male anopheles mosquito
2. Female anopheles mosquito
3. Sand flies
4. Tse-tse fly.

Answer: 3. Sand flies

Question 13. Light sensitive structure of euglenoids is :

1. Cilium
2. Eye spot
3. Flagellum
4. Chloroplast.

Answer: 2. Eye spot

Question 14. The class of phylum protozoa to which amoeba belongs is:

1. Ciliata
2. Rhizopoda
3. Mastigophora
4. Sporozoa.

Answer: 3. Mastigophora

Question 18. Amoeba is:

1. Saprozoic
2. Autotrophic
3. Heterotrophic
4. Parasitic.

Answer: 3. Hetcrotrophic

Question 19. The type of pseudopodium found in amoeba is:

1. Filopodium
2. Reticulopodium
3. Lobopodium
4. Axopodium.

Answer: 3. Lobopodium

Question 20. Pseudopodia in amoeba are formed by :

1. Pressure flow of cytoplasm
2. Cell membrane contraction
3. Movement of vacuoles
4. All the above.

Answer: 1. Pressure flow of cytoplasm

Kingdom Protista MCQs Question 21. Food particles are procured by amoeba by :

1. Invagination and import
2. Circrumvallation
3. Circumfluence
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 22. In amoeba, food is stored and digested in food vacuoles which is analogous to:

1. Stomach of rabbit
2. Liver of rabbit
3. Alimentary canal of rabbit
4. The intestine of a rabbit.

Answer: 1. Stomach of rabbit

Question 23. The contractile vacuole’s function in amoeba is :

1. Reproduction
2. Digestion of food
3. Storage of food
4. Osmoregulation.

Answer: 4. Osmoregulation.

Question 24. Locomotion in amoeba takes place by :

1. Pseudopodia
2. Flagella
3. Cillia
4. Seta

Answer: 1. Pseudopodia

Question 25. The freshwater amoeba and intestinal amoeba are alike in the possession of single contractile vacuole

1. The absence of cilia
2. The structure of the cyst
3. Their mechanism of dispersal.

Answer: 2. The structure of the cyst

Question 26. Which mom widely accepted means of promotion m amoeba?

1. Walking movement theory
2. Willing movement theory
3. Sol-gel theory
4. Surface tension theory.

Answer: 3. Sol-gel theory

Kingdom Protista MCQs Question 27. Food capturing is the function of:

1. Food vacuole
2. Rctieulopodium
3. Nucleolus
4. Eye spot.

Answer: 2. Rctieulopodium

Question 28. Surface tension theory explains the theory of:

1. Amoeboid movement
2. Caterpillar movement of hydra
3. Jerking movement of Euglena
4. Tension develops on the surface during the movement of paramecium in water.

Answer: 1. Amoeboid movement

Question 29. Excretion in amoeba takes place mainly by :

1. Food vacuole
2. General surface
3. Contractile vacuole
4. Pseudopodia.

Answer: 2. General surface

Question 30. If the water of the pond becomes dry, the amoeba will:

1. Stick to the gills of the fish
2. Undergo encystment
3. Enter down into the soil
4. Enter in the body of vertebrates.

Answer: 2. Undergo encystment

Question 31. Chromatin in the nucleus of amoeba is present in the form of:

1. Reticulum
2. Fine granular material
3. Rod-like structure
4. Spherical structure.

Answer: 2. Fine granular material

Question 32. Due to the formation of many pseudopodia simultaneously, the amoeba is often called:

1. Polymorphic
2. Polypodial
3. Lobose protozoan
4. Rhizopod protozoan.

Answer: 2. Polypodial

Question 33. Under favourable conditions, amoeba reproduces by:

1. Binary fission
2. Multiple fission
3. Encystment
4. Fragmentation.

Answer: 1. Binary fission

MCQs on Protista Question 34. The contractile vacuole of amoeba is analogous to:

1. Sweat glands of man
2. The uriniferous tubule of a frog
3. The pulsating heart of a rabbit
4. Typhlosole of earthworm.

Answer: 2. Uriniferous tubule of frog

Question 35. Amoebulae are the by-products of:

1. Syngamy
2. Fragmentation
3. Multiple fission
4. Binary fission.

Answer: 3. Multiple fission

Question 36. Kala-azar is a protozoan disease spread by:

1. Glossina palpalis
2. Culex vislmin
3. Plileobotamus argentipis
4. Aedes Egypt.

Answer: 3. Plileobotamus argentipis

Question 37. Bioluminescence is exhibited by :

1. Uislimania
2. Ceratium
3. Toxoplasma
4. Entamoeba.

Answer: 4. Entamoeba.

Question 38. Entamoeba histolytica lives as an endoparasite in:

1. Stomach of man
2. The large intestine of a man
3. Liver of man
4. Lungs of man.

Answer: 2. Large intestine of man

MCQs on Protista Question 39. How many nuclei are found in the meta cyst of Entamoeba histolytica?

1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four

Answer: 4. Four

Question 40. Besides the bead-like chromatin granules, what is present inside the nucleus of Entamoeba histolytica

1. Parabasal body
2. Micronucleus
3. Karyosomc
4. Contractile vacuoles.

Answer: 3. Karyosomc

Question 41. Infective cyst of entamoeba has :

1. One nucleus with four chromosomes
2. One nucleus with two chromatids
3. Only one nucleus
4. Four nuclei.

Answer: 4. One nucleus with two chromatids

Question 42. Amoebic dysentery is caused by:

1. Amoeba proteus
2. Plasmodium vivax
3. Trypanosoma
4. Entamoeba histolytica.

Answer: 4. Entamoeba histolytica.

MCQs on Protista Question 43. From a single cyst of entamoeba, the number of young ones which hatch out are :

1. 8
2. 4
3. 6
4. 2.

Answer: 3. 6

Question 44. Reproduction in trophozoite of entamoeba histolytica takes place by:

1. Conjugation
2. Multiple fission
3. Autogas
4. Binary fission.

Answer: 2. Multiple fission

Question 45. Which of the following is a human parasitic protozoan found in the mouth attacking gums and teeth?

1. Giardia intestinalis
2. Entamoeba coli
3. Entamoeba histolytica
4. Entamoeba gingivalis.

Answer: 4. Entamoeba gingivalis.

Question 46. Entamoeba histolytica differs from amoeba proteus in not having:

1. Pseudopodia
2. Contractile vacuole
3. Ectoplasm and endoplasm
4. Nucleus.

Answer: 2. Contractile vacuole

Question 47. The infective stage of entamoeba histolytica is:

1. Mature cyst
2. Young trophozoite
3. Mature trophozoite
4. Sporozoite.

Answer: 1. Mature cyst

MCQs on Protista Question 48. Trophozoite and minuta. The trophozoite is the active, motile, feeding form and is pathogenic whereas minute is the cystic small, spherical, non-motile, non-feeding form which is non-pathogenic to man and serves for transmission of the parasite from one to another host:

1. Statement is wrong
2. Statement is true
3. The statement is partially correct
4. None of these.

Answer: 2. Statement is true

Question 49. The cell of paramecium is bounded by a firm membrane called :

1. Cuticle
2. Pellicle
3. Epidemlis
4. Plusmaleirtifia

Answer: 3. Epidemlis

Question 50. Cilia in paramecium arise from :

1. Kinetochore
2. Kinetosome
3. Kinetodesma
4. None of these above.

Answer: 2. Kinetosome

Question 51. Cilia of paramecium are :

1. Of uniform length
2. Much longer on the posterior end
3. Much longer on the anterior end
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Much longer on the posterior end

Question 52. Cilia in paramecium are :

1. Ulotrichous
2. Atrichous
3. Heterotrichous
4. Spirotrichous.

Answer: 1. Holotrichous

MCQs on Protista Question 53. The position of the oral groove in paramecium is:

1. Dorsovcntral
2. Ventral
3. Anterolateral
4. Posterolateral.

Answer: 2. Ventral

Question 54. In paramecium trichocysts alternate with the bases of the cilia the function of trichocysts is:

1. Anchorage, offence and defence
2. Protection
3. Anchorage to cilia
4. Secretion.

Answer: 1. Anchorage, offence and defence

Question 55. Paramecium has:

1. Single nucleus
2. Two nuclei of the same size
3. Two nuclei; a macronucleus and a micronucleus
4. Four nuclei.

Answer: 3. Two nuclei; a macronucleus and a micronucleus

Biology MCQ Protista Question 56. What response is shown by paramecium when it faces a foreign body or chemical?

1. Avoiding reaction
2. Remains undisturbed
3. Fights its way through
4. Round up remains at one spot.

Answer: 1. Avoiding reaction

Question 57. The mode of ingestion in paramecium is:

1. Holophytic
2. Saprozoic
3. Holozoic
4. Saprophytic.

Answer: 3. Holozoic

Question 58. Movement of food vacuole in paramecium along a definite path due to rotatory streaming movement of protoplasm is known as:

1. Cytokinesis
2. Cyclosis
3. Endomixis
4. Metagenesis.

Answer: 2. Cyclosis

Question 59. The cyclosis is to ensure that :

1. Food material is digested completely
2. Digested food material is distributed uniformly
3. Excretory products are removed
4. Mixing of food with enzymes takes place properly.

Answer: 2. Digested food material is distributed uniformly

Question 60. Undigested food material is removed from paramecium by:

1. Bursting of contractile vacuole
2. Bursting of food vacuole
3. Temporarily formed anus
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Temporarily formed anus

Question 61. Macronucleus is responsible for :

1. Genetic functions of the organism
2. Initiating conjugation
3. Initiating binary fission
4. Vegetative functions of the organism

Answer: 4. Vegetatiye functions of the organism

Biology MCQ Protista Question 62. Cytoproct serves for:

1. Intake of h,O
2. Controlling of activities of cilia
3. Exit of undigested wastes
4. Entry of food vacuoles.

Answer: 3. Exit of undigested wastes

Question 63. The function of two contractile vacuoles is :

1. Removal of excretory products after digestion
2. Removal of nitrogenous wastes
3. Removal of excess water content from the cytoplasm
4. Respiration.

Answer: 3. Removal of excess of water content from cytoplasm

Question 64. During favourable conditions, binary fission occurs. Its advantages are:

1. Faster multiplication
2. Slower increase in the number
3. Consumes less time
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Faster multiplication

Question 65. Usually, one binary fission takes :

1. One hour
2. Half an hour
3. Three hours.

Answer: 3. Three hours.

Question 66. Two mating types of paramecium stand for the two individuals of:

1. Two species
2. One species
3. One variety of one species
4. Two varieties of the same species.

Answer: 4. Two varieties of the same species.

Biology MCQ Protista Question 67. Synkaryon divides:

1. Twice to form four nuclei
2. Thrice to form eight nuclei
3. Four to form sixteen nuclei
4. Once two nuclei

Answer: 2. Thrice to form eight nuclei

Question 68. Each ex-conjugant gives rise to how many daughter paramecia

1. Four
2. Three
3. Eight
4. Two

Answer: 1. Four

Question 69. In paramecium aurelia and p. Caudatum, the position of cytoproct is:

1. Posterolateral
2. Anterolateral
3. Posteroventral
4. Anterodorsal.

Answer: 1. Posterolateral

Kingdom Protista NEET Biology Question 70. The function of the neuromotor system in paramecium is to:

1. Co-ordinate the various stimuli
2. Co-ordinate the ciliary beat
3. Control osmoregulation
4. Control digestion.

Answer: 2. Co-ordinate the ciliary beat

Question 71. Plasmodium was discovered by :

1. Golgi and celli
2. Ronald ross
3. Charles laver
4. Patric mansu.

Answer: 3. Charles Laveran

Question 72. The average incubation period of Plasmodium vivax is:

1. 10 Days
2. 12 Days
3. 14 Days
4. 20 Days.

Answer: 3. 14 Days

Question 73. The duration of erythrocytic schizogony in Plasmodium malaria is about:

1. 24 Hours
2. 48 Hours
3. 72 Hours
4. 30 Hours.

Answer: 2. 48 Hours

Kingdom Protista NEET Biology Question 74. Exflagcllalion of the male gametocyte of plasmodium occurs in :

1. Erythrocyte of man
2. Salivary glands of female anopheles
3. Stomach of the female anopheles
4. Liver cells of man.

Answer: 3. Salivary glands of female anopheles

Question 75. The merozoites arc produced during schizogony or :

1. Binary fission
2. Multiple fission
3. Repeated mitotic division
4. Fragmentation.

Answer: 2. Multiple fission

Question 76. The infective stage in the life cycle of plasmodium is:

1. Schizont
2. Sporozoite
3. Ookinete
4. Mcrozoilc.

Answer: 2. Sporozoite

Question 77. Fusion of male and female gametes of plasmodium takes place in:

1. Liver cells of man
2. The gut of a female Anopheles mosquito
3. Blood cells of man
4. Salivary glands of the mosquito.

Answer: 2. The gut of female anopheles mosquito

Kingdom Protista NEET Biology Question 78. Oocyst of plasmodium is formed in :

1. Erythrocyte of man
2. Plasma of man
3. Liver cells of man
4. Gut wall of mosquito.

Answer: 4. Gut wall of mosquito.

Question 79. The life cycle of plasmodium is:

1. Polymorphic
2. Polygenetic
3. Digenetic
4. Monogenetic.

Answer: 3. Digenetic

Question 80. The agony phase of the sexual phase of plasmodium is completed in:

1. The blood of man
2. The liver cells of man
3. Stomach of female Anopheles mosquito
4. Salivary glands of the female anopheles mosquito.

Answer: 3. Stomach of the female anopheles mosquito

Question 81. Mild tertian malaria is caused by :

1. Plasmodium vivax
2. Plasmodium falciparum
3. Plasmodium ovale
4. Plasmodium malariae.

Answer: 3. Plasmodium ovale

Kingdom Protista NEET Biology Question 82. The toxic malarial pigment causes chills and fever is known as:

1. Haemoglobin
2. Haematin
3. Haemozoin
4. Schuffner’s granules.

Answer: 3. Haemozoin

Question 83. The schizont stage in the life cycle of plasmodium occurs in :

1. Erythrocytes of man
2. Leucocyte cells of man
3. Salivary glands of female anopheles
4. Stomach of female anopheles.

Answer: 1. Erythrocytes of man

Question 84. Cerebral malaria is caused by :

1. Plasmodium falciparum
2. Plasmodium malariae
3. Plasmodium ovale
4. Plasmodium vivax.

Answer: 1. Plasmodium falciparum

Question 85. Which of the following do not have locomotory organelles

1. Rhizopoda
2. Rhizopod
3. Ciliata
4. Sporozoa.

Answer: 4. Sporozoa.

Question 86. Trypanosoma gnmbirnsr causes the disease :

1. Hcri beri
2. Sleeping sickness
3. Malaria.

Answer: 3. Malaria.

Kingdom Protista NEET Biology Question 87. Trypanosoma gamblers live in the human body in :

1. Lymph
2. Blood
3. Cerebrospinal fluid
4. Cerebrospinal fluid and blood.

Answer: 4. Cerebrospinal fluid and blood.

Question 88. Trypanosoma is transmitted by :

1. Contamination
2. Inoculation
3. Contagious
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Inoculation

Question 89. Schaffner’s dots are present in :

1. Entamoeba
2. Schizont stage ofplasmodium
3. Ookinete stage of plasmodium
4. Trophozoite stage of plasmodium.

Answer: 4. Trophozoite stage of plasmodium.

Question 90. The most potent drug against malaria fever is :

1. Septran
2. Daraprim
3. Cinchona
4. Tetracycline

Answer: 2. Daraprim

Question 91. Which one of the following is a non-pathogenic protozoan?

1. Entamoeba coli
2. Entamoeba gingivalis
3. Entamoeba histolytica
4. Leishmania.

Answer: 1. Entamoeba coli

Kingdom Protista NEET Biology Question 92. What is the number of metacryptozoite formed per schizoint in Plasmodium vivax?

1. 10,000
2. 15,000
3. 40,000
4. 30,000

Answer: 1. 10,000

Question 93. Dinoflagellates resemble dinosaurs in:

1. Armoured body
2. Time of origin
3. Having flagellate cells
4. Being heterotrophs.

Answer: 1. Armoured body

Question 94. The micronucleated cyst stage is found in:

1. Entamoeba histolytica
2. Leishmania
3. Trypanosoma
4. Entamoeba coli.

Answer: 4. Entamoeba coli.

Question 95. The life history of the human malarial parasite in Anopheles was first described by :

1. Celli
2. Ronald ross
3. Grassi
4. Laveran.

Answer: 3. Grassi

Question 96. Paroxysm in tertian malaria occurs after every :

1. 72 Hours
2. 48 Hours
3. 24 Hour
4. 12 Hours

Answer: 2. 48 Hours

Kingdom Protista MCQs Question 97. When a freshwater pond is about to dry, the likely response of amoeba will be:

1. Binary fission
2. Encystment
3. Quick feeding
4. No change

Answer: 2. Encystment

Question 98. The marine, pelagic, bioluminescent and tentacled protozoan is

1. Noctiluca
2. Giardia
3. Balantidium
4. Mastigoamoeba.

Answer: 1. Noctiluca

Question 99. Which stage of plasmodium is likely to be found in the stomach of a female anopheles, which has just taken a blood meal from a patient with malaria?

1. Merozoites, trophozoites and gametocytes
2. Sporozoites, trophozoites and gametes
3. Merozoites, gametocytes and zygotes
4. Gametocytes, ookinetes and gametes.

Answer: 1. Merozoites, trophozoites and gametocytes

Question 100. Which of the following organelles is not seen in the protozoa?

1. Setae
2. Flagella
3. Undulating membrane
4. Lobopodium.

Answer: 1. Setae

Question 101. Removal of micronucleus in paramecium will impair the function of :

1. Reproduction
2. Excretion
3. Locomotion
4. Osmoregulation.

Answer: 1. Reproduction

Kingdom Protista MCQs Question 102. Bouts of recurrent fever in malaria are due to :

1. Entry of sporozoites in the liver
2. Merozoites attacking fresh rbc
3. Anticoagulants and irritants are introduced during mosquito bites.
4. Release of merozoites and their metabolic wastes.

Answer: 4. Release of merozoites and their metabolic wastes.

Question 103. Trypanosoma is :

1. Non-pathogenic
2. Polymorphic
3. Non-genetic
4. Facultative.

Answer: 2. Polymorphic

Question 104. Schizogony in plasmodium occurs in :

1. Rbc of man
2. Alimentary canal of mosquito
3. Liver of man
4. Rbc and liver of man.

Answer: 4. Rbc and liver of man.

Question 105. Plasmodium vivax belongs to the class :

1. Telosporea
2. Sarcodina
3. Mastigophora
4. Ciliata.

Answer: 1. Telosporea

Question 106. Black water fever is another name for :

1. Yellow fever
2. Scarlet fever
3. Encephalitis
4. Etivo-automonal malaria.

Answer: 4. Etivo-automonal malaria.

Kingdom Protista MCQs Question 107. Protozoans living in the seminal vesicle of earthworms are:

1. Monocytes
2. Balantidium
3. Trichonympha
4. Opalina.

Answer: 1. Monocystis

Question 108. Which of the following adjectives cannot be correctly applied to describe entamoeba histolytica?

1. Digenetic
2. Dimorphic
3. Pathogenic
4. Endoparasite.

Answer: 1. Digenetic

Question 109. For a malarial parasite, humans are :

1. Intermediate hosts
2. Reservoir hosts
3. Final host
4. Carrier.

Answer: 1. Intermediate hosts

Question 110. The transmission of entamoeba histolytica takes place by:

1. Female anopheles mosquito
2. Air
3. Kissing
4. Contaminated food and water.

Answer: 4. Contaminated food and water.

MCQs on Protista Question 111. Cavity of man. It causes :

1. Pyorrhoea
2. Amoebic dysentery
3. Bronchitis
4. No disease.

Answer: 4. No disease.

Question 112. African sleeping sickness or gambiense fever is caused by :

1. Entamoeba
2. Trypanosoma
3. Leishmania
4. Trichomonas.

Answer: 2. Trypanosoma

Question 113. Slime moulds belong to :

1. Fungi
2. Protista
3. Monera
4. Plantae

Answer: 2. Protista

Question 114. Shell or frustules occur in :

1. Diatoms
2. Heliozoans
3. Radiolarians
4. Foraminifera.

Answer: 1. Diatoms

Question 115. A common phycobiont in lichens is :

1. Microcystis
2. Euglena
3. Citraria
4. Trebauxia.

Answer: 4. Trebauxia.

MCQs on Protista Question 116. Physarella and physarum are the examples of :

1. Cellular slime moulds
2. Acellular slime moulds
3. Protozoan
4. Blue-green algae.

Answer: 2. Acellular slime moulds

Question 117. A genus with a single species is termed as :

1. Monotypic
2. Typical
3. Atypical
4. Polytypic.

Answer: 1. Monotypic

Question 118. The first act in taxonomy is :

1. Description
2. Identification
3. Naming
4. Classification.

Answer: 2. Identification

Question 119. Which of the following possesses characteristics of a plant and animal :

1. Euglena
2. Bacteria
3. Mycoplasma
4. Paramecium.

Answer: 1. Euglena

Question 120. The wall is two-layered in :

1. Mycoplasma
2. Archaebacteria
3. Gram +ve bacteria
4. Gram -ve bacteria.

Answer: 4. Gram -ve bacteria.

MCQs on Protista Question 121. Cellular slime moulds are :

1. Haploid
2. Diploid
3. Triploid
4. Polyploid.

Answer: 1. Haploid

Question 122. Protistan cells contain:

1. 70 S ribosomes
2. 80 S ribosomes
3. Polyribosomes
4. Genophore.

Answer: 3. Polyribosomes

Question 123. Flagellated structures are absent in :

1. Red algae
2. Mushroom
3. Higher seed plants
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 124. In protist flagella if present are :

1. 9+0
2. 0 +2
3. 2+7
4. 9 + 2 Fibrillar.

Answer: 4. 9 + 2 Fibrillar.

MCQs on Protista Question 125. Distinct cell walls are absent in :

1. All protists
2. Some protists
3. Photosynthetic protists
4. Heterotrophic protists.

Answer: 4. Heterotrophic protists.

Question 126. Which day is celebrated as is malaria day?

1. 20Th aug.
2. 15Th aug.
3. 26Th Jan
4. 5Th june.

Answer: 1. 20Th aug.

Question 127. Malarial parasites could best be obtained from a patient

1. An hour before the rise in temperature
2. When the temperature rises with vigour
3. When the temperature comes to normal
4. An hour after the temperature rise.

Answer: 2. When the temperature rises with vigour

Question 128. Locomotory organelles in the protista are :

1. Flagella
2. Cilia
3. Pseudopodia
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 129. Which species of protists are known as the whirling whips because of the spin produced by two flagella beating in opposing grooves along their hard-surfaced bodies?

1. Diatoms
2. Chrysophytes
3. Dinoflagellates
4. Golden brown algae.

Answer: 3. Dinoflagellates

Kingdom Protista NEET Biology  Question 130. Shellfish taken from water during a red tide would be:

1. Poisoned with neurotoxin
2. Rich in proteins
3. Dead
4. Rich in minerals.

Answer: 1. Rich in proteins

Question 131. The protists in which cell also decrease with each division is:

1. Dinoflagellates
2. Diatoms
3. Slime moulds
4. Radiolarians.

Answer: 2. Diatoms

Question 132. Bivalved siliceous shell occurs in :

1. Foraminiferans
2. Radiolarians
3. Heliozoans
4. Diatoms.

Answer: 4. Diatoms.

Question 133. Auxospores or re-juvenescent cells occur in :

1. Dinoflagellates
2. Diatoms
3. Zooflagellates
4. Sporozoans.

Answer: 2. Diatoms

Kingdom Protista NEET Biology  Question 134. Eye spot or stigma of euglena occur attached to :

1. The membrane of the contractile vacuole
2. The membrane of the cytopharynx
3. The membrane of the reservoir
4. Both 2 and 3.

Answer: 2. The membrane of the cytopharynx

Question 135. The cell wall is absent in :

1. Dinoflagellates
2. Diatoms
3. Euglenoids
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Euglenoids

Question 136. Mesokaryon is :

1. A nucleoid with distinct chromosomes
2. A nucleus with condensed chromosomes
3. Nucleoid with histone protein
4. A nucleus-like structure.

Answer: 2. A nucleus with condensed chromosome

Question 137. The transverse groove present in dinoflagellates is :

1. Sulcus
2. Cingulum or girdle
3. Annulus
4. Both 2 and 3

Answer: 4. Both 2 and 3

Question 138. A non-contractile vacuole called pustule is present near the flagellar base in :

1. Diatoms
2. Dinoflagellates
3. Euglenoids
4. None of these.

Answer: 2. Dinoflagellates

Question 139. The toxin of gonyaulax catenella is called :

1. Hypnotoxin
2. Saxitoxin
3. Mycotoxin
4. Both 1 and 3.

Answer: 2. Saxitoxin

Question 140. The mass of streaming protoplasm (wall-less mass of multinucleate protoplasm) in plasmodial (acellular) slime moulds is called the :

1. Sporocytes
2. Sporangia
3. Plasmodium
4. Pseudoplasmodium.

Answer: 3. Plasmodium

Question 141. Multinucleate decomposer organisms are:

1. Pelomyxa
2. Physarum
3. Dictyostellum
4. Arcella.

Answer: 2. Physarum

Question 142. Reninococcus is a :

1. Halophile
2. Methanogen
3. Chemolithotroph
4. Myxobacterium

Answer: 2. Methanogen

Question 143. Cellulose digestion of termites is carried out by :

1. Monocytes
2. Trichonympha
3. Trichomonas
4. Lophomonas.

Answer: 2. Trichonympha

Question 144. Motile zygote of plasmodium occurs in :

1. Salivary glands of anopheles
2. Human RBCs
3. The gut of female anopheles
4. Human liver.

Answer: 3. Gut of female anopheles

Question 145. Egyptian pyramids are made of rocks formed from :

1. Radiolarian ooze
2. Armoured dinoflagellates
3. Foraminiferan shells
4. Diatomaceous earth.

Answer: 3. Foraminiferan shells

Question 146. Heliozoans actinophrys are :

1. Zooflagellates
2. Sporozoans
3. Slipper animalcules
4. Sun animalcules.

Answer: 4. Sun animalcules.

Question 147. In a weak electric field, the paramecium moves :

1. Towards the negative pole
2. Towards the positive pole
3. Around to avoid the effect of the current
4. Forms cyst and does not move.

Answer: 1. Towards the negative pole

Question 148. The crithidial stage in the life history of Trypanosoma gambiense is found in :

1. Salivary glands of tsetse fly
2. Liver of man
3. Cerebrospinal fluid of man
4. Blood vascular system of the pig.

Answer: 1. Salivary glands of tsetse fly

Question 149. Protists obtain food as :

1. Photosynthesisers
2. Chemosynthesisers
3. Holotrophs
4. Photosynthesisers, symbionts and heterotrophs.

Answer: 4. Photosynthesisers, symbionts and heterotrophs.

Question 150. Protistan genome has :

1. Membrane-bound nucleoprotein embedded in the cytoplasm
2. Free nucleic acid aggregates
3. The gene containing nucleoproteins condensed together in a loose mass
4. Nucleoprotein in direct contact with cell substance.

Answer: 3. Gene containing nucleoproteins condensed together in a loose mass

Question 151. Myxamoebae belong to :

1. Acellular slime moulds
2. Cellular slime moulds
3. Sarcodina
4. Both 2 and 3

Answer: 2. Cellular slime moulds

NEET Biology The Living World Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. The total of all living and non-living things on the earth constitutes:

1. Organism
2. Organ system
3. Community
4. Biosphere

Answer: 4. Biosphere

Question 2. Which of the following regulates the organization at different levels?

1. Aggregation
2. Interaction
3. Equilibrium and change
4. All of these.

Answer: 4. All of these.

Question 3. The living beings can utilize only:

1. Heat energy
2. Free energy
3. Light energy
4. Mechanical energy.

Answer: 2. Free energy

Question 4. Biolumincsccncc in glowworm (firefly) is on account of the transformation of cellular energy ATP into:

1. Heat energy
2. Light energy
3. Electric energy
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Light energy

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

The Living World NEET  Question 5. Energy in a state of randomness or disorder is known as:

1. Free energy
2. Heat energy
3. Light energy
4. Entropy.

Answer: 4. Entropy.

Question 6. Which of the explanations accounts for the statement that “still we have not been able to create life.” ?

1. All molecules of life have not been found.
2. The nature of the molecular organization is complex and not completely understood.
3. Life molecules except a few are known.
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. The nature of the molecular organization is complex and not completely understood.

Question 7. The life span of a parrot is:

1. 200 Years
2. 20 Years
3. 70 Years
4. 140 Years

Answer: 4. 140 Years

Question 8. Resurrection plant is:

1. Pinus
2. Eucalyptus
3. Selaginella lepidopliylla
4. Dryopteris.

Answer: 3. Selaginella lepidopliylla

Question 9. Homeostasis is represented by:

1. Intake of more salt during summer
2. Intake of more fat during winter
3. Provide energy to cells
4. Sweating during exercise.

Answer: 4. Sweating during exercise.

The Living World NEET  Question 10. Homeostasis is:

1. Tendency to resist change
2. Disturbance in regulatory control systems
3. Tendency to change with change in environment
4. Use of extracts of living organisms in homeopathy.

Answer: 1. Tendency to resist change

Question 11. Which of the following has the longest life span?

1. Elephant
2. Parrot
3. Tortoise
4. Horse.

Answer: 3. Tortoise

Question 12. Viruses are:

1. Living cellular organisms
2. Non-living entities
3. Living inside the host cells
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Living inside the host cells

Question 13. You have observed that organisms die. Which of the following statements appear to you as scientifically sound?

1. An organism dies because all its cells die.
2. Because an organism can be bom again.
3. Death is a natural part of the life cycle.
4. Otherwise, the earth will become too crowded.

Answer: 3. Death is a natural part of the life cycle.

Question 14. Organisms have :

1. A closed system
2. Open system
3. A system of exporting energy
4. A system of exporting materials.

Answer: 2. Open system

NEET Biology MCQs on Diversity in Living World Question 15. Energy is required by cells for:

1. Overcoming entropy
2. Biosynthesis of molecules
3. Transport
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 16. heterotrophs take energy from :

1. Light
2. Inorganic molecules
3. Organic molecules
4. Various reactions.

Answer: 3. Organic molecules

Question 17. Homeostasis operates at which level of hierarchy?

1. Cell level
2. Population-level
3. Ecosystem
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 18. Female anopheles mosquitoes suck human blood to obtain:

1. Malarial parasites
2. Proteins for the production of egg
3. DNA
4. Chemicals for attraction of males.

Answer: 2. Proteins for the production of egg

Question 19. Both the entire and finely dissected leaves occur in :

1. Ivy
2. Eucalyptus
3. Linmopliila
4. Nyntpltaea.

Answer: 3. Linmopliila

NEET Biology MCQs on Diversity in Living World Question 20. The flowers of which of the following plants resemble the tangles of certain wasps:

1. Lathyrus aphaca
2. Ophrys nuciferine
3. Calotropis procera
4. Antigonon spp.

Answer: 2. Ophrys nuciferine

Question 21. DNA is unique among molecules in being :

1. Able to withstand high temperatures
2. Form polymer complex
3. Replicate itself
4. Replicate and transcribe RNAs.

Answer: 4. Form polymer complex

Question 22. Which of the following organize themselves into societies with adaptations for the division of labor?

1. Mosquitoes
2. Honey bees
3. Termites
4. Both 2 and 3.

Answer: 4. Both 2 and 3.

Question 23. Glucose concentration of blood for normal body functioning:

1. 0.9 gin/100 ml
2. 80-100/Mg 100 ml
3. 200 Mg/100 ml
4. 500 Mg/100 ml.

Answer: 2. 80-100/Mg 100 ml

The Living World MCQ for NEET Question 24. Common salt helps in the digestion of food because it:

1. Maintains turgidity of rbc
2. Prevents dehydration
3. It is an important constituent of blood plasma
4. It forms hc1 of gastric juice and digestion occurs in an acidic medium.

Answer: 4. It forms hc1 of gastric juice and digestion occurs in an acidic medium.

Question 25. Kangaroo makes use of its thick tail as the fifth limb. It is an example of:

1. Short term adaptation
2. Long term adaptation
3. Temporary adjustment for sitting
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Long-term adaptation

Question 26. Adaptations significant for the evolution of species are :

1. Short-term and heritable
2. Long-term and heritable
3. Long-term and non-heritable
4. Short-term and non-heritable.

Answer: 2. Long-term and heritable

Question 27. A wheat crop is ripening in the field. It shows :

1. Energy transfer
2. Energy transformation
3. Entropy
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 28. Geotropism is an example of :

1. Short term adaptation
2. Long term adaptation
3. None of above
4. Both of the above.

Answer: 1. Short-term adaptation

Question 29. Artificial blood is :

1. Chloro fluorocarbons
2. Pfc (perfluorocarbons)
3. Lsd
4. Leghaemoglobin.

Answer: 2. Pfc (perfluorocarbons)

The Living World MCQ for NEET Question 30. Why drip of glucose anil not fructose is given to a needy patient

1. Glucose acts as a respiratory fuel
2. It is an open-chain simple sugar and provides instant energy
3. Fructose changes the pH of body fluid
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 31. The short-term adaptations develop due to a temporary change in the environment and arc :

1. Inherited through genes
2. Inherited by male
3. Inherited by female
4. Not inherited.

Answer: 4. Not inherited.

Question 32. The study of the migration of birds is called :

1. Ornithology
2. Etiology
3. Kalology
4. Phenology.

Answer: 4. Phenology.

Question 33. Which of the following explanations accounts for the statement: “it has yet not been possible to create life”?

1. The nature of molecular organization is complex and not completely understood
2. All molecules of life have not been identified yet
3. Most molecules are known except for a few
4. The earth is now with reducing conditions.

Answer: 1. The nature of molecular organization is complex and not completely understood

Question 34. Price of life is :

1. Atp
2. Photosynthesis and respiration
3. Death
4. All the above

Answer: 4. All the above

Question 35. The adaptation shown by the entire species is :

1. Temporary
2. Permanent
3. Both of 1 and 2
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Permanent

NEET Biology MCQ The Living World Question 36. Which factor is not involved in dna replication?

1. Control enzymes
2. Monomers
3. Energy source-atp
4. None of the above.

Answer: 4. None of the above.

Question 37. Atom is fundamental to an understanding of chemistry. What is fundamental to an understanding of biology?

1. Cell-organelles
2. Cell
3. Ecosystem
4. Biosphere.

Answer: 2. Cell

Question 38. Essential aspects of life are :

1. Energy kinetics
2. Reproduction
3. Adaptation
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 39. Which one of the following is called the energy currency of cells?

1. Adp
2. Amp
3. Atp
4. Gtp.

Answer: 3. Atp

NEET Biology MCQ The Living World Question 40. The most at of the human body is:

1. Hypothalamus
2. Pituitary
3. Thyroid
4. Pineal body.

Answer: 1. Hypothalamus

Question 41. The contraction of muscles  represents the transformation of chemical energy into:

1. Heat energy
2. Light energy
3. Mechanical energy
4. Electrical energy.

Answer: 3. Mechanical energy

Question 42. The ilex elopement of extra melanin line to exposure of skin to sunlight is helpful in:

1. Maintaining the skin viable
2. An absorbing all solar radiations
3. Protecting internal organs front radiations
4. Both 2 and 3.

Answer: 4. Both 2 and 3.

Question 43. If a person is exposed to an excess of sunlight, his skin becomes dark. This is:

1. An adaptation
2. Mimicry
3. Pharmacology
4. Both 4 and 3.

Answer: 1. An adaptation

Question 44. Some organisms resemble other organisms, which escape from enemies. This phenomenon is called:

1. Homology
2. Analogy
3. Adaptation
4. Mimicry.

Answer: 4. Mimicry.

NEET Biology MCQ The Living World Question 45. The adaptations are for :

1. Change
2. Improvement
3. Survival
4. Decline.

Answer: 3. Survival

Question 46. Organisms with the smallest life span are:

1. Silk moth
2. Mayfly
3. Sequoia
4. Man.

Answer: 2. Mayfly

Question 47. The highest level of organization is:

1. Protoplasm
2. Organ system
3. Ecosystem
4. Ecosphere.

Answer: 4. Ecosphere.

Question 48. The amount of energy released per mole of glucose is:

1. 6.86 kcal
2. 68.6 kcal
3. 668 Kcal
4. 686 Kcal.

Answer: 4. 686 Kcal.

Question 49. Which of the following is a long-range adaptation?

1. Ankle bone
2. Opposable thumb
3. Tail in kangaroo
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 50. Which type of organization is found in Hydra?

1. Tissue
2. Protoplasmic
3. Organ system
4. Cellular.

Answer: 1. Tissue

Question 51. The death is significant because it :

1. Kills the organisms
2. Restores the efficiency of any organization
3. Keeps a check on the increasing population
4. Both 2 and 3

Answer: 4. Both and.

Question 52. Which of (lie following maintains the balance of species and contributes to homeostasis?

1. Death
2. Reproduction
3. Physiotherapy
4. Both and (11).

Answer: 4. Both and (11).

Question 53. Non-covalent bonds include all the following:

1. A carbon-carbon double bond
2. An ionic bond
3. A hydrogen bond
4. Van der Waal’s interaction.

Answer: 1. A carbon-carbon double bond

Question 54. Covalent bonds in contrast to non-covalent bonds:

1. Have an energy level of about 1 keal/mol
2. Are stable relative to the kinetic energy of molecules at room temperature
3. Are readily broken at room temperature
4. Are the main force in maintaining the three-dimensional structure of large molecules such as proteins.

Answer: 4. Are the main force in maintaining the three-dimensional structure of large molecules such as proteins.

Question 55. Which of the following is not a feature of living organisms?

1. Highly organized and complete entities formed of one or more cells
2. Carry out and control numerous chemical reactions
3. Cannot acquire energy
4. Grow in size, develop, and produce offspring similar to them.

Answer: 3. Grow in size, develop and produce offspring similar to them.

Question 56. The hierarchies of biological organization start with :

1. Cell level and end in biosphere
2. Molecular level and end in ecosystem
3. Submicroscopic molecular level and end in the biosphere
4. Microscopic cellular level and end in the biosphere.

Answer: 3. Submicroscopic molecular level and end in the biosphere

Question 57. Water is a polar molecule because of its magnetic poles. In the water molecule:

1. Oxygen atom bears a partial negative charge (8′)
2. Each hydrogen atom has a partial, positive charge (8‘)
3. Oxygen atom has a positive charge and hydrogen a negative charge
4. Both 1 and 2.

Answer: 4. Both 1 and 2.

Question 58. Common table salt (NaCl) is an important lattice of ions in which atoms are held together by electrical attractions. Which of the following is not correct?

1. Direct NaCl molecules can be formed
2. No direct nacl molecule can be formed
3. The electronegativity of a chlorine atom is 3-1 is higher than that of a sodium atom (0-9)
4. Nacl is electrically neutral.

Answer: 2. No direct nacl molecule can be formed

NEET Biology Homeostasis and Osmoregulation Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Excretion refers to :

1. Removal of metabolic wastes and toxic products from the body
2. Removal of non-nitrogenous wastes from the body
3. Removal of synthetic products
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Removal of metabolic wastes and toxic products from the body

Question 2. Kidney of amniotes belongs to the following type :

1. Pronephros
2. Mesonephros
3. Metanephros
4. None of these.

Answer: 3. metanephros

Question 3. About how many nephrons are present in each kidney of a human?

1. 1000,000
2. 2000
3. 1000
4. 16.

Answer: 1. 1000,000

Question 4. Vertebrate kidney and contractile vacuole of protozoan resemble each other in :

1. Excretion of minerals
2. Excretion of nitrogenous wastes
3. Excretion of excess water content and wastes
4. Excretion of glucose.

Answer: 3. Excretion of excess water content and wastes

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

MCQs on Osmoregulation For NEET Question 5. The cavity of the kidney which leads into the ureter is called :

1. Renal pelvis
2. Renal tubule
3. Bowman’s capsule
4. Neck.

Answer: 1. Renal pelvis

Question 6. The glomerulus is responsible for :

1. Secretion
2. Reabsorption
3. Filtration
4. Osmoregulation.

Answer: 3. filtration

Question 7. A fish excretes nitrogen in the form of:

1. Amino acids
2. Ammonium ions
3. Uric acid
4. All of the above.

Answer: 2. Ammonium ions

Question 8. Capillaries of glomeruli are :

1. Entirely venous
2. Entirely arterial
3. Venous and arterial
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. entirely arterial

Question 9. The kind of epithelial cells that form a lining of the neck of the tubule are:

1. Pyramidal
2. Columnar
3. Ciliated cuboidal
4. Ciliated columnar.

Answer: 3. Ciliated cuboidal

Question 10. What kind of epithelial cells form the lining of the body of renal tubules?

1. Pyramidal
2. Columnar
3. Cuboidal
4. Ciliated columnar.

Answer: 3. Cuboidal

Question 11. The separation of amino acid into the amino group and the carboxylic group is called :

1. Deamination
2. Defecation
3. Excretion
4. Transamination.

Answer: 1. Deamination

MCQs on Osmoregulation For NEET Question 12. Uriniferous tubules are concerned with the formation of:

1. Amino acids
2. Glucose
3. Urine
4. Co-enzyme

Answer: 3. urine

Question 13. Uriniferous tubules are found :

1. Only in man
2. In all mammals
3. In all vertebrates
4. In all chordates and some lower animals.

Answer: 3. In all vertebrates

Question 14. The maximum amount of urea is present in :

1. Renal artery
2. Renal vein
3. Hepatic artery
4. Hepatic vein.

Answer: 4. Hepatic vein

Question 15. A condition which fails the kidney is known as:

1. Uraemia
2. Anuria
3. Diarrhoea
4. Haematuria.

Answer: 2. Anuria

Question 16. The function of the kidney is to :

1. Form urine
2. Maintain a constant fluid environment in which cells are bathed
3. Remove toxic substances from the body and expel extra fluid
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

MCQs on Osmoregulation For NEET Question 17. Materials from tubule enter cells against a gradient because of:

1. Active transport
2. Passive transport
3. Turgor pressure
4. Imbibition.

Answer: 1. Active transport

Question 18. The yellow colour of urine is due to :

1. Bile pigment
2. Picric acid
3. Vitamin B
4. Urochrome.

Answer: 4. Urochrome

Question 19. Urine is formed by the process of:

1. Ultrafiltration, plasmolysis and absorption
2. Ultrafiltration, secretion and absorption
3. Ultrafiltration, reabsorption and secretion
4. Ultrafiltration, secretion and osmosis.

Answer: 3. Ultrafiltration, reabsorption and secretion

Question 20. In the glomerular filtrate, all the constituents of blood except proteins and cells are present. The process involved is :

1. Phagocytosis
2. Ultrafiltration
3. Reabsorption
4. Secretion.

Answer: 2. Ultrafiltration

Question 21. The osmoregulatory tissue in all animals is :

1. Connective.
2. Muscular
3. Nervous
4. Epithelial.

Answer: 4. Epithelial

Question 22. The vitamin that is excreted by urine in higher vertebrates is :

1. vitamin A
2. vitamin E
3. vitamin C
4. vitamin K.

Answer: 3. vitamin C

Solved NEET MCQs On Homeostasis Question 23. The pressure exerted by the glomerular afferent arteriole is:

1. +95 mm Hg
2. +70 mm Hg
3. +75 mm Hg
4. +80 mm Hg.

Answer: 3. +75 mm Hg

Question 24. The difference between glomerular filtrate and blood plasma is:

1. First is concentrated and the second is dilute
2. The first is white and the second is yellow
3. Difference of potassium
4. Protein.

Answer: 4. Protein.

Question 25. The end products of fat and carbohydrate metabolism are excreted.

1. Kidney
2. Liver
3. Lungs
4. Skin.

Answer: 3. Lungs

Question 26. A person has taken a large amount of ‘meal which contains high muscle protein. His urine will eliminate more amount of :

1. Urea
2. Uric acid
3. Glucose
4. Glycogen.

Answer: 2. Uric acid

Question 27. Which one of the following increases glomerular pressure?

1. Renin
2. Aldosterone
3. Angiotensin
4. ADH.

Answer: 3. Angiotensin

Question 28. The urinary bladder of a frog performs the function of :

1. Ultra-filtration
2. Storage of urine
3. Secretion
4. Selective reabsorption.

Answer: 2. Storage of urine

Solved NEET MCQs On Homeostasis Question 29. When the kidney is no longer held in place securely the stage is called the :

1. Nephritis
2. Nephrosis
3. Ptosis
4. Diuresis.

Answer: 3. Ptosis

Question 30. In which of the following does the gut expel excretory waste along with faeces?

1. Human being
2. Dog
3. Sheep
4. Earthworm.

Answer: 4. Earthworm

Question 31. The glomerulus is a network of:

1. 5 parallel capillaries
2. 50 parallel capillaries
3. 500 parallel capillaries
4. 5000 parallel capillaries
5. more than 5000 parallel capillaries.

Answer: 2. 50 parallel capillaries

Question 32. What does glomerular filtrate consist of ?

1. Water and plasma proteins
2. Water and urea
3. Water, urea, glucose and inorganic salts
4. Water, urea, inorganic salts, lipids.

Answer: 3. Water, urea, glucose and inorganic salts

Question 33. In the kidney the high capillary bed is found :

1. In Bowman’s capsule
2. Around anterior tubules
3. Around a loop of Henle
4. Not found.

Answer: 1. In Bowman’s capsule

Solved NEET MCQs On Homeostasis Question 34. In Bright disease (Nephritis) :

1. The amount of urea in the blood increases
2. Blood comes out along with urine
3. Kidney stones are developed
4. All of the above.

Answer: 2. blood comes out along with urine

Question 35. The pack rat, a rodent, often goes for long periods without drinking, eats leaves of juicy plants and moves about in the open only in the evening and at night. From these habits, you can guess that it lives in :

1. Desert areas
2. The Arctic tundra
3. The woodlands of the eastern U.S.
4. The water.

Answer: 1. Desert areas

Question 36. The main nitrogenous waste substance excreted by the pack rat will probably be :

1. Ammonia
2. Urea
3. Uric acid
4. None of these.

Answer: 2. Urea

Question 37. An advantage of excreting nitrogenous wastes in the form of uric acid is that :

1. Uric acid can be excreted in almost solid form
2. The formation of uric acid requires a great deal of energy
3. Uric acid is the first metabolic breakdown product of acids
4. Uric acid may be excreted through the lungs.

Answer: 1. Uric acid can be excreted in almost solid form

MCQs on Homeostasis Question 38. If excess water passes out from the tissues without being restored by the kidneys, the cells would :

1. Extract water from the plasma
2. Shrivel and die
3. Would not be affected
4. Burst open and die.

Answer: 2 . Shrivel and die

Question 39. The main excretory structure in houseflies is the.

1. Malpighian tubules
2. Flame cell
3. Nephron
4. Nephridium.

Answer: 1. Malpighian tubules

Question 40. Salmon have gills that are more permeable to water than to salts. Salmon hatch in freshwater streams, and then migrate to the ocean. Once they reach the ocean you would expect the rate of uptake of water into their body through the gills to :

1. Increase
2. Decrease
3. Remain the same
4. First increases then decreases.

Answer: 2. Decrease

Question 41. Urine leaves the kidney via :

1. The renal vein
2. The urethra
3. The ureter
4. The collecting duct.

Answer: 3. The ureter

MCQs on Homeostasis Question 42. The loop of Henle is most highly developed in :

1. Freshwater fishes
2. Mammals
3. Desert lizards
4. Salamanders.

Answer: 2. Mammals

Question 43. All the following tests are used to know the abnormality in the kidney:

1. Pyelography
2. Polarography
3. Cystoscope
4. X-ray photography.

Answer: 2. Polarography

Question 44. In birds, the nitrogenous wastes are conveyed to the exterior directly through the :

1. Urinary aperture
2. Urinogenital aperture
3. Cloacal aperture
4. Oral aperture.

Answer: 3. Cloacal aperture

Question 45. Urea is formed by the combination of ammonia with and in :

1. Oxygen, liver
2. Carbon dioxide, liver
3. Carbon monoxide, kidney
4. Calcium carbonate, liver.

Answer: 2. Carbon dioxide, liver

MCQs on Homeostasis Question 46. Angiotensin stimulates the adrenal cortex to produce aldosterone which influences in the blood the level of:

1. Sodium
2. Potassium
3. Iron
4. Calcium.

Answer: 1. Sodium

Question 47. Reabsorption is controlled partly by ADH which is secreted by :

1. Kidney
2. Liver
3. Pituitary
4. Pancreas.

Answer: 3. Pituitary

Question 48. The amino acids are excreted as such from the body in any one of the following:

1. cockroach
2. series
3. Pila
4. echinoderms.

Answer: 4. echinoderms.

Question 49.  Deamination occurs during the :

1. catabolism of amino acid
2. anabolism of amino acid
3. formation of urea
4. Krebs’ cycle.

Answer: 1. catabolism of amino acid

Question 50. Ammonia is the end product of:

1. glucose breakdown
2. fatly acid metabolism
3. protein metabolism
4. breakdown of biogenic amines.

Answer: 3. protein metabolism

MCQs on Homeostasis Question 51. Ornithine cycle is concerned with the production of:

1. urine
2. deamination
3. transamination
4. biosynthesis of urea.

Answer: 4. biosynthesis of urea

Question 52. Which one of the following substances is completely reabsorbed from the filtrate in the renal tubule under normal conditions?

1. Uric acid
2. Salts and water
3. Glucose
4. Urea.

Answer: 3. Urea.

Question 53. A terrestrial animal must be able to :

1. pump salts out actively through the skin
2. excrete large amounts of salts in its urine
3. excrete large amounts of water in its urine
4. conserve water.

Answer: 4. conserve water

Homeostasis MCQ Question 54. In a functional kidney which of the following processes does not occur?

1. Deamination
2. Reabsorption
3. Pressure filtration
4. Tubular reabsorption.

Answer: 1. Deamination

Question 55. Which one part of the uriniferous tubule is associated with the active transport of Na+?

1. Bowman’s capsule
2. Convoluted part
3. Collecting tubule
4. Neck.

Answer: 2. Convoluted part

Question 56. The elimination of the insoluble calcium phosphate takes place by :

1. kidney
2. liver
3. lungs
4. large intestine.

Answer: 4. large intestine

Question 57. The polypeptide which plays a key role in the renal pressure system is :

1. oxytocin
2. angiotensin
3. vasopressin
4. bradykinin.

Answer: 2. angiotensin

Homeostasis MCQ Question 58. The chief nitrogenous waste material in the urine of frogs is:

1. Ammonia
2. Uric acid
3. Allantoin
4. Urea.

Answer: 4. Urea.

Question 59. Physiologically urea is produced by the action of an enzyme :

1. uricase
2. urease
3. arginase
4. None of these.

Answer: 3. arginase

Question 60. Reabsorption of chloride ions (Cl-) from the glomerular filtrate in the kidney tubule of mammals is carried out by :

1. osmosis
2. diffusion
3. active transport
4. Brownian movement.

Answer: 2. diffusion

Question 61. The system which restores impaired renal circulation

1. Renal pressure system
2. Renal failure
3. uricotelic
4. ordinal.

Answer: 1. Renal pressure system

Homeostasis MCQ Question 62. The human kidney is differentiated into :

1. cortex and medulla
2. proximal and distal
3. outer and inner
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. cortex and medulla

Question 63. Malpighian body refers to :

1. Malpighian tubule present in the kidney
2. Bowman’s capsule
3. Bowman’s capsule and network of capillaries inside
4. Excretory organs of cockroach.

Answer: 3. Bowman’s capsule and network of capillaries inside

Question 64. The diameter of the afferent arteriole entering the Bowman’s capsule is:

1. less than that of efferent arteriole
2. more than that of efferent arteriole
3. same as that of efferent arteriole
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. more than that of efferent arteriole

Question 65. Opening into the tubules of the kidney of the frog from the coelom are a number of ciliated funnel-like structures called :

1. Ostia
2. nephrostomy
3. coelomostome
4. renostome.

Answer: 2. nephrostomy

Question 66. The high threshold substances are :

1. glucose, sodium, protein
2. glucose, sodium and fats
3. urea, uric acid and protein
4. glucose, sodium and calcium.

Answer: 4. glucose, sodium and calcium

Question 67. The process by which marine animals make adjustments in high salt concentration is :

1. excretion
2. respiration
3. phosphorylation
4. amination.

Answer: 4. amination.

Homeostasis MCQ Question 68. Carbon dioxide is an excretory product because it is formed during :

1. anabolism
2. metabolism
3. deamination
4. amino acid metabolism.

Answer: 2. metabolism

Question 69. The disease diabetes mellitus is diagnosed by the occurrence in the urine of:

1. maltose
2. insulin
3. glucose
4. lactose.

Answer: 3. glucose

Question 70. Which of the following is not functionally analogous with others in its group?

1. Green gland
2. Laurer’s canal
3. Malpighian tubule
4. Nephridium.

Answer: 2. Laurer’s canal

Question 71. In insects, the uric acid is temporarily stored in the :

1. Cloaca
2. Fat bodies
3. Liver
4. Anal cerci.

Answer: 2. Fat bodies

Question 72. The urinary bladder is not found in :

1. snakes
2. crocodiles
3. alligators
4. All of these.

Answer: 4. All of these

MCQs on Osmoregulation For NEET Question 73. The important function of perspiration is to :

1. lubricate the epithelial tissue
2. regulate water supply
3. regulate body temperature
4. All of the above.

Answer: 3. regulate body temperature

Question 74. Which of the following is not an excretory activity?

1. Removal of C0₂,
2. Elimination of digestive wastes
3. Removal of extra salts
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Elimination of digestive wastes

Question 75. Proximal and distal convoluted tubules are parts of a :

1. oviduct
2. caecum
3. vas deferens
4. nephron.

Answer: 4. nephron.

Question 76. A person feels a fullness sensation of urine if the volume of urine increases up to :

1. 1000 c.c.
2. 200 c.c.
3. 300 c.c.
4. 600 c.c.

Answer: 1. 1000 c.c.

MCQs on Osmoregulation For NEET Question 77. All the following are related to the disease of kidney except:

1. pyelitis
2. oedema
3. ptosis
4. Bright’s disease.

Answer: 2. oedema

Question 78. Which of the following is not directly connected with cell metabolism?

1. Excretion
2. Secretion
3. Defecation
4. Perspiration.

Answer: 3. Defecation

Question 79. The urination becomes voluntary when the urine reaches the:

1. pelvis
2. urinary bladder
3. ureter
4. urethra.

Answer: 4. urethra.

Question 80. Green glands are organs of excretion. They are seen in :

1. scorpion
2. birds
3. crayfish
4. sharks.

Answer: 3. crayfish

MCQs on Osmoregulation For NEET Question 81. The cells of the proximal tubule develop several microvilli to form a brush border. The number of microvilli per square micron in a human being is :

1. 150
2. 500
3. 3000
4. 3500.

Answer: 1. 150

Question 82. The glomerular membrane has permeability of about:

1. 25 times as great as that of usual capillary
2. 20 times as great as that of usual capillary
3. 10 times as great as that of usual capillary
4. same as usual capillary.

Answer: 1. 25 times as great as that of usual capillary

Question 83. The water reabsorption that takes place under the ADH is called the :

1. obligatory reabsorption
2. facultative reabsorption
3. active reabsorption
4. All of these.

Answer: 2. facultative reabsorption

Question 84. In which group does the toxic substance, the benzoic acid combine with glycine to form a less toxic substance the hippuric acid?

1. Fishes
2. Reptiles
3. Birds
4. Mammals.

Answer: 4. Mammals.

Question 85. Bowman’s capsule functions as a :

1. filter
2. bellow
3. sponge
4. suction pump.

Answer: 1. filter

Question 86. Whenever the amount of urine decreases the stage is called :

1. anuria
2. polyuria
3. oliguria
4. floating kidney.

Answer: 3. oliguria

MCQs on Osmoregulation For NEET Question 87. If a person is suffering from a disease called muscular dystrophy, he will eliminate in urine a great amount of:

1. sulphate
2. glucose
3. creatine
4. water.

Answer: 3.  creatine

Question 88. Ammonia in some aquatic animals is eliminated by :

1. diffusion
2. Ammonification
3. degradation
4. uricotelism.

Answer: 1. diffusion

Question 89. In reptiles, the uric acid is stored in :

1. cloaca
2. fat bodies
3. liver
4. anus.

Answer: 1. cloaca

Question 90. Animals that show hypertonic urine with provision for water reabsorption in the kidney are :

1. Mammals
2. Birds
3. Amphibians
4. None of these.

Answer: 1. mammals

Question 91. In aquatic organisms, the end product of nitrogen exchange is :

1. NO₂
2. Urea
3. Allantoin
4. Ammonia.

Answer: 4. Ammonia.

MCQs on Homeostasis Question 92. In fever, too much sugar may increase. Its elimination in urine is in the form of:

1. Sodium chloride
2. Glucose
3. Uric acid
4. Phosphate.

Answer: 2. Plucose

Question 93. Excretion of bile pigments in urine indicates :

1. Anaemia
2. Diabetes
3. Rickets
4. Jaundice.

Answer: 4. Jaundice.

Question 94. pH of human urine is :

1. 9
2. 6-7.2
3. 3
4. 2.

Answer: 2. 6-7.2

Question 95. Which of the following is not reabsorbed from the filtrate to the blood at the proximal tubule?

1. Water
2. Glucose
3. Plasma proteins
4. Na+.

Answer: 3. Na+.

Question 96. Which of the following is concerned with the formation of urea in rabbits?

1. Blood
2. Kidney
3. Liver
4. Spleen.

Answer: 2. Kidney

MCQs on Homeostasis Question 97. The glomerular filtration rate in the case of a normal person is:

1. 180 mL/min.
2. +140 ml/min.
3. 145 ml/min.
4. 120 ml/min.

Answer: 4. +140 ml/min

Question 98. The average volume of fluid filtered from the plasma into Bowman’s capsule is about:

1. 90 lit/day
2. 170 lit/day
3. 190 lit/day
4. 200 litres/day.

Answer: 2. 170 lit/day

Question 99. The desire to urinate may be suppressed by voluntary control of the external urethral sphincter until the total content is :

1. 200 to 300 c.c.
2. 700 to 800 c.c.
3. 1 to 1.5 litres
4. 1 to 1.25 litres

Answer: 2. 700 to 800 c.c.

Question 100. Negative nitrogen balance means :

1. no nitrogen is utilized
2. nitrogen intake exceeds excretion
3. nitrogen intake is less than nitrogen excretion
4. nitrogen intake equals excretion.

Answer: 3. nitrogen intake is less than nitrogen excretion

Question 101. The regulation of solute and water movement is termed :

1. Osmosis
2. Osmoregulation
3. Excretion
4. Ecocytosis.

Answer: 2. osmoregulation

Question 102. The total solute concentration is expressed as osmolarity or moles of solute per litre of solution. The unit of measurement of osmolarity is :

1. Mosm L^_1
2. Milliosomole A and B
3. Ψ
4. Both A and B.

Answer: 4. Both A and B

MCQs on Homeostasis Question 103. Osmoconformers are the animals which :

1. maintain internal osmolarity
2. do not maintain internal osmolarity
3. do not actively control the osmotic condition of body fluid
4. actively control the osmotic condition of body fluid.

Answer: 4. actively control the osmotic condition of body fluid.

Question 104. Osmoregulatory are the animals that :

1. Maintain internal osmolarity
2. Maintain internal osmolarity
3. Actively control the osmotic condition of their body fluids
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. maintain internal osmolarity

Question 105. Which of the following are osmoconformer animals?

1. All marine invertebrates
2. Hagfish
3. Shark and rats
4. All of these.

Answer: 4. All of these.

Question 106. The osmolarity of fresh water is generally less than 50 mosom L_1. What is the osmolarity of the blood of freshwater vertebrates?

1. 1 bosom L^_1
2. 2-50 mosom L^_1
3. 100 – 200 mosom L^_1
4. 200 – 300 mosom L^_1

Answer: 4. 200 – 300 mosom L^_1

Question 107. Name the cells present in the gill membrane of freshwater fishes which can import Na+ and Cl^_ from the surrounding water containing less than 1 M NaCl.

1. Ionocytes
2. Chloride cells
3. Both 1 and 3
4. Osmoregulator cells.

Answer: 3. Both 1 and 3

Question 108. The osmolarity of human blood is about 300 mosom L^_1. What is the osmolarity of seawater?

1. 200 – 300 mosom L^_1
2. 50 mosom L-1
3. 500 mosom L-1
4. 1000 mosom L-1.

Answer: 4. 1000 mosom L-1.

Question 109. Marine bony fish have the following body fluids :

1. hypertonic to seawater
2. hypotonic to seawater
3. isotonic to seawater
4. hypotonic to fresh water.

Answer: 1. hypertonic to seawater

Question 110. Which of the following drinks excrete excess salts through the gill membrane?

1. Hilsa
2. Salmon
3. Fishes that migrate between fresh water and seawater
4. Both 1 and 2.

Answer: 4. Both 1 and 2.

MCQs on Homeostasis Question 111. The elasmobranch and coelacanths, osmolarity of fluids is raised by accumulating osmolytes in the body. The best examples of osmolytes are :

1. Urea
2. TMAO
3. Uric acid
4. Both 1 and 2.

Answer: 4. Both 1 and 2.

Question 112. When water is not available the camels do not produce urine but store urea in the tissues. Water is available, they rehydrate themselves by drinking how much water in 10 minutes?

1. 10 litre
2. 20 litre
3. 40 litre
4. 80 litre.

Answer: 4. 80 litre

Question 113. Which of the following is incorrect?

A. Micturition is carried out by a reflex

B. ADH helps in water elimination, making the urine hypotonic

C. Protein-free fluid is filtered from blood plasma into the Bowman’s capsule

D. Henle’s loop plays an important role in concentrating the urine

E. Glucose is actively reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule.

Choose The Correct Answer

1. A, B and C
2. A and C
3. B and D
4. B, D and E.

Answer: 3. B and D

Question 114. Match the items of Column 1 with those of Column 2. Match the items of Column 1 with these of Column IIMatch the items of Column 1 with these of Column 2

1. A – 4, B – 7, C – 2, D – 1,  E- 3,  F – 8, G – 2. H – 6
2. A – 4, B – 7, C – 2, D – 1, E – 8, F – 2, G – 6, H – 5
3. A -4,  B – 3, C – 2, D – 1, E – 5, F – 6, G – 7, H – 8
4. A – 4, B – 7, C – 1, D – 2, E – 3, F – 8, G – 6, H – 5.

Answer: 1. A – 4, B – 7, C – 2, D – 1,  E- 3,  F – 8, G – 2. H – 6

Homeostasis MCQ  Question 115. Which of the following is correct?

1. During micturition, the urinary bladder contracts and the urethral sphincters open.
2. Flame cells and malpighian tubules are found in flatworms and insects respectively.
3. Two counter-current systems are formed in the kidney by the loop of Henle and the Vasa
   recta.
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 116. Which of the following is incorrect?

1. Skin functions as an accessory excretory organ
2. Mammals can eliminate hypotonic and hypertonic urine according to the body’s needs
3. Mammals are ureotelic, but birds are uricotelic.
4. None of these.

Answer: 4. None of these.

Homeostasis MCQ  Question 117. In which of the following protonephridia act as excretory organs?

1. Rotifers
2. Branchiostoma
3. Some annelids
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 118. What is the value of X, Y and Z?

1. 300, 300, 1400
2. 1400,200,200
3. 1400, 500, 500
4. 1400, 300, 300

Answer: 2. 1400,200,200

Question 119. The two kidneys in the human body are located one on each side against the dorsal inner surface of the lower back at the level of

1. 10 and 11 thoracic vertebra
2. 12th thoracic and 1st and 2nd lumbar vertebrae
3. 1st and 2nd lumbar vertebrae
4. 5th lumbar and 1st sacral vertebrae.

Answer: 2. 12th thoracic and 1st and 2nd lumbar vertebrae

Question 120.  Cortical nephron have their glomeruli

1. in inter cortex
2. In inner cortex
3. close to the inner margin of the cortex
4. outer medulla.

Answer: 4. outer medulla.

Question 121. Which of the following is involved in the regulation of kidney function?

1. ADH
2. JGA
3. HAAS and ANF
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 122. Glomerular filtrate does not contain :

1. proteins
2. glucose
3. salts
4. water.

Answer: 1. proteins

Homeostasis MCQ  Question 123. The presence of blood in urine due to a lesion of the kidney or urinary tract is called :

1. Haematuria
2. Haemoglobinuria
3. Glucosuria
4. Albuminuria.

Answer: 1. Haematuria

Question 124. The specific gravity of urine is :

1. 1.003 to 1.040
2. 1.0 to 1.5
3. 0.001 to 0.002
4. 1.03 to 1.4.

Answer: 1. 1.003 to 1.040

Question 125. Ammonia is the chief nitrogenous waste in :

1. Mosquito
2. Bony fishes
3. Cartilaginous fishes
4. Desert mammal.

Answer: 2. bony fishes

Question 126. Blood urea level is an index of function.

1. Liver
2. Liver and kidney
3. Kidney
4. Pancreatic.

Answer: 3. Kidney

Question 127. Most of the terrestrial insects get rid of the bulk of their nitrogenous wastes as :

1. urea
2. uric acid
3. ammonia
4. purines.

Answer: 2. uric acid

Question 128. The artificial kidney is based upon the mechanism of:

1. osmosis
2. dialysis
3. plasmolysis
4. diffusion.

Answer: 2. dialysis

Question 129. Which of the following is the diluting segment of the uriniferous tubule?

1. Ascending limb
2. Descending limb
3. Dct
4. Pct.

Answer: 1. Ascending limb

Question 130. A marine bony fish must continuously :

1. Acquire water and get rid of salts
2. Get rid of both water and salts
3. Get rid of water and acquire salts
4. Acquire both water and salts.

Answer: 1. Acquire water and get rid of salts

Question 131. In the flame cell system of a planarian, materials are drained directly from the :

1. Blood
2. Lymph
3. Interstitial fluid
4. Coelom.

Answer: 3. Interstitial fluid

Question 132. The flame cell system functions mostly to :

1. Remove ammonium ions
2. Remove urea
3. Regulate ph
4. Osmoregulate.

Answer: 4. Osmoregulate.

Question 133. The kidney regulates acid-base balance by each of the following mechanisms:

1. Reabsorbing filtered bicarbonate
2. Acidifying the urine by h+ secretion
3. Excreting ammonium salts
4. Active reabsorption of h+.

Answer: 4. Active reabsorption of h+

Question 134. In insects, malpighian tubules drain materials directly from the :

1. Gut
2. Haemocoel
3. Blood
4. Lymph.

Answer: 3. Blood

Question 135. A malpighian tubule empties urine into the :

1. Gut
2. Coelom
3. Ureters
4. Lymph.

Answer: 1. Gut

Question 136. A nephridium of an earthworm drains materials directly from the:

1. Gut
2. Blood
3. Coelom
4. Lymph.