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NEET Biology Reproduction In Angiosperms Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Uniscxunlity of flowers prevents:

1. Autogany and geitonogamy
2. Both geitonogamy and xenogamy
3. Autogamy but not geitonogamy
4. geitonogamybut not xenogamy

Answer: 3. Autogamy but not geitonogamy

Question 2. The endosperm is completely consumed by the developing embryo in :

1. Pea and castor
2. Maize and castor
3. Castor and groundnut
4. Maize and Pea

Answer: 1. Pea and castor

Question 3. A plant part having two generations is :

1. Embryogeny
2. Unfertilized ovule
3. Germinated pollen
4. Seed, grain

Answer: 4. Seed, grain

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 4. The end products of sexual reproduction are :

1. Fruits
2. Flowers
3. Inflorescence
4. Fruits and seeds

Answer: 4. Fuits and seeds

Question 5. Differentiation and development of floral primordium is preceded by :

1. Hormonal changes
2. Structural change
3. Formation of gynoecium
4. Both structural and hormonal changes.

Answer: 4. both structural and hormonal changes.

Important MCQs on Reproduction in Flowering Plants Question 6. Which of the following is a mismatch?

1. Long and slender stalk – Filament
2. Long and bilobed – Anther
3. Short and bilobed – Anther
4. Microsporangia – Anther.

Answer: 2. Long and bilobed – Anther

Question7. Microsporangium develops and :

1. Form pollen
2. Become pollen sac
3. Produce tapetum
4. Lead to the formation of embryo sac.

Answer: 1.  Form pollen

Question 8. In the young anther, a group of homogenous compactly arranged sporogenous tissue occupies the centre of the microsporangium. It undergoes :

1. Meiotic division to form microspore tetrad
2. Growth forms pollen sac
3. Mitosis to form tetrad
4. Meiosis to form pollen sac.

Answer: 1. Meiotic division to form microspore tetrad

Question 9. Pollen grains are spherical and measure about:

1. 10-12 diameters
2. 25-50 in diameter
3. 50-70 in diameter
4. Less than 10 mm in diameter.

Answer:2. 25-50 in diameter

Question 10. In 40 per cent of angiosperm pollen grains are arrested at:

1. 2-celled stage
2. 3-celled stage
3. One vegetative and generative cell
4. Two generative and one vegetative cell

Answer: 2. 3-celled stage

Question 11. Pick out the mismatch :

1. Embryosac – Female gametophyte
2. Functional megaspore – 2 celled
3. Typical embryo sac at maturity – 8 nucleate, 7 celled
4. Egg apparatus – 3 celled

Answer: 2. Functional megaspore – 2-celled

Important MCQs on Reproduction in Flowering Plants Question 12. Which of the following is/are biotic pollinators of plant species?

1. Bees, butterflies, beetles
2. Sunbird, hummingbird
3. Gecko, lemur, Rodents
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 13. Continued self-pollination leads to inbreeding depression. Which of the following devices encourage cross-pollination?

1. Pollen released before stigma becomes receptive
2. Stigma becomes receptive before pollen release
3. Different positions of anther and stigma
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 14. In plants which shed pollen at the 3-celled stage, pollen tube. carry :

1. One male gamete from the beginning’
2. One male gamete
3. One vegetative and One generative cell
4. Two vegetative and one generative cells.

Answer: 1. wo male gametes from the beginning’

Question 15. Callose covering is present over :

1. Egg
2. Pollen grain
3. Male gamete
4. Microspore mother cells.

Answer: 4. Microspore mother cells.

Question 16. The arrangement of nuclei in a normal dicot embryo sac is :

1. 3 + 3 + 2
2. 3 + 2 + 3
3. 2 + 4 + 2
4. 2 + 3 + 3.

Answer: 2.  3 + 2 + 3

Question 17. The function of the tapetum is

1. Protective
2. Nutritive
3. Respiratory
4. All of above

Answer: 2. Nutritive

Question 18. A typical dicot embryo consists of:

1. Epicotyl and plumage
2. Hypocotyl and radicle
3. Embryonal axis and two cotyledons,
4. Embryonal axis and scutellum.

Answer: 3. Embryonal axis and two cotyledons,

Important MCQs on Reproduction in Flowering Plants Question 19. The wall of The fruit may be flashy in :

1. Guava
2. Orange
3. Mango
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 19. Which of the following fruits contains thousands of seeds?

1. orchid fruit
2. Ficus
3. Orobanchae and striga
4. 1 and 3.

Answer: 4. 1 and 3.

Question 20. Which of the following is the correct labelling for the figure given below :

1. p/Thalamus Q/ovary R/style s/stigma
2. Stigma-style ovary stigma
3. Thalamus-style ovary stigma
4. Thalamus Ovary stigma style.

Answer: 4. Thalamus Ovary stigma style.

Question 21. Select the mismatched pair.

1. Microsporangium
2. Megasporangium
3. Pollen grain
4. Embryo sac

Answer: 1 . Microsporangium

Question 22. The given diagram shows the microsporangium of a mature anther. Identify P, Q and R.

1. P – Middle layer, O – Endothecium, R – Tapetum
2. P – Endothecium, O – Tapetum, R – Middle layer
3. P – Endothecium, O – Middle layer, R – Tapetum
4. P – Tapetum, B – Middle layer, R – Endothecium.

Answer:  3.  P – Endothecium, O – Middle layer, R – Tapetum

Sexual Reproduction In Flowering Plants MCQ For NEET Question 23. Refer to the given statements.

1. The outer exine is made up of sporopollenin.
2. The inner inline is pecto-cellulosic.
3. Generative cells are bigger and contain abundant food reserves.
4. The vegetative cell is small and floats in the cytoplasm of the generative cell

Answer: 3. Generative cells are bigger and contain abundant food reserves.

Question 24. Which of the given statements are not true regarding the structure of pollen grain

1. (1) and (2)
2. (2) and (3)
3. (3) and (4)
4. (1) and (4).

Answer: 3. (3) and (4)

Question 25. Study the following statements regarding the structure of microsporangium and select the correct answer.

(i)Microsporangium is generally surrounded by four wall layers – epidermis, endothecium, middle layers and tapetum

(ii) The outer three layers perform functions of protection and dehiscence of anthers.

(iii)Cells of tapetum undergo meiosis and produce microspore tetrads.

1. Only (1) and (2) are true.
2. Only (2) and (3) are true.
3. Only (1) and (3) are true.
4. All are true.

Answer: 1. Only (1) and (2) are true.

Question 26. Select the mismatched pair.

1. Storage of pollen grains – 196 C
2. Pollen allergy-carrot grass
3. Chasmogamous flowers -Exposed anthers and stigmas
4. Xenogamy- self-pollination

Answer: 4. Xenogamy- self-pollination

Question 27. A typical angiospermous ovule is attached to the placenta using a stalk called X. The Body of the ovule fuses with X in the region called Y. Thus Y represents the junction between the ovule and funicle. Identify X and Y.

Answer: 1. Funicle   Hilum

Sexual Reproduction In Flowering Plants MCQ For NEET  Question 28. Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the codes given below.

1→A  2 →D  3 →B  4→C

1 →A  2 →D 3→ C 4 →B

1→ B  2 →C  3→ A  4 →D

1 →B  2 →A  3 →1  4→ D

Answer: 1. 1→A  2 →D  3 →B  4→C

Question 29. Given below are the events that are observed in an artificial hybridization programme. Arrange them in the correct sequential order.

1. Re-bagging
2. Selection of parents;
3. Bagging;
4. Dusting the pollen on the stigma;
5. Emasculation;
6. Collection of pollen from the male parent.

1. 2 → 3→ 5→ 6→ 4 → 1

2. 2→ 5 →3→ 6 →4 →1

3. 5 →2 →3 →6 →1 →4

4. 2 →3 →6 →4 →5 →1

Answer: 2. 2 →3 →5 →6 →4 →1

Sexual Reproduction In Flowering Plants MCQ For NEET  Question 30. Identify the different parts of a typical dicot embryo labelled as A. 11 and C and select the correct option.

1. Plumule Cotyledons Radicle
2. Radicle Cotyledons Plumule
3. Cotyledons Plumule Radicle
4. Cotyledons Radicle Plumule.

Answer: 1 . Plumule Cotyledons Radicle

Question 31. A typical example of cross-pollination is :

1. Wheat (Triticum)
2. Rice (Oryza saliva)
3. CLCotton (Gossypium)
4. Zea mays.

Answer: 4. Zea mays.

Question32. Continued self-pollination generation after generation, results in :

1. better progeny
2. pure line formation
3. formation of new varieties
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. pure line formation

Question 33. Stigma is always sticky and rough in :

1. Anemophilous flower
2. Hydrophilous flowers.
3. Entomophilous flowers
4. All the above types of flowers.

Answer: 3. Entomophilous flowers

Question 34. The chief pollinators of our agro-horticultural crops are :

1. Butterflies
2. Moths
3. Beetles
4. Bees

Answer: 4. Bees

Sexual Reproduction In Flowering Plants MCQ For NEET  Question 35. The phenomenon of opening of flower buds is called :

1. Gcjmetogenesis
2. Sporogenesis
3. Anthesis
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Anthesis

Question 36. In wheat and sugarcane, pollination takes place by :

1. Wind
2. Water
3. Insects
4. Animals.

Answer: 1. Wind

Question 37. If water causes pollinatior^-it is called :

1. Anemophily
2. Hydrophily
3. Chiropterophily
4. Zoophily.

Answer: 2. Hydrophily

Question 38. Insect-pollinated flowers possess:

1. Smooth and dry pollen
2. A larger amount of pollen
3. Coloured corolla
4. Rough pollen.

Answer: 3. Coloured corolla

Question 39. Protandry is a condition in which :

1. Anthers mature after stigma
2. Anthers and stigmas mature at the same time
3. Anthers mature earlier than the stigma
4. Pollens of the same flower pollinate stigmas.

Answer:3.Anthers mature earlier than the stigma

Biology Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plant Question 40.Cleistogamous flowers arc ;

1. Open male flowers
2. Open bisexual flowers
3. Male flowers which never open
4. Bisexual flowers which never open.

Answer: 4. bisexual flowers which never open.

Question 41. In Ficus the pollination is affected by :

1. Air
2. Water
3. Birds
4. Wasps.

Answer: 4. Wasps.

Question 42.Palynpld’gy deals with the study of:

1. Pollen grains
2. Chromosomes
3. DNA
4. Genes.

Answer: 1. Pollen grain

Question 43.When an anther dehisces towards the centre of the flower/it is called :

1. Montrose
2. Extras
3. Inserted
4. Exerted.

Answer: 1. Introse

Question 44. The lever mechanism is found in the pollination of:

1. Ipomoea
2. Euphorbia
3. Salvia
4. Vallisneria.

Answer: 3. Salvia

Question 45. When male and female parts of a flower mature at different times, it is termed:

1. Dichogamy
2. Heterostyly
3. Herkogamy
4. Monoclinic.

Answer: 1. Dichogamy

Biology Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plant Question 46. Pollination by bats is known as :

1. Anemophily
2. Hydrophily
3. Chiropterophily
4. Ornithophily.

Answer: 3. Chiropterophily

Question 47. Cross-pollination is advantageous because it results in information of:

1. Weaker progen
2. Better progeny
3. Female offspring
4. Male offspring.

Answer: 2. Better progeny

Question 48. To avoid self-pollination, the pollen grains of some flowers have no fertilizing effect on the stigma of the same flower. This condition is :

1. Self sterility
2. Herkogamy
3. Dicliny
4. Dichogamy.

Answer: 1. Self sterility

Question 49. If the pollen of a flower falls on the stigma of another flower belonging to the same plant, it is :

1. Genetically self-pollinated
2. Ecologically cross-pollinated
3. Both and
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Ecologically cross-pollinated

Question 50. Malacophily is pollination by

1. Insects
2. Snails
3. Ants
4. Elephant.

Answer:2. Snails

Question 51. Which one of the following parts of the pistil receives the pollen during pollination?

1. Stigma
2. Ovule
3. Micropyle
4. Nucellus.

Answer:1. Stigma

Biology Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plant Question 52. The following plant has pollination above ground but its fruit develops underground.

1. Sweet potato
2. Solarium tuberosum
3. Onion.
4. Arachis hypogea.

Answer:4. Arachis hypogea.

Question 53. Pollinia are sac-like structures in which :

1. Anther lobes are present
2. Anthers lose their individuality
3. Pollen grains get fused in a mass.
4. yellow substance is secreted.

Answer:3. Pollen grains get fused in a mas

Question 54.Allog. um, though the biotic agency is called :

1. Entomophily
2. Ancmophily
3. Hydrophily
4. Both 1 and 2.

Answer:1 .Entomophily

Question 55. Chiropterophilous flowers possess :

1. coloured petals
2. Abundant nectar
3. Hydrophily
4. Less pollen.

Answer:2. Abundant nectar

Question 56. pollination of pinus is:

1. Entomophilous
2. Anemophilous
3. Hydrophily
4. Malacophily.

Answer:2. Anemophilous

Question 57. In Salvia, pollination takes place by :

1. Animals
2. Insects
3. Air
4. Water.

Answer:2. Insects

Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants NEET Question 58. The entry of the pollen tube into the embryo sac through the integuments is termed as :

1. Porogamv
2. Chalazogamy
3. Monogamy
4. Both  1  and 2.

Answer:3. Mesogamy

Question 59.512 microspores will be formed following meiosis How many spores?

1. 16
2. 64
3. 128
4. 256.

Answer:3. 128

Question 60. An example of triploid tissue is :

1. Onion leaf
2. Onion root
3. Maize endosperm
4. Fern prothallus.

Answer:3. Maize endosperm

Question 61. Triploid plants can be obtained from the culture of :

1. Pollen
2. Endosperm
3. Megaspore
4. Ovule.

Answer:2. Endosperm

Question 62.After fertilization synergids and antipodal cells form :

1. Embryo
2. spore
3. Endosperm
4. None of the above.

Answer:4. None of the above.

Question 63. Pollen grain in angiosperm develops from :

1. Endothecium
2. Tapetum
3. Sporogenous tissue
4. Middle layer.

Answer:3. Sporogenous tissue

Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants NEET Question 64.The nucellus of the ovule is :

1. Haploid
2. Diploid
3. Triploid
4. Polyploid.

Answer:2. Diploid

Question 65. In the case of angiosperms, the embryo sac represents :

1. Female gametophyte
2. Sporophyte
3. Male gametophyte
4. All the above.

Answer:1. Female gametophyte

Question 66. The other wall consists of four wall layers where :

1. The tapetum lies just inner to endothecium
2. Middle layers lie between endothecium and tapetum
3. Endothecium lies inner to middle layers
4. The tapetum lies next to the epidermis.

Answer:2. Middle layers lie between endothecium and tapetum

Question 67. Emasculation is achieved by :

1. Removal of anthers
2. Removal of stigma
3. Removal, of gynoecium
4. Removal of calyx and corolla.

Answer:1. Removal of anthers

Question 68. A (lower pan whose primary MLC is protection, is the :

1. Stamen
2. Ovary
3. Sepal
4. Embryo sac.

Answer:3. Sepal

Question 69. In a fully developed male gametophyte, the number of nuclei is:

1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four.

Answer:3. Three

Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants NEET Question 70. The mature anther wall comprises an epidermis followed by a layer of radially elongated cells with fibrous bands of callose called endothecium whose function is :

1. Nutrition
2. Protection
3. Mechanical
4. Dehiscence.

Answer:4. Dehiscence.

Question 71. The innermost layer of the anther is the tapetum whose function is

1. Dehiscence
2. Mechanical
3. Nutrition
4. Protection.

Answer:3. Nutrition

Question 72. Ovule represents :

1. Hierpsporangium
2. Megasporangium
3. Gametophyte
4. Embryo.

Answer:2. Megasporangium

Question 73. The female plant is diploid and the male plant is tetraploid. Find out the correct match.

Answer: 1. 3n  4n  2n  n  2n  4n

Question 74. Mature ovules are classified based on the funiculus. If the micropyle comes to lie close to the funiculus the ovule is termed as :

1. Orthotropous
2. Anatropous
3. Amphitropous
4. Campylotropous.

Answer:2. Anatropous

Question75. In a bisexual flower when the gynoecium matures earlier than another, it is called:

1. Protandry
2. Protbgyny
3. Herkogyny
4. None of the above.

Answer:2 .Protbgyny

Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants NEET Question 76. Plants which flower only once in life are termed as:

1. Polycarpic
2. Monocarpic
3. Pericarpic
4. Leucas.

Answer:2. Monocarpic

Question 77. Translators are found in :

1. Calotropis flower
2. Hibiscus
3. Vinca flower
4. Leucas.

Answer:1. Calotropis flower

Question 78. When the micropyle, chalaza and hilum he in a straight line, the ovule is said to be :

1. Anatropous
2. Orthotropous
3. Amphitropous
4. Campylotropous.

Answer:2. Orthotropous

Question 79. Double fertilization was first described by :

1. Hofmeister
2. Nawaschin
3. Strasburger
4. Leeuwenhoek.

Answer: 2. Nawaschin

Question 80. The secondary nucleus after fusing with one of the male gametes develops into :

1. Embryo
2. Seed
3. Endosperm
4. Fruit.

Answer: 3. Endosperm

Question 81. The fusion of the male gamete with the secondary nucleus of the embryo sac is the process of:

1. Fertilization
2. Double fertilization
3. Parthenocarpy
4. Parthenogenesis.

Answer: 2. Double fertilization

Question 82. The fertilization occurs in the :

1. Ovary
2. Ovule
3. Embryo sac
4. Nucellus.

Answer: 3. Embryo sac

Important MCQs on Reproduction in Flowering Plants Question 83. In the diagram given above, parts labelled as *P\ ‘Q\ ‘R’,‘S’, ‘T\ ‘U’ are respectively identified as

1. synergids, polar nuclei, central cell, antipodal cell, filiform apparatus and egg.
2. polar nuclei egg, antipodal cell, central cell, filiform apparatus and synergids.
3. egg, synergids, central cell, filiform apparatus, antipodal cell and polar nuclei
4. central cell, polar nuclei, filiform apparatus, antipodal cell, synergids and egg.

Answer: 1. synergids, polar nuclei, central cell, antipodal cell, filiform apparatus and egg.

Question 84. If an endosperm cell of an angiosperm contains 24 chromosomes, the number of chromosomes in each cell of the root will be :

1. 8
2. 4
3. 16
4. 24.

Answer: 4. 16

Question 85.In ovule meiosis occurs in :

1. Megaspore
2. Megaspore mother cell
3. Endosperm
4. Integument

Answer: 2. Megaspore mother cell

Question 86.The female gametophyte of a typical dicot at the time of
fertilization is :

1. 8-celled
2. 7-celled
3. 6-celled ‘
4. 4-celled.

Answer: 2. 7-celled

Question 87. Development of embryo sac from any cell of nucellus is called :

1. Apogamy
2. Apospory
3. Parthenogenesis
4. Sporogenesis.

Answer: 2. Apospory

Important MCQs on Reproduction in Flowering Plants Question 88. The method of fertilization (in an angiosperm) in which the pollen tube enters the ovule by way of micropyle is known as:

1. Chalazogamy
2. Porogamy
3. Microgamy
4. Syngamy.

Answer: 2. Porogamy

Question 89. Simple fruit develops from :

1. The single ovary which is simple
2. The single ovary which is a compound
3. The single ovary which may be simple or compound
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3 . The single ovary which may be simple or compound

Question 90. Parthenocarpic fruit is :

1. Fruit with immature seeds
2. Fruit, with mature seed
3. Developed without fertilization
4. Only seeds and no fruits.

Answer: 3. Developed without fertilization

Question 91. After fertilization, the ovary is converted into :

1. Embryo
2. Endosperm
3. Seed
4. Fruit.

Answer: 4. Fruit.

Question 92. Perisperm in angiosperm seed is derived from :

1. Nucellus
2. Endosperm
3. Integuments
4. Antipodal cells.

Answer: 1. Nucellus

Question 93. The entry of the pollen tube into the embryo sacs through the chalaza is called :

1. Porogamy
2. Monogamy
3. Chalazogamy
4. C either A or B.

Answer: 3. Chalazogamy

Question 94.Ovule is ategenic in :

1. Helianthus
2. Pea
3. Santalum
4. Brassica.

Answer: 3. Santalum

Question 95. Vivipary is of common occurrence in

1. Halophytes
2. xerophytes
3. Hydrophytes
4. Psaminophytes.

Answer: 1. Halophytes

Sexual Reproduction In Flowering Plants MCQ For NEET Question 96. Polyembryony commonly occurs in < 0

1. Turmeric
2. Tomato.
3. Potato
4. Citrus.

Answer: 4. Citrus.

Question 97. The main embryo develops from the structure formed as a result of fusion of:

1. Two polar nuclei of embryo sac
2. Egg cell and male gamete
3. Synergid and male gamete
4. Male gamete and antipodals.

Answer: 2. Egg cell and male gamete

Question 98. The function of an obturator for any ovular structure is to :

1. Nourish ovule
2. Nourish pollen grains
3. Guide pollen tube towards micropyle
4. Keep the ovule alive.

Answer: 3. Guide pollen tube towards micropyle

Question 99. The term xenia denotes the effect of the following:

1. Pollen on endosperm
2. Pollen on egg
3. Pollen on nucellus
4. Pollen on the seed coat.

Answer: 1. Pollen on endosperm

Question 100. Polygonum type of embryo sac is:

1. 8-nucleate, 7-celled
2. 8-nucleate, 8-celled
3. 7-nucleate, 7-celled
4. 4-nucleate, 3-celled.

Answer: 1. 8-nucleate, 7-celled

Question 101. Which of the following statements is true for the pollen tube :

1. It shows the growth of intent
2. It is composed of three non-cellular zones
3. It shows thigmotactic movement
4. It shows cytoplasmic streaming.

Answer: 1. It shows the growth of intent

Sexual Reproduction In Flowering Plants MCQ For NEET Question 102. Lire seed coat develops from the

1. Sepals
2. Ovary wall
3. Ovule wall
4. Endosperm.

Answer: 3. Ovule

Question 103. Which of the following is required for germination of
seeds?

1. Certain temperature conditions
2. Oxygen
3. Water
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 104. The fusion of egg with male gamete is called :

1. Syngamy
2. Apogamy
3. Autogamy
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Syngamy

Question 105. In angiosperms, the oospore on development produces :

1. Endosperm
2. Protonema
3. Embryo
4. Seed.

Answer: 3. Embryo

Question 106. A female gametophyte would be found in the :

1. Ovule
2. Stigma
3. Endosperm
4. Seed.

Answer: 1. Ovule

Question 107. Pollen grain gets nutrition fronts

1. Endothecium
2. Tape turn
3. Sporogenous sac
4. Middle layer.

Answer: 2 . Tape turn

Question 108 .The nucellus of the ovule is :

1. Haploid
2. Diploid
3. Triploid
4. Polyploid.

Answer: 2 .Diploid

Sexual Reproduction In Flowering Plants MCQ For NEET Question109 .The diagram given below shows ovules megasporogenesis and megagametogenesis in an angiosperm named Polygonum.

Reduction division takes place at which step?

1. Step 1
2. Step 2
3. Steps 2 and 3
4. Steps 3 and 4

Answer: 1. Step 1

Question 110. In the case of angiosperms, pollen grain produces :

1. Female gametophyte
2. Sporophyte
3. Male gametophyte
4. All the above.

Answer: 3. Male gametophyte

Question 111.Sexual reproduction in which morphologically and physiologically similar gametes fuse is termed as :

1. Plasrnogamy
2. Anisogamy
3. Isogamy
4. Oogamy.

Answer: 3. Isogamy

Question 112. A normal plant suddenly started reproducing parthenogenetically. ‘The number of chromosomes of the second generation as compared to the parent plant will be :

1. Double
2. Half
3. One fourth
4. same.

Answer: 4. same.

Sexual Reproduction In Flowering Plants MCQ For NEET Question 113. If cotyledons remain below soil during germination, it is:

1. Rhypogeal germination
2. vivipary
3. Epigeal germination
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Rhypogeal germination

Question 114. Seeds are dispersed by :

1. Water
2. Living organism
3. Wind
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 115. Micropyle of ovule allows entry of:

1. Pollen tube
2. water
3. Wind
4. All the above.

Answer:  1. Pollen tube

Question 116. When seeds develop without meiosis and syngamy, the phenomenon is :

1. Parthenogenesis
2. Parthenocarpy
3. Agamospermy
4. Apogamy.

Answer: 4. Apogamy.

Question 117. The inner integument of the majority of the dicot seed is :

1. Hypocotyl
2. Scutellum
3. Funicle
4. Tegmen

Answer: 4. Tegmen

Question 118. Epigeal seed germination is found in :

1. Wheat
2. Castor
3. Pea
4. Maize.

Answer:  2. Castor

Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants NEET Question 119. Which of the following statements is correct?

1. In angiosperms, the main plant body is gametophytic and
   sporophytic generation is reduced
2. In angiosperms, the main plant body is sporophytic and gametophytic
   generation is altogether absent
3. In angiosperms the main plant body is sporophytic and the male and
   female gametophytes are represented by pollen and embryo sacs respectively
4. In angiosperms, the ovules and anthers are gametophytic whereas all other parts are sporophytic.

Answer: 3. In angiosperms the main plant body is sporophytic and the male and female gametophytes are represented by pollen and embryo sacs respectively

Question 120. Monosporic, 8 nucleate embryo sac is called :

1. Allium type
2. Oenothera type
3. Polygonum type
4. Peperomia type.

Answer:  3. Polygonum type

Question 121. An example of triploid tissue is :

1. Fern prothallus
2. Cycas ovule
3. Lily endosperm
4. Moss capsule.

Answer : 3 . Lily endosperm

Question 122.If soaked pea seeds are kept in four separate flasks, the best
germination will be in the flask having :

1. Oxygen
2. Carbon dioxide
3. Nitrogen
4. Water.

Answer: 1. Oxygen

Question123.Which of the following plants are likely to have a wider range of distribution?

1. Those distributed by seeds
2. Those distributed by spores
3. Those distributed vegetatively
4. Those distributed by fruits.

Answer: 1. Those distributed by seeds

Question 124. In albuminous seeds, the food is stored mostly in :

1. Cotyledons
2. Endosperm
3. Testa
4. Plumule.

Answer: 2. Endosperm

Question125.For the formation of 50 zygotes in a tobacco plant, the minimal number of meiosis involved would be:

1. 59
2. 63
3. 99
4. 109.

Answer: 2. 63

Question 126.In angiosperms normally after fertilization:

1. The zygote divides earlier than the primary endosperm nucleus
2. The primary endosperm nucleus divides earlier than the zygote
3. TO both the zygote and primary endosperm nuclei divulge simultaneously
4. Both the /vote and primary endosperm nuclei undergo a resting period.

Answer: 2. The primary endosperm nucleus divides earlier than the zygote

Question1 27. Match the two columns and select the correct answer

P Q  R S

1. 3  2  4  1
2. 2  3  4  1
3. 2  3  1  4
4. 1  2  3  4

Answer: 2. 2  3  4  1

Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants NEET Question 128. Match column-1 with column-2 and select the correct option from the codes given below.

1. 1→ B  2 →D  →3→ A  4→ 3
2. 1 →B  2→ D  3 →C  4 →A
3. 1 →C  2→ B  3 →A  4 →D
4. 1 →D  2 →C  3→ B  4 →A

Answer: 1. 1→ B  2 →D  →3→ A  4→ 3

NEET Biology Blood Circulatory System in Animals Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. The main difference in the circulation of blood and lymph is :

1. Lymphatics possess valves
2. movement of lymph is due to lymph heart
3. Lymph always moves towards the heart
4. Lymph moves unidirectionally in lymphatics.

Answer: 3. Lymph always moves towards the heart

Question 2. If you were asked to dissect an animal so as to reveal a valve, which of the following places would be good to try:

1. At the opening between the right atrium and the right ventricle
2. the fork where the pulmonary artery splits and one branch goes to each lung
3. the base of the aorta where it leaves the left ventricle
4. a vein in the arm.

Answer: 2. the fork where the pulmonary artery splits and one branch goes to each lung

Question 3. The introduction of a bacterial antigen into the body triggers a response specifically against the antigen by :

1. causing antibody molecules to assume a shape that permits them to bind and agglutinate the antibody
2. causing mutations in cells so that they produce antibodies to the antigen that caused the mutation
3. causing cells with the proper antibody to disintegrate and release the antibody
4. stimulating the reproduction of cells that make the antibody to that antigen.

Answer: 4. stimulating reproduction of cells that make the antibody to that antigen

Question 4. If most of its lymphocytes were drained out of an animal via the thoracic duct, the animal would not:

1. lose its ability to combat cancer and produce new lymphocytes
2. lose its ability to reject skin grafts
3. lose its ability to mount a secondary immune response
4. produce an increased number of red blood cells.

Answer: 4. produce an increased number of red blood cells.

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Body Fluids and Circulation NEET Question 5. Haemoglobin transports oxygen to the extent of:

1. 97% to 98%
2. 90 to 92%
3. 60 to 70%
4. 70 to 80%.

Answer: 1. 97% to 98%

Question 6. Which one of the following blood vessels has a thick muscular coat?

1. Veins
2. Capillaries
3. Arteries
4. Lymphatics.

Answer: 3. Arteries

Question 7. Which chamber of the human heart has the thickest muscular wall?

1. Right atrium
2. Left atrium
3. Right ventricle
4. Left ventricle.

Answer: 4. Left ventricle

Question 8. The blood flow is fast and with jerks in :

1. arteries
2. veins
3. veins and capillaries
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. arteries

Question 9. Haemoglobin is found dissolved in the plasma of:

1. man
2. frog
3. birds
4. earthworm.

Answer: 4. earthworm.

Question 10. The correct sequence followed by the blood flowing through the heart of the frog is:

1. sinus venosus, right auricle, left auricle, truncus arteriosus
2. truncus arteriosus, ventricle, right auricle, left auricle
3. sinus venosus, left auricle, truncus arteriosus, right auricle
4. sinus venosus, right auricle, ventricle, truncus arteriosus.

Answer: 4. sinus venosus, right auricle, ventricle, truneus arteriosus.

Question 11. Which of the following is not a difference between the circulatory system of mammals and those of insects?

1. Substances must cross a vessel wall to reach the cells of mammals, but the blood of insects is in direct contact with their cells
2. Blood moves randomly in an insect but in a definite path in a mammal
3. Insects do not transport oxygen in their transport system, whereas mammals do
4. Mammals have much higher blood pressure than that of insects.

Answer: 2. Blood moves randomly in an insect, but in a definite path in a mammal

Question 12. A type of blood bank from which reserves of erythrocytes may be quickly mobilized when needed by the body is the :

1. liver
2. bone marrow
3. intestinal mesentery
4. spleen.

Answer: 4. spleen.

Body Fluids and Circulation NEET Question 13. The posterior pair of lymph hearts in frogs pump lymph into :

1. brachial vein
2. femoral vein
3. sciatic vein
4. external jugular vein.

Answer: 2. femoral vein

Question 14. Blood enters the heart because muscles of the :

1. atria contract
2. atria relax
3. ventricles contract
4. ventricles relax.

Answer: 2. atria relax

Question 15. The breakdown product of haemoglobin is :

1. biliverdin and bilirubin
2. globulin
3. biliverdin
4. calcium.

Answer: 1. biliverdin and bilirubin

Question 16. Blood from the kidneys of humans is returned by :

1. renal arterioles
2. renal vein and renal portal vein
3. renal veins
4. Bidder’s canal.

Answer: 3. Renal veins

Question 17. How many renal veins emerge out of frog and mammalian kidneys respectively?

1. 2,4
2. 4,1
3. 4,4
4. 1,1.

Answer: 2. 4,1

Body Fluids and Circulation NEET Question 18. Select advantage of a double circulation ova u single circulation

1. In the double circulation, all the blood going to the tissue is oxygenated. whereas in single circulation it is not
2. In the double circulation. the blood can transport more types of substances
3. In double circulation, the blood is at higher pressure when it enters the body tissues and the blood travels around the body faster
4. In a double circulation, there are twice as many blood vessels servicing the body tissues.

Answer: 3. In double circulation, the blood is at higher pressure when it enters the body tissues and the blood travels around the body faster

Question 19. In the amphibian heart, the cavity present at the base of truncus arteriosus is called :

1. cavum pulmocutaneum
2. synagium
3. pylangium
4. cavum aorticum.

Answer: 3. pylangium

Question 20. The shoulder and forelimb are connected to the heart by :

1. subclavian artery
2. oesophageal artery
3. occipitovertebral
4. dorsal aorta.

Answer: 1. subclavian artery

Question 21. What will happen to the body of an adult man if the spleen is removed?

1. RBC production will be lowered
2. Antibody production will be less
3. Filtration of dead RBC will not be there
4. WBC production will be lowered.

Answer: 3. Filtration of dead RBC will not be there

Question 22. In persons suffering from sickle cell anaemia, erythrocytes become sickle-shaped when :

1. CO₂, concentration in the blood rises
2. 0₂ concentration in blood rises
3. 0₂concentration in the blood falls considerably
4. diet provides an insufficient amount of vitamin B₁₂

Answer: 3. 0₂concentration in the blood falls considerably

Body Fluids And Circulation MCQ Question 23. The greatest amount of oxygen will be lost from the blood while it is travelling through :

1. the capillaries around the alveoli
2. the left atrium of the heart
3. the arteries
4. the capillaries in the body.

Answer: 4. the capillaries in the body.

Question 24. The blood pressure is high in :

1. veins of the portal system
2. veins bringing the blood from the head
3. arteries
4. capillaries.

Answer: 3. arteries

Question 25. The exchange of materials between blood and interstitial fluid only at the :

1. capillaries
2. veins
3. arteries
4. arterioles.

Answer: 1. capillaries

Question 26. The rate of heartbeat per minute is highest in the case of:

1. elephant
2. whale
3. man
4. mouse.

Answer: 4. mouse

Question 27. Pick up the cells of bone marrow which give rise to all types of corpuscles of blood :

1. Plasmocytes
2. Megablasts
3. Osteoblasts
4. Reticular cells and haemocytoblasts.

Answer:  4. Reticular cells and haemocytoblasts.

Question 28. The proximal veins collect blood from :

1. head and hind limbs
2. lore limbs and hind limbs
3. head and forelimbs
4. trunk and forelimbs.

Answer: 3. head and forelimbs

Question 29. Thrombosis in which coronary artery is met most frequently in Ml (Myocardial infarction):

1. Right coronary artery
2. Left anterior descending artery
3. Left green flex coronary artery
4. Right circumflex coronary artery.

Answer: 1. Right coronary artery

Question 30. The portal system present in all the vertebrates is :

1. hepatic
2. renal
3. pulmonary
4. Both  1 and 3

Answer: 1. hepatic

Body Fluids And Circulation MCQ Question 31. S.A. node is a small flattened ellipsoid strip of muscle fibre measuring about:

1. 0.3 mm
2. 3 mm
3. 0.6 mm
4. 6 mm.

Answer: 1. 0.3 mm

Question 32. Haemolysis can occur in one of the following cases:

Answer: 4.

Question 33. The first heart sound created by the closure of the AV valve is loud. It lasts for:

1. 0.10 sec
2. 0.16 to 90
3. 0.5 sec
4. 0.5 to 20 sec.

Answer: 2. 0.16 to 90

Question 34. Patients in which atrial impulse suddenly falls to be transmitted to ventricles. Such a case is called :

1. Ventricular escape
2. Stokes
3. Adams syndrome
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 35. The free edges of the auriculo-ventricular valves are joined to the wall of the heart of fine collagen fibres called :

1. papillary
2. columnar camera
3. chordate tendineae
4. connecting fibres.

Answer: 3. chordate tendineae

Body Fluids And Circulation MCQ Question 36. The right auricle of the heart of a human is :

1. equal to the left
2. smaller than the left
3. larger than the left
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. larger than the left

Question 37. The heart of fish is :

1. two chambered
2. single chambered
3. four chambered
4. three-chambered.

Answer: 1. two chambered

Question 38. Opening of pulmonary vein to left auricle is guarded by :

1. three semilunar valves
2. bicuspid valve
3. tricuspid valve
4. No valve.

Answer: 4. No valve.

Question 39. In a closed circulatory system, blood is completely closed within :

1. vessels
2. skeleton
3. sinuses
4. heart.

Answer: 1. vessels

Question 40.  The heart is enclosed in a double-walled thin bag called :

1. peritoneal
2. pericardial
3. pericardium
4. visceral peritoneum.

Answer: 3. pericardium

Question 41. The main function of pericardial fluid is :

1. lubrication
2. protective
3. protective and lubrication
4. antiseptic.

Answer: 3. protective and lubrication

Question 42. The heart is made of:

1. cardiac muscles
2. longitudinal muscles
3. horizontal muscles
4. connective muscles and horizontal muscles.

Answer: 1. cardiac muscles

Body Fluids And Circulation NEET Biology Question 43. The absolute refractory period of the heart is :

1. during contraction when the heart is in a non-responding period
2. during expansion
3. during negative charge
4. during positive charge.

Answer: 1. during a contraction when the heart is in a non-responding period

Question 44. The heart muscles work rhythmically always by :

1. external stimuli
2. their own property
3. action of liver
4. action of hormones.

Answer: 2. their own property

Question 45. In the mammalian heart, there is very swift conduction of stimulation all over the heart because of:

1. bundle of His and Purkinje fibres
2. pericardial fluid
3. peritoneum
4. proteins in the heart.

Answer: 1. bundle of His and Purkinje fibres

Question 46. Heartbeats are affected by :

1. vagus nerve which increases the heartbeats
2. vagus nerve which reduces the heartbeats
3. central nervous system
4. digestive system.

Answer: 2. vagus nerve which reduces the heartbeats

Question 47. Heartbeats are accelerated by the :

1. cranial nerve
2. stomach peristalsis
3. number of red blood cells
4. sympathetic nerves.

Answer: 4. sympathetic nerves.

Body Fluids And Circulation NEET Biology Question 48. Ringer’s solution contains :

1. Iodine and salt
2. Acetic acid and wax
3. Sodium and potassium ions
4. Water and acid fuschin.

Answer: 3. Sodium and potassium ions

Question 49. The heartbeat is initiated by a special heart tissue embodied in the wall of the right wall of the right auricle. This is called :

1. sinu-auricular node
2. sinu-ventricular node
3. auriculo-vcntricular node
4. Rt. ventricle and Lt. ventricle nodes.

Answer: 1. sinu-auricular node

Question 50. The common name of the sinus-auricular node is:

1. Pacesetter
2. Pacemaker
3. Blood regulator
4. Blood colloid.

Answer: 2. Pacemaker

Question 51. As in other cells, heart muscle fibres also carry an electric charge. This is:

1. positive on the outer surface and negative on the inner
2. negative on the outer surface and positive on the inner
3. positive on both inner and outer surfaces
4. negative on both inner and outer surfaces.

Answer: 1. positive on the outer surface and negative on the inner

Question 52. The opening of auricles into the ventricle in frogs is guarded by :

1. a single semilunar valve
2. three semilunar valves
3. auriculo-ventricular valve
4. a sphincter.

Answer: 3. auriculo-ventricular valve

Body Fluids And Circulation NEET Biology Question 53. During the coagulation of blood, vitamin K helps in the :

1. conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
2. formation of prothrombin
3. conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
4. formation of thromboplastin.

Answer: 2. formation of prothrombin

Question 54. Oxygenated blood enters the heart in the :

1. right ventricle
2. right auricle
3. left ventricle
4. left auricle.

Answer: 4. left auricle.

Question 55. The sciatic vein collects blood and pours it in :

1. pelvic vein
2. renal portal vein
3. renal vein
4. anterior abdominal vein.

Answer: 2. renal portal vein

Question 56. Blood from the lungs of humans is carried by :

1. azygos vein
2. anterior abdominal
3. pulmonary vein
4. cutaneous vein.

Answer: 3. Pulmonary vein

Question 57. When a normal frog is injected with the physiological concentration of adrenaline, the heartbeat shows :

1. Initiation of heartbeat
2. Conduction of heartbeat
3. Increased rate of heartbeat
4. Release of acetylcholine.

Answer: 3. Increased rate of heartbeat

Question 58. The circulation of blood was first discovered by :

1. Lamarck
2. William Harvey
3. Darwin
4. Hugo de Vries.

Answer: 2. William Harvey

Question 59. The opening of the upper chamber of the heart into the lower chamber is known as :

1. sinu-auricular aperture
2. auriculo-ventricular aperture
3. atrioventricular septum
4. atrioventricular node.

Answer: 2. auriculo-ventricular aperture

Question 60. The blood leaving the lungs is richer than the blood entering the lungs in :

1. the number of RBC per ml. of blood
2. the amount of oxygen per ml. of blood
3. the amount of haemoglobin per ml. of blood
4. the amount of nutrients per ml. of blood.

Answer: 2. the amount of oxygen per ml. of blood

Question 61. The artery which carries deoxygenated blood is known as :

1. pulmonary artery
2. aorta
3. coronary artery
4. pulmocutaneous.

Answer: 1. pulmonary artery

Body Fluids And Circulation NEET Biology Question 62. When the valves prevent the backflow of the blood, the circulation stent is called as

1. bilateral
2. lateral
3. closed
4. Open

Answer: 2. lateral

Question 63. The intravenous injection of blood plasma or serum with the object of restoring the blood volume is known its:

1. transplantation
2. Trasfusion
3. transcription
4. vaccination.

Answer: 2. Transfusion

Question 64. Which of the following statements is true for arteries?

1. Arteries are thin-walled and blood in them is under low pressure
2. Arteries are thin-walled and blood in them is under high pressure
3. Arteries are thick-walled and blood in them is under low pressure
4. Arteries are thick-walled and blood in them is under high pressure.

Answer: 4. Arteries are thick-walled and blood in them is under high pressure.

Body Fluids and Circulation NEET  Question 65. Perfusion of the heart of a frog with acetylcholine will cause :

1. decreased heartbeat
2. systolic arrest
3. diastolic arrest
4. extra systole.

Answer: 1. decreased heartbeat

Question 66. The connection between arteries and veins is through :

1. Arteriole
2. venule
3. capillaries
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. capillaries

Question 67. The blood which after circulation comes from the liver to the heart has :

1. increased CO₂, content
2. increased bile content
3. increased blood content
4. increased 0₂ content.

Answer: 1. increased CO₂ content

Question 68. The innermost coat of the wall of the artery is called :

1. tunica extrema
2. tunica media
3. arnica adventitia
4. endothelium.

Answer: 4. endothelium

Question 69. The wall of the vein is :

1. thin
2. thick
3. equal to that of the artery
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. thin

Question 70. Tunica media of blood vessels is formed of:

1. endothelium
2. connective tissue
3. unstriped muscle fibres
4. Both 1 and 3.

Answer: 3. Unstriped muscle fibres

Body Fluids and Circulation NEET  Question 71. An adult human with average health has systolic and diastolic pressures as :

1. 80 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg
2. 70 mm Hg and 120 mm Hg
3. 120 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg
4. 50 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg.

Answer: 3. 120 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg

Question 72. With respect to the ABO group, there are found major blood types because this blood group is determined by :

1. three alleles, all of which are co-dominant
2. three alleles, all of which are recessive
3. three alleles, of which two are recessive and the third is dominant
4. three alleles, of which two are codominant and the third is recessive.

Answer: 4. three alleles, of which two are codominant and the third is recessive

Question 73. Heartbeats are affected by.

1. Carbon dioxide
2. Oxygen
3. Vagus nerve
4. All of these.

Answer: 3. Vagus nerve

Question 74. Which of the following Is the cancerous state of blood?

1. Chloremia
2. leukaemia
3. Uremia
4. Proteinemia

Answer: 2. leukaemia

Question 75. Oxygenated blood Is found lit :

1. Pulmonary veins
2. Pulmonary arteries
3. Right atrium
4. Right ventricle,

Answer: 1. Pulmonniy veins

Question 76. Heartbeat originates from :

1. Pacemaker
2. Cardiac muscles
3. Left atrium
4. Right ventricle.

Answer: 1. Pacemaker

Question 77. In vertebrate blood the carrier of oxygen to the tissues or respiratory pigment is.

1. Plasma
2. Lymphocytes
3. Leucocytes
4. Haemoglobin.

Answer: 4. Haemoglobin

Question 78. Who discovered the Rh factor?

1. Huxley
2. Landsteincr
3. Landsteiner and Weiner
4. Weiner.

Answer: 3. Landsteiner and Weiner

Body Fluids and Circulation NEET  Question 79. The gene for the main factor for the clotting of blood is present.

1. X chromosome
2. Y chromosome
3. Both the X and Y chromosome
4. Autosomes.

Answer: 1. X chromosome

Question 80. Which of the following is not a granulocyte?

1. Lymphocyte
2. Eosinophil
3. Basophil
4. Neutrophil.

Answer: 1. Lymphocyte

Question 81. The life span of human W.B.C. is approximately :

1. 48 hours
2. 24 hours
3. 120 days
4. 100 hours.

Answer: 1. 48 hours

Question 82. Megakaryocytes give rise to :

1. Erythrocytes
2. Granulocytes
3. Agranulocytes
4. Thrombocytes.

Answer: 4. Thrombocytes

Question 83. Which of the following statements is not correct for sickle cell anaemia?

1. The sixth amino acid (from the NH₂ terminus) of the beta chain is glutamic acid
2. Erythrocytes elongate and form sickle-shaped cells
3. Individuals homozygous for the haemoglobin S allele are Hb B /Hb B
4. The beta chain of haemoglobin S contains valine.

Answer: 1. Sixth amino acid (from the NH₂ terminus) of the beta chain is glutamic acid

Question 84. The mitral valve is present between :

1. Left auricle and left ventricle
2. Right auricle and right ventricle
3. The right ventricle and aortic arch
4. Left ventricle and pulmonary arch.

Answer: 1. Left auricle and left ventricle

Body Fluids and Circulation NEET  Question 85. Which of the following factors is known as the ‘Christmas factor’ :

1. Factor VIII
2. Factor XII
3. Factor IV
4. Factor IX.

Answer: 4. Factor IX

Question 86. Nucleated RBCs found in :

1. Man
2. Rat
3. Frog
4. Rabbit

Answer: 3. Frog

Question 87. In rabbits cardiac sphincter is found in :

1. Heart, on left dorsal aorta.
2. Heart, on right auricle and ventricle
3. Between the oesophagus and stomach
4. Between stomach and duodenum.

Answer: 3. Between the oesophagus and stomach

Question 88. The tendons connecting papillary muscles and heart valves are called :

1. Muscle column
2. Heart tendon
3. Chordae tendineae
4. Pedirate muscles.

Answer: 3. Chordae tendineae

Body Fluids And Circulation MCQ  Question 89. QRS is related to:

1. Ventricular contraction
2. Ventricular relaxation
3. Auricular contraction
4. Depolarisation.

Answer: 1. Ventricular contraction

Question 90. Sinus venous is absent in :

1. Mammals
2. Frog
3. Reptiles
4. Amphibians.

Answer: 1. Mammals

Question 91. The pacemaker of the heart is made up of :

1. Smooth muscles
2. Cardiac muscles
3. Nerve tissue
4. Triage

Answer: 2. Cardiac muscles

Question 92. The pacemaker of the heart is introduced for :

1. Regulation of heartbeat
2. Conduction of heartbeat
3. To stop the heartbeat
4. Pacemaker is absent.

Answer: 1. Regulation of heartbeat

Body Fluids And Circulation MCQ  Question 93. Vertebrate’s heart originates from :

1. A splanchnic layer of mesoderm facing the anterior intestinal part
2. Ectoderm lying over the forebrain
3. The inner lining of the neural tube
4. Primitive streak

Answer: 1. Splanchnic layer of mesoderm facing the anterior intestinal part

Question 94. The rate of heartbeat is controlled by :

1. Vagus only
2. Sympathetic nervous system
3. Both the vagus and sympathetic nervous system
4. Hormones only.

Answer: 3. Both the vagus and sympathetic nervous system

Question 95. O₂ carrying capacity of blood is :

1. 1200ml./100 ml of blood
2. 1200ml./100 ml of blood
3. l20 ml 7100 ml of blood
4. 500ml./100 ml of blood.

Answer: 3. l20 ml 7100 ml of blood

Question 96. At high altitudes, some changes take place in blood. This change is :

1. Increase in leucocyte count
2. Increase in red blood corpuscles count
3. Decrease in red blood cell count
4. Increase in blood platelets.

Answer: 2. Increase in red blood corpuscles count

Question 97. The chambered heart are found in :

1. Squamata
2. Lacertilian
3. Crocodilia
4. DiOphidia.

Answer: 3. Crocodilia

Body Fluids And Circulation MCQ  Question 98. Normal WBC count is 5000 to 10,000 cub/mm of blood. When the number of WBCs falls below normal level this is called leucopenia. It occurs due to :

1. Tuberculosis
2. Typhoid fever
3. Allergies
4. Blood cancer.

Answer: 1. Tuberculosis

Question 99. The pulse rate is the result of:

1. Atrial systole
2. Atrial diastole
3. Ventricular systole
4. Ventricular diastole.

Answer: 3. Ventricular systole

Question 100. The venous system of a frog differs from rabbit in having :

1. Hepatic portal system
2. Renal portal system
3. Both hepatic and renal portal systems
4. Veins

Answer: 2. Renal portal system

Question 101. The heart is innervated by :

1. Vagus
2. Facial
3. Trigeminal
4. Glossopharyngeal

Answer: 1. Vagus

Question 102. The right atrium of a man’s heart receives blood from

1. Sinus venous
2. Pulmonary veins
3. Inferior vena cava
4. Superior and Inferior vena cava

Answer: 4. Superior and Inferior vena cava

Question 103. During diastole

1. Blood leaves the heart
2. Blood enters the heart
3. Blood leaves the ventricle
4. Blood enters the lungs.

Answer: 2. Blood enters the heart

Body Fluids And Circulation MCQ  Question 104. The bicuspid valve allows blood from :

1. Right auricle lo left ventricle
2. Right auricle lo right ventricle
3. Left auricle lo left ventricle
4. Postcaval to heart.

Answer: 3. Left auricle lo left ventricle

Question 105. Blood pressure is defined as :

1. The force with which blood pushes against the wall of the blood vessels
2. The force with which blood is pushed to the legs
3. The force with which blood comes out of the atrium.
4. The force with which blood comes out of the ventricle.

Answer: 1. The force with which blood pushes against the wall of the blood vessels

Question 106. Blood supply to the kidney is :

1. 25%
2. 20%
3. 90%
4. 50%.

Answer: 1. 25%

Question 107. Match the column :

1. A — q, B — t, C— r,  D — p
2. A — t,  B — p, C — q, D — r
3. A — t, B — r, C — p, D — q
4. A — t, B — p, C — r, D — q.

Answer: 3. A — t, B — r, C — p, D — q

Question 108. During high blood pressure, regulation of heartbeat and circulation is controlled by :

1. Vasodilator and vasoconstrictor centres.
2. Cardio-stimulatory and vasoconstrictor centres
3. Cardio-inhibitory and vasoconstrictor centres
4. Cardio-inhibitory and vasodilator centres.

Answer: 2. Cardio-stimulatory and vasoconstrictor centres

Question 109. What is true about veins?

1. All veins carry deoxygenated blood
2. All veins carry oxygenated blood
3. They carry blood from organs towards the heart
4. They carry blood from the heart towards the organs.

Answer: 3. They carry blood from organs towards the heart

Question 110. Blood pressure is measured by :

1. Sphygmomanometer
2. Phonocardiogrant
3. Electrocardiogram
4. Stethoscope.

Answer: 1. Sphygmomanometer

Body Fluids And Circulation MCQ  Question 111. In which of the capillary system is present

1. Arthropods
2. Cephalopods
3. Tunicates
4. Hemicordates

Answer: 2. Cephalopods

Question 112. The respiratory pigment is dissolved  in the plasma of blood in the case of:

1. Crustaceans
2. Cyclostomes
3. cnidarians
4. chondricthythes.

Answer: 1. Crustaceans

Question 113. The heart of the cockroach is 13-chambered, Each chamber bears a pair of aperture guarded by valves. The apertures are :

1. Sinn-auricular aperture
2. Aurieuloventrieular aperture
3. Ostia
4. Osculum.

Answer: 3. Ostia

Question 114. Which of the following is involved in maintaining the pH of the blood by buffering action?

1. Na+, K+ and Cl+₂
2. Ca₄. Mg₄₄ and HC0₃
3. HP0₄-2 and P0₄-3
4. All of the above.

Answer: 3. HP0₄-2 and P0₄-3

Question 115. Erythrocytes do not contain :

1. Haemoglobin
2. Carbonic anhydrase
3. Cl-
4. None of the above.

Answer: 4. None of the above

Question 116. Neutrophils are responsible for protection against infection. They constitute how much % age of total leucocyte count:

1. 3 %
2. 0.5 % to 1
3. 62 %
4. 30 %.

Answer: 3. 62 %

Question 117. Monocytes have kidney-shaped nuclei and constitute 5-6 per cent of total WBC. The diameter of a monocyte is about:

1. 10 -18 mm
2. 10 – 10 mm
3. 2 – 4 mm
4. 12 – 15 mm.

Answer: 1. 10 -18 mm

Question 118. If there is a complete mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in the heart, then :

1. blood to the lungs would be low in oxygen and the tissues would receive blood rich in oxygen
2. blood to the lungs would be rich in oxygen and the tissues would receive blood which is low in oxygen
3. lungs and tissues would receive blood with the same amounts of oxygen
4. tissues would receive completely oxygenated blood and lungs would receive complete
   deoxygenated blood.

Answer: 3. lungs and tissues would receive blood with the same amounts of oxygen

Body Fluids And Circulation NEET Biology Question 119. QRS in ECG is related to :

1. Atrial contraction
2. Ventricular contraction
3. Ventricular relaxation
4. Atrial relaxation.

Answer: 2. Ventricular contraction

Question 120. The most important centre for the formation of lymph is:

1. bone marrow
2. liver
3. pancreas
4. gastric glands.

Answer: 2. liver

Question 121. Which one of the following statements is correct?

1. The greater the 0₂ affinity of haemoglobin, the lower the extraction rate of oxygen
2. Terrestrial amphibians require much lower environmental oxygen pressure than aquatic forms
3. Aquatic reptile lorry require twice the environmental oxygen pressure than the terrestrial forms
4. The oxygen extraction power of haemoglobin is inversely proportional to the atmospheric pressure.

Answer: 4. The oxygen extraction power of haemoglobin is inversely proportional to the atmospheric pressure.

Question 122. Mammals native to high altitudes have haemoglobins of greater oxygen affinity than low-altitude forms because :

1. they need more oxygen than their, low altitude counterparts
2. the haemoglobin allows the extraction of oxygen from environments poor in oxygen (high altitudes) relative to low altitudes
3. they have less number of erythrocytes than their counterparts on low altitudes and increased oxygen affinity balances the reduced percentage of erythrocytes
4. the statement is not correct.

Answer: 2. the haemoglobin allows extraction of oxygen from environments poor in oxygen (high altitudes) relative to low altitudes

Question 123. The innermost layer of blood capillaries is made up of:

1. endothelial cells
2. haemocytes
3. elastic membrane
4. 1 and 3.

Answer: 4. 1 and 3

Body Fluids And Circulation NEET Biology Question 124. The cords of Billorth are blood spaces which are found in :

1. liver
2. tonsils
3. kidneys
4. spleen.

Answer: 4. spleen.

Question 125. Match the different leucocytes given under Column1 with their functions given under Column 2; choose the answer that gives the correct combination of alphabets of two columns

1. A = t, B = p, C = q, D = t
2. A = r, B = p, C = q, D = t
3. A = q, B = r, C = s, D = t
4. A = p, B = q, C = r, D = s.

Answer: 2. A = r, B = p, C = q, D = t

Question 126. Which vitamin helps in blood coagulation?

1. Vitamin K
2. Vitamin C
3. Vitamin A
4. Vitamin D

Answer: 1. Vitamin K

Question 127. Which one of the following is mainly responsible for the second heart sound?

1. Closure of atrioventricular valves.
2. Opening of atrioventricular valves.
3. Closure of semilunar valves.
4. Thrust of blood on ventricular wall during atria contraction.

Answer: 3. Closure of semilunar valves

NEET Biology Plant kingdom  Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Agar-agar is a complex carbohydrate. This is used widely for microbiological purposes. It is produced from:

1. Angiosperm
2. Red algae
3. Bacteria
4. Lichens.

Answer: 2. Red algae

Quanta 2. A filament of an alga can be differentiated from that of a fungus by :

1. Cells are uninucleate in algae whereas they are multinucleate in fungi
2. Chlorophyll is present in fungi and absent in algae
3. The presence of cellulose cell walls and chlorophyllous cells in algae and chitinous cell walls and non-chlorophyllous cells in fungi
4. The algae are green and the fungi are non-green.

Answer: 3. The presence of cellulose cell walls and chlorophyllous cells in algae and chitinous cell walls and non-chlorophyllous cells in fungi

Question 3. Classification of algae is based on :

1. Method of sexual reproduction
2. Differences in their habits
3. Distribution of photosynthetic pigments
4. Their occurrence in nature.

Answer: 3. Distribution of photosynthetic pigments

Plant Kingdom NEET Question 4. A unicellular free green alga is :

1. Chlamydomonas
2. Pandorina
3. Eudorina
4. Nostoc.

Answer: 1. Chlamydomonas

Question 5. The chlamydomonas is :

1. Pear-shaped, unicellular and haploid
2. Oblong-shaped, multicellular and haploid
3. Reniform-shaped, unicellular and haploid
4. None of them.

Answer: 1. Pear-shaped, unicellular and haploid

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 6. The green colouring pigment structure present in Chlamydomonas is :

1. Double pear-shaped chloroplast
2. Chloroplasts are pear-shaped, triple in number
3. Single cup-shaped chloroplast
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Single cup-shaped chloroplast

Question 7. Chlamydomonas reproduces asexually under favourable conditions by :

1. Zoospore formation
2. Spore formation
3. Gametes formation
4. Sex cell formation.

Answer: 1. Zoospore formation

Question 8. Which statement is true?

1. Spores and gametes are invariably diploids
2. Spores and gametes are invariably haploids
3. Only gametes are invariably haploids
4. Only spores are invariably haploids.

Answer: 2. Spores and gametes are invariably haploids

Question 9. When 3 spirogyra filaments are participating in conjugation, the possibilities are that:

1. The middle one may be female and the outer ones are male
2. The middle one may be male and the outer ones are female in which zygospores are formed
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 or 2.

Answer: 3. Both 1 and 2

Plant Kingdom NEET Question 10. The zygospore of spirogyra at the time of germination divides into four nuclei. How many nuclei degenerate out of the four:

1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four.

Answer: 3. Three

Question 11. In the haplontic life cycle of algae, meiotic division takes place during :

1. Gamete formation
2. Spore formation
3. Zygote germination
4. Spore germination.

Answer: 3. Zygote germination

Question 12. Nutrition in chlamydomonas is:

1. Heterotrophic
2. Parasitic
3. Autotrophic
4. Saprophytic.

Answer: 3. Autotrophic

Question 13. Chlamydomonas plant is:

1. Biflagellate
2. Aflagellate
3. Quadriflagellate
4. Uniflagellate.

Answer: 1. Biflagellate

Question 14. The resultant of gametic fusion in Chlamydomonas is :

1. Zoospore
2. Zygospore
3. A zygospore
4. Aplanospore.

Answer: 2. Zygospore

Important MCQs on Plant Kingdom Question 15. In isogamous sexual reproduction of Chlamydomonas :

1. Similar gametes fuse
2. Dissimilar gametes fuse
3. Sperm and an egg fuse
4. Micro-gametes and macro-gametes fuse.

Answer: 1. Similar gametes fuse

Question 16. Oogamous sexual reproduction in Chlamydomonas occurs in:

1. Chlamydomonas braunii
2. Chlamydomonas coccifera
3. Chlamydomonas monoica
4. Chlamydomonas suboogama.

Answer: 2. Chlamydomonas coccifera

Question 17. Chlamydomonas perennates employing:

1. Meiospores
2. Zoospores
3. Hypnospores
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Hypnospores

Question 18. Red-eye spot containing haematochrome is meant for :

1. Photosynthesis
2. Respiration
3. Photoreception
4. Movements.

Answer: 3. Photoreception

Question 19. Chlamydomonas belongs to

1. Myxophyceae
2. Phaeophyceae
3. Chlorophyceae
4. Rhodophyceae.

Answer: 3. Chlorophyceae

Important MCQs on Plant Kingdom Question 20. The cell walls of diatoms are rich in :

1. Calcium
2. Lignin
3. Silica
4. Carbonate.

Answer: 3. Silica

Question 21. Pyrenoid is meant for:

1. Storage of protein
2. Storage of starch
3. Photosynthesis
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Storage of starch

Question 22. Ulothrlx can be described as a :

1. Filamentous alga with flagellated reproductive stages
2. Non-motile colonial alga lacking zoospores
3. Filamentous alga lacking flagellated reproductive
4. Stages. (Pre-medical/dental 1998)

Answer: 1. Filamentous alga with flagellated reproductive stages

Important MCQs on Plant Kingdom Question 23. Zygospore is:

1. Haploid
2. Polyploid
3. Diploid
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Diploid

Question 24. Palmella stage is produced :

1. In rainy season
2. During unfavourable conditions
3. During favourable conditions
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. During unfavourable conditions

Question 25. Flagellar movements are controlled by :

1. Photosynthesis
2. Contractile vacuoles
3. Neuromotor apparatus
4. Pyrenoids.

Answer: 3. Neuromotor apparatus

Question 26. Azygospores are produced by :

1. Isogamy
2. Anisogamy
3. Parthenogenesis
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Parthenogenesis

Question 27. Flagellated gametes are absent in :

1. Ectocarpus
2. Chara
3. Spirogyra
4. Ulothrix.

Answer: 3. Spirogyra

NEET Biology MCQ Plant Kingdom Question 28. In physiological anisogamy :

1. Gametes are morphologically similar but physiologically dissimilar
2. Gametes are morphologically similar
3. Gametes are unequal
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Gametes are morphologically similar but physiologically dissimilar

Question 29. Sexual reproduction takes place :

1. During- favourable conditions
2. At the end of growing season
3. In winter
4. When conditions are dry.

Answer: 2. At the end of the growing season

Question 30. Mark the one that is out of place :

1. Hypnospore
2. Aplanospore
3. Oospore
4. Akinete.

Answer: 3. Oospore

Question 31. Thin-walled non-motile spore is known as:

1. Zoospore
2. Aplanospore
3. Zygospore
4. Hypnospore.

Answer: 2. Aplanospore

Question 32. Fusion of mature individuals which directly act as gametes is called :

1. Isogamy
2. Anisogamy
3. Hologamy
4. Autogamy.

Answer: 3. Hologamy

NEET Biology MCQ Plant Kingdom Question 33. A motile flagellated asexual cell is called :

1. Sperm
2. Zoospore
3. Oospore
4. Androspore.

Answer: 2. Zoospore

Question 34. A hypnospore is called so because it has :

1. Thick wall
2. Thin wall
3. No cell wall
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Thin wall

Question 35. Scalariform conjugation takes place in :

1. Chlamydomonas
2. Ulothrix
3. Spirogyra
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Spirogyra

Question 36. The unique characteristics of spirogyra vegetative cells are:

1. The cell wall is definite and thick
2. The cell wall is hygroscopic
3. Pyrenoid bodies are present
4. The nucleus has cytoplasmic strands.

Answer: 4. Nucleus is having cytoplasmic strands.

NEET Biology MCQ Plant Kingdom Question 37. Groups of spirogyra in a pond or lake are supported by bubbles of gas. The gas is :

1. 02
2. N2
3. C02
4. Air.

Answer: 1. 02

Question 38. Spirogyra differs from protonema in :

1. Discoid chloroplast
2. Spiral chloroplast with pyrenoids
3. Branched rhizoids
4. Filaments are branched.

Answer: 2. Spiral chloroplast with pyrenoids

Question 39. Algae containing oil as reserve food belongs to :

1. Chlorophyceae
2. Phaeophyceae
3. Rhodophyceae
4. Xanthophyceae.

Answer: 4. Xanthophyceae.

Question 40. Palmella stage of Chlamydomonas is helpful in:

1. Protecting the algae against desiccation
2. Bringing about gametic union
3. Vegetative reproduction
4. Production of zoospore.

Answer: 1. Protecting the algae against desiccation

Question 41. Chlamydomonas monoica and c. Longistigma exhibit:

1. Isogamy
2. Anisogamy
3. Oogamy
4. All the above.

Answer: 1. Isogamy

Question 42. In spirogyra :

1. The filaments showing scalariform conjugation are homothallic
2. The filaments showing lateral conjugation are homothallic
3. The filaments showing lateral conjugation are heterothallic
4. Asexual reproduction occurs by zoospores.

Answer: 2. The filaments showing lateral conjugation are homothallic

Plant Kingdom NEET Question 43. In spirogyra meiosis occurs at the time of:

1. Gamete formation
2. Vegetative reproduction
3. Zygospore germination
4. Conjugation.

Answer: 3. Zygospore germination

Question 44. Spirogyra reproduces sexually by :

1. Conjugation
2. Isogamy
3. Anisogamy
4. Oogamy.

Answer: 1. Conjugation

Question 45. Algae perennate by :

1. Hypnospore
2. Palmella stage
3. Akinetes
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 46. Lateral conjugation involves :

1. Only one filament
2. Two filaments
3. Many filaments
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Only one filament

Question 47. The filament of spirogyra is :

1. A colony of cells
2. A branched series of cells placed one upon the other
3. An unbranched series of cells placed one above the other
4. A tube-like structure without septa.

Answer: 3. Unbranched series of cells placed one above the other

Plant Kingdom NEET Question 48. The zygote containing 4 teliospores in lothario is called:

1. Akinete
2. Pmthenospore
3. Incipient sporophyte
4. Chlamydospore.

Answer: 3. Incipient sporophyte

Question 49. The mingling of protoplasm without nuclear fusion is called :

1. Karyogamy
2. Syngamy
3. Isogamy
4. Plasmogamy.

Answer: 4. Plasmogamy.

Question 50. Flagellated stages occur in :

1. Spirogyra
2. Yeast
3. Ulothrix
4. Sunflower.

Answer: 3. Ulothrix

Question 51. Algae differ from bryophytes in possessing:

1. Naked sex organs
2. Sex organs covered with a sterile covering
3. Chlorophylls a and b
4. Aerobic respiration.

Answer: 1. Naked sex organs

Question 52. In Spiro Gyro, there are:

1. Many pyrenoids
2. One pyrenoid
3. Three pyrenoids
4. No pyrenoid.

Answer: 1. Many pyrenoids

Question 53. As a result of reduction division, spirogyra forms :

1. 4 Nuclei
2. 4 Zoospores
3. 4 Celled filaments
4. 4 Haploid protoplasts.

Answer: 1. 4 Nuclei

Plant Kingdom NEET Question 54. Asexual reproduction in spirogyra :

1. Has not been recorded
2. Takes place through the formation of zoospores
3. This takes place through the formation of aplanospores
4. Takes place by the formation of hypnospores.

Answer: 3. Takes place by formation of aplanospores

Question 55. Vegetative reproduction in spirogyra takes place by :

1. Budding
2. Parthenogenesis
3. Fragmentation
4. Hormogonia.

Answer: 3. Fragmentation

Question 56. Maximum number of chloroplasts recorded in spirogyra is :

1. 06
2. 12
3. 20
4. 16.

Answer: 4. 16

Question 57. The cell wall of spirogyra is composed of two layers which are made of:

1. Cellulose only
2. Pectin only
3. Cellulose and pectin
4. Cellulose and chitin.

Answer: 3. Cellulose and pectin

Important MCQs on Plant Kingdom Question 58. Spirogyra is named pond scum or pond silk or water silk because :

1. The filament is made up of silk
2. Filament secretes silk
3. The cellulose layer is mucilaginous
4. The pectose layer is mucilaginous.

Answer: 4. Cellulose layer is mucilaginous

Question 59. Spirogyra occurs in :

1. Running salt water
2. Running fresh water
3. Stagnant salt water
4. Stagnant fresh water.

Answer: 4. Stagnant fresh water.

Question 60. Direct lateral conjugation is found in :

1. Spirogyra aplanospora
2. Spirogyra genesis
3. Spirogyra data
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Spirogyra genesis

Question 61. Physiological anisogamous sexual reproduction is found in :

1. Funaria
2. Selaginella
3. Pinus
4. Spirogyra.

Answer: 4. Spirogyra.

Question 62. Nostoc is characteristic in having :

1. Non- cellulosic cell wall
2. Uni- flagellated zoospore
3. Chlorophyll v
4. Sexual reproduction.

Answer: 1. Non- cellulosic cell wall

Question 63. Zygotic meiosis takes place in:

1. Selaginella
2. Spirogyra
3. Pinus
4. Brassica.

Answer: 2. Spirogyra

Question 64. Oil is the reserve food in:

1. Chlamydomonas (Chlorophyceae)
2. Vaucheria (Xanthophyceae)
3. Nostoc (Myxophyceae)
4. Sargassum (phaeophyceae).

Answer: 2. Vaucheria (Xanthophyceae)

Important MCQs on Plant Kingdom Question 65. All algae have two pigments, they are :

1. Chlorophyll a and carotenes
2. Chlorophyll b and carotenes
3. Chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b
4. Phycobilins and carotene.

Answer: 1. Chlorophyll a and carotenes

Question 66. Which of the following produces gametes that show amoeboid movement?

1. Ulothrix
2. Cladophora
3. Spirogyra
4. Chlamydomonas.

Answer: 3. Spirogyra

Question 67. Two fusing gametes in spirogyra are :

1. Morphologically similar
2. Morphologically dissimilar
3. Morphologically similar but physiologically dissimilar
4. Morphologically and physiologically dissimilar.

Answer: 3. Morphologically similar but physiologically dissimilar

Question 68. Thermal algae are those which grow :

1. In deserts where the temperature is around 70°c
2. In hot water springs where the temperature is around 70°c
3. On rocks exposed to high temperature
4. In tropical regions of the world.

Answer: 2. In hot water springs where the temperature is around 70°c

Question 69. Spirogyra differs from rhizopus in having :

1. Uninucleate gametangia
2. Multicellular gametes
3. Anisogametes
4. Sexual reproduction.

Answer: 1. Uninucleate gametangia

Question 70. The green wavelength of sunlight is absorbed by :

1. Phycoerythrin
2. Carotenoids
3. Chlorophyll
4. Phycocyanin.

Answer: 1. Phycoerythrin

NEET Biology MCQ Plant Kingdom Question 71. Contraction of protoplast in spirogyra takes place :

1. Just before the formation of zoospores
2. Before the formation of gametes
3. Before the fusion of gametes
4. During the germination of zygospores.

Answer: 2. Before the formation of gametes

Question 72. Meiosis in Chlamydomonas occurs in:

1. Zygospore
2. Zoospore
3. Aplanospore
4. Hypnospore.

Answer: 1. Zygospore

Question 73. Which of the following is composed of unbranched filaments?

1. Volvox
2. Ulothrix
3. Spirogyra
4. Both 2 and 3.

Answer: 4. Both 2 and 3.

Question 74. Which of the following is a motile flagellate asexual spore?

1. Zoospore
2. Zygospore
3. Zygote
4. Aplanospore.

Answer: 1. Zoospore

Question 75. Storage products in Rhodophyta are:

1. Cellulose
2. Starch and oil
3. Glycogen
4. Floridian starch.

Answer: 4. Floridean starch.

Question 76. Red rust of tea is caused by :

1. Cephaleuros
2. Cystopus
3. Rhizopus
4. Bacteria.

Answer: 1. Cephaleuros

Question 77. Brown algae is characterised by the presence of:

1. Phycocyanin
2. Phycoerythrin
3. Fucoxanthin
4. Haematochrome.

Answer: 3. Fucoxanthin

NEET Biology MCQ Plant Kingdom Question 78. Which one is saponaceous:

1. Chlamydomonas
2. Spirogyra
3. Acetabularia
4. Ulothrix.

Answer: 3. Acetabularia

Question 79. The structure by which clathrin is attached to the substratum:

1. Rhizoid
2. Holdfast
3. Root
4. Trichome.

Answer: 2. Holdfast

Question 80. Agar, a nitrogenous jelly is prepared from :

1. Gelidium and gracilaria.
2. Spirogyra and ulothrix
3. Macrocystis
4. Macrocystis and laminaria.

Answer: 1. Gelidium and gracilaria.

Question 81. Ulothrix filaments produce :

1. Isogametes
2. Anisogametes
3. Heterogametes
4. Basidiospores.

Answer: 1. Isogametes

Question 82. Pyrenoids are made up of:

1. The core of starch is surrounded by a sheath of protein
2. The core of protein is surrounded by a fatty sheath
3. Proteinaceous centre and starchy sheath
4. The core of nucleic acid is surrounded by a protein

Answer: 3. Proteinaceous centre and starchy sheath

Question 83. Umbrella plant is :

1. Melia azedarach
2. Panicum decomposition
3. Acetabularia
4. Acacia oswaldii.

Answer: 3. Acetabularia

Question 84. An alga very rich in proteins is :

1. Spirogyra
2. Ulothrix
3. Oscillatoria
4. Chlorella.

Answer: 4. Chlorella.

Question 85. Which alga occurs in still fresh water?

1. Spirogyra
2. Laminaria
3. Sargassum
4. Polysiphonia.

Answer: 1. Spirogyra

Question 86. Motile coenobium occurs in :

1. Ulva
2. Palmella
3. Volvox
4. Hydrodictyon.

Answer: 3. Palmella

Question 87. Palmella stage of clathrin/Chlamydomonas is formed in response to:

1. Unfavourable environment
2. Toxic chemical
3. Water deficiency
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 88. Pigment present in hypnospores/zygospores of chlamydomonas is :

1. Haematochrome
2. A-carotene
3. Fucoxanthin
4. Anthocyanin.

Answer: 1. Haematochrome

NEET Biology The Living World Nature And Scope Of Biology Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. The term ‘biology’ for the study of living organisms was coined by.

1. Lamark and triviranus
2. Husley
3. Purkinje and von mohl
4. Aristotle

Answer: 1. Lamark and Trimarans

Question 2. Animals ate like plants in that they respire:

1. During day only
2. During night only
3. During day and night
4. When required only.

Answer: 3. During day and night

Question 3. Study of animal behaviour comes under:’

1. Ecology
2. Aetiology
3. Euthenics
4. Eugenics.

Answer: 2. Ethology

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 4. Areas which cannot be subjected to scientific analysis are:

1. Human intelligence
2. Human faith
3. Animal behaviour
4. Origin of life.

Answer: 2. Human faith

NEET Biology MCQs on Diversity in Living World Question 5. The study of injuries and wounds is known as :

1. Tricology
2. Numerology
3. Traumatology
4. Torpedology.

Answer: 3. Traumatology

Question 6. The study of the chemical aspect of living organisms:

1. Microbiology
2. Biochemistry
3. Cryobiology
4. Ethology.

Answer: 2. Biochemistry

Question 7. The science of characters and distribution of nice is known as:

1. Ethnology
2. Anthropology
3. Sociology
4. Malacology.

Answer: 1. Ethnology

Question 8. Dendrology is the study of:

1. Grasses
2. Flowers
3. Trees and shrubs
4. Trees.

Answer: 3. Trees and shrubs

Question 9. Agrostology is the cultivation of :

1. Oil seeds
2. Crops
3. Grasses
4. Fruit trees.

Answer: 3. Grasses

Question 10. Study of light effects on flowering of plants :

1. Photobiology
2. Photomorphogenesis
3. Photoperiodism
4. Vernalisation.

Answer: 3. Photoperiodism

NEET Biology MCQs on Diversity in Living World Question 11. The most primitive vascular plants are:

1. Ferns
2. Brown algae
3. Cycas
4. Red algae.

Answer: 1. Ferns

Question 12. Biotechnology refers to :

1. Linkage
2. Cross-over
3. Recombination
4. Tissue culture.

Answer: 2. Cross-over

Question 13. The science which deals with the classification, identification and naming of organisms is known as :

1. Physiology
2. Ecology
3. Systematic
4. Biology.

Answer: 3. Systematic

Question 14. The father of taxonomy is:

1. Charles Darwin
2. John ray
3. Julian Huxley
4. Carolus Linnaeus.

Answer:4. Carolus Linnaeus.

Question 16. Who was the first to classify animals?

1. Aucrbauch
2. Aristotle
3. Carolus Linnaeus
4. Darwin.

Answer: 2. Aristotle

NEET Biology MCQs on Diversity in Living World Question 17. The genetic composition of the population about habitat is called :

1. Gynaecology
2. Gynaecology
3. Gerontology
4. Euthenics.

Answer: 2. Gynaecology

Question 18. The branch of zoology dealing with the study of fishes is called :

1. Herpetology
2. Ichthyology
3. Pisciculture
4. Saurology.

Answer: 2. Ichthyology

Question 19. The branch of zoology which deals with the study of visceral organs is called:

1. Angiology
2. Splanchnology
3. Anthology
4. Arthrology.

Answer: 2. Splanchnology

Question 20. The study of nests of birds is known as :

1. Craniology
2. Ichthyology
3. Nidology
4. None.

Answer: 3. Nidology

Question 21. Herpetology is the study of:

1. Birds
2. Snails
3. Marine fishes
4. Snakes.

Answer: 4. Snakes.

Question 22. Syndesmology is the study of:

1. Hormones
2. Skeletal joints
3. Desert
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Skeletal joints

The Living World NEET Questions Biology Question 23. The study of structural morphology and organisation is known as:

1. Tectology
2. Technology
3. Ontogeny
4. Osteology.

Answer: 1. Tectology

Question 24. The study of acquired characters is known as:

1. Tectology
2. Technology
3. Odontology
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Ctenology

Question 25. ‘Angiology’ is the study of:

1. Blood
2. Blood and the blood groups
3. Blood vessels
4. Heart attack.

Answer: 3. Blood vessels

Question 26. The study of coelenterates is called:

1. Cardiology
2. Gynaecology
3. Entomology
4. Cosmetology.

Answer: 1. Cnidology

Question 27. ‘Aerology’ is the study of:

1. Ticks and mites
2. Annelids
3. Aquatic insects
4. Crossbreed.

Answer: 1. Ticks and mites

Question 28. Branch of zoology which deals with the study of cartilage :

1. Conchology
2. Chondriology
3. Craniology
4. Cardiology

Answer: 2. Chondriology

The Living World NEET Questions Biology Question 29. The study of ants is called

1. Tricology
2. Myrmecology
3. Mattologv
4. None of above

Answer: 2. Myrmecology

Question 30. The branch of zoology which deals with the study of shells is known as

1. Coikhology
2. Ecology
3. Aetiology
4. Ornithology.

Answer: 1. Coikhology

Question 31. Ornithology is concerned with the study of:

1. Fishes
2. Birds
3. Animal fossils
4. Reptiles.

Answer: 2. Birds

Question 32. Red mood cells of mammals lack a nucleus except:

1. Horse
2. Rabbit
3. Camel
4. Elephant.

Answer: 3. Camel

Question 33. In the tobacco mosaic virus, heredity material is :

1. Rna
2. Dna
3. Lipid
4. Proteins.

Answer: 1. Rna

Question 34. Migration of birds is studied under:

1. Phenology
2. Kalology
3. Ornithology
4. Aetiology.

Answer: 1. Phenology

The Living World NEET Questions Biology Question 35. In saurology, we study:

1. Flying birds
2. Lizards
3. Sea snakes
4. Earthworm.

Answer: 2. Lizards

Question 36. The study of olfactory organs and nose is called:

1. Phenology
2. Rhinology
3. Tricology
4. Phrenology.

Answer: 2. Rhinology

Question 37. The science dealing with the study of life at low temperatures is:

1. Cryobiology
2. Craniology
3. Kalology
4. Carcinology.

Answer: 1. Cryobiology

Question 38. The study of growing old is called:

1. Gynaecology
2. Gerontology
3. Karyology
4. Tectology.
5. (M.p. P.m.t. 1996, Pb.p.m.t., 2000)

Answer: 2. Gerontology

Question 39. Kalology deals with the study of:

1. Human beauty
2. Nuclear cytology
3. Conditions of animals
4. Dead aquatic organisms.

Answer: 1. Human beauty

Question 40. Baby bom after the operation is called :

1. Scissorian baby
2. Caesarean baby
3. Situs inversus
4. Postmortem baby.

Answer: 2. Caesarean baby

Question 41. Which of the following is a tracer element?

1. C14
2. H3
3. P32
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

NEET Biology The Living World Question 42. Serendipity is :

1. Explaining natural phenomenon
2. Discovery by chance
3. Any discovery
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Discovery by chance

Question 43. The structural formula of benzene was discovered by:

1. Alexander fleming
2. Newton
3. Kekule
4. Archimedes.

Answer: 3. Kekule

Question 44. Which of the following best describes the scientific method?

1. Developing and testing the hypothesis
2. Using sensitive electronic devices
3. Collecting and analysing all known facts on a subject
4. Conducting experiments in laboratories.

Answer: 1. Developing and testing hypothesis

Question 45. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a /hypothesis?

1. A deductive inference
2. An inductive inference
3. A guess about cause and effect
4. A generalization from specific observation

Answer: 1. A deductive inference

Question 46. An argument that birds evolved wings to fly, this type of argument is referred to as:

1. Causal
2. Teleological
3. Mcchanistics
4. Circular.

Answer: 2. Teleological

NEET Biology The Living World Question 47. An Electron microscope has high-resolution power. It is due to:

1. Electromagnetic lenses
2. Very low wavelength of electron beam
3. The low wavelength of the light source used
4. High numerical aperture of glass.

Answer: 2. Very low wavelength of electron beam

Question 48. A theory is :

1. An educated guess
2. Modified hypothesis
3. The idea was given by a scientist
4. A generalization supported by experiments.

Answer: 4. A generalization supported by experiments.

Question 49. Angstrom, the unit of measurement in the transmission electron microscope is equal to:

1. 0.001 pm
2. 0.001 pm
3. 0.0001 pm
4. 0.00001 pm.

Answer: 3. 0.0001 pm

Question 50. The science which deals with the study of drugs and the preparation of medicines is called:

1. Physiology
2. Pharmacology
3. Pathology
4. Psychology.

Answer: 2. Pharmacology

Question 51. Technique by which cellular components are separated on the basis of their physical properties:

1. Chromatography
2. Cell fractionation
3. Autoradiography
4. Electrophoresis.

Answer: 2. Cell fractionation

NEET Biology The Living World Question 52. During the study of materials under an electron microscope the material is dry, thin and kept in a vacuum to:

1. Get a straight beam of electrons
2. Avoid collision of electrons with atoms of o and n
3. Avoid multiple scattering of electrons
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 53. The study of domestic animals is called

1. Entomology
2. Veterinary science
3. Forestry
4. Agronomy.

Answer: 2. Veterinary science

Question 54. Auxenic culture is:

1. Pure culture without contamination
2. Culture of gases
3. Culture of tissue
4. Pure culture of microbe without any nutrients.

Answer: 1. Pure culture without contamination

Question 55. The study of nuclear cytology is called :

1. Radiology
2. Neurology
3. Karyology
4. Mycology.

Answer: 3. Karyology

Question 56. Most of the extraordinary properties of water are due to of its molecules:

1. Polarity
2. Hydrogen bonds
3. Covalent bonds
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Polarity

NEET Biology The Living World Question 57. Resolution power is the ability to :

1. Distinguish two close points
2. Distinguish two close objects
3. Distinguish amongst organelles
4. Magnify images.

Answer: 1. Distinguish two close points

Question 58. The resolving power of the human eye is:

1. 100 Pm
2. 200 Pm
3. 50 Pm
4. 1000 Pm

Answer: 1. 100 Pm

Question 59. The physical basis of life is:

1. Cell
2. Protoplasm
3. Nucleus
4. Cytoplasm.

Answer: 2. Protoplasm

Question 60. Scientific ins estimations are ill iv nearer totnitli. When there is:

1. Experimental procedures and monitoring are very accurate
2. Correct observation
3. Accurate prediction
4. Sound knowledge of mathematics.

Answer: 1. Experimental procedure and monitoring very accurate

Question 61. Egg-lasing mammals are:

1. Rat
2. Platypus
3. Kangaroo
4. Kangaroo rat.

Answer: 2. Platypus

Question 62. Flowering in mclocanna bamusoidcs (maitake) occurs:

1. Every year
2. After 10 years
3. After 4s years
4. After 6 months.

Answer: 3. After 4s years

NEET Biology MCQs on Diversity in Living World Question 63. Which of the following plants has remained unchanged for the past several million years?

1. Pinus
2. Rice
3. Acacia
4. Ginkgo.

Answer: 4. Ginkgo.

Question 64. What will you call the study of plant and animal tissues outside the body in a glass tube?

1. In vivo
2. In vitro
3. Innate
4. Desperate.

Answer: 2. In vitro

Question 65. At which height would nitrogen bubble out of the blood :

1. 6.4 km
2. 7.2 km
3. 4 Km
4. 5.6 km.

Answer: 2. 7.2 km

Question 66. Antons the following isotopes, which is not radioactive?

1. Cu
2. P35
3. H3
4. K4-.

Answer: 2. P35

Question 67. The electron microscope is made up of:

1. Fluorochromes
2. Polariser and analyser filters
3. Electromagnetic lenses
4. Objective and ocular glass.

Answer: 3. Electromagnetic lenses

Question 68. Natural sciences deal with the study of living objects and are known as:

1. Physical sciences
2. Social sciences
3. Biological sciences
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Biological sciences

NEET Biology MCQs on Diversity in Living World Question 69. Bambnsa tnlida flower only after attaining the age of:

1. 3 Years
2. 20 Years
3. 12 Years
4. 48 Years.

Answer: 4. 48 Years.

Question 70. The cell was discovered by :

1. Robert Hooke
2. Schleiden and schwann
3. Virchow
4. Strasburger.

Answer: 1. Robert Hooke

Question 71. The science dealing with the study of heredity and variations is known as:

1. Eugenics
2. Genetics
3. Cytology
4. Breeding.

Answer: 2. Genetics

Question 72. Generally, the hereditary material is :

1. Protein
2. Rna
3. Dna
4. Mrna.

Answer: 3. Dna

Question 73. Cuscuta, a total parasite bears:

1. Single cotyledon
2. Two cotyledons
3. Cotyledons absent
4. Many cotyledons.

Answer: 3. Cotyledons absent

Question 74. When discoveries are made by accident and unexpectedly the phenomenon is called

1. Mutation
2. Serendipity
3. Recombination
4. Linkage.

Answer: 2. Serendipity

Question 75. Total number of animal species is :

1. 1200000
2. 700000
3. 170000
4. 500,000.

Answer: 1. 1200000

Question 76. Which one of the following has remained unchanged for the last many million years?

1. Rose
2. Rice
3. Cockroach
4. Mosquito

Answer: 3. Cockroach

Question 77. A scientist is a person who:

1. Links patterns or draws relationships among several isolated facts
2. Determines principles from the observation
3. Discover general principles
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

NEET Biology MCQs on Diversity in Living World Question 78. Charles Robert Darwin (1809-18821 made some generalisations and set forth the theory of :

1. Mutation
2. Survival of fittest
3. Acquired characters
4. Natural selection.

Answer: 4. Natural selection.

Question 79. Robert Hooke observed the presence of cellulae in 1665. However actual living cells were observed by :

1. Theodor schwann (1839)
2. Louis Pasteur (1862)
3. A.v. Leeuwenhoek (16701)
4. M. Schleiden (1838)

Answer: 3. A.v. Leeuwenhoek (16701)

Question 80. Biology cannot be studied in isolation. The knowledge of the electromagnetic theory of physics has been instrumental in devising the:

1. Compound microscope
2. Electron microscope
3. Uv microscope
4. Dark field microscope.

Answer: 2. Electron microscope

Question 81. Which of the following provided the earliest record of scientific approach in biology?

1. Robert Hooke (1635-1703)
2. A.v. Leeuwenhoek (1632-1723)
3. Carl linnaeus (1707-1778)
4. Adreas vesalius (1514-1564)

Answer: 4. Adreas vesalius (1514-1564)

Question 82. Which of the following discovered linkage and introduced the term genetics?

1. Walter Sutton
2. Hugo de Vries
3. G. Mendel
4. William Bateson.

Answer: 4. William Bateson.

Question 83. Who won the nobel prize for ’ Green Revolution’?

1. Stanley cohen
2. H.g. Khorana
3. Ian wilmut
4. Norman ernst borlaug.

Answer: 4. Norman ernst borlaug.

Question 84. Who first used and defined the term “molecular biology”?

1. W.t. Astbury
2. Alexander Flemming
3. Oswald Theodore Avery
4. Herber boyer.

Answer: 1. W.t. Astbury

Question 85. Which of the following is used as a bioweapon?

1. HIV
2. Spores of bacillus anthracis
3. Virus
4. Spores of mycobacterium tetani.

Answer: 2. Spores of bacillus anthracis

Question 86. Bioinformatics deals with :

1. Systematic development, application and validation of computational hardware
2. Systematic development and application of computing system-database searching to make novel observations about biological processes
3. Information about the assessment of the environment
4. Production of improved varieties.

Answer: 2. Systematic development and application of computing system-database searching to make novel observations about biological processes

Question 87. Medicine deals with :

1. Treating diseases with drugs or curative substances
2. Compounding, preserving and identifying drugs
3. Knowledge of action of medicines
4. Treating disability by external physical means.

Answer: 1. Treating diseases with drugs or curative substances

NEET Biology Plant Water Relation Water Relations Of A Cell Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 1. The bullion cells of monocotyledon leaves show

1. Tropic movement
2. Autonomic movement
3. Nastic movement
4. Turgor movement.

Answer: 4. Turgor movement.

Question 2. Water will be absorbed by the root hairs when :

1. Plants are rapidly respiring
2. The concentration of salts in the soil is high
3. The concentration of solutes in the cell sap is high
4. They are separated from the soil by a permeable membrane.

Answer: 3. Concentration of solutes in the cell sap is high

Question 3. In which of the following plants would metabolism be hindered if the leaves are coated with wax on their upper surface?

1. Vallisneria
2. Pistici
3. Lotus
4. Hydrilla.

Answer: 3. Lotus

Question 4. Stomata open at night and close during the daytime in

1. Succulents
2. Mesophytes
3. Hydrophytes
4. Herbs.

Answer: 1. Succulents

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

NEET Questions Botany Transport in Plants Question 5. During the rainy season, doors made up of wood generally swell up due to :

1. Osmosis
2. Had workmanship
3. Imbibition
4. Bad quality of wood.

Answer: 3. Imbibition

Question 6. Dumb-bell shaped guard cells are characteristics of:

1. Herbs
2. Dicot leaf
3. Isobilateral leaf
4. Scale leaf.

Answer: 3. Isobilateral leaf

Question 7. The closing and opening of stomata is due to an influx of:

1. K+ ions
2. Na ions
3. Fe ions
4. Mg ions.

Answer: 1. K+ ions

Question 8. Pure water has a water potential which is :

1. zero
2. Negative
3. High
4. Very low.

Answer: 1. zero

Question 9. The amount of water absorbed to compensate for the loss of transpiration is measured by :

1. Potometer
2. Crescograph
3. Manometers
4. Auxanometers.

Answer: 1. Potometer

Question 10. The inward pressure exerted on the cell contents by the stretched cell wall is termed :

1. Osmosis
2. Wall pressure
3. Turgor pressure
4. Osmotic pressure.

Answer: 2.  Wall pressure

NEET Questions Botany Transport in Plants  Question 11. The form and structure of a growing cell is maintained due to :

1. Atmospheric pressure
2. Plasmolysis
3. Turgidity
4. Wall pressure.

Answer: 3. Turgidity

Question 12. The water potential and osmotic potential of pure water are :

1. 100 and zero
2. Zero and Zero
3. 100 and 100
4. Zero and 100.

Answer: 2. Zero and Zero

Question 13. The membrane that allows certain molecules to enter into the cell and prevents others is known as:

1. Impermeable membrane
2. Permeable membrane
3. Selectively permeable membrane
4. Unit membrane.

Answer: 3. Selectively permeable membrane

Question 14.” The vacuolar membrane is known as :

1. Cell membrane
2. Plasmalemma
3. Chromoplast
4. Tonoplast.

Answer: 4. Tonoplast.

Question 15. Due to osmosis, water enters into a cell and results in hydrostatic pressure. This is known as :

1. Osmotic pressure
2. Wall pressure
3. Turgor pressure
4. Low pressure.

Answer: 3. Turgor pressure

Question 16. The plasmalemma, cytoplasmic film, and the vacuolated membrane in an osmotic system of a vacuolated cell constitute the :

1. Permeable membrane
2. Impermeable
3. Electively permeable membrane
4. Unit membrane.

Answer: 3. Electively permeable membrane

Question 17. Exosmosis takes place when a plant cell is put in :

1. Hypertonic solution
2. A hypotonic solution
3. An isotonic solution
4. Non-ionic solution.

Answer:1. Hypertonic solution

NEET Questions Botany Transport in Plants  Question 18. Endosmosis occurs when a plant cell is put in :

1. A hypertonic solution
2. Hypotonic solution
3. An isotonic solution
4. Non-ionic solution.

Answer:2. Hypotonic solution

Question 19. If there is no net movement of water into a cell from the outside medium, the medium is :

1. Isotonic to the cell sap
2. Hypertonic
3. Hypotonic
4. Non-ionic.

Answer: 1. Isotonic to the cell sap

Question 20. During absorption of water by roots, the water potential of cell sap is lower than that of:

1. Pure water and soil solution
2. Neither pure water nor soil solution
3. Soil solution but higher than that of pure water
4. Pure wafer but higher than that of soil solution.

Answer: 1. Pure water and soil solution

Question 21. When a cell is fully turgid, it:

1. O.P. = D.P.D.
2. OP = Zero
3. DCP.D = zero
4. D.P.D. = O.P.

Answer: 3. DCP.D = zero

Question 22. A cell increases in volume when placed in a solution which is:

1. Isotonic
2. Hypotonic
3. Hypertonic
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Hypotonic

Question 23. DPD stands for:

1. Diffusion pressure deficit
2. Diffusion pressure demand
3. Daily photosynthetic depression
4. Daily phosphorus demand.

Answer:1. Diffusion pressure deficit

NEET Questions Botany Transport in Plants  Question 24. The force responsible for water entry into the cell is :

1. Diffusion
2. DPI
3. Osmotic pressure
4. Wall pressure.

Answer: 2. DPI

Question 25. Minerals are absorbed by the plants from the soil ;

1. By a process independent of water absorption
2. Independently of water
3. Only when soil solution is hypertonic to cell sap
4. Only when soil solution is hypotonic to cell sap.

Answer: 1.  By a process independent of water absorption

Question 26. The osmosis means :

1. Movement of molecules from an area of higher concentration into an area of lower concentration
2. Uptake of water by plant roots
3. Passage of solvent from a weak solution to a strong solution when the two are separated by a semi-permeable membrane
4. Passage of solute from a weak solution to a strong solution when the two are separated by a semi-permeable membrane.

Answer: 3. Passage of solvent from a weak solution to a strong solution when the two are separated by a semi-permeable membrane

Question 27. Starch is changed to organic acids during :

1. Stomatal initiation.
2. Stomatal closure
3. Stomatal opening
4. Stomatal growth.

Answer: 3. Stomatal opening

Question 28. Selective permeability is the main property of:

1. Osmosis
2. Diffusion
3. Active transport
4. Imbibition.

Answer: 3. Active transport

Question 29. When placed in water seeds swell, due to :

1. Hydrolysis
2. Osmosis
3. Imbibition
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Imbibition

Plant Water Relations MCQ  Question 30. Most of the physiological reactions in plants occur at a pH of:

1. 4.0
2. 8.0
3. 7.0
4. 14.0.

Answer: 3. 7.0

Question 31. The movement of water from one cell of the cortex to the adjacent one in the roots is due to :

1. Accumulation of inorganic salts in the cells
2. Water potential gradient
3. Accumulation of organic salts in the cells
4. Chemical potential gradient.

Answer:  2. Water potential gradient

Question 32. Which of the following factors is most important in the regulation of transpiration?

1. Temperature
2. Humidity
3. Light
4. Wind.

Answer:2. Humidity

Question 33. If the volume of a cell decreases after being placed in a solution, the solution is :

1. Isotonic
2. Hypertonic
3. Hypotonic
4. Normal.

Answer: 2. Hypertonic

Question 34. If cell A with, DPD, 4 bars are connected to cells B, C, and D whose OP and TP are respectively 4 and 4, 10 and 5, and 7 and j bar, the flow of water willies- 

1. C to A, B, and D ‘
2. A and D to B and C
3. A to B, C, and D ‘
4. B to A, C, and D.

Answer: 3.  A to B, C and D ‘

Question 35. The energy source that drives the upward flow of water is:

1. Temperature
2. Sucrose
3. Solar energy
4. ATP.

Answer: 4. ATP.

Plant Water Relations MCQ  Question 36. To initiate cell plasmolysis, the salt solution should be

1. Isotonic
2. Hypertonic
3. Hypotonic
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Hypertonic

Question 37. Plant cells submerged in distilled water will become :

1. Turgid
2. Flaccid
3. Plasmolyzed
4. Impermeable.

Answer:1. Turgid

Question 38. Which of the following plant cells has more negative water potential?

1. Cell with high osmotic pressure
2. Cell with high turgor pressure
3. Cell with high wall pressure
4. Cell with low osmotic pressure.

Answer:1. Cell with high osmotic pressure

Question 39. Protoplasm is :

1. True solution
2. Colloidal solution
3. Suspension
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Colloidal solution

Question 40. Plasma membrane helps :

1. In protein synthesis
2. Regulates the passage of water only.
3. Regulates the passage of water and dissolved Substances into and out of cells
4. Protects the cell.

Answer: 3. Regulates the passage of water and dissolved Substances into and out of cells

Question 41. The cell wall is permeable and can be observed from the passage of water and minerals from’?”

1. Root hair into cortical cells
2. Cortical cells into endodermis
3. Soil into root hairs
4. Cortical cells into pericycle.

Answer: 3. Soil into root hairs

Plant Water Relations MCQ  Question 42. Deplasmolysis into the cell occurs which is placed in:

1. Isotonic solution
2. hypotonic solution
3. Hypertonic solution
4. None of these.

Answer:2. hypotonic solution

Question 43.  Purple cabbage leaves do not lose their color in cold water but do so in boiling water because :

1. The plasma membrane becomes permeable in boiling water and pigments come out
2. Hot water can enter the cells readily
3. The pigment is not soluble in cold water
4. The cell wall is killed by boiling water.

Answer: 1. The plasma membrane becomes permeable in boiling water and pigments come out

Question 44. Osmosis is defined as the process by which :

1. Water diffuses from lower concentration to higher concentration
2. Solutes diffuse from lower concentration to higher concentration
3. Active transport of ions takes place
4. Passive transport of ions takes place.

Answer:1. Water diffuses from lower concentration to higher concentration

Question 45. Water potential in the leaf tissue is positive (+ve) during :

1. Excessive transpiration
2. Low absorption
3. Low transpiration
4. Guttation.

Answer: 3. Low transpiration

Question 46. With the increase in turgidity of a cell surrounded by water the wall pressure will:

1. Increase
2. Decrease
3. Fluctuate
4. Remain unchanged.

Answer: 1. Increase

Question 47. The ultimate cause of water movement against gravity is :

1. Osmosis
2. Imbibition
3. Transpiration pull
4. Respiration.

Answer: 3. Transpiration pull

Plant Water Relations MCQ  Question 48. When a plant wilts, what will be a sequence of events :

1. Exosmosis, deplasmolysis, plasmolysis, temporary and permanent wilting
2. Exosmosis, plasmolysis, temporary and permanent wilting
3. Exosmosis, plasmolysis, deplasmolysis, temporary and permanent wilting
4. Endosmosis, plasmolysis, temporary and permanent wilting.

Answer: 2.  Exosmosis, plasmolysis, temporary and permanent wilting

Question 49. The process of osmosis stops when:

1. The solution is not isotonic
2. Water concentration becomes equal
3. There is no light
4. The leaves fall.

Answer: 2. Water concentration becomes equal

Question 50. The rate of absorption of water is slow at temperatures near the freezing point:

1. It is mainly a metabolic process
2. Cell membrane becomes more viscous
3. The growth of cells stop
4. Transpiration is retarded.

Answer: 4. Transpiration is retarded.

MCQ on Plant Water Relation Biology Question 51. The outward pressure exerted on the cell wall by the fluid contents of the cell wall is called:

1. Turgor pressure
2. Wall pressure
3. Osmosis
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Turgor pressure

Question 52. Dixon and Jolly’s are associated with :

1. Aerobic respiration
2. Calvin cycle allision
3. Cohesion theory of ascent of sap
4. Light reaction.

Answer: 3. Cohesion theory of ascent of sap

Question 53. Which plants do not generate root pressure?

1. Monocot grasses
2. Perennial shrubs
3. Conifer trees
4. Seasonal herbs.

Answer: 3. Conifer trees

Question 54. Transpiration cohesion tension theory operates in :

1. Active absorption
2. Passive absorption
3. Both active and passive absorption
4. None of the above.

Answer:2. Passive absorption

Question 55. Which plant is used for demonstrating plasmolysis in the laboratory?

1. Tropeolum
2. Patience balsamic
3. Tradescantia
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 56. Transpiration takes place from :

1. Leaves
2. Stem
3. All aerial parts of the plant
4. All parts of the plant body.

Answer: 3. All aerial parts of the plant

Question 57. Much of transpiration takes place through :

1. Epidermis
2. Lenticels
3. Stomata
4. Cuticle.

Answer: 3. Stomata

Question 58. Transpiration from plants will be more rapid when :

1. The atmosphere is saturated with water
2. There is excess water in the soil
3. Environmental conditions are dry
4. Air is still.

Answer: 3. Environmental conditions are dry

MCQ on Plant Water Relation Biology  Question 59. Guttation takes place through :

1. Stomata
2. Hydathodes
3. Lenticels
4. Cuticle.

Answer: 2. Hydathodes

Question 60. If cohesion-tension transpiration theory is correct then a break in the water column in xylem vessels :

1. This should cause the mesophyll cells to become flaccid and result in the wilting of leaves.
2. Should increase the water contents of leaves
3. Should have no effect at all
4. Should increase the rate of photosynthesis.

Answer: 1. This should cause the mesophyll cells to become flaccid and result in the wilting of leaves.

Question 61. According to Scarth, opening and closing of stomata is controlled by :

1. Enzymes
2. pH value
3. NADP
4. Hormones.

Answer:2. pH value

Question 62. Stomata are bounded by guard cells and open when the cells are :

1. Turgid
2. Flaccid
3. Green
4. Small.

Answer: 1. Turgid

Question 63. Stomata open during the time because the guard cells :

1. Photosynthesize and produce osmotically active sugars
2. Are thick-walled
3. Are bean-shaped
4. Have to help in gaseous exchange.

Answer: 1. Photosynthesize and produce osmotically active sugars

MCQ on Plant Water Relation Biology  Question 64. Which one is not related to transpiration?

1. Bleeding
2. Circulation of water
3. Absorption and distribution of mineral salts
4. Regulation of plant body temperature.

Answer:1. Bleeding

Question 65. A small mesophytic twig with green leaves is dipped into water in a big beaker under sunlight. It demonstrates :

1. Photosynthesis
2. Respiration
3. Transpiration
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Transpiration

Question 66. The phytohormone which is supposed to be one of the factor responsible for regulating the opening and closing of stomata:

1. ABA
2. GA
3. IBA
4. Kinetin.

Answer: 1. ABA

Question 67. Which of the following changes in the cell sap of the guard cell is responsible for keeping stomata open during the daytime?

1. Decrease in both osmotic and turgor pressure
2. Increase in both osmotic pressure and turgor pressure
3. Increase in osmotic pressure but decrease in turgor pressure
4. Decrease in osmotic pressure but increase in turgor pressure.

Answer: 2. Increase in both osmotic pressure and turgor pressure

Question 68. Guard cells differ from epidermal cells in having :

1. Mitochondrion
2. Chloroplast
3. Vacuole
4. Cell wall.

Answer: 2. Chloroplast

Question 69. If the C02 concentration of the atmosphere were to increase :

1. Stomata will close partially
2. Respiration will decrease
3. Stomata will open
4. Photorespiration will increase.

Answer: 1. Stomata will close partially

Biology Plant Water Relations Question 70. Which one of the following factors is most important in the regulation of transpiration?

1. Light
2. Humidity
3. Temperature
4. Wind.

Answer: 1. Light

Question 71. Which of the following is the most likely cause for the wider opening of stomata?

1. The atmosphere outside the stoma is becoming less humid
2. Secretions of salt molecules by the adjacent guard cells take place
3. Water molecules enter the guard cells
4. The night temperature is going to fall.

Answer: 3. Water molecules enter the guard cells

Question 72. Cohesion tension theory of water transport is based on :

1. Root pressure
2. Activity of parenchyma to the proximity of conducting vessels and tracheids.
3. Activity of phloem
4. Transpiration pull.

Answer: 4. Transpiration pull

Question 73. The value of water potential (yw) can be obtained by :

1. π+WP
2. ψ_s+ψ_p
3. ψ + WP
4. ψ + TP.

Answer: 2. ψ_s+ψ_p

Question 74. The bulliform cells of leaves lose their turgidity during excessive :

1. Assimilation
2. Transpiration
3. Photosynthesis
4. Respiration.

Answer: 2.  transpiration

Question 75. A freshly cut potato chip is put into a strong solution of sugar. Later it is found to be :

1. Flaccid
2. Longer
3. Turgid
4. More full of starch.

Answer:1. Flaccid

Biology Plant Water Relations Question 76. Which of the following processes in excess causes temporary wilting?

1. Respiration
2. Transpiration
3. Photosynthesis
4. Imbibition.

Answer: 2. Transpiration

Question 77. Osmotic pressure is responsible l\>v tho turgidity of plant colls which;

1. Causes cell elongation
2. Causes opening to stomata
3. Prevents willing to leave
4. All the three above,

Answer: 4. All the three above,

Question 78. Hydathodes are present:

1. On the upper sin face of the leaf
2. On the lower surface of the leaf
3. At the tip of the vein of the leaf
4. At the base of the veins of the leaf.

Answer: 3. At the tip of the vein of the leaf

Question 79. The cohesion theory of the ascent of sap was given by ;

1. Sachs
2. Dixon and Jolly
3. Bose
4. Robert Brown,

Answer: 2. Dixon and Jolly

Question 80. Spraying of phenyl mercuric

1. Increases transpiration
2. Reduces transpiration
3. Increases rate of photosynthesis
4. Causes guttation.

Answer: 2. Reduces transpiration

Question 81. Silicone emulsions when used:

1. Increase transpiration
2. Reduce transpiration
3. Increase rate of photosynthesis
4. Cause guttation.

Answer: 2. Reduce transpiration

Biology Plant Water Relations Question 82. With the increase in turbidity of a cell surrounded by water. the wall pressure will?

1. Increase
2. Decrease
3. Fluctuate
4. Remain unchanged.

Answer: 1. Increase

Question 83. Transpiration is:

1. Not necessary for plants
2. Necessary for plants
3. Avoidable
4. A necessary evil.

Answer: 4. A necessary evil.

Question 84. A plasmolyse cell can be plasmolyse by placing it in :

1. Pure water or hypotonic solution
2. Hypertonic solution
3. Isotonic solution
4. Saturated solution.

Answer: 1. Pure water or hypotonic solution

Question 85. Leaves of xerophytes have thick cuticle, hairs, fewer and sunken stomata in order to :

1. Facilitate transpiration
2. Slop transpiration
3. To minimize excessive transpiration
4. Store water.

Answer: 3.  To minimize excessive transpiration

Question 86. The rate of transpiration is regulated by the movement of:

1. Epidermal cells of the leaves
2. Guard cells of the stomata
3. Mesophyll tissue of the leaves
4. Cuticle.

Answer: 2. Guard cells of the stomata

Question 87. The low atmospheric pressure :

1. Increases the rate of transpiration
2. Decreases the rate of transpiration slowly.
3. Doesn’t affect the rate of transpiration rapidly
4. Decreases the rate, of transpiration rapidly.

Answer: 1. Increases the rate of transpiration

Question 88. If alcohol treated cell is kept in a hypertonic solution it:

1. Bursts
2. Plastnolysed
3. Remains same
4. None.

Answer: 3.  Remains same

Biology Plant Water Relations Question 89. The distribution of stomata per unit area of leaf and their size affects the rate of:

1. Respiration
2. Transpiration
3. Guttation
4. Absorption.

Answer:2. Transpiration

Question 90. In a dorsiventral leaf, the number of stomata is:

1. Same on both sides
2. Large on the upper epidermis
3. Huge on the lower epidermis
4. Lesser on lower than upper epidermis.

Answer: 3. Huge on the lower epidermis

Question 91. The restoration of turgidity in a plasmolyse cell, when placed in a hypotonic solution is caused by :

1. Hydration
2. Electrolysis
3. Plasmolysis
4. Deplasmolysis

Answer: 4. Deplasmolysis

Question 92. Water In plants is transported by (Ascent of sap takes placed through)?

1. Cambium
2. Epidermis
3. Xylem or Xylem vessel elements
4. Phloem

Answer: 3. Xylem or Xylem vessel elements

Question 93. The principal pathway by which water is translocated in angiosperms is:

1. xylem and phloem together
2. sieve tube members of phloem only
3. sieve cells of the phloem
4. xylem vessels system,

Answer: 4. xylem vessels system

NEET Questions Botany Transport in Plants Question 94. For conducting a girdling experiment:

1. The cortex is removed
2. The cortex anil primary phloem arc removed
3. All tissue up to the xylem is removed
4. Bark alone is removed.

Answer: 3. All tissue up to the xylem is removed

Question 95. Active absorption of ions is facilitated by :

1. Oxygen
2. ATP
3. More effective plasma membrane
4. Slightly higher temperature.

Answer: 2. ATP

Question 96. Levitt’s explanation for stomatal action is due to the:

1. Increase in sugar content of guard cells
2. Variations in pH value
3. Starch is converted into organic acids
4. Light causes opening and darkness closure.

Answer: 3. Starch is converted into organic acids

Question 97. Stomatal aperture is measured by ;

1. Micrometer
2. Potometer
3. Photometer
4. Luxometer.

Answer: 1. Micrometer

Question 98. The loss of water through the cuticle may reach up to:

1. 5%
2. 10%
3. 20%
4. 40%.

Answer: 2. 10%

Question 99. Which of the following walls is of the guard cell is thick:

1. Outer
2. Inner
3. Sidewall
4. All the walls,

Answer: 2. Inner

Question 100. The chief role of transpiration in plants is to cause :

1. The rapid rise of minerals
2. The rapid ascent of sap
3. Cooling of plants
4. Loss of surplus waiter.

Answer: 2. The rapid ascent of sap

Question 101. The stomata are widely open in :

1. Red light
2. Blue and red light
3. Greenlight
4. Yellow light.

Answer: 2. Blue and red light

Question 102. At Full turgor in a cell:

1. ψ=0 and hence ψ_s= ψ_w
2. ψ_a= 0
3.  ψp = ψw
4.  ψp = – ψs and ψw =0

Answer: 4.  ψp = – ψs and ψw =0

NEET Questions Botany Transport in Plants Question 103. Positive root pressure can be demonstrated :

1. At noon
2. The early morning
3. In the evening
4. Only during the night.

Answer: 4. Only during the night.

Question 104. The plant is said to be wilted permanently when it:

1. Fails to revive at all
2. Revives if the soil is watered
3. Revives if kept in a saturated atmosphere
4. Revives when it is fanned.

Answer: 1. Fails to revive at all

Question 105. The movement of water up through a tree trunk depends on:

1. The high boiling point of water
2. Exclusion of air molecules from the sap solution
3. The vapor pressure of water
4. Attraction between water molecules.

Answer: 4. Attraction between water molecules.

Question 106. The girdling experiments performed by Malpighii supported the theory that:

1. Water moves in a tree by the root pressure mechanism
2. Water moves in a tree by a transpiration-cohesion mechanism /V.
3. The xylem is primarily responsible for conducting water from the roots to the leaves
4. Phloem is primarily responsible for conducting organic solutes.

Answer: 3. The xylem is primarily responsible for conducting water from the roots to the leaves

Question 107. The osmotic potential of a solution is denoted by the symbol :

ψx

Δψ

ψp

ψs.

Answer: 4. ψs.

Question 108. Osmosis is defined as :

1. The flow of solvent molecules from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration through a semipermeable membrane
2. The flow of low-concentration liquid
3. The flow of solvent molecules from a higher concentration to a lower concentration region
4. The flow of solvent molecules from a lower concentration to a higher concentration region.

Answer: 1. The flow of solvent molecules from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration through a semipermeable membrane

Question 109. A root concentrates minerals by :

1. Active transport
2. Facilitated diffusion
3. Osmosis
4. Diffusion.

Answer: 1. Active transport

Question 110. A cell placed in a hypertonic solution will:

1. Initially gets plasmolysed but later becomes turgid if actively metabolising
2. Get plasmolysed and die
3. Remain turgid if treated with auxin
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 111. When a bottle of perfume is placed in one corner of a room and the lid is opened, the scent spreads all over the room after some time. This happens by the process of :

1. Plasmolysis
2. Diffusion
3. Endosmosis
4. Transpiration.

Answer: 2. Diffusion

Question 112. The path of water and solutes from the soil to the conducting tissue of the root is :

1. Soil → root hair→ cortex→ endodermis →pericycle  protoxylem →phloem
2. Soil → root hair →  cortex →A pericycle → endodermis →protoxylem → metaxylem
3. Soil  epidermal cell of the root  cortex → endodermis → pericycle → protoxylem → metaxylem → secondary xylem
4. Soil → root hair → cortex → endodermis → pericycle → protoxylem → metaxylem.

Answer: 4. Soil → root hair → cortex → endodermis → pericycle → protoxylem → metaxylem.

Question 113. Capillarity is regarded as relatively unimportant as a possible cause of sap rise because :

1. Vessels do not show capillarity
2. Capillarity would cause sap to rise only a few inches or a few feet
3. The tracheids and vessels are very narrow
4. Absorption between xylem walls and water molecules is very low.

Answer: 2. Capillarity would cause sap to rise only a few inches or a few feet

Question 114. What will be the nature of the sugar solution, if the cell of an epidermal peal of Rhoeo discolor shows plasmolysis :

1. Hydrophobic
2. Hypertonic
3. Isotonic
4. Hypotonic.

Answer: 2. Hypertonic

Question 115. Xylem channels of the rootlets maintain a low water potential due to :

1. Maintenance of high salt content
2. Presence of negative pressure of water tension
3. Both A and B
4. Occurrence of positive pressure.

Answer: 3. Both A and B

Question 116. Water and minerals move towards the vascular cylinder of a root, they must enter the cytoplasm of :

1. Xylem cells
2. Cortex cells
3. Endodermal cells
4. Pericycle cells.

Answer: 3. Endodermal cells

Question 117. Most vascular plants increase the absorption of minerals by:

1. Mycorrhizae
2. Convertible phloem
3. Casparian channels along the phloem
4. Companion cells.

Answer: 1. Mycorrhizae

Question 118. Endosmosis of water occurs when in comparison with the outer solution, the water potential of cell sap is :

1. Higher
2. Lower
3. Equal
4. None of the above.

Answer:2. Lower

Question 119. If the cell (X) with DPD = 5 atm. is surrounded by many cells with DPD = 4 atm :

1. The net movement of water will be from cell X to the surrounding cells
2. The net movement of water will be from the surrounding cells to cell X
3. Water will not move at all
4. Water movement will depend on other unknown factors.

Answer: 2. Net movement of water will be from the surrounding cells to cell X

Question 120. Uptake of mineral ions into the xylem is controlled by:

1. Epidermal cells
2. Cortex cells
3. Endodermal cells
4. Xylem cells.

Answer: 3. Endodermal cells

Question 121. The opening and closing of stomata in leaves of mesophytic plants is reduced by :

1. Changes in C02, K ions, and ABA concentration, with simultaneous changes in the turgidity/ flaccidity of guard cells.
2. Changes in the starch sugar concentration in the guard cells
3. Changes in the H+ concentration in the guard cells
4. Differential thickening of walls of the guard cells.

Answer: 1. Changes in C02, K ions, and ABA concentration, with simultaneous changes in the turgidity/ flaccidity of guard cells.

Question 122. Tick the correct statement:

1. The amount of water absorbed by closely packed and loosely packed imbibing will depend upon the temperature of the medium
2. Both will imbibe the same amount of water
3. The closely packed imbibing will imbibe less water than the loosely packed one
4. The closely packed imbibing will imbibe more water than the loosely packed one.

Answer: 3. The closely packed imbibing will imbibe less water than the loosely packed one

Question 123. Mark the correct statement:

1. The value of TP remains the same at the time of limiting, incipient, and evident plasmolysis
2. The value of T.P. becomes zero at the time of limiting plasmolysis and below zero during incipient and evident plasmolysis
3. The value of T.P. becomes below zero at the time of limiting plasmolysis and zero at the time of incipient and evident plasmolysis
4. The value of T.P. becomes negative in all the stages of plasmolysis. “

Answer: 2. The value of T.P. becomes zero at the time of limiting plasmolysis and below zero during incipient and evident plasmolysis