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NEET Biology Homeostasis and Osmoregulation Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Excretion refers to :

1. Removal of metabolic wastes and toxic products from the body
2. Removal of non-nitrogenous wastes from the body
3. Removal of synthetic products
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Removal of metabolic wastes and toxic products from the body

Question 2. Kidney of amniotes belongs to the following type :

1. Pronephros
2. Mesonephros
3. Metanephros
4. None of these.

Answer: 3. metanephros

Question 3. About how many nephrons are present in each kidney of a human?

1. 1000,000
2. 2000
3. 1000
4. 16.

Answer: 1. 1000,000

Question 4. Vertebrate kidney and contractile vacuole of protozoan resemble each other in :

1. Excretion of minerals
2. Excretion of nitrogenous wastes
3. Excretion of excess water content and wastes
4. Excretion of glucose.

Answer: 3. Excretion of excess water content and wastes

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 5. The cavity of the kidney which leads into the ureter is called :

1. Renal pelvis
2. Renal tubule
3. Bowman’s capsule
4. Neck.

Answer: 1. Renal pelvis

Homeostasis MCQs For NEET

Question 6. The glomerulus is responsible for :

1. Secretion
2. Reabsorption
3. Filtration
4. Osmoregulation.

Answer: 3. filtration

Question 7. A fish excretes nitrogen in the form of:

1. Amino acids
2. Ammonium ions
3. Uric acid
4. All of the above.

Answer: 2. Ammonium ions

Question 8. Capillaries of glomeruli are :

1. Entirely venous
2. Entirely arterial
3. Venous and arterial
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. entirely arterial

Question 9. The kind of epithelial cells that form a lining of the neck of the tubule are:

1. Pyramidal
2. Columnar
3. Ciliated cuboidal
4. Ciliated columnar.

Answer: 3. Ciliated cuboidal

Homeostasis MCQs For NEET

Question 10. What kind of epithelial cells form the lining of the body of renal tubules?

1. Pyramidal
2. Columnar
3. Cuboidal
4. Ciliated columnar.

Answer: 3. Cuboidal

Question 11. The separation of amino acid into the amino group and the carboxylic group is called :

1. Deamination
2. Defecation
3. Excretion
4. Transamination.

Answer: 1. Deamination

Question 12. Uriniferous tubules are concerned with the formation of:

1. Amino acids
2. Glucose
3. Urine
4. Co-enzyme

Answer: 3. urine

Question 13. Uriniferous tubules are found :

1. Only in man
2. In all mammals
3. In all vertebrates
4. In all chordates and some lower animals.

Answer: 3. In all vertebrates

Question 14. The maximum amount of urea is present in :

1. Renal artery
2. Renal vein
3. Hepatic artery
4. Hepatic vein.

Answer: 4. Hepatic vein

Question 15. A condition which fails the kidney is known as:

1. Uraemia
2. Anuria
3. Diarrhoea
4. Haematuria.

Answer: 2. Anuria

Question 16. The function of the kidney is to :

1. Form urine
2. Maintain a constant fluid environment in which cells are bathed
3. Remove toxic substances from the body and expel extra fluid
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 17. Materials from tubule enter cells against a gradient because of:

1. Active transport
2. Passive transport
3. Turgor pressure
4. Imbibition.

Answer: 1. Active transport

Homeostasis MCQs For NEET

Question 18. The yellow colour of urine is due to :

1. Bile pigment
2. Picric acid
3. Vitamin B
4. Urochrome.

Answer: 4. Urochrome

Question 19. Urine is formed by the process of:

1. Ultrafiltration, plasmolysis and absorption
2. Ultrafiltration, secretion and absorption
3. Ultrafiltration, reabsorption and secretion
4. Ultrafiltration, secretion and osmosis.

Answer: 3. Ultrafiltration, reabsorption and secretion

Question 20. In the glomerular filtrate, all the constituents of blood except proteins and cells are present. The process involved is :

1. Phagocytosis
2. Ultrafiltration
3. Reabsorption
4. Secretion.

Answer: 2. Ultrafiltration

Question 21. The osmoregulatory tissue in all animals is :

1. Connective.
2. Muscular
3. Nervous
4. Epithelial.

Answer: 4. Epithelial

Question 22. The vitamin that is excreted by urine in higher vertebrates is :

1. vitamin A
2. vitamin E
3. vitamin C
4. vitamin K.

Answer: 3. vitamin C

Question 23. The pressure exerted by the glomerular afferent arteriole is:

1. +95 mm Hg
2. +70 mm Hg
3. +75 mm Hg
4. +80 mm Hg.

Answer: 3. +75 mm Hg

Homeostasis MCQs For NEET

Question 24. The difference between glomerular filtrate and blood plasma is:

1. First is concentrated and the second is dilute
2. The first is white and the second is yellow
3. Difference of potassium
4. Protein.

Answer: 4. Protein.

Question 25. The end products of fat and carbohydrate metabolism are excreted.

1. Kidney
2. Liver
3. Lungs
4. Skin.

Answer: 3. Lungs

Question 26. A person has taken a large amount of ‘meal which contains high muscle protein. His urine will eliminate more amount of :

1. Urea
2. Uric acid
3. Glucose
4. Glycogen.

Answer: 2. Uric acid

Question 27. Which one of the following increases glomerular pressure?

1. Renin
2. Aldosterone
3. Angiotensin
4. ADH.

Answer: 3. Angiotensin

Question 28. The urinary bladder of a frog performs the function of :

1. Ultra-filtration
2. Storage of urine
3. Secretion
4. Selective reabsorption.

Answer: 2. Storage of urine

Osmoregulation MCQs NEET

Question 29. When the kidney is no longer held in place securely the stage is called the :

1. Nephritis
2. Nephrosis
3. Ptosis
4. Diuresis.

Answer: 3. Ptosis

Question 30. In which of the following does the gut expel excretory waste along with faeces?

1. Human being
2. Dog
3. Sheep
4. Earthworm.

Answer: 4. Earthworm

Question 31. The glomerulus is a network of:

1. 5 parallel capillaries
2. 50 parallel capillaries
3. 500 parallel capillaries
4. 5000 parallel capillaries
5. more than 5000 parallel capillaries.

Answer: 2. 50 parallel capillaries

Question 32. What does glomerular filtrate consist of ?

1. Water and plasma proteins
2. Water and urea
3. Water, urea, glucose and inorganic salts
4. Water, urea, inorganic salts, lipids.

Answer: 3. Water, urea, glucose and inorganic salts

Question 33. In the kidney the high capillary bed is found :

1. In Bowman’s capsule
2. Around anterior tubules
3. Around a loop of Henle
4. Not found.

Answer: 1. In Bowman’s capsule

Question 34. In Bright disease (Nephritis) :

1. The amount of urea in the blood increases
2. Blood comes out along with urine
3. Kidney stones are developed
4. All of the above.

Answer: 2. blood comes out along with urine

Osmoregulation MCQs NEET

Question 35. The pack rat, a rodent, often goes for long periods without drinking, eats leaves of juicy plants and moves about in the open only in the evening and at night. From these habits, you can guess that it lives in :

1. Desert areas
2. The Arctic tundra
3. The woodlands of the eastern U.S.
4. The water.

Answer: 1. Desert areas

Question 36. The main nitrogenous waste substance excreted by the pack rat will probably be :

1. Ammonia
2. Urea
3. Uric acid
4. None of these.

Answer: 2. Urea

Question 37. An advantage of excreting nitrogenous wastes in the form of uric acid is that :

1. Uric acid can be excreted in almost solid form
2. The formation of uric acid requires a great deal of energy
3. Uric acid is the first metabolic breakdown product of acids
4. Uric acid may be excreted through the lungs.

Answer: 1. Uric acid can be excreted in almost solid form

Question 38. If excess water passes out from the tissues without being restored by the kidneys, the cells would :

1. Extract water from the plasma
2. Shrivel and die
3. Would not be affected
4. Burst open and die.

Answer: 2 . Shrivel and die

Question 39. The main excretory structure in houseflies is the.

1. Malpighian tubules
2. Flame cell
3. Nephron
4. Nephridium.

Answer: 1. Malpighian tubules

Osmoregulation MCQs NEET

Question 40. Salmon have gills that are more permeable to water than to salts. Salmon hatch in freshwater streams, and then migrate to the ocean. Once they reach the ocean you would expect the rate of uptake of water into their body through the gills to :

1. Increase
2. Decrease
3. Remain the same
4. First increases then decreases.

Answer: 2. Decrease

Question 41. Urine leaves the kidney via :

1. The renal vein
2. The urethra
3. The ureter
4. The collecting duct.

Answer: 3. The ureter

Question 42. The loop of Henle is most highly developed in :

1. Freshwater fishes
2. Mammals
3. Desert lizards
4. Salamanders.

Answer: 2. Mammals

Question 43. All the following tests are used to know the abnormality in the kidney:

1. Pyelography
2. Polarography
3. Cystoscope
4. X-ray photography.

Answer: 2. Polarography

Question 44. In birds, the nitrogenous wastes are conveyed to the exterior directly through the :

1. Urinary aperture
2. Urinogenital aperture
3. Cloacal aperture
4. Oral aperture.

Answer: 3. Cloacal aperture

NEET Important Questions On Homeostasis

Question 45. Urea is formed by the combination of ammonia with and in :

1. Oxygen, liver
2. Carbon dioxide, liver
3. Carbon monoxide, kidney
4. Calcium carbonate, liver.

Answer: 2. Carbon dioxide, liver

Question 46. Angiotensin stimulates the adrenal cortex to produce aldosterone which influences in the blood the level of:

1. Sodium
2. Potassium
3. Iron
4. Calcium.

Answer: 1. Sodium

Question 47. Reabsorption is controlled partly by ADH which is secreted by :

1. Kidney
2. Liver
3. Pituitary
4. Pancreas.

Answer: 3. Pituitary

Question 48. The amino acids are excreted as such from the body in any one of the following:

1. cockroach
2. series
3. Pila
4. echinoderms.

Answer: 4. echinoderms.

Question 49.  Deamination occurs during the :

1. catabolism of amino acid
2. anabolism of amino acid
3. formation of urea
4. Krebs’ cycle.

Answer: 1. catabolism of amino acid

NEET Important Questions On Homeostasis

Question 50. Ammonia is the end product of:

1. glucose breakdown
2. fatly acid metabolism
3. protein metabolism
4. breakdown of biogenic amines.

Answer: 3. protein metabolism

Question 51. Ornithine cycle is concerned with the production of:

1. urine
2. deamination
3. transamination
4. biosynthesis of urea.

Answer: 4. biosynthesis of urea

Question 52. Which one of the following substances is completely reabsorbed from the filtrate in the renal tubule under normal conditions?

1. Uric acid
2. Salts and water
3. Glucose
4. Urea.

Answer: 3. Urea.

Question 53. A terrestrial animal must be able to :

1. pump salts out actively through the skin
2. excrete large amounts of salts in its urine
3. excrete large amounts of water in its urine
4. conserve water.

Answer: 4. conserve water

Question 54. In a functional kidney which of the following processes does not occur?

1. Deamination
2. Reabsorption
3. Pressure filtration
4. Tubular reabsorption.

Answer: 1. Deamination

NEET Important Questions On Homeostasis

Question 55. Which one part of the uriniferous tubule is associated with the active transport of Na+?

1. Bowman’s capsule
2. Convoluted part
3. Collecting tubule
4. Neck.

Answer: 2. Convoluted part

Question 56. The elimination of the insoluble calcium phosphate takes place by :

1. kidney
2. liver
3. lungs
4. large intestine.

Answer: 4. large intestine

Question 57. The polypeptide which plays a key role in the renal pressure system is :

1. oxytocin
2. angiotensin
3. vasopressin
4. bradykinin.

Answer: 2. angiotensin

Question 58. The chief nitrogenous waste material in the urine of frogs is:

1. Ammonia
2. Uric acid
3. Allantoin
4. Urea.

Answer: 4. Urea.

Question 59. Physiologically urea is produced by the action of an enzyme :

1. uricase
2. urease
3. arginase
4. None of these.

Answer: 3. arginase

NEET Important Questions On Homeostasis

Question 60. Reabsorption of chloride ions (Cl-) from the glomerular filtrate in the kidney tubule of mammals is carried out by :

1. osmosis
2. diffusion
3. active transport
4. Brownian movement.

Answer: 2. diffusion

Question 61. The system which restores impaired renal circulation

1. Renal pressure system
2. Renal failure
3. uricotelic
4. ordinal.

Answer: 1. Renal pressure system

Question 62. The human kidney is differentiated into :

1. cortex and medulla
2. proximal and distal
3. outer and inner
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. cortex and medulla

Question 63. Malpighian body refers to :

1. Malpighian tubule present in the kidney
2. Bowman’s capsule
3. Bowman’s capsule and network of capillaries inside
4. Excretory organs of cockroach.

Answer: 3. Bowman’s capsule and network of capillaries inside

Question 64. The diameter of the afferent arteriole entering the Bowman’s capsule is:

1. less than that of efferent arteriole
2. more than that of efferent arteriole
3. same as that of efferent arteriole
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. more than that of efferent arteriole

Osmoregulation vs Thermoregulation MCQs

Question 65. Opening into the tubules of the kidney of the frog from the coelom are a number of ciliated funnel-like structures called :

1. Ostia
2. nephrostomy
3. coelomostome
4. renostome.

Answer: 2. nephrostomy

Question 66. The high threshold substances are :

1. glucose, sodium, protein
2. glucose, sodium and fats
3. urea, uric acid and protein
4. glucose, sodium and calcium.

Answer: 4. glucose, sodium and calcium

Question 67. The process by which marine animals make adjustments in high salt concentration is :

1. excretion
2. respiration
3. phosphorylation
4. amination.

Answer: 4. amination.

Question 68. Carbon dioxide is an excretory product because it is formed during :

1. anabolism
2. metabolism
3. deamination
4. amino acid metabolism.

Answer: 2. metabolism

Question 69. The disease diabetes mellitus is diagnosed by the occurrence in the urine of:

1. maltose
2. insulin
3. glucose
4. lactose.

Answer: 3. glucose

Question 70. Which of the following is not functionally analogous with others in its group?

1. Green gland
2. Laurer’s canal
3. Malpighian tubule
4. Nephridium.

Answer: 2. Laurer’s canal

Osmoregulation vs Thermoregulation MCQs

Question 71. In insects, the uric acid is temporarily stored in the :

1. Cloaca
2. Fat bodies
3. Liver
4. Anal cerci.

Answer: 2. Fat bodies

Question 72. The urinary bladder is not found in :

1. snakes
2. crocodiles
3. alligators
4. All of these.

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 73. The important function of perspiration is to :

1. lubricate the epithelial tissue
2. regulate water supply
3. regulate body temperature
4. All of the above.

Answer: 3. regulate body temperature

Question 74. Which of the following is not an excretory activity?

1. Removal of C0₂,
2. Elimination of digestive wastes
3. Removal of extra salts
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Elimination of digestive wastes

Question 75. Proximal and distal convoluted tubules are parts of a :

1. oviduct
2. caecum
3. vas deferens
4. nephron.

Answer: 4. nephron.

Question 76. A person feels a fullness sensation of urine if the volume of urine increases up to :

1. 1000 c.c.
2. 200 c.c.
3. 300 c.c.
4. 600 c.c.

Answer: 1. 1000 c.c.

Question 77. All the following are related to the disease of kidney except:

1. pyelitis
2. oedema
3. ptosis
4. Bright’s disease.

Answer: 2. oedema

Question 78. Which of the following is not directly connected with cell metabolism?

1. Excretion
2. Secretion
3. Defecation
4. Perspiration.

Answer: 3. Defecation

Osmoregulation vs Thermoregulation MCQs

Question 79. The urination becomes voluntary when the urine reaches the:

1. pelvis
2. urinary bladder
3. ureter
4. urethra.

Answer: 4. urethra.

Question 80. Green glands are organs of excretion. They are seen in :

1. scorpion
2. birds
3. crayfish
4. sharks.

Answer: 3. crayfish

MCQs on Osmoregulation For NEET Question 81. The cells of the proximal tubule develop several microvilli to form a brush border. The number of microvilli per square micron in a human being is :

1. 150
2. 500
3. 3000
4. 3500.

Answer: 1. 150

Question 82. The glomerular membrane has permeability of about:

1. 25 times as great as that of usual capillary
2. 20 times as great as that of usual capillary
3. 10 times as great as that of usual capillary
4. same as usual capillary.

Answer: 1. 25 times as great as that of usual capillary

Question 83. The water reabsorption that takes place under the ADH is called the :

1. obligatory reabsorption
2. facultative reabsorption
3. active reabsorption
4. All of these.

Answer: 2. facultative reabsorption

Question 84. In which group does the toxic substance, the benzoic acid combine with glycine to form a less toxic substance the hippuric acid?

1. Fishes
2. Reptiles
3. Birds
4. Mammals.

Answer: 4. Mammals.

Question 85. Bowman’s capsule functions as a :

1. filter
2. bellow
3. sponge
4. suction pump.

Answer: 1. filter

Question 86. Whenever the amount of urine decreases the stage is called :

1. anuria
2. polyuria
3. oliguria
4. floating kidney.

Answer: 3. oliguria

Osmoregulation vs Thermoregulation MCQs

Question 87. If a person is suffering from a disease called muscular dystrophy, he will eliminate in urine a great amount of:

1. sulphate
2. glucose
3. creatine
4. water.

Answer: 3.  creatine

Question 88. Ammonia in some aquatic animals is eliminated by :

1. diffusion
2. Ammonification
3. degradation
4. uricotelism.

Answer: 1. diffusion

Question 89. In reptiles, the uric acid is stored in :

1. cloaca
2. fat bodies
3. liver
4. anus.

Answer: 1. cloaca

Question 90. Animals that show hypertonic urine with provision for water reabsorption in the kidney are :

1. Mammals
2. Birds
3. Amphibians
4. None of these.

Answer: 1. mammals

Question 91. In aquatic organisms, the end product of nitrogen exchange is :

1. NO₂
2. Urea
3. Allantoin
4. Ammonia.

Answer: 4. Ammonia.

Question 92. In fever, too much sugar may increase. Its elimination in urine is in the form of:

1. Sodium chloride
2. Glucose
3. Uric acid
4. Phosphate.

Answer: 2. Plucose

Osmoregulation vs Thermoregulation MCQs

Question 93. Excretion of bile pigments in urine indicates :

1. Anaemia
2. Diabetes
3. Rickets
4. Jaundice.

Answer: 4. Jaundice.

Question 94. pH of human urine is :

1. 9
2. 6-7.2
3. 3
4. 2.

Answer: 2. 6-7.2

Question 95. Which of the following is not reabsorbed from the filtrate to the blood at the proximal tubule?

1. Water
2. Glucose
3. Plasma proteins
4. Na+.

Answer: 3. Na+.

Question 96. Which of the following is concerned with the formation of urea in rabbits?

1. Blood
2. Kidney
3. Liver
4. Spleen.

Answer: 2. Kidney

Question 97. The glomerular filtration rate in the case of a normal person is:

1. 180 mL/min.
2. +140 ml/min.
3. 145 ml/min.
4. 120 ml/min.

Answer: 4. +140 ml/min

Question 98. The average volume of fluid filtered from the plasma into Bowman’s capsule is about:

1. 90 lit/day
2. 170 lit/day
3. 190 lit/day
4. 200 litres/day.

Answer: 2. 170 lit/day

Question 99. The desire to urinate may be suppressed by voluntary control of the external urethral sphincter until the total content is :

1. 200 to 300 c.c.
2. 700 to 800 c.c.
3. 1 to 1.5 litres
4. 1 to 1.25 litres

Answer: 2. 700 to 800 c.c.

Question 100. Negative nitrogen balance means :

1. no nitrogen is utilized
2. nitrogen intake exceeds excretion
3. nitrogen intake is less than nitrogen excretion
4. nitrogen intake equals excretion.

Answer: 3. nitrogen intake is less than nitrogen excretion

NEET Biology Chapter-Wise MCQs

Question 101. The regulation of solute and water movement is termed :

1. Osmosis
2. Osmoregulation
3. Excretion
4. Ecocytosis.

Answer: 2. osmoregulation

Question 102. The total solute concentration is expressed as osmolarity or moles of solute per litre of solution. The unit of measurement of osmolarity is :

1. Mosm L^_1
2. Milliosomole A and B
3. Ψ
4. Both A and B.

Answer: 4. Both A and B

MCQs on Homeostasis Question 103. Osmoconformers are the animals which :

1. maintain internal osmolarity
2. do not maintain internal osmolarity
3. do not actively control the osmotic condition of body fluid
4. actively control the osmotic condition of body fluid.

Answer: 4. actively control the osmotic condition of body fluid.

Question 104. Osmoregulatory are the animals that :

1. Maintain internal osmolarity
2. Maintain internal osmolarity
3. Actively control the osmotic condition of their body fluids
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. maintain internal osmolarity

Question 105. Which of the following are osmoconformer animals?

1. All marine invertebrates
2. Hagfish
3. Shark and rats
4. All of these.

Answer: 4. All of these.

Question 106. The osmolarity of fresh water is generally less than 50 mosom L_1. What is the osmolarity of the blood of freshwater vertebrates?

1. 1 bosom L^_1
2. 2-50 mosom L^_1
3. 100 – 200 mosom L^_1
4. 200 – 300 mosom L^_1

Answer: 4. 200 – 300 mosom L^_1

Question 107. Name the cells present in the gill membrane of freshwater fishes which can import Na+ and Cl^_ from the surrounding water containing less than 1 M NaCl.

1. Ionocytes
2. Chloride cells
3. Both 1 and 3
4. Osmoregulator cells.

Answer: 3. Both 1 and 3

Question 108. The osmolarity of human blood is about 300 mosom L^_1. What is the osmolarity of seawater?

1. 200 – 300 mosom L^_1
2. 50 mosom L-1
3. 500 mosom L-1
4. 1000 mosom L-1.

Answer: 4. 1000 mosom L-1.

Question 109. Marine bony fish have the following body fluids :

1. hypertonic to seawater
2. hypotonic to seawater
3. isotonic to seawater
4. hypotonic to fresh water.

Answer: 1. hypertonic to seawater

NEET Biology Chapter-Wise MCQs

Question 110. Which of the following drinks excrete excess salts through the gill membrane?

1. Hilsa
2. Salmon
3. Fishes that migrate between fresh water and seawater
4. Both 1 and 2.

Answer: 4. Both 1 and 2.

MCQs on Homeostasis Question 111. The elasmobranch and coelacanths, osmolarity of fluids is raised by accumulating osmolytes in the body. The best examples of osmolytes are :

1. Urea
2. TMAO
3. Uric acid
4. Both 1 and 2.

Answer: 4. Both 1 and 2.

Question 112. When water is not available the camels do not produce urine but store urea in the tissues. Water is available, they rehydrate themselves by drinking how much water in 10 minutes?

1. 10 litre
2. 20 litre
3. 40 litre
4. 80 litre.

Answer: 4. 80 litre

Question 113. Which of the following is incorrect?

A. Micturition is carried out by a reflex

B. ADH helps in water elimination, making the urine hypotonic

C. Protein-free fluid is filtered from blood plasma into the Bowman’s capsule

D. Henle’s loop plays an important role in concentrating the urine

E. Glucose is actively reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule.

Choose The Correct Answer

1. A, B and C
2. A and C
3. B and D
4. B, D and E.

Answer: 3. B and D

Question 114. Match the items of Column 1 with those of Column 2. Match the items of Column 1 with these of Column IIMatch the items of Column 1 with these of Column 2

1. A – 4, B – 7, C – 2, D – 1,  E- 3,  F – 8, G – 2. H – 6
2. A – 4, B – 7, C – 2, D – 1, E – 8, F – 2, G – 6, H – 5
3. A -4,  B – 3, C – 2, D – 1, E – 5, F – 6, G – 7, H – 8
4. A – 4, B – 7, C – 1, D – 2, E – 3, F – 8, G – 6, H – 5.

Answer: 1. A – 4, B – 7, C – 2, D – 1,  E- 3,  F – 8, G – 2. H – 6

Homeostasis MCQ  Question 115. Which of the following is correct?

1. During micturition, the urinary bladder contracts and the urethral sphincters open.
2. Flame cells and malpighian tubules are found in flatworms and insects respectively.
3. Two counter-current systems are formed in the kidney by the loop of Henle and the Vasa
   recta.
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 116. Which of the following is incorrect?

1. Skin functions as an accessory excretory organ
2. Mammals can eliminate hypotonic and hypertonic urine according to the body’s needs
3. Mammals are ureotelic, but birds are uricotelic.
4. None of these.

Answer: 4. None of these.

Homeostasis MCQ  Question 117. In which of the following protonephridia act as excretory organs?

1. Rotifers
2. Branchiostoma
3. Some annelids
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 118. What is the value of X, Y and Z?

1. 300, 300, 1400
2. 1400,200,200
3. 1400, 500, 500
4. 1400, 300, 300

Answer: 2. 1400,200,200

Question 119. The two kidneys in the human body are located one on each side against the dorsal inner surface of the lower back at the level of

1. 10 and 11 thoracic vertebra
2. 12th thoracic and 1st and 2nd lumbar vertebrae
3. 1st and 2nd lumbar vertebrae
4. 5th lumbar and 1st sacral vertebrae.

Answer: 2. 12th thoracic and 1st and 2nd lumbar vertebrae

Question 120.  Cortical nephron have their glomeruli

1. in inter cortex
2. In inner cortex
3. close to the inner margin of the cortex
4. outer medulla.

Answer: 4. outer medulla.

Question 121. Which of the following is involved in the regulation of kidney function?

1. ADH
2. JGA
3. HAAS and ANF
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 122. Glomerular filtrate does not contain :

1. proteins
2. glucose
3. salts
4. water.

Answer: 1. proteins

Homeostasis MCQ  Question 123. The presence of blood in urine due to a lesion of the kidney or urinary tract is called :

1. Haematuria
2. Haemoglobinuria
3. Glucosuria
4. Albuminuria.

Answer: 1. Haematuria

Question 124. The specific gravity of urine is :

1. 1.003 to 1.040
2. 1.0 to 1.5
3. 0.001 to 0.002
4. 1.03 to 1.4.

Answer: 1. 1.003 to 1.040

Question 125. Ammonia is the chief nitrogenous waste in :

1. Mosquito
2. Bony fishes
3. Cartilaginous fishes
4. Desert mammal.

Answer: 2. bony fishes

Question 126. Blood urea level is an index of function.

1. Liver
2. Liver and kidney
3. Kidney
4. Pancreatic.

Answer: 3. Kidney

Question 127. Most of the terrestrial insects get rid of the bulk of their nitrogenous wastes as :

1. urea
2. uric acid
3. ammonia
4. purines.

Answer: 2. uric acid

Question 128. The artificial kidney is based upon the mechanism of:

1. osmosis
2. dialysis
3. plasmolysis
4. diffusion.

Answer: 2. dialysis

Question 129. Which of the following is the diluting segment of the uriniferous tubule?

1. Ascending limb
2. Descending limb
3. Dct
4. Pct.

Answer: 1. Ascending limb

Question 130. A marine bony fish must continuously :

1. Acquire water and get rid of salts
2. Get rid of both water and salts
3. Get rid of water and acquire salts
4. Acquire both water and salts.

Answer: 1. Acquire water and get rid of salts

Question 131. In the flame cell system of a planarian, materials are drained directly from the :

1. Blood
2. Lymph
3. Interstitial fluid
4. Coelom.

Answer: 3. Interstitial fluid

Question 132. The flame cell system functions mostly to :

1. Remove ammonium ions
2. Remove urea
3. Regulate ph
4. Osmoregulate.

Answer: 4. Osmoregulate.

Question 133. The kidney regulates acid-base balance by each of the following mechanisms:

1. Reabsorbing filtered bicarbonate
2. Acidifying the urine by h+ secretion
3. Excreting ammonium salts
4. Active reabsorption of h+.

Answer: 4. Active reabsorption of h+

Question 134. In insects, malpighian tubules drain materials directly from the :

1. Gut
2. Haemocoel
3. Blood
4. Lymph.

Answer: 3. Blood

Question 135. A malpighian tubule empties urine into the :

1. Gut
2. Coelom
3. Ureters
4. Lymph.

Answer: 1. Gut

Question 136. A nephridium of an earthworm drains materials directly from the:

1. Gut
2. Blood
3. Coelom
4. Lymph.

Answer: 2. Blood

Question 137. Which of the following sentiments? Is the kidney correct?

1. The macula densa is a region of the distal tubule that is closely associated with an afferent glomerular arteriole
2. Collecting tubules are located in both the medulla and cortex
3. Proximal convoluted tubules have an extensive microvillus (brush) border
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 138. At normal room temperature, most body heat loss is by:

1. Convection
2. Direct conduction
3. Radiation
4. Sweating.

Answer: 3. Radiation

Question 139. The force that moves fluid from the blood through the walls of a capillary and bowman’s capsule of a nephron is:

1. The beating of cilia
2. Peristalsis of the capsule.
3. Gravity
4. Blood pressure.

Answer: 4. Blood pressure.

Question 140. When the temperature of the surroundings is greater than the body temperature, heat loss is possible only through which of the following?

1. Radiation
2. Convection
3. Conduction
4. Evaporation.

Answer: 4. Evaporation.

Homeostasis MCQ  Question 141. Osmoregulation is control over the :

1. Removal of nitrogen from the body
2. The pH of the blood
3. Concentration of salt and water in the body
4. Osmotic properties of cell membranes.

Answer: 3. Concentration of salt and water in the body

Question 142. For which of the following substances would you expect the renal clearance to be the lowest, under normal conditions?

1. Urea
2. Creatinine
3. Sodium
4. Glucose.

Answer: 4. Glucose.

Question 143. In which of these animals, the antennal gland functions as an excretory organ?

1. Human being
2. Cockroach
3. Planana
4. Prawn
5. Earthworm

Answer: 1. Human being

Question 144. A freshwater fish must continuously :

1. Acquire water and get rid of salt
2. Get rid of both water and salt
3. Get rid of water and acquire salt
4. Acquire both water and salt.

Answer: 3. Get rid of water and acquire salt

Question 145. In the kidney :

1. As much as 80% of the amino acids and glucose of the ultrafiltrate are reabsorbed by the thin portion of the loop of Henle.
2. Renin, produced by the juxtaglomerular apparatus, acts directly on arterial smooth muscle to cause vasodilation.
3. The antidiuretic hormone causes the collecting tubules to become more permeable to water, thus concentrating the urine.
4. Interlobular arteries arise from arcuate arteries and pass into the cortex via the medullary rays.

Answer: 3. Antidiuretic hormone causes the collecting tubules to become more permeable to water, thus concentrating the urine.

Question 146. The kidneys not only remove the waste products from the blood but also play a very important role in maintaining :

1. Equilibrium of the body
2. Temperature of the body
3. Blood pressure constant
4. Constant composition of the blood irrespective of the nature of the food or fluid intake.

Answer: 4. Constant composition of the blood irrespective of the nature of the food or fluid intake.

NEET Biology Respiratory System In Animals Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. An increase in the CO2 concentration shifts the shape of the oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve to the light. This phenomenon is known as

1. Bohrs effect
2. Hamburfurs effect
3. Newtons effect
4. None of the above

Answer: 1. Bohrs effect

Question 2. What are the respective percentages of  O₂ in air we inhale and exhale?

1. 16.3, 3.00
2. 20.94, 16.30
3. 20.94,00
4. 20.3, 3.00.

Answer: 2. 20.94, 16.30

Question 3. According to modern  view, the blood that enters the Kings of Frogs is:

1. Oxygenated
2. Mixed
3. Deoxygenated
4. Low in glucose level.

Answer: 2. Mixed

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 4. This stage when a lung collapses, especially the alveoli is:

1. Atelectasis
2. Poliomyelitis
3. Asthma
4. Cpistasis.

Answer: 1. atelectasis

Question 5. Oxyhaemoglobin is an unstable compound because :

1. One haemoglobin molecule binds 4 molecules of oxygen
2. Haemoglobin is a complex pigmented protein
3. Haemoglobin is contained within RBCs
4. Oxygen and haemoglobin are not chemically bound but only physically combined.

Answer: 4. Oxygen and haemoglobin are not chemically bound but only physically combined.

Question 6. Carboxyhaemoglobin is formed due to the combination of haemoglobin with :

1. CO
2. HCN
3. CO,
4. CH₄

Answer: 1. CO

Respiratory System MCQs For NEET

Question 7. Mouth-to-mouth breathing proves useful in the resuscitation of a drowned person because expired air from the resuscitator:

1. does not contain any oxygen
2. contain a considerable amount of oxygen
3. contain considerable oxygen and CO₂, to stimulate breathing
4. contain largely N0 and traces of CO₂

Answer: 3. contain considerable oxygen and CO₂, to stimulate breathing

Question 8. During one circuit of blood from the lungs to the tissue and back through the circulatory system, the percentage of haemoglobin giving up oxygen is:

1. 50%
2. 25%
3. 75%
4. 100%.

Answer: 2. 25%

Question 9. Among all the systems of an organism the one which is not concerned with respiration is:

1. Nervous
2. Digestive
3. Excretory
4. Endocrine.

Answer: 3. Excretory

Question 10. Which of these does not apply to the air that reaches into the lungs of rabbits, when compared with the air of the atmosphere?

1. Its temperature is equal to that of the animal’s body
2. It contains no bacteria, virus or spores
3. It is quite dry
4. It is moist.

Answer: 3. It is quite dry

Question 11. Which Of the following statements is correct?

1. Anaerobic respiration yields considerably more energy
2. Aerobic respiration yields more energy than anaerobic respiration
3. Both release equal amounts of energy
4. Anaembie respiration yields slightly more energy than Aembie respiration.

Answer: 2. Aerobic respiration yields more energy than anaerobic respiration

Question 12. Vocal cords are :

1. two folds of mucous membrane
2. four folds of mucous membrane
3. two folds of cartilage
4. four layers of cartilage.

Answer: 1. two folds of mucous membrane

Respiratory System MCQs For NEET

Question 13. The carbon dioxide in the atmosphere is almost entirely produced by :

1. Forest Ore
2. Respiration by plants and animals
3. Microbial activity
4. Furnaces of industries.

Answer: 2. respiration by plants and animals

Question 14. What structures are responsible for raising of throat in frogs?

1. Hyoglossal muscles
2. Stemohyal muscles
3. Petrohyal muscles
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Petrohyal muscles

Question 15. During hibernation frog respires by :

1. Lungs
2. Lining of buccal epithelium
3. Skin
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. skin

Question 16. Respiratory organs should be :

1. thin-walled
2. thick-walled
3. non-vascular
4. covered by scales.

Answer: 1. thin-walled

Question 17. In addition to other gases and water vapours, expired air contains:

1. Cl₂
2. SO₂
3. CO₂
4. O₂.

Answer: 3.CO₂

Respiratory System MCQs For NEET

Question 18. During external respiration, oxygen is first accepted by :

1. lungs
2. alveolar capillaries
3. W.B.C.s
4. R.B.C.s.

Answer: 4. R.B.C.s

Question 19. In humans, the bulk of C09 released in tissue respiration is transported by blood as:

1. carbonic acid in plasma
2. sodium bicarbonate in erythrocytes
3. carbamino haemoglobin in erythrocytes
4. ammonium bicarbonates in erythrocytes.

Answer: 2. sodium bicarbonate in erythrocytes

Question 20. The rate of respiration increases due to :

1. exercise
2. rest
3. sleep
4. None of these.

Answer: 1. exercise

Question 21. Gas used up during respiration is:

1. CO₂
2. O₂
3. N₂
4. Ozone.

Answer: 2. O₂

Question 22. The index of pulmonary function is the :

1. air left in the lung after a maximum forced exhalation
2. the greatest amount of air that can expire after a maximal inspiratory effort inspiration
3. amount of air that moves out with normal inspiration.
4. amount of air present in the lung at a time.

Answer: 2. the greatest amount of air that can expire after a maximal inspiratory effort inspiration

Respiratory System MCQs For NEET

Question 23. Epiglottis guards the opening of the :

1. pharynx
2. larynx
3. gullet
4. trachea.

Answer: 2. larynx

Question 24. The exchange of gases between the alveolar air and alveolar capillaries takes place by :

1. Exosmosis
2. Diffusion
3. Active transport
4. Endosmosis.

Answer: 2. Diffusion

NEET Respiratory System Question 25. Haemoglobin has an affinity for :

1. CO₂
2. _O2
3. N₂
4. None of these.

Answer: 2. O₂

Question 26. Pneumonia is a disease of:

1. Alimentary canal
2. Heart
3. Brain
4. Respiratory tract.

Answer: 4. Respiratory tract

Question 27. Trachea is supported by :

1. Bone
2. Cartilage
3. Cardiac muscles
4. None of these.

Answer: 2. Cartilage

Question 28. With the increase in temperature, the respiratory rate will:

1. increase
2. decrease rapidly
3. remain unaffected
4. decrease slowly.

Answer: 1. increase

Respiratory System MCQs For NEET

Question 29. The end product of anaerobic respiration is :

1. C0₉ and H₂0
2. Fumaric acid
3. Arctic acid
4. Acetic acid.

Answer: 3. Lactic acid

Question 30. The gas exchange surface for most large aquatic animals are:

1. trachea
2. gills
3. book lungs
4. malpighian tubules.

Answer: 2. gills

NEET Important Questions On Respiration

Question 31. An advantage of gas exchange in aquatic habitats as compared with terrestrial habitats, is that it is easier to keep gas exchange surfaces:

1. wet
2. ventilated
3. free of injury
4. saturated with oxygen.

Answer: 1. wet

Question 32. A disadvantage of gas exchange in aquatic habitats, as compared with terrestrial habitats, is that:

1. gas exchange surface tends to collapse
2. oxygen concentration in water is much lower than in air
3. CO2 concentration is much lower in water than in air
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. oxygen concentration in water is much lower than in air

Question 33. An animal has some way of moving air or water across its gas exchange surface, a process known as:

1. counter-current exchange
2. ventilation
3. facilitated diffusion
4. active transport.

Answer: 2. ventilation

Question 34. A frog cannot live long unless it resorts to :

1. cutaneous respiration
2. pulmonary respiration
3. buccal respiration
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. cutaneous respiration

NEET Important Questions On Respiration

Question 35. Frogs while completely submerged in water respires through :

1. Skin
2. Skin and lining of the buccal cavity
3. Lung
4. skin, the lining of the buccal cavity and the lung.

Answer: 2. skin and lining of the buccal cavity

Question 36. The expiration in human lungs is due to :

1. Contraction of lung
2. Lowering of hyoid cartilage
3. Ribs and their intercostal muscles
4. Contraction of the lung and raising of hyoid cartilage.

Answer: 3. ribs and their intercostal muscles

Question 37. The percentage composition of carbon dioxide in the expired air is about:

1. Two
2. Four
3. One
4. Seven.

Answer: 2. Four

Question 38. The percentage composition of oxygen in the expired air is about:

1. twenty
2. ten
3. sixteen
4. eight.

Answer: 3. sixteen

Question 39. The volume of air that can be expired after a maximal inspiratory effort is :

1. residual volume
2. expiratory reserve volume
3. inspiratory reserve volume
4. lung volume.

Answer: 2. expiratory reserve volume

Question 40. The meeting point of all metabolic pathways is :

1. lactic acid
2. citric acid
3. ornithine cycle
4. acetyl Co-A.

Answer: 4. acetyl co-A

Question 41. The major fraction of CO2 produced and released during cell respiration is transported to the respiratory site in frogs:

1. as carbonic acid
2. as free CO2
3. in combination with Hb
4. in the form of bicarbonate ions.

Answer: 4. in the form of bicarbonate ions

Types Of Respiration In Animals MCQs

Question 42. Both hyperventilation and holding of one’s breath can cause loss of consciousness. Under normal circumstances, why does this happen?

1. Alteration of carbon dioxide levels in the blood
2. Alteration of oxygen levels in the blood
3. Loss of haemoglobin from red blood cells
4. Excess dissociation of oxygen from haemoglobin.

Answer: 1. Alteration of carbon dioxide levels in the blood

Question 43. The main difference between the insect tracheal system and most other types of respiratory system is :

1. the tracheal system does not rely on the blood to transport oxygen to the tissues
2. insects do not ventilate their tracheal system
3. insects do not dispose of CO₂via a tracheal system
4. insects exchange both CO₂ and O₂ via their tracheal system.

Answer: 1. The tracheal system does not rely on the blood to transport oxygen to the tissues

Respiratory system NEET Biology Question 44. The membrane-bound enzyme involved in Krebs’ cycle is:

1. malate dehydrogenase
2. fumarase
3. cis-aconitase
4. succinic dehydrogenase.

Answer: 4. succinic dehydrogenase

Question 45. The blood leaving dead lungs leaves all its haemoglobin present in the oxygenated form and gives up oxygen to the tissues Ixvause :

1. the tissue can absorb O2 from oxyhaemoglobin
2. the reduction reaction of oxyhaemoglobin
3. O2 conc. in the tissue is lower, CO2 conc. higher than in the lungs
4. O2 conc. in the tissue is higher, CO2 conc. lower than in the lungs

Answer: 3. O2 conc. in the tissue is lower, CO2 conc. higher than in the lungs

Question 46. Breathing rate in human beings is :

1. 16 times per minute
2. 25 times per minute
3. 72 times per minute
4. 5 times per minute.

Answer: 1. 16 times per minute

Question 47. When the exchange of gases occurs between blood and tissue fluid, it is called :

1. external respiration
2. internal or tissue respiration
3. cellular respiration
4. All the above.

Answer: 2. internal or tissue respiration

Question 48. Blood has no role in the transport of oxygen in :

1. lungfish
2. molluscs
3. insects
4. leech.

Answer: 3. insects

Question 49. The surface area of human beings is made much larger by alveoli and is approximately the size of a :

1. dinner plate
2. drawing room
3. tennis court
4. four-person tent.

Answer: 3. tennis court

Question 50. Higher energy compounds are :

1. which links the exergonic to the endergonic process
2. produced in respiration
3. produced when ATP loses two of its phosphate groups
4. the oxidation of which releases large amounts of energy during respiration.

Answer: 4. the oxidation of which releases large amounts of energy during respiration

Types Of Respiration In Animals MCQs

Question 51. Chloride shift is essential for the transport of:

1. CO₂ and O₂
2. N₂
3. CO₂
4. _O2

Answer: 3. CO₂

Question 52. In the liver, the amino acids are oxidised resulting in the removal of amino groups from amino acids and the formation of ammonia and a keto acid. It is termed as :

1. transamination
2. ketosis
3. deamination
4. ketogenesis.

Answer: 3. ketogenesis

Respiratory system NEET Biology Question 53. The excess amino acids and fats are converted into carbohydrates in the liver. The process is known as :

1. glycolysis
2. glycogenosis
3. gluconeogenesis
4. glugogenesis.

Answer: 3. gluconeogenesis

Question 54. All land vertebrates essentially have :

1. pharynx
2. larynx
3. gills
4. lungs.

Answer: 4. lungs

Question 55. The lung is lined by :

1. dry epithelium
2. moist epithelium
3. squamous epithelium
4. endothelium.

Answer: 2. moist epithelium

Question 56. Under glycolysis, the pyruvic acid is reduced to lactic acid anaerobically in :

1. liver
2. muscles
3. brain
4. skin.

Answer: 2. muscles

Types Of Respiration In Animals MCQs

Question 57. On oxidation one of the billowing yields more water:

1. sugar
2. starch
3. proteins
4. Fats.

Answer: 1. sugar

Question 58. We get a major supply of energy from glucose via :

1. fat metabolism
2. Krebs’ cycle
3. lactic acid
4. pyruvic acid.

Answer: 2. Krebs’ cycle

Question 59. Real respiration involving energy release is:

1. expiration
2. breathing
3. cell respiration
4. inspiration.

Answer: 3. cell respiration

Question 60. The lungs of a frog are :

1. thin-walled, inelastic and solid bags
2. thick-walled, elastic and hollow bags
3. thin-walled, elastic, hollow bags
4. thick-walled, hollow and spongy.

Answer: 3.  thin-walled, elastic, hollow bag

Question 61. Approximately, how many alveoli are present in each human lung?

1. 100 million
2. 150 million
3. 200 million
4. 300 million.

Answer: 2. 150 million

Question 62. Each lung is enclosed in a two-layered pleural membrane. The outer layer of the pleural membrane remains attached to:

1. trachea
2. wall of the thoracic cavity
3. diaphragm
4. ribs.

Answer: 2. wall of the thoracic cavity

Question 63. Alveolar ducts which lead to alveoli are formed by the subdivision of:

1. bronchi
2. tracheoles
3. bronchioles
4. terminal bronchioles.

Answer: 4. terminal bronchioles

Human vs Animal Respiration NEET MCQs

Question 64. Which of the following is a step of the mechanism of respiration?

1. Pulmonary ventilation
2. Exchange of gases
3. Transport of gases
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above

Question 65. The downward and upward movement of the diaphragm :

1. lengthens and shortens the chest cavity
2. only increases the chest cavity
3. decreases the chest cavity
4. No effect on the size of the chest cavity.

Answer: 1. lengthens and shortens the chest cavity

Question 66. During pulmonary ventilation, the diameter of the chest cavity is decreased by :

1. elevation of ribs
2. depression of ribs
3. diaphragm becoming flat
4. abdominal viscera moves down.

Answer: 2. depression of ribs

Question 67. Tidal volume and IRV are collectively termed :

1. functional residual capacity
2. pulmonary inspiratory capacity
3. vital capacity
4. ERV.

Answer: 2. pulmonary inspiratory capacity

Question 68. At a particular pressure, the diffusion of CO-, is how much faster as compared to diffusion of oxygen?

1. 10 times
2. 20 times
3. 30 times
4. Equal.

Answer: 2. 20 times

Question 69. During strenuous exercise, the Po, in the tissue falls, as a result of which, the blood at tissue level has merely 4.4 ml of oxygen/100 ml of blood. Thus how much oxygen is transported by the haemoglobin of blood during exercise?

1. 15 ml
2. 20 ml
3. 30 ml
4. 35 ml.

Answer: 1. 15 ml

Human vs Animal Respiration NEET MCQs

Question 70. What is the capacity of 1 gm of haemoglobin to combine with oxygen?

1. 34 ml
2. 1.34 ml
3. 2.34 ml
4. 3.12 ml.

Answer: 2. 1.34 ml

Question 71. Which one is correct?

1. Respiratory centres are not affected by CO2 conc.
2. During inspiration, the lungs act as a suction jump
3. There are  10³ alveoli in human lungs
4. The vital capacity of a healthy person is 800 cc.

Answer: 2.  During inspiration lungs act as a suction jump

Question 72. Which of the following represents the correct oxygen haemoglobin dissociation curve :

Answer: 3.

NEET Respiratory System Question 73. Which of the following is an occupational lung disease?

1. Silicosis
2. Asbestosis
3. Minamata
4. Both 1 and 2.

Answer: 4. Both 1 and 2

Question 74. If O₂ concentration in tissues were almost as high as at the respiratory surface :

1. oxyhaemoglobin would dissociate to supply O₂ to the tissues
2. haemoglobin would combine with more O₂ at the respiratory surface
3. Oxyhaemoglobin would not dissociate to supply O2 to the tissues
4. CO₂ will interfere with O₂ transport

Answer: 3. Oxyhaemoglobin would not dissociate to supply O2 to the tissues

Question 75. Match the structure listed under Column – 1 with the functional names given under Column – 2; choose the answer which gives the correct combination of the alphabets of the two columns

1. A = r, B = t, C = q, D = s
2. A = r, B = s, C = p, D = c
3. A = r, B = s, C = c, D = c
4. A = r, B = s, C = q, D = p.

Answer: 4. A = r, B = s, C = q, D = p

Question 76. Respiration is performed by the intestine in :

1. Toad Pipa
2. Fish, Misgumus
3. Tortoise
4. Toad Xenopus.

Answer: 2. Fish, Misgumus

Question 77. The structures participating in the air inhalation are :

1. diaphragm and internal intercostal
2. diaphragm and external intercostal
3. abdominal muscles and internal intercostal
4. All of the above.

Answer: 2. diaphragm and external intercostal

Question 78. In mammals, most of the CO2 is transported as NaHC03 and KHC03 in the blood. It is between :

1. 10-30%
2. 50 – 70%
3. 80 – 85%
4. 90 – 95%

Answer: 3 80 – 85%

NEET Biology Animal Reproduction Reproductive System Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. The ovary is an organ of:

1. Male reproductive system
2. Female reproductive system
3. Male excretory system
4. Female excretory system.

Answer: 2. Female reproductive system

Question 2. The oviducal funnel in frogs is situated near the :

1. Base of ovary
2. Base of lung
3. Oesophagus
4. Lop of the ovary.

Answer: 3. Oesophagus

Question 3. Ripe ova arc sited by ovaries into :

1. Oviducal funnel
2. Coelom
3. Oviduct
4. Collecting tubules of kidney.

Answer: 2. Coelom

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 4. The proliferative phase lasts for :

1. 2 days
2. 10-12 days
3. 28 days
4. only one week.

Answer: 2.10-12 days

Reproductive System MCQs For NEET

Question 5. The secretory phase consists of:

1. 1-week duration
2. 12-14 days’ duration
3. 15-20 days’ duration
4. 28 days’ duration.

Answer: 2.12-14 days’ duration

Question 6. Front each testis of frog arise about a dozen, small, delicate tubules called :

1. Vasa deferentia
2. Vasa efferentia
3. Ureters
4. Bidder’s canal.

Answer: 2. Vasa efferentia

Question 7. Corpus adipose refers to:

1. Phase of oogenesis
2. The fat layer of the skin
3. Reserve fat
4. Fat portions of the testis.

Answer: 3. Reserve fat

Question 8. Bidder’s canal is found in :

1. Liver
2. Kidney
3. Gall bladder
4. Spleen.

Answer: 2. Kidney

Question 9. Gametes are produced by (the process of gametogenesis in cells called :

1. Germinal epithelial cells
2. Germinal epidermal qe|ls
3. Germinal ectodermal cells
4. Germinal endodermal cells.

Answer: 1. Germinal epithelial cells

Reproductive System MCQs For NEET

Question 10. Germ cells or gametes of all vertebrates are called :

1. Ovules and sperms
2. Ova and spermatozoa
3. Ova and pollen
4. None of these.

Answer: 2. Ova and spermatozoa

Question 11. In the testis, primary germinal cells undergo mitotic divisions to produce :

1. Spermatozoa
2. Primary spermatocyte
3. Spermatogonia
4. Secondary spermatocyte.

Answer: 3. Spermatogonia

Question 12. In the process of gametogenesis in the testes, meiotic division takes place in the:

1. Primary spermatocyte
2. Secondary spermatocyte
3. Spermatogonium
4. Primary germ cell

Answer: 1. Primary spermatocyte

Question 13. Each testis is packed with :

1. Sperms
2. Seminiferous tubules
3. Spermatogonia
4. Spermatocytes.

Answer: 3. Seminiferous tubules

Question 14. The Bidder’s canal in frog helps to pass out :

1. Ova
2. Sperms
3. Bile
4. Saliva.

Answer: 2. Sperms

Question 15. Cells of Leydig are found in :

1. Ovary
2. Testis
3. Prostate
4. Liver.

Answer: 2. Testis

NEET Important Questions On Reproduction

Question 16. In a transverse section, a frog’s testis differs from that of a human’s testis in the:

1. Absence of Sertoli cells
2. Position of heads of spermatids
3. Seminiferous tubules
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 17. In which part of the female reproductive system of frogs, eggs are stored temporarily before spawning?

1. Oviduct
2. Ureter
3. Uterus
4. Ovisac.

Answer: 4. Ovisac.

Question 18. In frogs, the spermatozoa pass through which duct?

1. Mullerian duct 1
2. Vas deferens
3. Wolffian duct
4. Vasa efferentia.

Answer: 3. Wolffian duct

Question 19. The oviduct in the frog is actually :

1. Mullerian duct
2. Bidder’s canal
3. Wolffian duc^
4. Vagina.

Answer: 1. Mullerian duct

Reproductive System MCQ  Question 20. The membrane which holds, the ovary in position is called:

1. Mesorchium
2. Mesovarium
3. Parietal peritoneum
4. Qiesosalpinx.

Answer: 2. Mesovarium

Question 21. In humans, the glandular tissue of each breast is divided into how many mammary lobes :

1. 5-10
2. 11-15
3. 50-100
4. 15-20.

Answer: 4.15-20.

Question 22. Sperms and Ova develop from :

1. Ectoderm
2. Mesoderm
3. Endoderm
4. Ectoderm and mesoderm.

Answer: 2 . Mesoderm

Question 23. The cells of germinal epithelium in the gonads are of the following types :

1. Columnar
2. Cuboidal
3. Squamous
4. Stratified.

Answer: 2. Cuboidal

NEET MCQs On Reproductive System In Animals

Question 24. Spermatogonia undergoes a growth phase to become :

1. Spermatozoa
2. Spermatids
3. Primary spermatocyte
4. Secondary spermatocyte.

Answer: 3. Primary spermatocyte

Reproductive System MCQ  Question 25. The gelatin coat of the frog’s egg keeps it:

1. Cool
2. Moist
3. Warm
4. Safe and provides buoyancy.

Answer: 4. Safe and provides buoyancy.

Question 26. The egg of frog can I’c dcwcrilvd as:

1. Microlceilhal
2. Mesolcvithal and telolecilhal
3. Aenhvkvithal
4. Alecilhal.

Answer: 2.Mesolcvithal and telolecilhal

Question 27. Spermatozoa air is found by the process of:

1. Fission
2. Mitotic division
3. Spermatogenesis
4. Oogenesis.

Answer: 3. Spermatogenesis

Question 28. Menstrual flow occurs due to a lack of:

1. FSH
2. Oxytocin
3. Progesterone
4. Vasopressin

Answer: 3. Progesterone

Question 29. Testosterone, a honnonc responsible for the development of secondary sex characteristics of the male, is produced by the :

1. Seminiferous tubule
2. Anterior lobe of the pituitary
3. Cells that lie between the seminiferous tubules
4. Spermatogonia.

Answer: 3. Cells that lie between the seminiferous tubules

NEET MCQs On Reproductive System In Animals

Question 30. The first meiotic division in the oogonium is completed when the egg is within the :

1. Uterus
2. Follicle
3. Fallopian tube
4. Ovary, before it is surrounded by follicles.

Answer: 2. Follicle

Reproductive System MCQ  Question 31. If an unfertilized frog’s egg is pricked with a microneedle. it will:

1. Die immediately
2. Stan dividing
3. Will remain undivided
4. Transform into a tadpole at a faster rate.

Answer: 2. Stan dividing

Question 32. The development of an egg without fertilization is called :

1. Gametogenesis
2. Metamorphosis
3. Oogenesis
4. Parthenogenesis.

Answer: 4. Parthenogenesis.

Question 33. The female rabbit is :

1. Natural ovulation
2. Seasonal ovulation
3. Spontaneous ovulation
4. Induced ovulatory.

Answer: 4. Induced ovulation.

Question 34. Progesterone is secreted by :

1. Testis
2. Ovary
3. Uterus
4. Vagina.

Answer: 2. Ovary

Question 35. Graafian follicle is found in :

1. Thyroid of rabbit
2. Ovary of rabbit
3. Testis of rabbit
4. kidney of the frog.

Answer: 2. Ovary of rabbit

Question 36. The primary sex cells contain :

1. Haploid genome
2. Diploid genome
3. As many chromosomes as in sperm
4. As many chromosomes as in the ovum.

Answer: 2. Diploid genome

NEET MCQs On Reproductive System In Animals

Question 37. The seminal vesicle or uterus masculinist in rabbits is found at the junction of :

1. Prostate and Cowper’s glands
2. Prostate and urethra
3. Prostate and vas deferens
4. Vas deferens and testis.

Answer: 3. Prostate and vas deferens

Question 38. Which of the following is a hermaphrodite?

1. Ani
2. Earthworm
3. Aphid
4. Trout.

Answer: 2. Earthworm

Question 39. Primary spermatocyte refers to :

1. Sperm before second division
2. Sperm after first micturition division
3. Spermatogonium which ceases division and starts growing
4. Primordial sex cells.

Answer: 3. Spermatogonium which ceases division and starts growing

Question 40. The awesome plays an important role in :

1. Motility of sperm
2. Penetration of ovum by sperm
3. The fusion of pronuclei of the gametes
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Penetration of the ovum by sperm

Question 41. In frogs pseudocopulation occurs since the penis is absent in the male and fertilization of the egg occurs :

1. Externally in the water
2. Inside the Bidder’s canal
3. When the egg passes through the uterus
4. When the egg is in the cloaca.

Answer: 1. Externally in the water

Reproduction in Animals MCQ Biology Question 42. In frogs the sperms released from the testis take the following route to reach the Wolffian duct:

1. Vasa efferentia, Bidder’s canal, uriniferous tubule and nephrostome
2. Vasa efferentia, Bidder’s canal, and collecting tubule
3. Vasa efferentia, uriniferous tubule, and Bidder’s canal
4. Vasa deferentia, uriniferous tubule, and Bidder’s canal.

Answer: 2. Vasa efferentia, Bidder’s canal and collecting tubule

Question 43. The vegetal hemisphere of a frog’s egg contains yolk. It remains directed :

1. Downwards
2. Leftwards
3. Upwards
4. To the right side.

Answer: 1. Downwards

NEET MCQs On Reproductive System In Animals

Question 44. Upward-directed pigment part of the frog’s egg contains living cytoplasm. It is related to:

1. Respiration
2. Coloration
3. Camouflage
4. Nourishment.

Answer: 3. Camouflage

Question 45. In the male rabbit, testes are located in :

1. Extra abdominal scrotal cavity
2. Abdominal cavity
3. Thoracic cavity
4. Pericardial cavity.

Answer: 1. Extra abdominal scrotal cavity

Question 46. Amnion is an extra-embryonic membrane which develops during the embryonic development in :

1. Cockroach
2. Lizard
3. Frog
4. Fish.

Answer: 2. Lizard

Question 47. External fertilization occurs almost exclusively in habitats that are:

1. Tropical
2. Warm
3. Moist
4. Crowded.

Answer: 3. Moist

Question 48. The center of the primary follicle is occupied by :

1. Follicular cells
2. Oogonium
3. Theca Interna
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Oogonium

Question 49. The secondary follicle differs from the primary follicle in that: .

1. The primary follicle has only a single layer of flattened cells around the oogonium
2. The secondary follicle has cuboidal columnar and stratified epithelium around the oogonium
3. The oocyte within the secondary follicle is covered by a thick membrane called zona pellucida
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Male And Female Reproductive System MCQs

Question 50. Cumulus oophorus refers to:

1. A heap of oocytes found in the secondary follicle
2. Heap of follicular cells around the ovum in the primary follicle
3. Hill of follicular cells that contain the ovum in the secondary follicle
4. None of the above

Answer: 3. Hill of follicular cells that contain the ovum in the secondary follicle

Question 51. What are two types of cells seen in the die seminiferous tubule?

1. Germinal epithelial cells and cells of Sertoli
2. Cells of Lcydig and Reie cells
3. Stcrcociliarv cells and cuboidal cells
4. Gonocytcs.

Answer: 1. Germinal epithelial cells and cells of Sertoli

Question 52. In a section of the testis. the groups of cells seen scattered between seminiferous tubules are :

1. Cells of Sertoli
2. Gonocytcs
3. Interstitial cells
4. Stereociliary cells.

Answer: 3. Interstitial cells

Question 53. Septa which extend inward from the tunica albuginea separate the testes into compartments that contain:

1. Epididymis
2. Rete testes
3. Seminiferous tubules
4. Cells of Leydig.

Answer: 3. Seminiferous tubules

Question 54. How many layers does the muscle coat of the oviduct have?

1. One—Longitudinal
2. Two—Inner circular and outer longitudinal
3. Three—Oblique fibers in addition to the above
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Two—Inner circular and outer longitudinal

Question 55. Which hormone is responsible for the rupture of the follicle and initiating the formation of the corpus luteum?

1. Follicle-stimulating hormone
2. Luteotropin
3. Luteinizing hormone
4. All the above.

Answer: 3. Luteinizing hormone

Question 56. An atretic follicle is :

1. Also known as corpus albicans
2. That follicle that fails to mature and degenerates
3. That follicle which has released the ovum
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. That follicle that fails to mature and degenerates

Question 57. The single layer of germinal epithelium covering the ovary is composed of:

1. Squamous cells
2. Cuboidal cells
3. Columnar cells
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Euboidal cells

Male And Female Reproductive System MCQs

Question 58. The layer immediately interior to the tunica albuginea which forms part of the cortex has a higher proportion of:

1. Intercellular substance
2. Connective tissue cells and fibers
3. Both and
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Connective tissue cells and fibers

Question 59. Match the reproductive organs on the right with the description on the left.

1. (1-a). (2-b), (3-d). (4-f),(5-c). (6-e),(7-c)
2. (13) (1-a), (2-f). (3-d), (4-c), (5-e). (6-d), (7-h)
3. (1-a). (2-f), (3-c), (4-b), (5-a), (6-b), (7-d)
4. (l-j), (2-i), (3-c). (4-b), (5-a), (6-f),(7-h).

Answer: 4. (l-j), (2-i), (3-c). (4-b), (5-a), (6-f),(7-h).

Question 60. How many mature eggs are typically produced by each ovary of a non-pregnant woman each year?

1. 52
2. 24
3. 12
4. 6.

Answer: 4.6

 Question 61. Cryptorchidism is a condition in which testes are :

1. Surgically removed
2. Not developed in the fetus
3. Unable to produce sperm
4. Unable to descend into the scrotum.

Answer: 4. Unable to descend into the scrotum.

Male And Female Reproductive System MCQs

Question 62. A common method of asexual reproduction is by :

1. Regeneration
2. Budding
3. Archetypes
4. Gemmulation.

Answer: 2. Budding

Question 63. The female equivalent of the glans of the penis is the :

1. Vestibule
2. Clitoris
3. Hymen
4. Urethra.

Answer: 2. Clitoris

Question 64. hCG, hPL, and relaxin are produced in women.

1. At the time of puberty
2. Only during pregnancy
3. Before puberty
4. At the time of menopause

Answer: 2. Only during pregnancy

Question 65. Fertilization, embryonic development, etc, occur in frogs in :

1. Uterus
2. Fallopian tube
3. Water
4. The upper part of the oviduct.

Answer: 3. Water

Question 66. Release of the oocyte from the ovary of a rabbit is termed :

1. Implantation
2. Ovulation
3. Gestation
4. Parturition.

Answer: 2. Ovulation

Question 67. The human uterus is :

1. Paired with well-separated oviducts
2. Single large chamber with posterior part of oviduct fused to it anteriorly
3. Paired with partially fused oviducts
4. A single large chamber with completely fused oviducts.

Answer: 2. Single large chamber with the posterior part of the oviduct fused to it anteriorly

Reproductive System MCQs For NEET

Question 68. Fertilization in rabbits, man, and other placental mammals takes place in :

1. Ovary
2. Uterus
3. Fallopian tubes
4. Vagina.

Answer: 3. Fallopian tubes

Question 69. When released from the ovary, the human egg contains :

1. One Y chromosome
2. Two X chromosomes
3. One X chromosome
4. XY chromosome.

Answer: 3. One X chromosome

Question 70. The oviducts in the body of a vertebrate arc are also referred to as:

1. Mullerian duct
2. Urinogcnital duct
3. Wolffian fuel
4. Mesonephric duct.

Answer: 1. Mullerian duct

Question 71. Spawning is another term for :

1. Oviposition
2. Hatching
3. Copulation
4. Fertilization.

Answer: 1. Oviposition

Question 72. Corpus albicans is:

1. Whitish scar in the ovary of a mammal
2. Tough connective tissue coaling on testes of frog
3. Whitish subcutaneous tissue in mammals
4. Lough connective tissue coating on testis of mammals.

Answer: 1. Whitish scar in the ovary of a mammal

Question 73. The actual genetic part of a sperm is :

1. Tail
2. Middle piece
3. Head
4. The whole of it.

Answer: 3. Head

Reproductive System MCQs For NEET

Question 74. Human eggs are :

1. Microlecithal
2. Alecithal
3. Head
4. Mesolecilhal.

Answer: 2.Alecithal

Question 75. Locations of Lcydig’s cells and the secretion they produce are :

1. Ovary, estrogen
2. Liver, Cholesterol
3. Testis, testosterone
4. Pancreas, glucagon.

Answer: 2. Liver, Cholesterol

Question 76. Spermatozoa were observed for the first time by :

1. Haeckel
2. Leeuwenhoek
3. Pasteur
4. Lister.

Answer: 2. Leeuwenhoek

Question 77. Amphimixis refers to :

1. Union of male and female gametes
2. The path followed by sperm in the egg after its entry
3. Union of male and female pronuclei
4. Turning of the head of sperm by 180′.

Answer: 3. Union of male and female pronuclei

Question 78. In reproduction of a test tube baby :

1. Fertilization is done outside the body
2. The fetus is grown in a test tube
3. Fertilization is done inside the body
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Fertilization is done outside the body

Reproductive System MCQs For NEET

Question 79. Which of the following statements is correct?

1. Eggs of Amphioxus are mesolecilhal and isolecithal
2. Eggs of reptiles are Meiolecitha! and Polylecithal
3. Eggs of frog are microlecithal and telolecilhal
4. Eggs of hen are microlecithal.

Answer: 2. Eggs of reptiles are Meiolecitha! and Polylecithal

Question 80. What is characteristically absent in a frog’s ovary?

1. Follicular epithelium
2. Ovarian follicle
3. Corpus museum
4. Proteinic yolk.

Answer: 3. Corpus museum

Question 81. Parthenogenesis is very common in :

1. Apis
2. Pheretitna
3. Scoliodon
4. Spider.

Answer: 1. Apis

Question 82. Each potential gamete-forming cell in diploid organisms produces four gametes (functional and non-functional). The gametes of these organisms have the ;

1. Same number of chromosomes as in body cells
2. Double the number of chromosomes as in body cells
3. Half the number of chromosomes as in body cells
4. One-fourth the number of chromosomes as in body cells.

Answer: 3. Half the number of chromosomes as in body cells

Question 83. The purpose of the acrosome is :

1. To protect the sperm nucleus
2. To secrete certain enzymes which dissolve the sperm cell wall so that the nucleus can escape and fertilize the ovum
3. To secrete certain enzymes which dissolve the  egg membrane, thus facilitating the entry of the sperm into the ovum
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. To secrete certain enzymes that dissolve the egg membrane, thus facilitating the entry of the sperm into the ovum

Question 84. The portion of the sperm known as its powerhouse is the:

1. Head
2. Neck
3. Middle piece
4. Tail.

Answer: 3. Middle piece

Question 85. The immediate predecessors of spermatids are the ;

1. Spermatogonia
2. Primary spermatocytes
3. Secondary spermatocytes
4. Sperm mother cells.

Answer: 3. Secondary spermatocytes

NEET Important Questions On Reproduction

Question 86. The process of differentiation of spermatid into a spermatozoa is known as :

1. Spermatogenesis
2. Sperntiogenesis
3. Gametogenesis
4. Oogenesis.

Answer: 2.Sperntiogenesis

Question 87. Spermatogenesis is a sequence of events. Give the correct order :

1. Germinal epithelial cell-spermatogonium-primary Spermatocytc-2 secondary spermatocytes-4 spermatids-4 spermatozoa
2. Germinal epithelial cell- primary spermatocyte- spermatogonium -2 secondary spermatocytes-4 spermatids-4 spermatozoa
3. Germinal epithelial cell-primary spermatocyte- spermatogonium-2 secondary spermatocyte- spermatozoa-4 spermatids
4. Germinal epithelial cell-spermatogonium primary spermatocyte-2 secondary spermatocytes 4 spermatozoa-4 spermatids,

Answer: 1. Germinal epithelial cell-spermatogonium-primary Spermatocytc-2 secondary spermatocytes-4 spermatids-4 spermatozoa

Question 88. Primary spermatocyte produces 4 spermatozoa, but primary oocyte produces :

1. 1 ovum
2. 2 ova
3. 3 ova
4. 4 ova.

Answer: 1. 1 ovum

Question 89. Ovulation takes place :

1. 2 weeks before the start of the next menstrual cycle
2. 14th day of the 28-day cycle
3. 10 days after the cease of the previous monthly cycle
4. All the above are correct.

Answer: 4. All the above are correct.

Question 90. Humans are :

1. Viviparous
2. Asexually
3. Reproducing
4. Both and

Answer: 4 . Both and

Question 91. In adults each testis measures :

1. 5 to 6 cm width and 2 to 3 cm length
2. 2-3 cm width and 4 to 5 cm length
3. 4-5 cm width and 2 to 3 cm length
4. 2-3 cm width and 5 to 6 cm length

Answer: 2.2-3 cm width and 4 to 5 cm length

Question 92. Each testis is oval and has how many testicular lobules?

1. 200
2. 250
3. 2
4. 125 in each

Answer: 2.250

NEET Important Questions On Reproduction

Question 93. The correct path Of sperms from testis to oiciIn a by corpus spongiosum duel is:

1. Vas efferintia -Rate testes-Vas deferens
2. Vas deferens-Rate testes-epididymis
3. Vas efferentia-Rate testes -epididymis
4. Rate testes – Rate testes -epididymis

Answer: 4.Rate testes – Rate testes -epididymis

Question 94. lire male accessory glands include paired seminal vesicles, a prostate, and a paired bulbourethral gland. The secretion of seminal plasma is rich in :

1. Fructose
2. Calcitonin
3. Calcium
4. Both and

Answer: 4. Both and

Question 95. Primary female reproductive organs tire :

1. Oviducts
2. Ovaries
3. Mammary gland
4. Cervix

Answer: 2. Ovaries

Question 96. The edges of the infundibulum possess finger-like processes called:

1. Cervix
2. Mons pubis
3. Fimbriae
4. Ampulla

Answer: 3. Fimbriae

Reproduction in Animals MCQ Biology Question 97. Fertilization in humans takes place in the:

1. Fallopian tube
2. Ampulla
3. Isthmus
4. Ampulla-isthmus junction

Answer: 4. Ampulla-isthmus junction

Question 98. The cells of the alveoli of mammary glands secrete milk and store it in the lumen of these lobules (alveoli). The breast is divided into how many mammary lobes?

1. 200
2. 250
3. 15-20
4. 120-150

Answer: 3.15-20

Question 99. How many eggs are released by each ovary in one year?

1. 2
2. 6
3. 12
4. 4

Answer: 2.6

Question 100. The menstrual cycle stops after :

1. Gestation period
2. Lactatational
3. 45-50 years of age
4. All of above

Answer: 4. All of the above

Question 101. Acmsotue of sperm has modified :

1. Golgi bodies
2. Lysosomes
3. FR
4. Mitochondria

Answer: 1. Glolgi bodies

Question 102. Sertoli cells are regulated by which hormone of the pituitary.

1. G I I
2. Prolactin
3. LII
4. FSH

Answer: 4. FSH

Question 103. The internal cavity formed by cell division before gastrula is:

1. Antrum
2. Enter on
3. Archcnteron
4. Blastococl

Answer: 4. Blastococl

Question 104. The part of the fallopian tube closer to the ovary is:

1. Isthmus
2. Infundibulum
3. Cervix
4. Ampulla

Answer: 2. Infundibuluom

NEET Important Questions On Reproduction

Question 105. Release of mature sperms from Sertoli cells of seminiferous tubules is called :

1. Spermatogenesis
2. Spermiogenesis
3. Spermioteliosis
4. Spermiation

Answer: 4. spermiation

Question 106. At puberty how many primary follicles are left in the two ovaries?

1. 60,000-80,000
2. 80,000-1 lac
3. 120,000-160,000
4. 480

Answer: 1.60,000-80,000

Question 107. LH and FSH attain a peak on which day in a 28-day menstrual cycle?

1. 17th day
2. 14th day
3. 25th day
4. 5th day

Answer: 2.14th day

Question 108. 1st polar body is formed at which stage of Oogenesis?

1. 1st meiosis
2. 2nd meiosis
3. 1st mitosis
4. Differentiation

Answer: 1.1st meiosis

Question 109. In humans, the unpaired male reproductive structure is :

1. Seminal vesicle
2. Prostate gland
3. Bulbourethral gland
4. Vasa deferentia

Answer: 2. Prostate gland

NEET Biology Reproduction In Angiosperms Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Uniscxunlity of flowers prevents:

1. Autogany and geitonogamy
2. Both geitonogamy and xenogamy
3. Autogamy but not geitonogamy
4. geitonogamybut not xenogamy

Answer: 3. Autogamy but not geitonogamy

Question 2. The endosperm is completely consumed by the developing embryo in :

1. Pea and castor
2. Maize and castor
3. Castor and groundnut
4. Maize and Pea

Answer: 1. Pea and castor

Question 3. A plant part having two generations is :

1. Embryogeny
2. Unfertilized ovule
3. Germinated pollen
4. Seed, grain

Answer: 4. Seed, grain

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 4. The end products of sexual reproduction are :

1. Fruits
2. Flowers
3. Inflorescence
4. Fruits and seeds

Answer: 4. Fuits and seeds

Question 5. Differentiation and development of floral primordium is preceded by :

1. Hormonal changes
2. Structural change
3. Formation of gynoecium
4. Both structural and hormonal changes.

Answer: 4. both structural and hormonal changes.

Sexual Reproduction In Flowering Plants MCQs NEET

Question 6. Which of the following is a mismatch?

1. Long and slender stalk – Filament
2. Long and bilobed – Anther
3. Short and bilobed – Anther
4. Microsporangia – Anther.

Answer: 2. Long and bilobed – Anther

Question7. Microsporangium develops and :

1. Form pollen
2. Become pollen sac
3. Produce tapetum
4. Lead to the formation of embryo sac.

Answer: 1.  Form pollen

Question 8. In the young anther, a group of homogenous compactly arranged sporogenous tissue occupies the centre of the microsporangium. It undergoes :

1. Meiotic division to form microspore tetrad
2. Growth forms pollen sac
3. Mitosis to form tetrad
4. Meiosis to form pollen sac.

Answer: 1. Meiotic division to form microspore tetrad

Question 9. Pollen grains are spherical and measure about:

1. 10-12 diameters
2. 25-50 in diameter
3. 50-70 in diameter
4. Less than 10 mm in diameter.

Answer:2. 25-50 in diameter

Question 10. In 40 per cent of angiosperm pollen grains are arrested at:

1. 2-celled stage
2. 3-celled stage
3. One vegetative and generative cell
4. Two generative and one vegetative cell

Answer: 2. 3-celled stage

Question 11. Pick out the mismatch :

1. Embryosac – Female gametophyte
2. Functional megaspore – 2 celled
3. Typical embryo sac at maturity – 8 nucleate, 7 celled
4. Egg apparatus – 3 celled

Answer: 2. Functional megaspore – 2-celled

Question 12. Which of the following is/are biotic pollinators of plant species?

1. Bees, butterflies, beetles
2. Sunbird, hummingbird
3. Gecko, lemur, Rodents
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 13. Continued self-pollination leads to inbreeding depression. Which of the following devices encourage cross-pollination?

1. Pollen released before stigma becomes receptive
2. Stigma becomes receptive before pollen release
3. Different positions of anther and stigma
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 14. In plants which shed pollen at the 3-celled stage, pollen tube. carry :

1. One male gamete from the beginning’
2. One male gamete
3. One vegetative and One generative cell
4. Two vegetative and one generative cells.

Answer: 1. wo male gametes from the beginning’

Question 15. Callose covering is present over :

1. Egg
2. Pollen grain
3. Male gamete
4. Microspore mother cells.

Answer: 4. Microspore mother cells.

Sexual Reproduction In Flowering Plants MCQs NEET

Question 16. The arrangement of nuclei in a normal dicot embryo sac is :

1. 3 + 3 + 2
2. 3 + 2 + 3
3. 2 + 4 + 2
4. 2 + 3 + 3.

Answer: 2.  3 + 2 + 3

Question 17. The function of the tapetum is

1. Protective
2. Nutritive
3. Respiratory
4. All of above

Answer: 2. Nutritive

Question 18. A typical dicot embryo consists of:

1. Epicotyl and plumage
2. Hypocotyl and radicle
3. Embryonal axis and two cotyledons,
4. Embryonal axis and scutellum.

Answer: 3. Embryonal axis and two cotyledons,

Question 19. The wall of The fruit may be flashy in :

1. Guava
2. Orange
3. Mango
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 19. Which of the following fruits contains thousands of seeds?

1. orchid fruit
2. Ficus
3. Orobanchae and striga
4. 1 and 3.

Answer: 4. 1 and 3.

Question 20. Which of the following is the correct labelling for the figure given below :

1. p/Thalamus Q/ovary R/style s/stigma
2. Stigma-style ovary stigma
3. Thalamus-style ovary stigma
4. Thalamus Ovary stigma style.

Answer: 4. Thalamus Ovary stigma style.

Question 21. Select the mismatched pair.

1. Microsporangium
2. Megasporangium
3. Pollen grain
4. Embryo sac

Answer: 1 . Microsporangium

Sexual Reproduction In Flowering Plants MCQs NEET

Question 22. The given diagram shows the microsporangium of a mature anther. Identify P, Q and R.

1. P – Middle layer, O – Endothecium, R – Tapetum
2. P – Endothecium, O – Tapetum, R – Middle layer
3. P – Endothecium, O – Middle layer, R – Tapetum
4. P – Tapetum, B – Middle layer, R – Endothecium.

Answer:  3.  P – Endothecium, O – Middle layer, R – Tapetum

Question 23. Refer to the given statements.

1. The outer exine is made up of sporopollenin.
2. The inner inline is pecto-cellulosic.
3. Generative cells are bigger and contain abundant food reserves.
4. The vegetative cell is small and floats in the cytoplasm of the generative cell

Answer: 3. Generative cells are bigger and contain abundant food reserves.

Question 24. Which of the given statements are not true regarding the structure of pollen grain

1. (1) and (2)
2. (2) and (3)
3. (3) and (4)
4. (1) and (4).

Answer: 3. (3) and (4)

Sexual Reproduction In Flowering Plants MCQs NEET

Question 25. Study the following statements regarding the structure of microsporangium and select the correct answer.

(i)Microsporangium is generally surrounded by four wall layers – epidermis, endothecium, middle layers and tapetum

(ii) The outer three layers perform functions of protection and dehiscence of anthers.

(iii)Cells of tapetum undergo meiosis and produce microspore tetrads.

1. Only (1) and (2) are true.
2. Only (2) and (3) are true.
3. Only (1) and (3) are true.
4. All are true.

Answer: 1. Only (1) and (2) are true.

Question 26. Select the mismatched pair.

1. Storage of pollen grains – 196 C
2. Pollen allergy-carrot grass
3. Chasmogamous flowers -Exposed anthers and stigmas
4. Xenogamy- self-pollination

Answer: 4. Xenogamy- self-pollination

Question 27. A typical angiospermous ovule is attached to the placenta using a stalk called X. The Body of the ovule fuses with X in the region called Y. Thus Y represents the junction between the ovule and funicle. Identify X and Y.

Answer: 1. Funicle   Hilum

Question 28. Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the codes given below.

1→A  2 →D  3 →B  4→C

1 →A  2 →D 3→ C 4 →B

1→ B  2 →C  3→ A  4 →D

1 →B  2 →A  3 →1  4→ D

Answer: 1. 1→A  2 →D  3 →B  4→C

Question 29. Given below are the events that are observed in an artificial hybridization programme. Arrange them in the correct sequential order.

1. Re-bagging
2. Selection of parents;
3. Bagging;
4. Dusting the pollen on the stigma;
5. Emasculation;
6. Collection of pollen from the male parent.

1. 2 → 3→ 5→ 6→ 4 → 1

2. 2→ 5 →3→ 6 →4 →1

3. 5 →2 →3 →6 →1 →4

4. 2 →3 →6 →4 →5 →1

Answer: 2. 2 →3 →5 →6 →4 →1

Sexual Reproduction In Flowering Plants MCQ For NEET  Question 30. Identify the different parts of a typical dicot embryo labelled as A. 11 and C and select the correct option.

1. Plumule Cotyledons Radicle
2. Radicle Cotyledons Plumule
3. Cotyledons Plumule Radicle
4. Cotyledons Radicle Plumule.

Answer: 1 . Plumule Cotyledons Radicle

Important Questions On Reproduction In Flowering Plants

Question 31. A typical example of cross-pollination is :

1. Wheat (Triticum)
2. Rice (Oryza saliva)
3. CLCotton (Gossypium)
4. Zea mays.

Answer: 4. Zea mays.

Question32. Continued self-pollination generation after generation, results in :

1. better progeny
2. pure line formation
3. formation of new varieties
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. pure line formation

Question 33. Stigma is always sticky and rough in :

1. Anemophilous flower
2. Hydrophilous flowers.
3. Entomophilous flowers
4. All the above types of flowers.

Answer: 3. Entomophilous flowers

Question 34. The chief pollinators of our agro-horticultural crops are :

1. Butterflies
2. Moths
3. Beetles
4. Bees

Answer: 4. Bees

Question 35. The phenomenon of opening of flower buds is called :

1. Gcjmetogenesis
2. Sporogenesis
3. Anthesis
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Anthesis

Question 36. In wheat and sugarcane, pollination takes place by :

1. Wind
2. Water
3. Insects
4. Animals.

Answer: 1. Wind

Question 37. If water causes pollinatior^-it is called :

1. Anemophily
2. Hydrophily
3. Chiropterophily
4. Zoophily.

Answer: 2. Hydrophily

Question 38. Insect-pollinated flowers possess:

1. Smooth and dry pollen
2. A larger amount of pollen
3. Coloured corolla
4. Rough pollen.

Answer: 3. Coloured corolla

Question 39. Protandry is a condition in which :

1. Anthers mature after stigma
2. Anthers and stigmas mature at the same time
3. Anthers mature earlier than the stigma
4. Pollens of the same flower pollinate stigmas.

Answer:3.Anthers mature earlier than the stigma

Important Questions On Reproduction In Flowering Plants

Biology Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plant Question 40.Cleistogamous flowers arc ;

1. Open male flowers
2. Open bisexual flowers
3. Male flowers which never open
4. Bisexual flowers which never open.

Answer: 4. bisexual flowers which never open.

Question 41. In Ficus the pollination is affected by :

1. Air
2. Water
3. Birds
4. Wasps.

Answer: 4. Wasps.

Question 42.Palynpld’gy deals with the study of:

1. Pollen grains
2. Chromosomes
3. DNA
4. Genes.

Answer: 1. Pollen grain

Question 43.When an anther dehisces towards the centre of the flower/it is called :

1. Montrose
2. Extras
3. Inserted
4. Exerted.

Answer: 1. Introse

Question 44. The lever mechanism is found in the pollination of:

1. Ipomoea
2. Euphorbia
3. Salvia
4. Vallisneria.

Answer: 3. Salvia

Question 45. When male and female parts of a flower mature at different times, it is termed:

1. Dichogamy
2. Heterostyly
3. Herkogamy
4. Monoclinic.

Answer: 1. Dichogamy

Question 46. Pollination by bats is known as :

1. Anemophily
2. Hydrophily
3. Chiropterophily
4. Ornithophily.

Answer: 3. Chiropterophily

Important Questions On Reproduction In Flowering Plants

Question 47. Cross-pollination is advantageous because it results in information of:

1. Weaker progen
2. Better progeny
3. Female offspring
4. Male offspring.

Answer: 2. Better progeny

Question 48. To avoid self-pollination, the pollen grains of some flowers have no fertilizing effect on the stigma of the same flower. This condition is :

1. Self sterility
2. Herkogamy
3. Dicliny
4. Dichogamy.

Answer: 1. Self sterility

Question 49. If the pollen of a flower falls on the stigma of another flower belonging to the same plant, it is :

1. Genetically self-pollinated
2. Ecologically cross-pollinated
3. Both and
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Ecologically cross-pollinated

Question 50. Malacophily is pollination by

1. Insects
2. Snails
3. Ants
4. Elephant.

Answer:2. Snails

Question 51. Which one of the following parts of the pistil receives the pollen during pollination?

1. Stigma
2. Ovule
3. Micropyle
4. Nucellus.

Answer:1. Stigma

Question 52. The following plant has pollination above ground but its fruit develops underground.

1. Sweet potato
2. Solarium tuberosum
3. Onion.
4. Arachis hypogea.

Answer:4. Arachis hypogea.

Question 53. Pollinia are sac-like structures in which :

1. Anther lobes are present
2. Anthers lose their individuality
3. Pollen grains get fused in a mass.
4. yellow substance is secreted.

Answer:3. Pollen grains get fused in a mas

Pollination And Fertilization MCQs For NEET

Question 54.Allog. um, though the biotic agency is called :

1. Entomophily
2. Ancmophily
3. Hydrophily
4. Both 1 and 2.

Answer:1 .Entomophily

Question 55. Chiropterophilous flowers possess :

1. coloured petals
2. Abundant nectar
3. Hydrophily
4. Less pollen.

Answer:2. Abundant nectar

Question 56. pollination of pinus is:

1. Entomophilous
2. Anemophilous
3. Hydrophily
4. Malacophily.

Answer:2. Anemophilous

Question 57. In Salvia, pollination takes place by :

1. Animals
2. Insects
3. Air
4. Water.

Answer:2. Insects

Question 58. The entry of the pollen tube into the embryo sac through the integuments is termed as :

1. Porogamv
2. Chalazogamy
3. Monogamy
4. Both  1  and 2.

Answer:3. Mesogamy

Question 59.512 microspores will be formed following meiosis How many spores?

1. 16
2. 64
3. 128
4. 256.

Answer:3. 128

Question 60. An example of triploid tissue is :

1. Onion leaf
2. Onion root
3. Maize endosperm
4. Fern prothallus.

Answer:3. Maize endosperm

Pollination And Fertilization MCQs For NEET

Question 61. Triploid plants can be obtained from the culture of :

1. Pollen
2. Endosperm
3. Megaspore
4. Ovule.

Answer:2. Endosperm

Question 62.After fertilization synergids and antipodal cells form :

1. Embryo
2. spore
3. Endosperm
4. None of the above.

Answer:4. None of the above.

Question 63. Pollen grain in angiosperm develops from :

1. Endothecium
2. Tapetum
3. Sporogenous tissue
4. Middle layer.

Answer:3. Sporogenous tissue

Question 64.The nucellus of the ovule is :

1. Haploid
2. Diploid
3. Triploid
4. Polyploid.

Answer:2. Diploid

Question 65. In the case of angiosperms, the embryo sac represents :

1. Female gametophyte
2. Sporophyte
3. Male gametophyte
4. All the above.

Answer:1. Female gametophyte

Question 66. The other wall consists of four wall layers where :

1. The tapetum lies just inner to endothecium
2. Middle layers lie between endothecium and tapetum
3. Endothecium lies inner to middle layers
4. The tapetum lies next to the epidermis.

Answer:2. Middle layers lie between endothecium and tapetum

Pollination And Fertilization MCQs For NEET

Question 67. Emasculation is achieved by :

1. Removal of anthers
2. Removal of stigma
3. Removal, of gynoecium
4. Removal of calyx and corolla.

Answer:1. Removal of anthers

Question 68. A (lower pan whose primary MLC is protection, is the :

1. Stamen
2. Ovary
3. Sepal
4. Embryo sac.

Answer:3. Sepal

Question 69. In a fully developed male gametophyte, the number of nuclei is:

1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four.

Answer:3. Three

Question 70. The mature anther wall comprises an epidermis followed by a layer of radially elongated cells with fibrous bands of callose called endothecium whose function is :

1. Nutrition
2. Protection
3. Mechanical
4. Dehiscence.

Answer:4. Dehiscence.

Pollination And Fertilization MCQs For NEET

Question 71. The innermost layer of the anther is the tapetum whose function is

1. Dehiscence
2. Mechanical
3. Nutrition
4. Protection.

Answer:3. Nutrition

Question 72. Ovule represents :

1. Hierpsporangium
2. Megasporangium
3. Gametophyte
4. Embryo.

Answer:2. Megasporangium

Question 73. The female plant is diploid and the male plant is tetraploid. Find out the correct match.

Answer: 1. 3n  4n  2n  n  2n  4n

Question 74. Mature ovules are classified based on the funiculus. If the micropyle comes to lie close to the funiculus the ovule is termed as :

1. Orthotropous
2. Anatropous
3. Amphitropous
4. Campylotropous.

Answer:2. Anatropous

Question75. In a bisexual flower when the gynoecium matures earlier than another, it is called:

1. Protandry
2. Protbgyny
3. Herkogyny
4. None of the above.

Answer:2 .Protbgyny

Question 76. Plants which flower only once in life are termed as:

1. Polycarpic
2. Monocarpic
3. Pericarpic
4. Leucas.

Answer:2. Monocarpic

Double Fertilization In Plants NEET MCQs

Question 77. Translators are found in :

1. Calotropis flower
2. Hibiscus
3. Vinca flower
4. Leucas.

Answer:1. Calotropis flower

Question 78. When the micropyle, chalaza and hilum he in a straight line, the ovule is said to be :

1. Anatropous
2. Orthotropous
3. Amphitropous
4. Campylotropous.

Answer:2. Orthotropous

Question 79. Double fertilization was first described by :

1. Hofmeister
2. Nawaschin
3. Strasburger
4. Leeuwenhoek.

Answer: 2. Nawaschin

Question 80. The secondary nucleus after fusing with one of the male gametes develops into :

1. Embryo
2. Seed
3. Endosperm
4. Fruit.

Answer: 3. Endosperm

Question 81. The fusion of the male gamete with the secondary nucleus of the embryo sac is the process of:

1. Fertilization
2. Double fertilization
3. Parthenocarpy
4. Parthenogenesis.

Answer: 2. Double fertilization

Question 82. The fertilization occurs in the :

1. Ovary
2. Ovule
3. Embryo sac
4. Nucellus.

Answer: 3. Embryo sac

Double Fertilization In Plants NEET MCQs

Question 83. In the diagram given above, parts labelled as *P\ ‘Q\ ‘R’,‘S’, ‘T\ ‘U’ are respectively identified as

1. synergids, polar nuclei, central cell, antipodal cell, filiform apparatus and egg.
2. polar nuclei egg, antipodal cell, central cell, filiform apparatus and synergids.
3. egg, synergids, central cell, filiform apparatus, antipodal cell and polar nuclei
4. central cell, polar nuclei, filiform apparatus, antipodal cell, synergids and egg.

Answer: 1. synergids, polar nuclei, central cell, antipodal cell, filiform apparatus and egg.

Question 84. If an endosperm cell of an angiosperm contains 24 chromosomes, the number of chromosomes in each cell of the root will be :

1. 8
2. 4
3. 16
4. 24.

Answer: 4. 16

Question 85.In ovule meiosis occurs in :

1. Megaspore
2. Megaspore mother cell
3. Endosperm
4. Integument

Answer: 2. Megaspore mother cell

Question 86.The female gametophyte of a typical dicot at the time of
fertilization is :

1. 8-celled
2. 7-celled
3. 6-celled ‘
4. 4-celled.

Answer: 2. 7-celled

Question 87. Development of embryo sac from any cell of nucellus is called :

1. Apogamy
2. Apospory
3. Parthenogenesis
4. Sporogenesis.

Answer: 2. Apospory

Double Fertilization In Plants NEET MCQs

Important MCQs on Reproduction in Flowering Plants Question 88. The method of fertilization (in an angiosperm) in which the pollen tube enters the ovule by way of micropyle is known as:

1. Chalazogamy
2. Porogamy
3. Microgamy
4. Syngamy.

Answer: 2. Porogamy

Question 89. Simple fruit develops from :

1. The single ovary which is simple
2. The single ovary which is a compound
3. The single ovary which may be simple or compound
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3 . The single ovary which may be simple or compound

Question 90. Parthenocarpic fruit is :

1. Fruit with immature seeds
2. Fruit, with mature seed
3. Developed without fertilization
4. Only seeds and no fruits.

Answer: 3. Developed without fertilization

Question 91. After fertilization, the ovary is converted into :

1. Embryo
2. Endosperm
3. Seed
4. Fruit.

Answer: 4. Fruit.

Question 92. Perisperm in angiosperm seed is derived from :

1. Nucellus
2. Endosperm
3. Integuments
4. Antipodal cells.

Answer: 1. Nucellus

Question 93. The entry of the pollen tube into the embryo sacs through the chalaza is called :

1. Porogamy
2. Monogamy
3. Chalazogamy
4. C either A or B.

Answer: 3. Chalazogamy

Question 94.Ovule is ategenic in :

1. Helianthus
2. Pea
3. Santalum
4. Brassica.

Answer: 3. Santalum

Question 95. Vivipary is of common occurrence in

1. Halophytes
2. xerophytes
3. Hydrophytes
4. Psaminophytes.

Answer: 1. Halophytes

Sexual Reproduction In Flowering Plants MCQs NEET

Question 96. Polyembryony commonly occurs in < 0

1. Turmeric
2. Tomato.
3. Potato
4. Citrus.

Answer: 4. Citrus.

Question 97. The main embryo develops from the structure formed as a result of fusion of:

1. Two polar nuclei of embryo sac
2. Egg cell and male gamete
3. Synergid and male gamete
4. Male gamete and antipodals.

Answer: 2. Egg cell and male gamete

Question 98. The function of an obturator for any ovular structure is to :

1. Nourish ovule
2. Nourish pollen grains
3. Guide pollen tube towards micropyle
4. Keep the ovule alive.

Answer: 3. Guide pollen tube towards micropyle

Question 99. The term xenia denotes the effect of the following:

1. Pollen on endosperm
2. Pollen on egg
3. Pollen on nucellus
4. Pollen on the seed coat.

Answer: 1. Pollen on endosperm

Question 100. Polygonum type of embryo sac is:

1. 8-nucleate, 7-celled
2. 8-nucleate, 8-celled
3. 7-nucleate, 7-celled
4. 4-nucleate, 3-celled.

Answer: 1. 8-nucleate, 7-celled

Question 101. Which of the following statements is true for the pollen tube :

1. It shows the growth of intent
2. It is composed of three non-cellular zones
3. It shows thigmotactic movement
4. It shows cytoplasmic streaming.

Answer: 1. It shows the growth of intent

Sexual Reproduction In Flowering Plants MCQs NEET

Question 102. Lire seed coat develops from the

1. Sepals
2. Ovary wall
3. Ovule wall
4. Endosperm.

Answer: 3. Ovule

Question 103. Which of the following is required for germination of
seeds?

1. Certain temperature conditions
2. Oxygen
3. Water
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 104. The fusion of egg with male gamete is called :

1. Syngamy
2. Apogamy
3. Autogamy
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Syngamy

Question 105. In angiosperms, the oospore on development produces :

1. Endosperm
2. Protonema
3. Embryo
4. Seed.

Answer: 3. Embryo

Question 106. A female gametophyte would be found in the :

1. Ovule
2. Stigma
3. Endosperm
4. Seed.

Answer: 1. Ovule

Sexual Reproduction In Flowering Plants MCQs NEET

Question 107. Pollen grain gets nutrition fronts

1. Endothecium
2. Tape turn
3. Sporogenous sac
4. Middle layer.

Answer: 2 . Tape turn

Question 108 .The nucellus of the ovule is :

1. Haploid
2. Diploid
3. Triploid
4. Polyploid.

Answer: 2 .Diploid

Sexual Reproduction In Flowering Plants MCQ For NEET Question109 .The diagram given below shows ovules megasporogenesis and megagametogenesis in an angiosperm named Polygonum.

Reduction division takes place at which step?

1. Step 1
2. Step 2
3. Steps 2 and 3
4. Steps 3 and 4

Answer: 1. Step 1

Question 110. In the case of angiosperms, pollen grain produces :

1. Female gametophyte
2. Sporophyte
3. Male gametophyte
4. All the above.

Answer: 3. Male gametophyte

Question 111.Sexual reproduction in which morphologically and physiologically similar gametes fuse is termed as :

1. Plasrnogamy
2. Anisogamy
3. Isogamy
4. Oogamy.

Answer: 3. Isogamy

Question 112. A normal plant suddenly started reproducing parthenogenetically. ‘The number of chromosomes of the second generation as compared to the parent plant will be :

1. Double
2. Half
3. One fourth
4. same.

Answer: 4. same.

Important Questions On Reproduction In Flowering Plants

Question 113. If cotyledons remain below soil during germination, it is:

1. Rhypogeal germination
2. vivipary
3. Epigeal germination
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Rhypogeal germination

Question 114. Seeds are dispersed by :

1. Water
2. Living organism
3. Wind
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 115. Micropyle of ovule allows entry of:

1. Pollen tube
2. water
3. Wind
4. All the above.

Answer:  1. Pollen tube

Question 116. When seeds develop without meiosis and syngamy, the phenomenon is :

1. Parthenogenesis
2. Parthenocarpy
3. Agamospermy
4. Apogamy.

Answer: 4. Apogamy.

Question 117. The inner integument of the majority of the dicot seed is :

1. Hypocotyl
2. Scutellum
3. Funicle
4. Tegmen

Answer: 4. Tegmen

Question 118. Epigeal seed germination is found in :

1. Wheat
2. Castor
3. Pea
4. Maize.

Answer:  2. Castor

Question 119. Which of the following statements is correct?

1. In angiosperms, the main plant body is gametophytic and
   sporophytic generation is reduced
2. In angiosperms, the main plant body is sporophytic and gametophytic
   generation is altogether absent
3. In angiosperms the main plant body is sporophytic and the male and
   female gametophytes are represented by pollen and embryo sacs respectively
4. In angiosperms, the ovules and anthers are gametophytic whereas all other parts are sporophytic.

Answer: 3. In angiosperms the main plant body is sporophytic and the male and female gametophytes are represented by pollen and embryo sacs respectively

Question 120. Monosporic, 8 nucleate embryo sac is called :

1. Allium type
2. Oenothera type
3. Polygonum type
4. Peperomia type.

Answer:  3. Polygonum type

Question 121. An example of triploid tissue is :

1. Fern prothallus
2. Cycas ovule
3. Lily endosperm
4. Moss capsule.

Answer : 3 . Lily endosperm

Question 122. If soaked pea seeds are kept in four separate flasks, the best germination will be in the flask having :

1. Oxygen
2. Carbon dioxide
3. Nitrogen
4. Water.

Answer: 1. Oxygen

Important Questions On Reproduction In Flowering Plants

Question123.Which of the following plants are likely to have a wider range of distribution?

1. Those distributed by seeds
2. Those distributed by spores
3. Those distributed vegetatively
4. Those distributed by fruits.

Answer: 1. Those distributed by seeds

Question 124. In albuminous seeds, the food is stored mostly in :

1. Cotyledons
2. Endosperm
3. Testa
4. Plumule.

Answer: 2. Endosperm

Question125.For the formation of 50 zygotes in a tobacco plant, the minimal number of meiosis involved would be:

1. 59
2. 63
3. 99
4. 109.

Answer: 2. 63

Question 126.In angiosperms normally after fertilization:

1. The zygote divides earlier than the primary endosperm nucleus
2. The primary endosperm nucleus divides earlier than the zygote
3. TO both the zygote and primary endosperm nuclei divulge simultaneously
4. Both the /vote and primary endosperm nuclei undergo a resting period.

Answer: 2. The primary endosperm nucleus divides earlier than the zygote

Question1 27. Match the two columns and select the correct answer

P Q  R S

1. 3  2  4  1
2. 2  3  4  1
3. 2  3  1  4
4. 1  2  3  4

Answer: 2. 2  3  4  1

Question 128. Match column-1 with column-2 and select the correct option from the codes given below.

1. 1→ B  2 →D  →3→ A  4→ 3
2. 1 →B  2→ D  3 →C  4 →A
3. 1 →C  2→ B  3 →A  4 →D
4. 1 →D  2 →C  3→ B  4 →A

Answer: 1. 1→ B  2 →D  →3→ A  4→ 3

NEET Biology Blood Circulatory System in Animals Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. The main difference in the circulation of blood and lymph is :

1. Lymphatics possess valves
2. movement of lymph is due to lymph heart
3. Lymph always moves towards the heart
4. Lymph moves unidirectionally in lymphatics.

Answer: 3. Lymph always moves towards the heart

Question 2. If you were asked to dissect an animal so as to reveal a valve, which of the following places would be good to try:

1. At the opening between the right atrium and the right ventricle
2. the fork where the pulmonary artery splits and one branch goes to each lung
3. the base of the aorta where it leaves the left ventricle
4. a vein in the arm.

Answer: 2. the fork where the pulmonary artery splits and one branch goes to each lung

Question 3. The introduction of a bacterial antigen into the body triggers a response specifically against the antigen by :

1. causing antibody molecules to assume a shape that permits them to bind and agglutinate the antibody
2. causing mutations in cells so that they produce antibodies to the antigen that caused the mutation
3. causing cells with the proper antibody to disintegrate and release the antibody
4. stimulating the reproduction of cells that make the antibody to that antigen.

Answer: 4. stimulating reproduction of cells that make the antibody to that antigen

Question 4. If most of its lymphocytes were drained out of an animal via the thoracic duct, the animal would not:

1. lose its ability to combat cancer and produce new lymphocytes
2. lose its ability to reject skin grafts
3. lose its ability to mount a secondary immune response
4. produce an increased number of red blood cells.

Answer: 4. produce an increased number of red blood cells.

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 5. Haemoglobin transports oxygen to the extent of:

1. 97% to 98%
2. 90 to 92%
3. 60 to 70%
4. 70 to 80%.

Answer: 1. 97% to 98%

Blood Circulatory System MCQs For NEET

Question 6. Which one of the following blood vessels has a thick muscular coat?

1. Veins
2. Capillaries
3. Arteries
4. Lymphatics.

Answer: 3. Arteries

Question 7. Which chamber of the human heart has the thickest muscular wall?

1. Right atrium
2. Left atrium
3. Right ventricle
4. Left ventricle.

Answer: 4. Left ventricle

Question 8. The blood flow is fast and with jerks in :

1. arteries
2. veins
3. veins and capillaries
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. arteries

Question 9. Haemoglobin is found dissolved in the plasma of:

1. man
2. frog
3. birds
4. earthworm.

Answer: 4. earthworm.

Question 10. The correct sequence followed by the blood flowing through the heart of the frog is:

1. sinus venosus, right auricle, left auricle, truncus arteriosus
2. truncus arteriosus, ventricle, right auricle, left auricle
3. sinus venosus, left auricle, truncus arteriosus, right auricle
4. sinus venosus, right auricle, ventricle, truncus arteriosus.

Answer: 4. sinus venosus, right auricle, ventricle, truneus arteriosus.

Question 11. Which of the following is not a difference between the circulatory system of mammals and those of insects?

1. Substances must cross a vessel wall to reach the cells of mammals, but the blood of insects is in direct contact with their cells
2. Blood moves randomly in an insect but in a definite path in a mammal
3. Insects do not transport oxygen in their transport system, whereas mammals do
4. Mammals have much higher blood pressure than that of insects.

Answer: 2. Blood moves randomly in an insect, but in a definite path in a mammal

Question 12. A type of blood bank from which reserves of erythrocytes may be quickly mobilized when needed by the body is the :

1. liver
2. bone marrow
3. intestinal mesentery
4. spleen.

Answer: 4. spleen.

Blood Circulatory System MCQs For NEET

Question 13. The posterior pair of lymph hearts in frogs pump lymph into :

1. brachial vein
2. femoral vein
3. sciatic vein
4. external jugular vein.

Answer: 2. femoral vein

Question 14. Blood enters the heart because muscles of the :

1. atria contract
2. atria relax
3. ventricles contract
4. ventricles relax.

Answer: 2. atria relax

Question 15. The breakdown product of haemoglobin is :

1. biliverdin and bilirubin
2. globulin
3. biliverdin
4. calcium.

Answer: 1. biliverdin and bilirubin

Question 16. Blood from the kidneys of humans is returned by :

1. renal arterioles
2. renal vein and renal portal vein
3. renal veins
4. Bidder’s canal.

Answer: 3. Renal veins

Question 17. How many renal veins emerge out of frog and mammalian kidneys respectively?

1. 2,4
2. 4,1
3. 4,4
4. 1,1.

Answer: 2. 4,1

Question 18. Select advantage of a double circulation ova u single circulation

1. In the double circulation, all the blood going to the tissue is oxygenated. whereas in single circulation it is not
2. In the double circulation. the blood can transport more types of substances
3. In double circulation, the blood is at higher pressure when it enters the body tissues and the blood travels around the body faster
4. In a double circulation, there are twice as many blood vessels servicing the body tissues.

Answer: 3. In double circulation, the blood is at higher pressure when it enters the body tissues and the blood travels around the body faster

Question 19. In the amphibian heart, the cavity present at the base of truncus arteriosus is called :

1. cavum pulmocutaneum
2. synagium
3. pylangium
4. cavum aorticum.

Answer: 3. pylangium

Blood Circulatory System MCQs For NEET

Question 20. The shoulder and forelimb are connected to the heart by :

1. subclavian artery
2. oesophageal artery
3. occipitovertebral
4. dorsal aorta.

Answer: 1. subclavian artery

Question 21. What will happen to the body of an adult man if the spleen is removed?

1. RBC production will be lowered
2. Antibody production will be less
3. Filtration of dead RBC will not be there
4. WBC production will be lowered.

Answer: 3. Filtration of dead RBC will not be there

Question 22. In persons suffering from sickle cell anaemia, erythrocytes become sickle-shaped when :

1. CO₂, concentration in the blood rises
2. 0₂ concentration in blood rises
3. 0₂concentration in the blood falls considerably
4. diet provides an insufficient amount of vitamin B₁₂

Answer: 3. 0₂concentration in the blood falls considerably

Question 23. The greatest amount of oxygen will be lost from the blood while it is travelling through :

1. the capillaries around the alveoli
2. the left atrium of the heart
3. the arteries
4. the capillaries in the body.

Answer: 4. the capillaries in the body.

Question 24. The blood pressure is high in :

1. veins of the portal system
2. veins bringing the blood from the head
3. arteries
4. capillaries.

Answer: 3. arteries

Question 25. The exchange of materials between blood and interstitial fluid only at the :

1. capillaries
2. veins
3. arteries
4. arterioles.

Answer: 1. capillaries

Important Questions On Circulatory System NEET

Question 26. The rate of heartbeat per minute is highest in the case of:

1. elephant
2. whale
3. man
4. mouse.

Answer: 4. mouse

Question 27. Pick up the cells of bone marrow which give rise to all types of corpuscles of blood :

1. Plasmocytes
2. Megablasts
3. Osteoblasts
4. Reticular cells and haemocytoblasts.

Answer:  4. Reticular cells and haemocytoblasts.

Question 28. The proximal veins collect blood from :

1. head and hind limbs
2. lore limbs and hind limbs
3. head and forelimbs
4. trunk and forelimbs.

Answer: 3. head and forelimbs

Question 29. Thrombosis in which coronary artery is met most frequently in Ml (Myocardial infarction):

1. Right coronary artery
2. Left anterior descending artery
3. Left green flex coronary artery
4. Right circumflex coronary artery.

Answer: 1. Right coronary artery

Question 30. The portal system present in all the vertebrates is :

1. hepatic
2. renal
3. pulmonary
4. Both  1 and 3

Answer: 1. hepatic

Question 31. S.A. node is a small flattened ellipsoid strip of muscle fibre measuring about:

1. 0.3 mm
2. 3 mm
3. 0.6 mm
4. 6 mm.

Answer: 1. 0.3 mm

Question 32. Haemolysis can occur in one of the following cases:

Answer: 4.

Question 33. The first heart sound created by the closure of the AV valve is loud. It lasts for:

1. 0.10 sec
2. 0.16 to 90
3. 0.5 sec
4. 0.5 to 20 sec.

Answer: 2. 0.16 to 90

Important Questions On Circulatory System NEET

Question 34. Patients in which atrial impulse suddenly falls to be transmitted to ventricles. Such a case is called :

1. Ventricular escape
2. Stokes
3. Adams syndrome
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 35. The free edges of the auriculo-ventricular valves are joined to the wall of the heart of fine collagen fibres called :

1. papillary
2. columnar camera
3. chordate tendineae
4. connecting fibres.

Answer: 3. chordate tendineae

Question 36. The right auricle of the heart of a human is :

1. equal to the left
2. smaller than the left
3. larger than the left
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. larger than the left

Important Questions On Circulatory System NEET

Question 37. The heart of fish is :

1. two chambered
2. single chambered
3. four chambered
4. three-chambered.

Answer: 1. two chambered

Question 38. Opening of pulmonary vein to left auricle is guarded by :

1. three semilunar valves
2. bicuspid valve
3. tricuspid valve
4. No valve.

Answer: 4. No valve.

Question 39. In a closed circulatory system, blood is completely closed within :

1. vessels
2. skeleton
3. sinuses
4. heart.

Answer: 1. vessels

Question 40.  The heart is enclosed in a double-walled thin bag called :

1. peritoneal
2. pericardial
3. pericardium
4. visceral peritoneum.

Answer: 3. pericardium

Question 41. The main function of pericardial fluid is :

1. lubrication
2. protective
3. protective and lubrication
4. antiseptic.

Answer: 3. protective and lubrication

Question 42. The heart is made of:

1. cardiac muscles
2. longitudinal muscles
3. horizontal muscles
4. connective muscles and horizontal muscles.

Answer: 1. cardiac muscles

Question 43. The absolute refractory period of the heart is :

1. during contraction when the heart is in a non-responding period
2. during expansion
3. during negative charge
4. during positive charge.

Answer: 1. during a contraction when the heart is in a non-responding period

Important Questions On Circulatory System NEET

Question 44. The heart muscles work rhythmically always by :

1. external stimuli
2. their own property
3. action of liver
4. action of hormones.

Answer: 2. their own property

Question 45. In the mammalian heart, there is very swift conduction of stimulation all over the heart because of:

1. bundle of His and Purkinje fibres
2. pericardial fluid
3. peritoneum
4. proteins in the heart.

Answer: 1. bundle of His and Purkinje fibres

Types Of Circulatory System MCQs

Question 46. Heartbeats are affected by :

1. vagus nerve which increases the heartbeats
2. vagus nerve which reduces the heartbeats
3. central nervous system
4. digestive system.

Answer: 2. vagus nerve which reduces the heartbeats

Question 47. Heartbeats are accelerated by the :

1. cranial nerve
2. stomach peristalsis
3. number of red blood cells
4. sympathetic nerves.

Answer: 4. sympathetic nerves.

Question 48. Ringer’s solution contains :

1. Iodine and salt
2. Acetic acid and wax
3. Sodium and potassium ions
4. Water and acid fuschin.

Answer: 3. Sodium and potassium ions

Types Of Circulatory System MCQs

Question 49. The heartbeat is initiated by a special heart tissue embodied in the wall of the right wall of the right auricle. This is called :

1. sinu-auricular node
2. sinu-ventricular node
3. auriculo-vcntricular node
4. Rt. ventricle and Lt. ventricle nodes.

Answer: 1. sinu-auricular node

Question 50. The common name of the sinus-auricular node is:

1. Pacesetter
2. Pacemaker
3. Blood regulator
4. Blood colloid.

Answer: 2. Pacemaker

Question 51. As in other cells, heart muscle fibres also carry an electric charge. This is:

1. positive on the outer surface and negative on the inner
2. negative on the outer surface and positive on the inner
3. positive on both inner and outer surfaces
4. negative on both inner and outer surfaces.

Answer: 1. positive on the outer surface and negative on the inner

Types Of Circulatory System MCQs

Question 52. The opening of auricles into the ventricle in frogs is guarded by :

1. a single semilunar valve
2. three semilunar valves
3. auriculo-ventricular valve
4. a sphincter.

Answer: 3. auriculo-ventricular valve

Question 53. During the coagulation of blood, vitamin K helps in the :

1. conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
2. formation of prothrombin
3. conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
4. formation of thromboplastin.

Answer: 2. formation of prothrombin

Question 54. Oxygenated blood enters the heart in the :

1. right ventricle
2. right auricle
3. left ventricle
4. left auricle.

Answer: 4. left auricle.

Question 55. The sciatic vein collects blood and pours it in :

1. pelvic vein
2. renal portal vein
3. renal vein
4. anterior abdominal vein.

Answer: 2. renal portal vein

Human vs Animal Circulatory System NEET MCQs

Question 56. Blood from the lungs of humans is carried by :

1. azygos vein
2. anterior abdominal
3. pulmonary vein
4. cutaneous vein.

Answer: 3. Pulmonary vein

Question 57. When a normal frog is injected with the physiological concentration of adrenaline, the heartbeat shows :

1. Initiation of heartbeat
2. Conduction of heartbeat
3. Increased rate of heartbeat
4. Release of acetylcholine.

Answer: 3. Increased rate of heartbeat

Question 58. The circulation of blood was first discovered by :

1. Lamarck
2. William Harvey
3. Darwin
4. Hugo de Vries.

Answer: 2. William Harvey

Question 59. The opening of the upper chamber of the heart into the lower chamber is known as :

1. sinu-auricular aperture
2. auriculo-ventricular aperture
3. atrioventricular septum
4. atrioventricular node.

Answer: 2. auriculo-ventricular aperture

Question 60. The blood leaving the lungs is richer than the blood entering the lungs in :

1. the number of RBC per ml. of blood
2. the amount of oxygen per ml. of blood
3. the amount of haemoglobin per ml. of blood
4. the amount of nutrients per ml. of blood.

Answer: 2. the amount of oxygen per ml. of blood

Question 61. The artery which carries deoxygenated blood is known as :

1. pulmonary artery
2. aorta
3. coronary artery
4. pulmocutaneous.

Answer: 1. pulmonary artery

Question 62. When the valves prevent the backflow of the blood, the circulation stent is called as

1. bilateral
2. lateral
3. closed
4. Open

Answer: 2. lateral

Question 63. The intravenous injection of blood plasma or serum with the object of restoring the blood volume is known its:

1. transplantation
2. Trasfusion
3. transcription
4. vaccination.

Answer: 2. Transfusion

Human vs Animal Circulatory System NEET MCQs

Question 64. Which of the following statements is true for arteries?

1. Arteries are thin-walled and blood in them is under low pressure
2. Arteries are thin-walled and blood in them is under high pressure
3. Arteries are thick-walled and blood in them is under low pressure
4. Arteries are thick-walled and blood in them is under high pressure.

Answer: 4. Arteries are thick-walled and blood in them is under high pressure.

Question 65. Perfusion of the heart of a frog with acetylcholine will cause :

1. decreased heartbeat
2. systolic arrest
3. diastolic arrest
4. extra systole.

Answer: 1. decreased heartbeat

Question 66. The connection between arteries and veins is through :

1. Arteriole
2. venule
3. capillaries
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. capillaries

Human vs Animal Circulatory System NEET MCQs

Question 67. The blood which after circulation comes from the liver to the heart has :

1. increased CO₂, content
2. increased bile content
3. increased blood content
4. increased 0₂ content.

Answer: 1. increased CO₂ content

Question 68. The innermost coat of the wall of the artery is called :

1. tunica extrema
2. tunica media
3. arnica adventitia
4. endothelium.

Answer: 4. endothelium

Question 69. The wall of the vein is :

1. thin
2. thick
3. equal to that of the artery
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. thin

Question 70. Tunica media of blood vessels is formed of:

1. endothelium
2. connective tissue
3. unstriped muscle fibres
4. Both 1 and 3.

Answer: 3. Unstriped muscle fibres

Question 71. An adult human with average health has systolic and diastolic pressures as :

1. 80 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg
2. 70 mm Hg and 120 mm Hg
3. 120 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg
4. 50 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg.

Answer: 3. 120 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg

Question 72. With respect to the ABO group, there are found major blood types because this blood group is determined by :

1. three alleles, all of which are co-dominant
2. three alleles, all of which are recessive
3. three alleles, of which two are recessive and the third is dominant
4. three alleles, of which two are codominant and the third is recessive.

Answer: 4. three alleles, of which two are codominant and the third is recessive

Human vs Animal Circulatory System NEET MCQs

Question 73. Heartbeats are affected by.

1. Carbon dioxide
2. Oxygen
3. Vagus nerve
4. All of these.

Answer: 3. Vagus nerve

Question 74. Which of the following Is the cancerous state of blood?

1. Chloremia
2. leukaemia
3. Uremia
4. Proteinemia

Answer: 2. leukaemia

Question 75. Oxygenated blood Is found lit :

1. Pulmonary veins
2. Pulmonary arteries
3. Right atrium
4. Right ventricle,

Answer: 1. Pulmonniy veins

Question 76. Heartbeat originates from :

1. Pacemaker
2. Cardiac muscles
3. Left atrium
4. Right ventricle.

Answer: 1. Pacemaker

Question 77. In vertebrate blood the carrier of oxygen to the tissues or respiratory pigment is.

1. Plasma
2. Lymphocytes
3. Leucocytes
4. Haemoglobin.

Answer: 4. Haemoglobin

Question 78. Who discovered the Rh factor?

1. Huxley
2. Landsteincr
3. Landsteiner and Weiner
4. Weiner.

Answer: 3. Landsteiner and Weiner

NEET Biology Chapter-wise MCQs

Question 79. The gene for the main factor for the clotting of blood is present.

1. X chromosome
2. Y chromosome
3. Both the X and Y chromosome
4. Autosomes.

Answer: 1. X chromosome

Question 80. Which of the following is not a granulocyte?

1. Lymphocyte
2. Eosinophil
3. Basophil
4. Neutrophil.

Answer: 1. Lymphocyte

Question 81. The life span of human W.B.C. is approximately :

1. 48 hours
2. 24 hours
3. 120 days
4. 100 hours.

Answer: 1. 48 hours

Question 82. Megakaryocytes give rise to :

1. Erythrocytes
2. Granulocytes
3. Agranulocytes
4. Thrombocytes.

Answer: 4. Thrombocytes

Question 83. Which of the following statements is not correct for sickle cell anaemia?

1. The sixth amino acid (from the NH₂ terminus) of the beta chain is glutamic acid
2. Erythrocytes elongate and form sickle-shaped cells
3. Individuals homozygous for the haemoglobin S allele are Hb B /Hb B
4. The beta chain of haemoglobin S contains valine.

Answer: 1. Sixth amino acid (from the NH₂ terminus) of the beta chain is glutamic acid

Question 84. The mitral valve is present between :

1. Left auricle and left ventricle
2. Right auricle and right ventricle
3. The right ventricle and aortic arch
4. Left ventricle and pulmonary arch.

Answer: 1. Left auricle and left ventricle

Question 85. Which of the following factors is known as the ‘Christmas factor’ :

1. Factor VIII
2. Factor XII
3. Factor IV
4. Factor IX.

Answer: 4. Factor IX

Question 86. Nucleated RBCs found in :

1. Man
2. Rat
3. Frog
4. Rabbit

Answer: 3. Frog

Question 87. In rabbits cardiac sphincter is found in :

1. Heart, on left dorsal aorta.
2. Heart, on right auricle and ventricle
3. Between the oesophagus and stomach
4. Between stomach and duodenum.

Answer: 3. Between the oesophagus and stomach

NEET Biology Chapter-wise MCQs

Question 88. The tendons connecting papillary muscles and heart valves are called :

1. Muscle column
2. Heart tendon
3. Chordae tendineae
4. Pedirate muscles.

Answer: 3. Chordae tendineae

Body Fluids And Circulation MCQ  Question 89. QRS is related to:

1. Ventricular contraction
2. Ventricular relaxation
3. Auricular contraction
4. Depolarisation.

Answer: 1. Ventricular contraction

Question 90. Sinus venous is absent in :

1. Mammals
2. Frog
3. Reptiles
4. Amphibians.

Answer: 1. Mammals

Question 91. The pacemaker of the heart is made up of :

1. Smooth muscles
2. Cardiac muscles
3. Nerve tissue
4. Triage

Answer: 2. Cardiac muscles

Question 92. The pacemaker of the heart is introduced for :

1. Regulation of heartbeat
2. Conduction of heartbeat
3. To stop the heartbeat
4. Pacemaker is absent.

Answer: 1. Regulation of heartbeat

NEET Biology Chapter-wise MCQs

Question 93. Vertebrate’s heart originates from :

1. A splanchnic layer of mesoderm facing the anterior intestinal part
2. Ectoderm lying over the forebrain
3. The inner lining of the neural tube
4. Primitive streak

Answer: 1. Splanchnic layer of mesoderm facing the anterior intestinal part

Question 94. The rate of heartbeat is controlled by :

1. Vagus only
2. Sympathetic nervous system
3. Both the vagus and sympathetic nervous system
4. Hormones only.

Answer: 3. Both the vagus and sympathetic nervous system

Question 95. O₂ carrying capacity of blood is :

1. 1200ml./100 ml of blood
2. 1200ml./100 ml of blood
3. l20 ml 7100 ml of blood
4. 500ml./100 ml of blood.

Answer: 3. l20 ml 7100 ml of blood

Question 96. At high altitudes, some changes take place in blood. This change is :

1. Increase in leucocyte count
2. Increase in red blood corpuscles count
3. Decrease in red blood cell count
4. Increase in blood platelets.

Answer: 2. Increase in red blood corpuscles count

Question 97. The chambered heart are found in :

1. Squamata
2. Lacertilian
3. Crocodilia
4. DiOphidia.

Answer: 3. Crocodilia

Question 98. Normal WBC count is 5000 to 10,000 cub/mm of blood. When the number of WBCs falls below normal level this is called leucopenia. It occurs due to :

1. Tuberculosis
2. Typhoid fever
3. Allergies
4. Blood cancer.

Answer: 1. Tuberculosis

Question 99. The pulse rate is the result of:

1. Atrial systole
2. Atrial diastole
3. Ventricular systole
4. Ventricular diastole.

Answer: 3. Ventricular systole

Question 100. The venous system of a frog differs from rabbit in having :

1. Hepatic portal system
2. Renal portal system
3. Both hepatic and renal portal systems
4. Veins

Answer: 2. Renal portal system

Blood Circulatory System MCQs For NEET

Question 101. The heart is innervated by :

1. Vagus
2. Facial
3. Trigeminal
4. Glossopharyngeal

Answer: 1. Vagus

Question 102. The right atrium of a man’s heart receives blood from

1. Sinus venous
2. Pulmonary veins
3. Inferior vena cava
4. Superior and Inferior vena cava

Answer: 4. Superior and Inferior vena cava

Question 103. During diastole

1. Blood leaves the heart
2. Blood enters the heart
3. Blood leaves the ventricle
4. Blood enters the lungs.

Answer: 2. Blood enters the heart

Question 104. The bicuspid valve allows blood from :

1. Right auricle lo left ventricle
2. Right auricle lo right ventricle
3. Left auricle lo left ventricle
4. Postcaval to heart.

Answer: 3. Left auricle lo left ventricle

Question 105. Blood pressure is defined as :

1. The force with which blood pushes against the wall of the blood vessels
2. The force with which blood is pushed to the legs
3. The force with which blood comes out of the atrium.
4. The force with which blood comes out of the ventricle.

Answer: 1. The force with which blood pushes against the wall of the blood vessels

Blood Circulatory System MCQs For NEET

Question 106. Blood supply to the kidney is :

1. 25%
2. 20%
3. 90%
4. 50%.

Answer: 1. 25%

Question 107. Match the column :

1. A — q, B — t, C— r,  D — p
2. A — t,  B — p, C — q, D — r
3. A — t, B — r, C — p, D — q
4. A — t, B — p, C — r, D — q.

Answer: 3. A — t, B — r, C — p, D — q

Question 108. During high blood pressure, regulation of heartbeat and circulation is controlled by :

1. Vasodilator and vasoconstrictor centres.
2. Cardio-stimulatory and vasoconstrictor centres
3. Cardio-inhibitory and vasoconstrictor centres
4. Cardio-inhibitory and vasodilator centres.

Answer: 2. Cardio-stimulatory and vasoconstrictor centres

Question 109. What is true about veins?

1. All veins carry deoxygenated blood
2. All veins carry oxygenated blood
3. They carry blood from organs towards the heart
4. They carry blood from the heart towards the organs.

Answer: 3. They carry blood from organs towards the heart

Question 110. Blood pressure is measured by :

1. Sphygmomanometer
2. Phonocardiogrant
3. Electrocardiogram
4. Stethoscope.

Answer: 1. Sphygmomanometer

Question 111. In which of the capillary system is present

1. Arthropods
2. Cephalopods
3. Tunicates
4. Hemicordates

Answer: 2. Cephalopods

Blood Circulatory System MCQs For NEET

Question 112. The respiratory pigment is dissolved  in the plasma of blood in the case of:

1. Crustaceans
2. Cyclostomes
3. cnidarians
4. chondricthythes.

Answer: 1. Crustaceans

Question 113. The heart of the cockroach is 13-chambered, Each chamber bears a pair of aperture guarded by valves. The apertures are :

1. Sinn-auricular aperture
2. Aurieuloventrieular aperture
3. Ostia
4. Osculum.

Answer: 3. Ostia

Question 114. Which of the following is involved in maintaining the pH of the blood by buffering action?

1. Na+, K+ and Cl+₂
2. Ca₄. Mg₄₄ and HC0₃
3. HP0₄-2 and P0₄-3
4. All of the above.

Answer: 3. HP0₄-2 and P0₄-3

Question 115. Erythrocytes do not contain :

1. Haemoglobin
2. Carbonic anhydrase
3. Cl-
4. None of the above.

Answer: 4. None of the above

Question 116. Neutrophils are responsible for protection against infection. They constitute how much % age of total leucocyte count:

1. 3 %
2. 0.5 % to 1
3. 62 %
4. 30 %.

Answer: 3. 62 %

Question 117. Monocytes have kidney-shaped nuclei and constitute 5-6 per cent of total WBC. The diameter of a monocyte is about:

1. 10 -18 mm
2. 10 – 10 mm
3. 2 – 4 mm
4. 12 – 15 mm.

Answer: 1. 10 -18 mm

Question 118. If there is a complete mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in the heart, then :

1. blood to the lungs would be low in oxygen and the tissues would receive blood rich in oxygen
2. blood to the lungs would be rich in oxygen and the tissues would receive blood which is low in oxygen
3. lungs and tissues would receive blood with the same amounts of oxygen
4. tissues would receive completely oxygenated blood and lungs would receive complete
   deoxygenated blood.

Answer: 3. lungs and tissues would receive blood with the same amounts of oxygen

Body Fluids And Circulation NEET Biology Question 119. QRS in ECG is related to :

1. Atrial contraction
2. Ventricular contraction
3. Ventricular relaxation
4. Atrial relaxation.

Answer: 2. Ventricular contraction

Question 120. The most important centre for the formation of lymph is:

1. bone marrow
2. liver
3. pancreas
4. gastric glands.

Answer: 2. liver

Question 121. Which one of the following statements is correct?

1. The greater the 0₂ affinity of haemoglobin, the lower the extraction rate of oxygen
2. Terrestrial amphibians require much lower environmental oxygen pressure than aquatic forms
3. Aquatic reptile lorry require twice the environmental oxygen pressure than the terrestrial forms
4. The oxygen extraction power of haemoglobin is inversely proportional to the atmospheric pressure.

Answer: 4. The oxygen extraction power of haemoglobin is inversely proportional to the atmospheric pressure.

Question 122. Mammals native to high altitudes have haemoglobins of greater oxygen affinity than low-altitude forms because :

1. they need more oxygen than their, low altitude counterparts
2. the haemoglobin allows the extraction of oxygen from environments poor in oxygen (high altitudes) relative to low altitudes
3. they have less number of erythrocytes than their counterparts on low altitudes and increased oxygen affinity balances the reduced percentage of erythrocytes
4. the statement is not correct.

Answer: 2. the haemoglobin allows extraction of oxygen from environments poor in oxygen (high altitudes) relative to low altitudes

Question 123. The innermost layer of blood capillaries is made up of:

1. endothelial cells
2. haemocytes
3. elastic membrane
4. 1 and 3.

Answer: 4. 1 and 3

Body Fluids And Circulation NEET Biology Question 124. The cords of Billorth are blood spaces which are found in :

1. liver
2. tonsils
3. kidneys
4. spleen.

Answer: 4. spleen.

Question 125. Match the different leucocytes given under Column1 with their functions given under Column 2; choose the answer that gives the correct combination of alphabets of two columns

1. A = t, B = p, C = q, D = t
2. A = r, B = p, C = q, D = t
3. A = q, B = r, C = s, D = t
4. A = p, B = q, C = r, D = s.

Answer: 2. A = r, B = p, C = q, D = t

Question 126. Which vitamin helps in blood coagulation?

1. Vitamin K
2. Vitamin C
3. Vitamin A
4. Vitamin D

Answer: 1. Vitamin K

Question 127. Which one of the following is mainly responsible for the second heart sound?

1. Closure of atrioventricular valves.
2. Opening of atrioventricular valves.
3. Closure of semilunar valves.
4. Thrust of blood on ventricular wall during atria contraction.

Answer: 3. Closure of semilunar valves

NEET Biology Plant kingdom  Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Agar-agar is a complex carbohydrate. This is used widely for microbiological purposes. It is produced from:

1. Angiosperm
2. Red algae
3. Bacteria
4. Lichens.

Answer: 2. Red algae

Quanta 2. A filament of an alga can be differentiated from that of a fungus by :

1. Cells are uninucleate in algae whereas they are multinucleate in fungi
2. Chlorophyll is present in fungi and absent in algae
3. The presence of cellulose cell walls and chlorophyllous cells in algae and chitinous cell walls and non-chlorophyllous cells in fungi
4. The algae are green and the fungi are non-green.

Answer: 3. The presence of cellulose cell walls and chlorophyllous cells in algae and chitinous cell walls and non-chlorophyllous cells in fungi

Question 3. Classification of algae is based on :

1. Method of sexual reproduction
2. Differences in their habits
3. Distribution of photosynthetic pigments
4. Their occurrence in nature.

Answer: 3. Distribution of photosynthetic pigments

Question 4. A unicellular free green alga is :

1. Chlamydomonas
2. Pandorina
3. Eudorina
4. Nostoc.

Answer: 1. Chlamydomonas

Question 5. The chlamydomonas is :

1. Pear-shaped, unicellular and haploid
2. Oblong-shaped, multicellular and haploid
3. Reniform-shaped, unicellular and haploid
4. None of them.

Answer: 1. Pear-shaped, unicellular and haploid

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 6. The green colouring pigment structure present in Chlamydomonas is :

1. Double pear-shaped chloroplast
2. Chloroplasts are pear-shaped, triple in number
3. Single cup-shaped chloroplast
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Single cup-shaped chloroplast

Plant Kingdom MCQs For NEET

Question 7. Chlamydomonas reproduces asexually under favourable conditions by :

1. Zoospore formation
2. Spore formation
3. Gametes formation
4. Sex cell formation.

Answer: 1. Zoospore formation

Question 8. Which statement is true?

1. Spores and gametes are invariably diploids
2. Spores and gametes are invariably haploids
3. Only gametes are invariably haploids
4. Only spores are invariably haploids.

Answer: 2. Spores and gametes are invariably haploids

Question 9. When 3 spirogyra filaments are participating in conjugation, the possibilities are that:

1. The middle one may be female and the outer ones are male
2. The middle one may be male and the outer ones are female in which zygospores are formed
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 or 2.

Answer: 3. Both 1 and 2

Question 10. The zygospore of spirogyra at the time of germination divides into four nuclei. How many nuclei degenerate out of the four:

1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four.

Answer: 3. Three

Question 11. In the haplontic life cycle of algae, meiotic division takes place during :

1. Gamete formation
2. Spore formation
3. Zygote germination
4. Spore germination.

Answer: 3. Zygote germination

Plant Kingdom MCQs For NEET

Question 12. Nutrition in chlamydomonas is:

1. Heterotrophic
2. Parasitic
3. Autotrophic
4. Saprophytic.

Answer: 3. Autotrophic

Question 13. Chlamydomonas plant is:

1. Biflagellate
2. Aflagellate
3. Quadriflagellate
4. Uniflagellate.

Answer: 1. Biflagellate

Question 14. The resultant of gametic fusion in Chlamydomonas is :

1. Zoospore
2. Zygospore
3. A zygospore
4. Aplanospore.

Answer: 2. Zygospore

Question 15. In isogamous sexual reproduction of Chlamydomonas :

1. Similar gametes fuse
2. Dissimilar gametes fuse
3. Sperm and an egg fuse
4. Micro-gametes and macro-gametes fuse.

Answer: 1. Similar gametes fuse

Question 16. Oogamous sexual reproduction in Chlamydomonas occurs in:

1. Chlamydomonas braunii
2. Chlamydomonas coccifera
3. Chlamydomonas monoica
4. Chlamydomonas suboogama.

Answer: 2. Chlamydomonas coccifera

Plant Kingdom MCQs For NEET

Question 17. Chlamydomonas perennates employing:

1. Meiospores
2. Zoospores
3. Hypnospores
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Hypnospores

Question 18. Red-eye spot containing haematochrome is meant for :

1. Photosynthesis
2. Respiration
3. Photoreception
4. Movements.

Answer: 3. Photoreception

Question 19. Chlamydomonas belongs to

1. Myxophyceae
2. Phaeophyceae
3. Chlorophyceae
4. Rhodophyceae.

Answer: 3. Chlorophyceae

Question 20. The cell walls of diatoms are rich in :

1. Calcium
2. Lignin
3. Silica
4. Carbonate.

Answer: 3. Silica

Question 21. Pyrenoid is meant for:

1. Storage of protein
2. Storage of starch
3. Photosynthesis
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Storage of starch

Question 22. Ulothrlx can be described as a :

1. Filamentous alga with flagellated reproductive stages
2. Non-motile colonial alga lacking zoospores
3. Filamentous alga lacking flagellated reproductive
4. Stages. (Pre-medical/dental 1998)

Answer: 1. Filamentous alga with flagellated reproductive stages

Question 23. Zygospore is:

1. Haploid
2. Polyploid
3. Diploid
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Diploid

Question 24. Palmella stage is produced :

1. In rainy season
2. During unfavourable conditions
3. During favourable conditions
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. During unfavourable conditions

NEET MCQs On Plant Kingdom

Question 25. Flagellar movements are controlled by :

1. Photosynthesis
2. Contractile vacuoles
3. Neuromotor apparatus
4. Pyrenoids.

Answer: 3. Neuromotor apparatus

Question 26. Azygospores are produced by :

1. Isogamy
2. Anisogamy
3. Parthenogenesis
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Parthenogenesis

Question 27. Flagellated gametes are absent in :

1. Ectocarpus
2. Chara
3. Spirogyra
4. Ulothrix.

Answer: 3. Spirogyra

Question 28. In physiological anisogamy :

1. Gametes are morphologically similar but physiologically dissimilar
2. Gametes are morphologically similar
3. Gametes are unequal
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Gametes are morphologically similar but physiologically dissimilar

Question 29. Sexual reproduction takes place :

1. During- favourable conditions
2. At the end of growing season
3. In winter
4. When conditions are dry.

Answer: 2. At the end of the growing season

Question 30. Mark the one that is out of place :

1. Hypnospore
2. Aplanospore
3. Oospore
4. Akinete.

Answer: 3. Oospore

NEET MCQs On Plant Kingdom

Question 31. Thin-walled non-motile spore is known as:

1. Zoospore
2. Aplanospore
3. Zygospore
4. Hypnospore.

Answer: 2. Aplanospore

Question 32. Fusion of mature individuals which directly act as gametes is called :

1. Isogamy
2. Anisogamy
3. Hologamy
4. Autogamy.

Answer: 3. Hologamy

Question 33. A motile flagellated asexual cell is called :

1. Sperm
2. Zoospore
3. Oospore
4. Androspore.

Answer: 2. Zoospore

Question 34. A hypnospore is called so because it has :

1. Thick wall
2. Thin wall
3. No cell wall
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Thin wall

Question 35. Scalariform conjugation takes place in :

1. Chlamydomonas
2. Ulothrix
3. Spirogyra
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Spirogyra

Question 36. The unique characteristics of spirogyra vegetative cells are:

1. The cell wall is definite and thick
2. The cell wall is hygroscopic
3. Pyrenoid bodies are present
4. The nucleus has cytoplasmic strands.

Answer: 4. Nucleus is having cytoplasmic strands.

NEET MCQs On Plant Kingdom

NEET Biology MCQ Plant Kingdom Question 37. Groups of spirogyra in a pond or lake are supported by bubbles of gas. The gas is :

1. 02
2. N2
3. C02
4. Air.

Answer: 1. 02

Question 38. Spirogyra differs from protonema in :

1. Discoid chloroplast
2. Spiral chloroplast with pyrenoids
3. Branched rhizoids
4. Filaments are branched.

Answer: 2. Spiral chloroplast with pyrenoids

Question 39. Algae containing oil as reserve food belongs to :

1. Chlorophyceae
2. Phaeophyceae
3. Rhodophyceae
4. Xanthophyceae.

Answer: 4. Xanthophyceae.

Question 40. Palmella stage of Chlamydomonas is helpful in:

1. Protecting the algae against desiccation
2. Bringing about gametic union
3. Vegetative reproduction
4. Production of zoospore.

Answer: 1. Protecting the algae against desiccation

Question 41. Chlamydomonas monoica and c. Longistigma exhibit:

1. Isogamy
2. Anisogamy
3. Oogamy
4. All the above.

Answer: 1. Isogamy

Question 42. In spirogyra :

1. The filaments showing scalariform conjugation are homothallic
2. The filaments showing lateral conjugation are homothallic
3. The filaments showing lateral conjugation are heterothallic
4. Asexual reproduction occurs by zoospores.

Answer: 2. The filaments showing lateral conjugation are homothallic

NEET Important Questions On Plant Kingdom

Question 43. In spirogyra meiosis occurs at the time of:

1. Gamete formation
2. Vegetative reproduction
3. Zygospore germination
4. Conjugation.

Answer: 3. Zygospore germination

Question 44. Spirogyra reproduces sexually by :

1. Conjugation
2. Isogamy
3. Anisogamy
4. Oogamy.

Answer: 1. Conjugation

Question 45. Algae perennate by :

1. Hypnospore
2. Palmella stage
3. Akinetes
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 46. Lateral conjugation involves :

1. Only one filament
2. Two filaments
3. Many filaments
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Only one filament

Question 47. The filament of spirogyra is :

1. A colony of cells
2. A branched series of cells placed one upon the other
3. An unbranched series of cells placed one above the other
4. A tube-like structure without septa.

Answer: 3. Unbranched series of cells placed one above the other

NEET Important Questions On Plant Kingdom

Question 48. The zygote containing 4 teliospores in lothario is called:

1. Akinete
2. Pmthenospore
3. Incipient sporophyte
4. Chlamydospore.

Answer: 3. Incipient sporophyte

Question 49. The mingling of protoplasm without nuclear fusion is called :

1. Karyogamy
2. Syngamy
3. Isogamy
4. Plasmogamy.

Answer: 4. Plasmogamy.

Question 50. Flagellated stages occur in :

1. Spirogyra
2. Yeast
3. Ulothrix
4. Sunflower.

Answer: 3. Ulothrix

Question 51. Algae differ from bryophytes in possessing:

1. Naked sex organs
2. Sex organs covered with a sterile covering
3. Chlorophylls a and b
4. Aerobic respiration.

Answer: 1. Naked sex organs

Question 52. In Spiro Gyro, there are:

1. Many pyrenoids
2. One pyrenoid
3. Three pyrenoids
4. No pyrenoid.

Answer: 1. Many pyrenoids

Classification Of Plant Kingdom MCQs

Question 53. As a result of reduction division, spirogyra forms :

1. 4 Nuclei
2. 4 Zoospores
3. 4 Celled filaments
4. 4 Haploid protoplasts.

Answer: 1. 4 Nuclei

Plant Kingdom NEET Question 54. Asexual reproduction in spirogyra :

1. Has not been recorded
2. Takes place through the formation of zoospores
3. This takes place through the formation of aplanospores
4. Takes place by the formation of hypnospores.

Answer: 3. Takes place by formation of aplanospores

Question 55. Vegetative reproduction in spirogyra takes place by :

1. Budding
2. Parthenogenesis
3. Fragmentation
4. Hormogonia.

Answer: 3. Fragmentation

Question 56. Maximum number of chloroplasts recorded in spirogyra is :

1. 06
2. 12
3. 20
4. 16.

Answer: 4. 16

Question 57. The cell wall of spirogyra is composed of two layers which are made of:

1. Cellulose only
2. Pectin only
3. Cellulose and pectin
4. Cellulose and chitin.

Answer: 3. Cellulose and pectin

Question 58. Spirogyra is named pond scum or pond silk or water silk because :

1. The filament is made up of silk
2. Filament secretes silk
3. The cellulose layer is mucilaginous
4. The pectose layer is mucilaginous.

Answer: 4. Cellulose layer is mucilaginous

Classification Of Plant Kingdom MCQs

Question 59. Spirogyra occurs in :

1. Running salt water
2. Running fresh water
3. Stagnant salt water
4. Stagnant fresh water.

Answer: 4. Stagnant fresh water.

Question 60. Direct lateral conjugation is found in :

1. Spirogyra aplanospora
2. Spirogyra genesis
3. Spirogyra data
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Spirogyra genesis

Question 61. Physiological anisogamous sexual reproduction is found in :

1. Funaria
2. Selaginella
3. Pinus
4. Spirogyra.

Answer: 4. Spirogyra.

Question 62. Nostoc is characteristic in having :

1. Non- cellulosic cell wall
2. Uni- flagellated zoospore
3. Chlorophyll v
4. Sexual reproduction.

Answer: 1. Non- cellulosic cell wall

Bryophytes, Pteridophytes, Gymnosperms & Angiosperms MCQs

Question 63. Zygotic meiosis takes place in:

1. Selaginella
2. Spirogyra
3. Pinus
4. Brassica.

Answer: 2. Spirogyra

Question 64. Oil is the reserve food in:

1. Chlamydomonas (Chlorophyceae)
2. Vaucheria (Xanthophyceae)
3. Nostoc (Myxophyceae)
4. Sargassum (phaeophyceae).

Answer: 2. Vaucheria (Xanthophyceae)

Question 65. All algae have two pigments, they are :

1. Chlorophyll a and carotenes
2. Chlorophyll b and carotenes
3. Chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b
4. Phycobilins and carotene.

Answer: 1. Chlorophyll a and carotenes

Question 66. Which of the following produces gametes that show amoeboid movement?

1. Ulothrix
2. Cladophora
3. Spirogyra
4. Chlamydomonas.

Answer: 3. Spirogyra

Question 67. Two fusing gametes in spirogyra are :

1. Morphologically similar
2. Morphologically dissimilar
3. Morphologically similar but physiologically dissimilar
4. Morphologically and physiologically dissimilar.

Answer: 3. Morphologically similar but physiologically dissimilar

Bryophytes, Pteridophytes, Gymnosperms & Angiosperms MCQs

Question 68. Thermal algae are those which grow :

1. In deserts where the temperature is around 70°c
2. In hot water springs where the temperature is around 70°c
3. On rocks exposed to high temperature
4. In tropical regions of the world.

Answer: 2. In hot water springs where the temperature is around 70°c

Question 69. Spirogyra differs from rhizopus in having :

1. Uninucleate gametangia
2. Multicellular gametes
3. Anisogametes
4. Sexual reproduction.

Answer: 1. Uninucleate gametangia

Question 70. The green wavelength of sunlight is absorbed by :

1. Phycoerythrin
2. Carotenoids
3. Chlorophyll
4. Phycocyanin.

Answer: 1. Phycoerythrin

Question 71. Contraction of protoplast in spirogyra takes place :

1. Just before the formation of zoospores
2. Before the formation of gametes
3. Before the fusion of gametes
4. During the germination of zygospores.

Answer: 2. Before the formation of gametes

Question 72. Meiosis in Chlamydomonas occurs in:

1. Zygospore
2. Zoospore
3. Aplanospore
4. Hypnospore.

Answer: 1. Zygospore

Bryophytes, Pteridophytes, Gymnosperms & Angiosperms MCQs

Question 73. Which of the following is composed of unbranched filaments?

1. Volvox
2. Ulothrix
3. Spirogyra
4. Both 2 and 3.

Answer: 4. Both 2 and 3.

Question 74. Which of the following is a motile flagellate asexual spore?

1. Zoospore
2. Zygospore
3. Zygote
4. Aplanospore.

Answer: 1. Zoospore

Question 75. Storage products in Rhodophyta are:

1. Cellulose
2. Starch and oil
3. Glycogen
4. Floridian starch.

Answer: 4. Floridean starch.

Question 76. Red rust of tea is caused by :

1. Cephaleuros
2. Cystopus
3. Rhizopus
4. Bacteria.

Answer: 1. Cephaleuros

Question 77. Brown algae is characterised by the presence of:

1. Phycocyanin
2. Phycoerythrin
3. Fucoxanthin
4. Haematochrome.

Answer: 3. Fucoxanthin

Question 78. Which one is saponaceous:

1. Chlamydomonas
2. Spirogyra
3. Acetabularia
4. Ulothrix.

Answer: 3. Acetabularia

Bryophytes, Pteridophytes, Gymnosperms & Angiosperms MCQs

Question 79. The structure by which clathrin is attached to the substratum:

1. Rhizoid
2. Holdfast
3. Root
4. Trichome.

Answer: 2. Holdfast

Question 80. Agar, a nitrogenous jelly is prepared from :

1. Gelidium and gracilaria.
2. Spirogyra and ulothrix
3. Macrocystis
4. Macrocystis and laminaria.

Answer: 1. Gelidium and gracilaria.

Question 81. Ulothrix filaments produce :

1. Isogametes
2. Anisogametes
3. Heterogametes
4. Basidiospores.

Answer: 1. Isogametes

Question 82. Pyrenoids are made up of:

1. The core of starch is surrounded by a sheath of protein
2. The core of protein is surrounded by a fatty sheath
3. Proteinaceous centre and starchy sheath
4. The core of nucleic acid is surrounded by a protein

Answer: 3. Proteinaceous centre and starchy sheath

Question 83. Umbrella plant is :

1. Melia azedarach
2. Panicum decomposition
3. Acetabularia
4. Acacia oswaldii.

Answer: 3. Acetabularia

Question 84. An alga very rich in proteins is :

1. Spirogyra
2. Ulothrix
3. Oscillatoria
4. Chlorella.

Answer: 4. Chlorella.

Question 85. Which alga occurs in still fresh water?

1. Spirogyra
2. Laminaria
3. Sargassum
4. Polysiphonia.

Answer: 1. Spirogyra

Question 86. Motile coenobium occurs in :

1. Ulva
2. Palmella
3. Volvox
4. Hydrodictyon.

Answer: 3. Palmella

Question 87. Palmella stage of clathrin/Chlamydomonas is formed in response to:

1. Unfavourable environment
2. Toxic chemical
3. Water deficiency
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 88. Pigment present in hypnospores/zygospores of chlamydomonas is :

1. Haematochrome
2. A-carotene
3. Fucoxanthin
4. Anthocyanin.

Answer: 1. Haematochrome

NEET Biology The Living World Nature And Scope Of Biology Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. The term ‘biology’ for the study of living organisms was coined by.

1. Lamark and triviranus
2. Husley
3. Purkinje and von mohl
4. Aristotle

Answer: 1. Lamark and Trimarans

Question 2. Animals ate like plants in that they respire:

1. During day only
2. During night only
3. During day and night
4. When required only.

Answer: 3. During day and night

Question 3. Study of animal behaviour comes under:’

1. Ecology
2. Aetiology
3. Euthenics
4. Eugenics.

Answer: 2. Ethology

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 4. Areas which cannot be subjected to scientific analysis are:

1. Human intelligence
2. Human faith
3. Animal behaviour
4. Origin of life.

Answer: 2. Human faith

Question 5. The study of injuries and wounds is known as :

1. Tricology
2. Numerology
3. Traumatology
4. Torpedology.

Answer: 3. Traumatology

The Living World MCQs For NEET

Question 6. The study of the chemical aspect of living organisms:

1. Microbiology
2. Biochemistry
3. Cryobiology
4. Ethology.

Answer: 2. Biochemistry

Question 7. The science of characters and distribution of nice is known as:

1. Ethnology
2. Anthropology
3. Sociology
4. Malacology.

Answer: 1. Ethnology

Question 8. Dendrology is the study of:

1. Grasses
2. Flowers
3. Trees and shrubs
4. Trees.

Answer: 3. Trees and shrubs

Question 9. Agrostology is the cultivation of :

1. Oil seeds
2. Crops
3. Grasses
4. Fruit trees.

Answer: 3. Grasses

Question 10. Study of light effects on flowering of plants :

1. Photobiology
2. Photomorphogenesis
3. Photoperiodism
4. Vernalisation.

Answer: 3. Photoperiodism

Question 11. The most primitive vascular plants are:

1. Ferns
2. Brown algae
3. Cycas
4. Red algae.

Answer: 1. Ferns

Question 12. Biotechnology refers to :

1. Linkage
2. Cross-over
3. Recombination
4. Tissue culture.

Answer: 2. Cross-over

The Living World MCQs For NEET

Question 13. The science which deals with the classification, identification and naming of organisms is known as :

1. Physiology
2. Ecology
3. Systematic
4. Biology.

Answer: 3. Systematic

Question 14. The father of taxonomy is:

1. Charles Darwin
2. John ray
3. Julian Huxley
4. Carolus Linnaeus.

Answer:4. Carolus Linnaeus.

Question 16. Who was the first to classify animals?

1. Aucrbauch
2. Aristotle
3. Carolus Linnaeus
4. Darwin.

Answer: 2. Aristotle

Question 17. The genetic composition of the population about habitat is called :

1. Gynaecology
2. Gynaecology
3. Gerontology
4. Euthenics.

Answer: 2. Gynaecology

Question 18. The branch of zoology dealing with the study of fishes is called :

1. Herpetology
2. Ichthyology
3. Pisciculture
4. Saurology.

Answer: 2. Ichthyology

Question 19. The branch of zoology which deals with the study of visceral organs is called:

1. Angiology
2. Splanchnology
3. Anthology
4. Arthrology.

Answer: 2. Splanchnology

Question 20. The study of nests of birds is known as :

1. Craniology
2. Ichthyology
3. Nidology
4. None.

Answer: 3. Nidology

Question 21. Herpetology is the study of:

1. Birds
2. Snails
3. Marine fishes
4. Snakes.

Answer: 4. Snakes.

Question 22. Syndesmology is the study of:

1. Hormones
2. Skeletal joints
3. Desert
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Skeletal joints

The Living World MCQs For NEET

Question 23. The study of structural morphology and organisation is known as:

1. Tectology
2. Technology
3. Ontogeny
4. Osteology.

Answer: 1. Tectology

Question 24. The study of acquired characters is known as:

1. Tectology
2. Technology
3. Odontology
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Ctenology

Question 25. ‘Angiology’ is the study of:

1. Blood
2. Blood and the blood groups
3. Blood vessels
4. Heart attack.

Answer: 3. Blood vessels

Question 26. The study of coelenterates is called:

1. Cardiology
2. Gynaecology
3. Entomology
4. Cosmetology.

Answer: 1. Cnidology

Question 27. ‘Aerology’ is the study of:

1. Ticks and mites
2. Annelids
3. Aquatic insects
4. Crossbreed.

Answer: 1. Ticks and mites

Question 28. Branch of zoology which deals with the study of cartilage :

1. Conchology
2. Chondriology
3. Craniology
4. Cardiology

Answer: 2. Chondriology

Question 29. The study of ants is called

1. Tricology
2. Myrmecology
3. Mattologv
4. None of above

Answer: 2. Myrmecology

The Living World MCQs For NEET

Question 30. The branch of zoology which deals with the study of shells is known as

1. Coikhology
2. Ecology
3. Aetiology
4. Ornithology.

Answer: 1. Coikhology

Question 31. Ornithology is concerned with the study of:

1. Fishes
2. Birds
3. Animal fossils
4. Reptiles.

Answer: 2. Birds

Question 32. Red mood cells of mammals lack a nucleus except:

1. Horse
2. Rabbit
3. Camel
4. Elephant.

Answer: 3. Camel

Question 33. In the tobacco mosaic virus, heredity material is :

1. Rna
2. Dna
3. Lipid
4. Proteins.

Answer: 1. Rna

Question 34. Migration of birds is studied under:

1. Phenology
2. Kalology
3. Ornithology
4. Aetiology.

Answer: 1. Phenology

Question 35. In saurology, we study:

1. Flying birds
2. Lizards
3. Sea snakes
4. Earthworm.

Answer: 2. Lizards

Question 36. The study of olfactory organs and nose is called:

1. Phenology
2. Rhinology
3. Tricology
4. Phrenology.

Answer: 2. Rhinology

Question 37. The science dealing with the study of life at low temperatures is:

1. Cryobiology
2. Craniology
3. Kalology
4. Carcinology.

Answer: 1. Cryobiology

The Living World MCQs For NEET

Question 38. The study of growing old is called:

1. Gynaecology
2. Gerontology
3. Karyology
4. Tectology.
5. (M.p. P.m.t. 1996, Pb.p.m.t., 2000)

Answer: 2. Gerontology

Question 39. Kalology deals with the study of:

1. Human beauty
2. Nuclear cytology
3. Conditions of animals
4. Dead aquatic organisms.

Answer: 1. Human beauty

Question 40. Baby bom after the operation is called :

1. Scissorian baby
2. Caesarean baby
3. Situs inversus
4. Postmortem baby.

Answer: 2. Caesarean baby

Question 41. Which of the following is a tracer element?

1. C14
2. H3
3. P32
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 42. Serendipity is :

1. Explaining natural phenomenon
2. Discovery by chance
3. Any discovery
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Discovery by chance

Question 43. The structural formula of benzene was discovered by:

1. Alexander fleming
2. Newton
3. Kekule
4. Archimedes.

Answer: 3. Kekule

Nature And Scope Of Biology MCQs

Question 44. Which of the following best describes the scientific method?

1. Developing and testing the hypothesis
2. Using sensitive electronic devices
3. Collecting and analysing all known facts on a subject
4. Conducting experiments in laboratories.

Answer: 1. Developing and testing hypothesis

Question 45. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a /hypothesis?

1. A deductive inference
2. An inductive inference
3. A guess about cause and effect
4. A generalization from specific observation

Answer: 1. A deductive inference

Question 46. An argument that birds evolved wings to fly, this type of argument is referred to as:

1. Causal
2. Teleological
3. Mcchanistics
4. Circular.

Answer: 2. Teleological

Nature And Scope Of Biology MCQs

Question 47. An Electron microscope has high-resolution power. It is due to:

1. Electromagnetic lenses
2. Very low wavelength of electron beam
3. The low wavelength of the light source used
4. High numerical aperture of glass.

Answer: 2. Very low wavelength of electron beam

Question 48. A theory is :

1. An educated guess
2. Modified hypothesis
3. The idea was given by a scientist
4. A generalization supported by experiments.

Answer: 4. A generalization supported by experiments.

Question 49. Angstrom, the unit of measurement in the transmission electron microscope is equal to:

1. 0.001 pm
2. 0.001 pm
3. 0.0001 pm
4. 0.00001 pm.

Answer: 3. 0.0001 pm

Nature And Scope Of Biology MCQs

Question 50. The science which deals with the study of drugs and the preparation of medicines is called:

1. Physiology
2. Pharmacology
3. Pathology
4. Psychology.

Answer: 2. Pharmacology

Question 51. Technique by which cellular components are separated on the basis of their physical properties:

1. Chromatography
2. Cell fractionation
3. Autoradiography
4. Electrophoresis.

Answer: 2. Cell fractionation

Question 52. During the study of materials under an electron microscope the material is dry, thin and kept in a vacuum to:

1. Get a straight beam of electrons
2. Avoid collision of electrons with atoms of o and n
3. Avoid multiple scattering of electrons
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 53. The study of domestic animals is called

1. Entomology
2. Veterinary science
3. Forestry
4. Agronomy.

Answer: 2. Veterinary science

Question 54. Auxenic culture is:

1. Pure culture without contamination
2. Culture of gases
3. Culture of tissue
4. Pure culture of microbe without any nutrients.

Answer: 1. Pure culture without contamination

NEET Important Questions On The Living World

Question 55. The study of nuclear cytology is called :

1. Radiology
2. Neurology
3. Karyology
4. Mycology.

Answer: 3. Karyology

Question 56. Most of the extraordinary properties of water are due to of its molecules:

1. Polarity
2. Hydrogen bonds
3. Covalent bonds
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Polarity

Question 57. Resolution power is the ability to :

1. Distinguish two close points
2. Distinguish two close objects
3. Distinguish amongst organelles
4. Magnify images.

Answer: 1. Distinguish two close points

NEET Important Questions On The Living World

Question 58. The resolving power of the human eye is:

1. 100 Pm
2. 200 Pm
3. 50 Pm
4. 1000 Pm

Answer: 1. 100 Pm

Question 59. The physical basis of life is:

1. Cell
2. Protoplasm
3. Nucleus
4. Cytoplasm.

Answer: 2. Protoplasm

Question 60. Scientific ins estimations are ill iv nearer totnitli. When there is:

1. Experimental procedures and monitoring are very accurate
2. Correct observation
3. Accurate prediction
4. Sound knowledge of mathematics.

Answer: 1. Experimental procedure and monitoring very accurate

Question 61. Egg-lasing mammals are:

1. Rat
2. Platypus
3. Kangaroo
4. Kangaroo rat.

Answer: 2. Platypus

Question 62. Flowering in mclocanna bamusoidcs (maitake) occurs:

1. Every year
2. After 10 years
3. After 4s years
4. After 6 months.

Answer: 3. After 4s years

NEET Important Questions On The Living World

Question 63. Which of the following plants has remained unchanged for the past several million years?

1. Pinus
2. Rice
3. Acacia
4. Ginkgo.

Answer: 4. Ginkgo.

Question 64. What will you call the study of plant and animal tissues outside the body in a glass tube?

1. In vivo
2. In vitro
3. Innate
4. Desperate.

Answer: 2. In vitro

Question 65. At which height would nitrogen bubble out of the blood :

1. 6.4 km
2. 7.2 km
3. 4 Km
4. 5.6 km.

Answer: 2. 7.2 km

Question 66. Antons the following isotopes, which is not radioactive?

1. Cu
2. P35
3. H3
4. K4-.

Answer: 2. P35

Question 67. The electron microscope is made up of:

1. Fluorochromes
2. Polariser and analyser filters
3. Electromagnetic lenses
4. Objective and ocular glass.

Answer: 3. Electromagnetic lenses

Introduction To Biology NEET Questions

Question 68. Natural sciences deal with the study of living objects and are known as:

1. Physical sciences
2. Social sciences
3. Biological sciences
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Biological sciences

Question 69. Bambnsa tnlida flower only after attaining the age of:

1. 3 Years
2. 20 Years
3. 12 Years
4. 48 Years.

Answer: 4. 48 Years.

Question 70. The cell was discovered by :

1. Robert Hooke
2. Schleiden and schwann
3. Virchow
4. Strasburger.

Answer: 1. Robert Hooke

Question 71. The science dealing with the study of heredity and variations is known as:

1. Eugenics
2. Genetics
3. Cytology
4. Breeding.

Answer: 2. Genetics

Introduction To Biology NEET Questions

Question 72. Generally, the hereditary material is :

1. Protein
2. Rna
3. Dna
4. Mrna.

Answer: 3. Dna

Question 73. Cuscuta, a total parasite bears:

1. Single cotyledon
2. Two cotyledons
3. Cotyledons absent
4. Many cotyledons.

Answer: 3. Cotyledons absent

Question 74. When discoveries are made by accident and unexpectedly the phenomenon is called

1. Mutation
2. Serendipity
3. Recombination
4. Linkage.

Answer: 2. Serendipity

Question 75. Total number of animal species is :

1. 1200000
2. 700000
3. 170000
4. 500,000.

Answer: 1. 1200000

Question 76. Which one of the following has remained unchanged for the last many million years?

1. Rose
2. Rice
3. Cockroach
4. Mosquito

Answer: 3. Cockroach

Introduction To Biology NEET Questions

Question 77. A scientist is a person who:

1. Links patterns or draws relationships among several isolated facts
2. Determines principles from the observation
3. Discover general principles
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

NEET Biology MCQs on Diversity in Living World Question 78. Charles Robert Darwin (1809-18821 made some generalisations and set forth the theory of :

1. Mutation
2. Survival of fittest
3. Acquired characters
4. Natural selection.

Answer: 4. Natural selection.

Question 79. Robert Hooke observed the presence of cellulae in 1665. However actual living cells were observed by :

1. Theodor schwann (1839)
2. Louis Pasteur (1862)
3. A.v. Leeuwenhoek (16701)
4. M. Schleiden (1838)

Answer: 3. A.v. Leeuwenhoek (16701)

Question 80. Biology cannot be studied in isolation. The knowledge of the electromagnetic theory of physics has been instrumental in devising the:

1. Compound microscope
2. Electron microscope
3. Uv microscope
4. Dark field microscope.

Answer: 2. Electron microscope

Question 81. Which of the following provided the earliest record of scientific approach in biology?

1. Robert Hooke (1635-1703)
2. A.v. Leeuwenhoek (1632-1723)
3. Carl linnaeus (1707-1778)
4. Adreas vesalius (1514-1564)

Answer: 4. Adreas vesalius (1514-1564)

Question 82. Which of the following discovered linkage and introduced the term genetics?

1. Walter Sutton
2. Hugo de Vries
3. G. Mendel
4. William Bateson.

Answer: 4. William Bateson.

Question 83. Who won the nobel prize for ’ Green Revolution’?

1. Stanley cohen
2. H.g. Khorana
3. Ian wilmut
4. Norman ernst borlaug.

Answer: 4. Norman ernst borlaug.

Introduction To Biology NEET Questions

Question 84. Who first used and defined the term “molecular biology”?

1. W.t. Astbury
2. Alexander Flemming
3. Oswald Theodore Avery
4. Herber boyer.

Answer: 1. W.t. Astbury

Question 85. Which of the following is used as a bioweapon?

1. HIV
2. Spores of bacillus anthracis
3. Virus
4. Spores of mycobacterium tetani.

Answer: 2. Spores of bacillus anthracis

Question 86. Bioinformatics deals with :

1. Systematic development, application and validation of computational hardware
2. Systematic development and application of computing system-database searching to make novel observations about biological processes
3. Information about the assessment of the environment
4. Production of improved varieties.

Answer: 2. Systematic development and application of computing system-database searching to make novel observations about biological processes

Question 87. Medicine deals with :

1. Treating diseases with drugs or curative substances
2. Compounding, preserving and identifying drugs
3. Knowledge of action of medicines
4. Treating disability by external physical means.

Answer: 1. Treating diseases with drugs or curative substances

NEET Biology Plant Water Relation Water Relations Of A Cell Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 1. The bullion cells of monocotyledon leaves show

1. Tropic movement
2. Autonomic movement
3. Nastic movement
4. Turgor movement.

Answer: 4. Turgor movement.

Question 2. Water will be absorbed by the root hairs when :

1. Plants are rapidly respiring
2. The concentration of salts in the soil is high
3. The concentration of solutes in the cell sap is high
4. They are separated from the soil by a permeable membrane.

Answer: 3. Concentration of solutes in the cell sap is high

Question 3. In which of the following plants would metabolism be hindered if the leaves are coated with wax on their upper surface?

1. Vallisneria
2. Pistici
3. Lotus
4. Hydrilla.

Answer: 3. Lotus

Question 4. Stomata open at night and close during the daytime in

1. Succulents
2. Mesophytes
3. Hydrophytes
4. Herbs.

Answer: 1. Succulents

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 5. During the rainy season, doors made up of wood generally swell up due to :

1. Osmosis
2. Had workmanship
3. Imbibition
4. Bad quality of wood.

Answer: 3. Imbibition

Plant Water Relation MCQs

Question 6. Dumb-bell shaped guard cells are characteristics of:

1. Herbs
2. Dicot leaf
3. Isobilateral leaf
4. Scale leaf.

Answer: 3. Isobilateral leaf

Question 7. The closing and opening of stomata is due to an influx of:

1. K+ ions
2. Na ions
3. Fe ions
4. Mg ions.

Answer: 1. K+ ions

Question 8. Pure water has a water potential which is :

1. zero
2. Negative
3. High
4. Very low.

Answer: 1. zero

Question 9. The amount of water absorbed to compensate for the loss of transpiration is measured by :

1. Potometer
2. Crescograph
3. Manometers
4. Auxanometers.

Answer: 1. Potometer

Plant Water Relation MCQs

Question 10. The inward pressure exerted on the cell contents by the stretched cell wall is termed :

1. Osmosis
2. Wall pressure
3. Turgor pressure
4. Osmotic pressure.

Answer: 2.  Wall pressure

NEET Questions Botany Transport in Plants  Question 11. The form and structure of a growing cell is maintained due to :

1. Atmospheric pressure
2. Plasmolysis
3. Turgidity
4. Wall pressure.

Answer: 3. Turgidity

Question 12. The water potential and osmotic potential of pure water are :

1. 100 and zero
2. Zero and Zero
3. 100 and 100
4. Zero and 100.

Answer: 2. Zero and Zero

Question 13. The membrane that allows certain molecules to enter into the cell and prevents others is known as:

1. Impermeable membrane
2. Permeable membrane
3. Selectively permeable membrane
4. Unit membrane.

Answer: 3. Selectively permeable membrane

Plant Water Relation MCQs

Question 14.” The vacuolar membrane is known as :

1. Cell membrane
2. Plasmalemma
3. Chromoplast
4. Tonoplast.

Answer: 4. Tonoplast.

Question 15. Due to osmosis, water enters into a cell and results in hydrostatic pressure. This is known as :

1. Osmotic pressure
2. Wall pressure
3. Turgor pressure
4. Low pressure.

Answer: 3. Turgor pressure

Question 16. The plasmalemma, cytoplasmic film, and the vacuolated membrane in an osmotic system of a vacuolated cell constitute the :

1. Permeable membrane
2. Impermeable
3. Electively permeable membrane
4. Unit membrane.

Answer: 3. Electively permeable membrane

Plant Water Relation MCQs

Question 17. Exosmosis takes place when a plant cell is put in :

1. Hypertonic solution
2. A hypotonic solution
3. An isotonic solution
4. Non-ionic solution.

Answer:1. Hypertonic solution

Question 18. Endosmosis occurs when a plant cell is put in :

1. A hypertonic solution
2. Hypotonic solution
3. An isotonic solution
4. Non-ionic solution.

Answer:2. Hypotonic solution

Question 19. If there is no net movement of water into a cell from the outside medium, the medium is :

1. Isotonic to the cell sap
2. Hypertonic
3. Hypotonic
4. Non-ionic.

Answer: 1. Isotonic to the cell sap

Question 20. During absorption of water by roots, the water potential of cell sap is lower than that of:

1. Pure water and soil solution
2. Neither pure water nor soil solution
3. Soil solution but higher than that of pure water
4. Pure wafer but higher than that of soil solution.

Answer: 1. Pure water and soil solution

Question 21. When a cell is fully turgid, it:

1. O.P. = D.P.D.
2. OP = Zero
3. DCP.D = zero
4. D.P.D. = O.P.

Answer: 3. DCP.D = zero

Water Relations Of A Cell NEET

Question 22. A cell increases in volume when placed in a solution which is:

1. Isotonic
2. Hypotonic
3. Hypertonic
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Hypotonic

Question 23. DPD stands for:

1. Diffusion pressure deficit
2. Diffusion pressure demand
3. Daily photosynthetic depression
4. Daily phosphorus demand.

Answer:1. Diffusion pressure deficit

Question 24. The force responsible for water entry into the cell is :

1. Diffusion
2. DPI
3. Osmotic pressure
4. Wall pressure.

Answer: 2. DPI

Question 25. Minerals are absorbed by the plants from the soil ;

1. By a process independent of water absorption
2. Independently of water
3. Only when soil solution is hypertonic to cell sap
4. Only when soil solution is hypotonic to cell sap.

Answer: 1.  By a process independent of water absorption

Question 26. The osmosis means :

1. Movement of molecules from an area of higher concentration into an area of lower concentration
2. Uptake of water by plant roots
3. Passage of solvent from a weak solution to a strong solution when the two are separated by a semi-permeable membrane
4. Passage of solute from a weak solution to a strong solution when the two are separated by a semi-permeable membrane.

Answer: 3. Passage of solvent from a weak solution to a strong solution when the two are separated by a semi-permeable membrane

Question 27. Starch is changed to organic acids during :

1. Stomatal initiation.
2. Stomatal closure
3. Stomatal opening
4. Stomatal growth.

Answer: 3. Stomatal opening

Water Relations Of A Cell NEET

Question 28. Selective permeability is the main property of:

1. Osmosis
2. Diffusion
3. Active transport
4. Imbibition.

Answer: 3. Active transport

Question 29. When placed in water seeds swell, due to :

1. Hydrolysis
2. Osmosis
3. Imbibition
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Imbibition

Question 30. Most of the physiological reactions in plants occur at a pH of:

1. 4.0
2. 8.0
3. 7.0
4. 14.0.

Answer: 3. 7.0

Question 31. The movement of water from one cell of the cortex to the adjacent one in the roots is due to :

1. Accumulation of inorganic salts in the cells
2. Water potential gradient
3. Accumulation of organic salts in the cells
4. Chemical potential gradient.

Answer:  2. Water potential gradient

Question 32. Which of the following factors is most important in the regulation of transpiration?

1. Temperature
2. Humidity
3. Light
4. Wind.

Answer:2. Humidity

Water Relations Of A Cell NEET

Question 33. If the volume of a cell decreases after being placed in a solution, the solution is :

1. Isotonic
2. Hypertonic
3. Hypotonic
4. Normal.

Answer: 2. Hypertonic

Question 34. If cell A with, DPD, 4 bars are connected to cells B, C, and D whose OP and TP are respectively 4 and 4, 10 and 5, and 7 and j bar, the flow of water willies- 

1. C to A, B, and D ‘
2. A and D to B and C
3. A to B, C, and D ‘
4. B to A, C, and D.

Answer: 3.  A to B, C and D ‘

Question 35. The energy source that drives the upward flow of water is:

1. Temperature
2. Sucrose
3. Solar energy
4. ATP.

Answer: 4. ATP.

Water Relations Of A Cell NEET

Question 36. To initiate cell plasmolysis, the salt solution should be

1. Isotonic
2. Hypertonic
3. Hypotonic
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Hypertonic

Question 37. Plant cells submerged in distilled water will become :

1. Turgid
2. Flaccid
3. Plasmolyzed
4. Impermeable.

Answer:1. Turgid

Question 38. Which of the following plant cells has more negative water potential?

1. Cell with high osmotic pressure
2. Cell with high turgor pressure
3. Cell with high wall pressure
4. Cell with low osmotic pressure.

Answer:1. Cell with high osmotic pressure

Question 39. Protoplasm is :

1. True solution
2. Colloidal solution
3. Suspension
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Colloidal solution

Question 40. Plasma membrane helps :

1. In protein synthesis
2. Regulates the passage of water only.
3. Regulates the passage of water and dissolved Substances into and out of cells
4. Protects the cell.

Answer: 3. Regulates the passage of water and dissolved Substances into and out of cells

Question 41. The cell wall is permeable and can be observed from the passage of water and minerals from’?”

1. Root hair into cortical cells
2. Cortical cells into endodermis
3. Soil into root hairs
4. Cortical cells into pericycle.

Answer: 3. Soil into root hairs

Question 42. Deplasmolysis into the cell occurs which is placed in:

1. Isotonic solution
2. hypotonic solution
3. Hypertonic solution
4. None of these.

Answer:2. hypotonic solution

Water Relations Of A Cell NEET

Question 43.  Purple cabbage leaves do not lose their color in cold water but do so in boiling water because :

1. The plasma membrane becomes permeable in boiling water and pigments come out
2. Hot water can enter the cells readily
3. The pigment is not soluble in cold water
4. The cell wall is killed by boiling water.

Answer: 1. The plasma membrane becomes permeable in boiling water and pigments come out

Question 44. Osmosis is defined as the process by which :

1. Water diffuses from lower concentration to higher concentration
2. Solutes diffuse from lower concentration to higher concentration
3. Active transport of ions takes place
4. Passive transport of ions takes place.

Answer:1. Water diffuses from lower concentration to higher concentration

Question 45. Water potential in the leaf tissue is positive (+ve) during :

1. Excessive transpiration
2. Low absorption
3. Low transpiration
4. Guttation.

Answer: 3. Low transpiration

Question 46. With the increase in turgidity of a cell surrounded by water the wall pressure will:

1. Increase
2. Decrease
3. Fluctuate
4. Remain unchanged.

Answer: 1. Increase

Question 47. The ultimate cause of water movement against gravity is :

1. Osmosis
2. Imbibition
3. Transpiration pull
4. Respiration.

Answer: 3. Transpiration pull

Water potential NEET MCQs

Plant Water Relations MCQ  Question 48. When a plant wilts, what will be a sequence of events :

1. Exosmosis, deplasmolysis, plasmolysis, temporary and permanent wilting
2. Exosmosis, plasmolysis, temporary and permanent wilting
3. Exosmosis, plasmolysis, deplasmolysis, temporary and permanent wilting
4. Endosmosis, plasmolysis, temporary and permanent wilting.

Answer: 2.  Exosmosis, plasmolysis, temporary and permanent wilting

Question 49. The process of osmosis stops when:

1. The solution is not isotonic
2. Water concentration becomes equal
3. There is no light
4. The leaves fall.

Answer: 2. Water concentration becomes equal

Question 50. The rate of absorption of water is slow at temperatures near the freezing point:

1. It is mainly a metabolic process
2. Cell membrane becomes more viscous
3. The growth of cells stop
4. Transpiration is retarded.

Answer: 4. Transpiration is retarded.

Water potential NEET MCQs

Question 51. The outward pressure exerted on the cell wall by the fluid contents of the cell wall is called:

1. Turgor pressure
2. Wall pressure
3. Osmosis
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Turgor pressure

Question 52. Dixon and Jolly’s are associated with :

1. Aerobic respiration
2. Calvin cycle allision
3. Cohesion theory of ascent of sap
4. Light reaction.

Answer: 3. Cohesion theory of ascent of sap

Question 53. Which plants do not generate root pressure?

1. Monocot grasses
2. Perennial shrubs
3. Conifer trees
4. Seasonal herbs.

Answer: 3. Conifer trees

Water potential NEET MCQs

Question 54. Transpiration cohesion tension theory operates in :

1. Active absorption
2. Passive absorption
3. Both active and passive absorption
4. None of the above.

Answer:2. Passive absorption

Question 55. Which plant is used for demonstrating plasmolysis in the laboratory?

1. Tropeolum
2. Patience balsamic
3. Tradescantia
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 56. Transpiration takes place from :

1. Leaves
2. Stem
3. All aerial parts of the plant
4. All parts of the plant body.

Answer: 3. All aerial parts of the plant

Question 57. Much of transpiration takes place through :

1. Epidermis
2. Lenticels
3. Stomata
4. Cuticle.

Answer: 3. Stomata

Plant Water Relation MCQs

Question 58. Transpiration from plants will be more rapid when :

1. The atmosphere is saturated with water
2. There is excess water in the soil
3. Environmental conditions are dry
4. Air is still.

Answer: 3. Environmental conditions are dry

Question 59. Guttation takes place through :

1. Stomata
2. Hydathodes
3. Lenticels
4. Cuticle.

Answer: 2. Hydathodes

Plant Water Relation MCQs

Question 60. If cohesion-tension transpiration theory is correct then a break in the water column in xylem vessels :

1. This should cause the mesophyll cells to become flaccid and result in the wilting of leaves.
2. Should increase the water contents of leaves
3. Should have no effect at all
4. Should increase the rate of photosynthesis.

Answer: 1. This should cause the mesophyll cells to become flaccid and result in the wilting of leaves.

Question 61. According to Scarth, opening and closing of stomata is controlled by :

1. Enzymes
2. pH value
3. NADP
4. Hormones.

Answer:2. pH value

Question 62. Stomata are bounded by guard cells and open when the cells are :

1. Turgid
2. Flaccid
3. Green
4. Small.

Answer: 1. Turgid

Question 63. Stomata open during the time because the guard cells :

1. Photosynthesize and produce osmotically active sugars
2. Are thick-walled
3. Are bean-shaped
4. Have to help in gaseous exchange.

Answer: 1. Photosynthesize and produce osmotically active sugars

Question 64. Which one is not related to transpiration?

1. Bleeding
2. Circulation of water
3. Absorption and distribution of mineral salts
4. Regulation of plant body temperature.

Answer:1. Bleeding