NEET Biology Notes on Agricultural Chemical Pesticides

NEET Biology Agricultural Chemical Pesticides Plant Pests

Agricultural:

Agricultural chemicals, including fertilizers, plant growth regulators, and insecticides, are employed to enhance the production potential of crops.

Fertilizers restore soil nutrients, growth regulators facilitate plant development, and insecticides safeguard plants against diseases and pests. c Pesticides encompass fungicides, herbicides, rodenticides, insecticides, nematicides, and algicides.

Major Groups Of Pesticides

Agricultural Chemical Pesticides And Plant Pests Major Groups Of Pesticides

NEET Biology Agricultural Chemical Pesticides Notes

As regards the mode of action pesticides attack the nervous systems and respiratory systems and herbicides damage the photosystem 2 of photosynthesis and translocation. Pesticides are capable of damaging the ecosystem and in the long run render agriculture non-sustainable.

  • All pesticides are poisons. They upset the food web in nature.
  • Some resistant pests survive even after pesticide application, thus higher doses are required to kill them.
  • The major problem with the application of pesticides is bioconcentration in the bodies of animals.
  • Due to the lack of safety measures in the use of pesticides, they pose adverse health effects on people.
  • Owing to the lack of stringent measures in the manufacture of pesticides, there may be grave consequences such as the recent Bhopal gas tragedy. (1984)
  • Integrated Pest Management (IPM) is a combination of techniques such as biological control, mechanical control and carefully timed application of pesticides along with sound cultural practices,

NEET Biology Agricultural Chemical Pesticides

Pesticides are capable of damaging the ecosystem and in the long run render agriculture non-sustainable.

All pesticides are poisonous; they are not specific to the target organism and they may kill useful organisms. They upset the food web in nature.

Examples of Classes of Pesticides

  1. Organochlorides – DDT, BHC, Aldrin, Endosulphanc.
  2. Organophosphate – Maiathion, Parathion and Fenitrothion.
  3. Carbamates – Carbofuran, Aldicarboropoxus.
  4. Triazincs – Simazines, Atrazinc
  5. Pyrethroids – Pyrethrin

Agricultural Chemical Pesticides NEET Notes

Types Of Pesticides

Agricultural Chemical Pesticides And Plant Pests Types Of Pesticides

Various Organic Compounds With Heavy Metals, Commonly Used As Fungicides Are:

  1. Agrosan GN, Ceresan, and Tillex are compounds of mercury used in seed treatment.
  2. Dithane M-45 and Dithane Z-79 control the tikka disease of groundnut.

Burgundy Mixture. It is an important copper fungicide. Its nature and function are the same as the Bordeaux mixture.

Biocides The pesticides that affect useful plants and animals including human beings.

Organochlorides are lipophilic in nature; hence, show a great affinity for fatty tissues. These decompose very slowly; therefore, get accumulate in the environment posing serious problems.

  • Organophosphates are organic esters of phosphoric acid, thiophosphoric acid and other phosphoric acids. These are sold under the names-organic phosphates, phosphorus insecticides, nerve gas relatives, phosphates, and phosphate insecticides.
  • These are the most toxic pesticides to vertebrates e.g., Parathion, Malathion, Fernethion, Trithion, TEPP and Ethion.
  • Organophosphates act on the central nervous system, combining with the phosphorus molecule of the enzyme cholinesterase inhibiting its normal functioning. As a result, the breakdown of acetylcholine stops.
  • The accumulation of acetylcholine leads to a barrage of extraneous nervous impulses. It causes acute toxicity resulting in convulsions, paralysis and death. The recognition of this property led to the development of nerve gas used in World War 2.

Carbamates are organic esters of hypothetical carbanic acid. Isolan, carbaryl, carbofuran, aldicarb, and propoxur are widely used.

Pyrethroids are synthetic derivatives of pyrethrin—a chemical extracted from an annual plant Chrysanthemum cinerarifolium, C. narshallii, and C. coccinium.

Triazines are a group of herbicides which are derived from urea, for example, Simazines and atrazine.

Agricultural Chemical Pesticides NEET Notes

NEET Biology Agricultural Chemical Pesticides Plant Diseases

When the favourable conditions of life are so seriously affected by any agency that the life of a part of a plant or whole plant is threatened, we call it plant disease. or

Plant disease can be defined as a condition in which the structure and function of a plant are disturbed and threaten the life of a plant.

  • A diseased plant can be differentiated from a healthy plant because of a disturbed morphological and physiological state.
  • Pathogens are the disease-causing organisms. There are numerous different types of pathogens. They are classified as animate, viral and inanimate pathogens.
  1. Animate Pathogens. They are generally microbial in nature. Nematodes and insects are the other pathogens of animal origin. The fungus Puccinia graminis tritici causes black rust in wheat. A bacterium Xanthomonas ciiri causes citrus canker. Mites cause Mango malformation.
  2. Viral Pathogens. Certain viruses act as pathogens. A few viral plant diseases arc mosaic, vein-clearing, chlorosis and leaf curl of potato.
  3. Inanimate Pathogens. There are certain plant diseases whose causes cannot be attributed to any pathogens. Molybdenum deficiency in the soil causes whip tail of cauliflower. The black tip of mango and scabs are caused by gases released from chimneys and respiratory gaseous products in cold storage respectively.

Chemical Method To Control Plant Diseases

  1. Bordeaux Mixture. It is a mixture of copper sulphate and lime in the ratio 4:4 dissolved in 50 gallons of water. It was first used in controlling many types of crop diseases by French Prof. Mallardet of the University of Bordeaux in 1878.
  2. Burgandy Mixture. It is a mixture of copper sulphate 5 lbs, sodium carbonate 0.25 lbs and water 50 lbs
  3. Ammonical Copper Carbonate (3 oz. copper carbonate, 5 pints ammonia and 50 gallons of water.
  4. Sulphur Dust. Inorganic dust is one of the oldest and most widely used fungicides. It can be used as a powder or in the wettable form.
  5. Antibiotics. Several antibiotics are used to control various plant diseases. Penicillin, streptomycin, cycloheximide, griseofulvin, viridin, blasticidin, agrimycin are the most common effective antibiotics.
  6. Commonly Used Fungicides Are:
    1. Agrosan GN Ceresan Tillex are compounds of mercury used in seed treatment.
    2. Dithane M-45, Dithane Z-79 Control tikka disease of groundnut.
    3. Pyrethroids

NEET Agricultural Chemical Pesticides Chapter Notes

NEET Biology Agricultural Chemical Pesticides Plant Pests

Pests. Pests are animals or plant organisms which damage cultivated plants or plant products.

Types Of Pests. Pests are of the following types: Arthropods (invertebrates with jointed appendages)

  1. Insects like grasshoppers, bugs, beetles, weevils, caterpillars and grain moth.
  2. Non-insect arthropods, like crabs, ticks and mites,
  3. Molluscs like snails and slugs.
  4. Birds such as pigeons, parrots, sparrows and crows,
  5. Mammals like rodents, monkeys and wild elephants.
  1. Pests Of Maize.
    • Maize stems Borer (Chilo-Cornelius).
    • Pink Borer (Sesamia inferens).
  2. Pests Of Millets.
    • Deccan wingless grasshopper (Calemania sphenarroides)
    • Greasy cutworm (Agrotis physilon).
  3. Pests Of Sugarcane.
    • Top shoot Borer (Scirpophaga nivella)
    • Stem Borer (Diatoroea venosata).
  4. Pests Of Cotton.
    • Spotted Bollworm (Earias fabla).
    • Pink bollworm (Pectinophora gossypiella.)

Various Stored Grain Pests

  1. Rice Weevil (Calandra oryzae): A little bug, reddish-brown in color, measures approximately 2.5 mm in length.
  2. Angoumois Grain Moth (Sitotroga cerealella):  It is a 12 mm long, lustrous buff-colored moth with pointed, slender wings featuring broad fringes.
  3. Puke Beetle (Bruchus sp.)is a 3.00 mm:  Long insect characterized by elongated antennae and a chocolate-colored body, which inflicts significant damage to crops and stored grain.
  4. Lesser Grain Borer (Rhizopertha dominica): The beetle measures approximately 1.5 mm in length, with a coloration ranging from black to brown, and possesses a globular head.
  5. Red Grain Beetle (Tribolium castaneum): The adult measures 1.5 mm in length and exhibits a reddish-brown hue, but the larva is pale yellow.
  6. Khapra Beetle (Trogoderma granarium): It is a brown-oval beetle that inflicts damage on wheat, as well as pulses, maize, and cereals. Only grubs inflict the injury.
  7. Rice moth (Coreyra cephalonica).

NEET Agricultural Chemical Pesticides Chapter Notes

List Of Some Of The Insect Pests That Destroy Crops In The Fields

Agricultural Chemical Pesticides And Plant Pests List Of Some Of The Insects That Pests Destroy Crops In The Fields

Agricultural Chemical Pesticides Class 12 Notes For NEET

NEET Biology Agricultural Chemical Pesticides Synopsis

Common Examples Of Organochlorides Are:

  1. BHC
  2. DDT
  3. Heptachlor
  4. DDE
  5. Chlordane
  6. Endosulfan
  7. Aldrin
  8. Dieldrin
  9. Endrin.

Carbofuran is sold as furadan, propoxur as Baygon and aldicarb as Temik.

Agricultural Chemical Pesticides NEET Chapter Summary

Pesticide Treadmill Effect:

The usage of pesticides results in farmers allocating a greater amount of their income to these chemicals without achieving higher yields. This has occurred with cotton in India.

  • A fish residing in water contaminated with DDT can accumulate a concentration of DDT that is 1,000,000 times greater than that present in the water.
  • DDT disrupts the correct production of eggshells in birds, resulting in the destruction of deposited eggs prior to hatching.
  • Peregrine falcons, Ospreys, and bald eagles have nearly become extinct due to DDT. Gambusia fish have been employed to manage mosquito populations within Integrated Pest Management (IPM).
  • Algicides are insecticides that eliminate algal diseases and blooms, such as Copper Sulphate.
    The inaugural commercial bioinsecticide is Sporeine, which was developed in Germany.
    Organophosphates are biodegradable.

Dioxan is present as an impurity in 2,4,5 -T It is highly toxic and Carcinogen also causes kidney/ liver disorders.

Bioinsecticides of Plant Origin

  • Rotenone from roots of Derris elliptica
  • Cinerin and Pyrethrin from Chrysanthamum cinnarifolium
  • Thurioside and Sporeine from Bacillus thringenesis
  • Azadirachtin from Azadirachta indica
  • Squill from Sea Onion
  • Nicotine from Nicotiana species.

Phenylcarbamates and thiocarbamates are used as herbicides while Dithiocarbamates are used as fungicides.

 

MCQs on biopesticides – NEET Biology

NEET Biology Biopesticides Multiple Choice Questions And Answers

Question 1. Pulse pest is:

  1. Rntehtts
  2. Slug and snails
  3. Schocnobices
  4. Leptocorisa.

Answer: 1. Rntehtts

Question 2. The disease apple scab is due to:

  1. Zinc deficiency in the soil
  2. Molybdenum deficiency in the soil
  3. Respiratory gaseous products in cold storage
  4. Xanthomonas malvacerrum .

Answer: 3. Respiratory gaseous products in cold storage

Question 3. Nephantis screencap is responsible for damage of:

  1. Rice
  2. Wheat
  3. Coconut
  4. Cotton.

Answer: 3. Coconut

Question 4. Late blight of potatoes is caused by:

  1. Pythium species
  2. Calviceps purpura
  3. Phytophthora infestans
  4. Uncinula ancestor.

Answer: 1. Pythium species

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

MCQs on Biopesticides for NEET Question 5. Which of the following herbicides is derived from urea?

  1. Simazine
  2. DDT
  3. Malathion
  4. Aldrin.

Answer: 1. Simazine

NEET Biology Biopesticides On MCQs

Question 6. Stem borer of rice is caused by:

  1. Tnporyza inertias
  2. Leptocorisa varicomis
  3. Pectinophora gossypiella
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Tnporyza incertulas

Question 7. Which of the following pests feeds directly on the rice grains?

  1. Red pumpkin beetle
  2. Rice weevil
  3. Carpet beetle
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Rice weevil

Question 8. The science which deals with the study of the nature, development and control of plant diseases is called as:

  1. Plant pathology
  2. Phytopathology
  3. Pathology
  4. Both (1) and (2).

Answer: 4. Both (1) and (2).

Question 9. A plant is said to be diseased when:

  1. It shows some physiological disorder
  2. There developed some structural abnormality
  3. Its economic value is reduced
  4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

MCQs on Biopesticides for NEET Question 10. In modern science, a disease is an interaction:

  1. Between the host and parasite
  2. Between the plant and environment
  3. Among the host, parasite and environment
  4. All of the above

Answer: 3. Among the host, parasite and environment

Question 11. Puccinia graminis tritici causes:

  1. Covered smut of wheat
  2. Black rust of wheat
  3. Loose smut of wheat
  4. White rust.

Answer: 2. Black rust of wheat

Question 12. The problem of wheat rust in India was studied by:

  1. J.F. Dastur
  2. E.J. Butler
  3. K.C. Mehta
  4. G.S. Kulkami.

Answer: 3. K.C. Mehta

Question 13. The small insects that suck the milky sap in the tender grains of rice after destroying the crop completely are:

  1. Gundhy or paddy bugs of rice, leukocoria
  2. Larvae of rice grasshopper, hieroglyphs
  3. Rice weevil, Calandra sp.
  4. Lesser grain beetles, Rhizopertha sp.

Answer: 1. Gundhy or paddy bugs of rice, leukocoria

Question 14. An organism which causes a disease in a plant is called as:

  1. Parasite
  2. Pathogen
  3. Vector
  4. Host.

Answer: 2. Pathogen

Question 15. Bacteria and fungi are the pathogens belonging to:

  1. Biotic type
  2. Abiotic type
  3. Viral type
  4. Both biotic and abiotic types.

Answer: 1. Biotic type

MCQs on Biopesticides for NEET Question 16. When a disease spreads to the whole of the plant, it is termed as:

  1. Localised
  2. Systemic
  3. Sporadic
  4. Endemic.

Answer: 2. Systemic

Question 17. The brown leaf spot disease of rice is caused by a fungus called:

  1. Phytophthora infestans
  2. Helminthosporium oryzae
  3. Venturia inadequate
  4. Xanthomonas oryzae.

Answer: 3. Venturia inadequate

Question 18. Insect pests can be controlled by:

  1. Using bastide
  2. Using antibiotics
  3. Spraying sulphur dust
  4. Spraying insecticides.

Answer: 4. Spraying insecticides.

Question 19. Paddy bug is a serious pest of:

  1. Wheat
  2. Paddy
  3. Groundnut
  4. Sugarcane.

Answer: 4. Sugarcane.

Question 20. An abnormal increase in the size of the plant organ due to the increase in the number of cells is called:

  1. Hyperplasia
  2. Hypertrophy
  3. Overgrowth
  4. Canker.

Answer: 1. Hyperplasia

Mcqs On Biopesticides Question 21. Blight refers to the:

  1. Development Of Large And Irregular Spots On The Leaves
  2. Burnt Appearance In The Infected Part Of The Plant
  3. Decaying And Discolouring Of The Different Parts Of The Plant
  4. Death Of The Cells In The Form Of Elongated Lines Or Streaks.

Answer: 2. Burnt Appearance In The Infected Part Of The Plant

Question 22. Khapra beetle (Trogoderma granarium) is a pest of:

  1. Stem Of Rice
  2. Leaves Of Paddy
  3. Stored Grains
  4. Both (1) and (2).

Answer: 3. Stored Grains

Question 23. Wilting in a plant is caused by:

  1. An injury to the root system
  2. Loss of water from the soil
  3. Plugging of xylem by fungi and bacteria
  4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 24. In ergot disease, fungal mycelium (Claviceps purpurea) aggregates to form a hard bunch called the:

  1. Blotch
  2. Knot
  3. Spot
  4. Sclerotium.

Answer: 1. Blotch

Mcqs On Biopesticides Question 25. Insecticides are specific inhibitors of:

  1. Nervous system
  2. Blood vascular system
  3. Digestive system
  4. Excretory system.

Answer: 1. Nervous system

Question 26. When a disease in moderate or severe form is localised to a particular region, it is called as

  1. Epidemic
  2. Endemic
  3. Sporadic
  4. Pandemic.

Answer: 2. Endemic

Question 27. The disease in which the floral parts get transformed into leafy structures is called as:

  1. Dieback
  2. Phylloidy
  3. Atrophy
  4. Hypertrophy

Answer: 2. Phylloidy

Question 28. Rust diseases are:

  1. Air bone
  2. Soil bone
  3. Seed borne
  4. All the above

Answer: 1. Air bone

Mcqs On Biopesticides Question 29. Tobacco mosaic virus particles are:

  1. Rod-shaped
  2. Rounded
  3. Comma-shaped
  4. Amoeboid.

Answer: 1. Rod-shaped

Question 30. Xantliomonas oryzae causes:

  1. Bacterial blight of rice
  2. Citrus canker
  3. Potato mosaic
  4. White rust of crucifers.

Answer: 1. Bacterial blight of rice

Question 31. Bacterial blight of rice is a disease which is

  1. Seed Borne
  2. Air Borne
  3. Soil Borne
  4. Water Borne.

Answer: 1. Seed Borne

Question 32. Malathion is present in:

  1. Baygon
  2. Finit/Flit
  3. Temik
  4. Furadin.

Answer: 2. Finit/Flit

Question 33. Potato mosaic disease is caused by:

  1. Bacteria
  2. Synchytrium sp.
  3. Potato virus X and Y
  4. Both (2) and (3).

Answer: 3. Potato virus X and Y

NEET Objective Questions On Biopesticides Question 34. Black stem rust of wheat is caused by:

  1. Ustilago tritici
  2. Puccinia graminis tritici
  3. Altemaria solani
  4. None of these.

Answer: 2. Puccinia graminis tritici

Question 35. A diseased plant shows water-soaked translucent spots on the margin and mid-rib of the leaves. Slowly the spots increase and form yellowish white streaks. Bacterial exudates appear in the form of droplets on the affected parts, which later on dry up forming hard resinous granules. The vascular tissue gets plugged and the plant ultimately dies. The disease is known as:

  1. Potato mosaic
  2. Bacterial blight of rice
  3. Little leaf of brinjal
  4. Late blight of potato.

Answer: 3. Little leaf of brinjal

Question 36. Prophylaxis refers to:

  1. Curing the diseased plants
  2. Improvement of the power of disease resistance of the plants
  3. Prevention of the plants from being exposed to the agencies responsible for various plant diseases
  4. All the above.

Answer: 3. Prevention of the plants from being exposed to the agencies responsible for various plant diseases

Question 37. Quarantine regulations are a measure of control of plant diseases of:

  1. Therapeutic nature
  2. Prophylactic nature
  3. Immunization nature
  4. Not related to plant diseases.

Answer: 2. Prophylactic nature

Question 38. Bordeaux mixture contains:

  1. Borax dissolved in water
  2. Sodium bisulphite dissolved in water
  3. Copper sulphate and lime dissolved in water
  4. Phenyl mercuric acetate dissolved in water.

Answer: 3. Copper sulphate and lime dissolved in water

NEET Objective Questions On Biopesticides Question 39. Quarantine regulations are concerned with

  1. The growing of fruit trees
  2. Prevention of entry of diseased plant material into our country
  3. The spraying of diseased plants with insecticides and fungicides, etc.
  4. None of these

Answer: 2. Prevention of entry of diseased plant material into our country

Question 40. The pesticide used as a preventive measure in buildings is:

  1. Aldrin
  2. Dieldrin
  3. Endrin
  4. DDT.

Answer: 1. Aldrin

Question 41. Systematic removal of diseased plants from a field is called:

  1. Roguing
  2. Crop rotation
  3. Field sanitation
  4. Biological control.

Answer: 1. Roguing

Question 42. A good chemotherapeutic should be:

  1. Cheap, easily available and harmless to the host
  2. Toxic to the pathogen
  3. Capable of remaining on the host surface for quite some time
  4. All of these.

Answer: 4. All of these.

Question 43. A mild mosaic of potato is visible in the form of:

  1. Hypertrophy of leaves
  2. Mild interveinal mottling or chlorosis of leaves
  3. Tubers show necrotic spots
  4. Both (2) and (3).

Answer: 4. Both (2) and (3).

NEET Objective Questions On Biopesticides Question 44. A mild mosaic of potato is transmitted by:

  1. Bacteria
  2. Sap inoculum
  3. Insects
  4. Soil.

Answer: 2. Sap inoculum

Question 45. Rugose mosaic of potato is caused by:

  1. Potato virus X
  2. Potato virus Y, t,
  3. Potato virus A
  4. Both (1) and (2).

Answer: 4. Both (1) and (2).

Agricultural Chemical Pesticides And Plant Pests Questions From Competitive Examinations

Question 1. Which of the following pesticides is an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor?

  1. Aldrin
  2. Y-BHC
  3. Endosulfan
  4. Alatliion.

Answer: 4. Allison.

Question 2. Integrated pest management (IPM) stands for:

  1. Chemical control
  2. Biological control
  3. Host plant resistances
  4. Integration of the above.

Answer: 4. Integration of the above.

Question 3. The chemical pesticide present in Baygon is

  1. Parathion
  2. Malatliion
  3. Aldicarb
  4. Propoxur.

Answer: 4. Propoxur.

Question 4. Which one is the active ingredient of flit.?

  1. Malathion
  2. Aldicarb
  3. Propoxur
  4. Carbofuran.

Answer: 1. Malathion

MCQs on Biopesticides for NEET Question 5. Which of the following pesticides is most toxic to vertebrates:

  1. Carbamates
  2. Organochlorines
  3. Organophosphates
  4. None of these.

Answer: 3. Organophosphates

Question 6. D.D.T. and 2, 4-D were introduced:

  1. During World War 1
  2. Just after the World War 1
  3. Towards the beginning of World War 2
  4. Towards the end of World War 2.

Answer: 4. Towards the end of World War 2.

Question 7. Carbofuran is sold in the market as:

  1. Baygon
  2. Furadan
  3. Aldrin
  4. DDT.

Answer: 2. Furadan

Question 8. Which one of the chemicals is present in Baygon?

  1. Aldicarb
  2. Propoxur
  3. Carbofuran
  4. Malathion.

Answer: 2. Propoxur

Question 9. The major drawback of D.D.T. as a pesticide is that

  1. Organisms at once develop resistance to it.
  2. It is significantly less effective than other pesticides
  3. Its cost of production is high
  4. It is not readily and rapidly degraded in nature.

Answer: 4. It is not readily and rapidly degraded in nature.

Question 10. Which is a fungicide?

  1. BHC
  2. DDT
  3. 2,4-D
  4. Bordeaux mixture.

Answer: 4. Bordeaux mixture.

MCQs on Biopesticides for NEET Question 11. A pesticide of a lipophilic nature is:

  1. 2-4D
  2. DDT
  3. BHC
  4. Carbamates.

Answer: 2. DDT

Question 12. The common mode of action of most insecticides is through the attack on:

  1. Nervous system
  2. Circulatory system
  3. Respiratory system
  4. Muscular system.

Answer: 1. Nervous system

Question 13. Which of the following is not correctly matched:

  1. Pyrethroid—Arazine
  2. Organochlorine—D.D.T.
  3. Organophosphate—Malathion
  4. Carbamate—Carbaryl.

Answer: 1. Pyrethoid—Arazine

Question 14. Which of the following ingredients of pesticide killed hundreds of people in the Bhopal gas tragedy:

  1. Carbon tetra chloride
  2. Methyl isocyanate
  3. Mustard gas
  4. Nitrous acid.

Answer: 2. Methyl isocyanate

Question 15. Herbicides interfere with

  1. Carbon dioxide absorption
  2. Water absorption
  3. Translocation of sugar
  4. Photolysis of water.

Answer: 4. Photolysis of water.

Question 16. Drinking mineral water with very low pesticides (about 0.02 ppm) for long periods may:

  1. Cause cancer of the intestine
  2. Produce immunity against mosquito
  3. Cause leukaemia (blood cancer) in most people
  4. Lead to the accumulation of pesticide residues in body fat.

Answer: 4. Lead to accumulation of pesticide residues of body fat.

Question 17. Which one among the following is likely to have the highest level of DDT deposition in its body?

  1. Crab
  2. Eel fish
  3. Sea gull
  4. Phytoplanktons

Answer: 3. Seagull

Mcqs On Biopesticides Question 18. The chemicals used in the National Malaria Eradication Programme are:

  1. BHC
  2. DDT
  3. 2,4-D
  4. Pyrethroid

Answer: 2. DDT

Question 19. Which one is a pest:

  1. Mouse
  2. Pathogen
  3. Insect
  4. All of these.

Answer: 4. All of these.

Question 20. Insecticides obtained from neem plant are:

  1. Pyrethrin
  2. Pyrethroid
  3. Thiocarbamate
  4. Azadirachtin.

Answer: 4. Azadirachtin.

Question 21. Which of the following statements is correct about DDT?

  1. It is not a pollutant
  2. It is a biomagnifying biodegradable pollutant
  3. It is a non-biomagnifying biodegradable pollutant
  4. It is a biomagnifying non-biodegradable pollutant.

Answer: 4. It is a biomagnifying non-biodegradable pollutant.

Mcqs On Biopesticides Question 22. Weed killers generally have properties much like that of:

  1. Hormones
  2. Carbohydrate
  3. Enzymes
  4. All of these.

Answer: 1. Hormones

Question 23. Bordeaux mixture can be prepared by mixing the copper sulphate with:

  1. Limestone
  2. Sodium chloride
  3. Calcium sulphate
  4. Milk of calcium hydroxide.

Answer: 4. Milk of calcium hydroxide.

Question 24. Which is used as weedicide?

  1. 2, 4-D
  2. IBA
  3. IAA
  4. ABA.

Answer: 1. 2, 4-D

Question 25. Biomagnification phenomenon is related to the pollutant:

  1. CO2
  2. NO2
  3. DDT
  4. SO2

Answer: 3. DDT

 

NEET Biology Notes on Human Growth Development

NEET Biology Human Growth Development

  • Growth is defined as an irreversible permanent change in the volume or size of a living body accompanied by a change in the dry weight.
  • It involves 3 phases i.e. phase of cell division, phase of cell elongation, and phase of cell differentiation.
  • Growth is always followed by differentiation and the two phenomena jointly constitute a larger phenomenon called development.
  • The growth centers in higher plants are called meristems which may be apical, lateral, or intercalary.
  • The growth at the cellular level is initiated by plasmatic growth. A cell passes through 3 phases of growth, differentiated as cell formation, cell elongation, and cell maturation.
  • The growth may be measured in terms of fresh weight, dry weight, length, and area.
  • Growth in length can be measured by horizontal microscopy, are indicator, or auxanometer. Bose’s crescograph is the finest instrument for measuring growth.

Sachs was the first to plot growth rate i.e., increase of growth per unit of time, and obtained a sigmoid curve.

Growth And Development Of S -Shaped Growth Curve

Neet Biology Human Growth And Development Notes

He differentiated three phases i.e., lag, log or exponential, and steady-state followed by the senescence phase. In some plants, a linear phase is recognized.

  1. The arithmetic growth of the root can be put as Lt = Lo +rt, where Lo is the length at zero time, Lt at time t, and r is the growth rate.
  2. Maintenance of the ratio between the growth rates of different parts is called allometric growth. The growth shows a diurnal rhythm. They are partly endogenous and partly governed by external factors.
  3. The growing shoot tip follows a helical path and the phenomenon is called circumnutation. Many phases of plants operate by a ‘biological clock’.
  4. When a distinct juvenile phase is identified in the life history, the development is said to be heteroblastic. Such phases have been seen in many plants. Example:  BatrachosperDuan, Hedera, Citrus, Quercus, etc.

The juvenility may be due to arrested development or low light intensity. In Acacia melamoxylon, it recapitulates phylogeny.

Human Growth And Development NEET Notes

NEET Biology Notes On Human Growth Development Factors Affecting Growth

The growth of plants is fundamentally regulated by genetic factors via the production of several enzymes. Multiple environmental elements affect growth, including flight, temperature, CO2 levels, moisture, nutrition, and pollution.

  • Plants growing in darkness exhibit etiolation. Light intensity influences leaf orientation, chlorophyll synthesis, and other factors. Sun leaves differ from shadow leaves.
  • Optimal growth is observed under red light, while minimal growth occurs under green light among monochromatic lights. Gamma, ultraviolet, and X-rays are detrimental to plants. The length of light influences flowering.
  • The temperature thresholds for the growth phase are 5°C, 20-30°C, and 35-40°C. They respond to diurnal (photo-temperature) and nocturnal temperatures. This occurrence is referred to as thermoperiodicity.
  • Exposure to severe temperatures results in harm to plants. For instance, desiccation, refrigeration, and cryopreservation.
  • To endure these challenges, a plant exhibits both internal and external adaptations.
    An elevation in CO2concentration from 300 to 1000 ppm enhances net respiration (NR) and relative growth rate (RGR) in certain plant species. Moisture stress may cause the RGR to decline to zero.
  • The growth of plants is affected by mineral deficiencies, specifically nitrogen, calcium, iodine, and boron.
  • Growth is significantly impacted by contaminants including fluorine, ozone, and ethylene.

Human Growth And Development NEET Notes

NEET Biology Notes On Human Growth Development Growth regulators

  1. Growth is regulated not only by environmental factors like light and temperature but also by certain chemical substances within the plants.
  • These substances are known as plant hormones, growth hormones, phytohormones, or growth regulators.
  • A plant hormone can be defined as a chemical substance, which is capable of translocation and regulating one or more physiological reactions, when present in low concentrations.
  • The plant hormones can have a positive effect on a process and thus promote it, or they have a negative effect and cause inhibition. A particular hormone may promote certain processes, or inhibit some other processes.

Human Growth And Development NEET Notes

NEET Biology Notes On Human Growth Development Auxins

  • Auxins (auxin = to grow) are a class of phytohormones that promote longitudinal growth in plants.
  • Auxins that occur in plants are called natural auxins eg.- indole-3-acetic acid, Indolc- 3-acetaldehyde, and Indolc-3-pyruvic acid.
  • Synthetic auxins are synthesized artificially and have properties like auxins, eg.- Naphthalene Acetic Acid (NAA), Indole Butyric Acid (IBA), Indole Propionic Acid (IPA), 2, 4-Dichlorophenoxy acetic acid (2,4-D).
  • The biosynthesis of auxin has been traced back from the amino acid tryptophan.
  • The movement of auxins is polar and basipetal in most plants.
  • Auxins can be degraded by the enzyme system IAA oxidase and also by light. They can be inactivated by X-rays UV-rays and gamma rays.
  • Auxins are synthesized in the apices ol‘ the stem.
  • The most characteristic action of auxin is to promote cell enlargement.
  • Auxins cause growth in leaves, roots, stems, etc. by Indicating cell enlargement and cell elongation.
  • The cell enlargement is due to ;
    1. Increase in osmotic content of the cell.
    2. increase in cell permeability to water. ,
    3. Reduction in wall pressure,
    4. Increase in wall synthesis and,
    5. Synthesis of specific RNA and proteins which increase cell wall plasticity.

Human Growth And Development NEET Notes

NEET Biology Notes On Human Growth Development Gibberellins

They are weakly acidic plant growth hormones that possess a gibbon ring, structure, and can bring about cell elongation of both leaves and stems in general, and intermodal length of genetically dwarf plants in particular.

  • They are named after the fungus Gibberella  (= Fusariitm moniliform) which produces balance (foolish seedling disease) in rice. The hormone was discovered by Yabuta and Suniiki. Yabuta (1935) coined the term gibberellin.
  • About 100 gibberellins are known, GA or gibberellic acid is the commonest. GA4 and GA2 are also commercially used. Gibberellins are synthesized in plants in the leaves of buds, developing embryos, and root tips.
  • GA3 promotes intermodal elongation and flowering.
  • They promote stem growth by activating the subapical meristem of the stem tip.
  • The elongation of internodes before flowering in rosette plants is called bolting.
  • Applications of gibberellins induce bolting.
  • Gibberellins induce flowering in long-day plants during short-day conditions, e.g.- cabbage, Rudbeckia.
  • Gibberellins induce flowering in plants that require cool winter nights before flowering (i.e., they substitute the cold treatment, vernalization).
  • Gibberellins break the dormancy in buds and seeds.
  • Gibberellins promote the germination of cereal grains such as barley, wheat, rice, etc.
  • Gibberellins promote the development of parthenocarpic fruits in tomatoes, apples, almonds, etc.
    1. The size of the fruits and seeds also increases due to gibberellin treatment.
    2. When giberellins are sprayed on plants their leaves become expanded. It increases the total photosynthetic area and biomass.
    3. Gibberellins inhibit the formation of adventitious roots from the cut end of the stem.
    4. Parthenocarpy. They can induce parthenocarpy in several plants.
    5. Maleness. Gibberellins stimulate maleness.
    6. Fruit Yield. Gibberellin application increases the number and size of fruits, e.g., grapes.
    7. Malt. There is increased malt production when gibberellins are provided to germinating barley grains (due to greater production of a-amylase).
    8. Sugarcane. GA application increases the sugar yield of sugarcane by promoting intermodal length.

NEET Human Growth And Development Chapter Notes

NEET Biology Notes On Human Growth Development Cytokinins

Cytokinins are slightly basic growth hormones, often derivatives of amino-purine (sometimes adenine), that stimulate cell division in plants. The initial cytokinin was identified by Miller et al. (1955) via the autoclaving of Herring sperm DNA.

  • The substance is a synthetic compound known as kinetin. It is 9-furfurylaminopurine. The initial natural cytokinin was identified by Letham et al. (1963). It was satin fabric. Approximately 18 cytokinins have been identified, including dihydrozeatin, IPA, and benzyl adenine.
  • Cytokinins are crucial for cytokinesis via chromosomal duplication and may occur in their absence.
  • Cytokinins induce division in permanent cells in the presence of auxin.
  • Cytokinins, like to auxin and gibberellins, induce cell elongation.
  • Buds arise when cytokinins are in surplus, but roots develop when their ratios are inverted (Skoog and Miller, 1957).
  • Cytokinins promote plastid differentiation, lignification, and the development of interfascicular cambium.
  • Cytokinins postpone the senescence of leaves and other tissues. They also enhance resilience to harsh temperatures and diseases.
  • They function antagonistically to auxin, which facilitates apical dominance.
    Similar to gibberellins, they mitigate seed dormancy.
  • They facilitate phloem movement.
  • Cytokinins, similar to auxins and ethylene, facilitate the development of female characteristics in flowers.

Human Growth And Development Class 12 Notes For NEET

NEET Biology Notes On Human Growth Development Ethylene

  1. Ethylene (CH2 = CH2) is a volatile gas present in the atmosphere and as a component of smoke and other industrial gases. Ethylene is formed by incomplete combustion of carbon-rich compounds such as coal, petroleum, and natural gas.
  2. Soon after the introduction of illuminating gas (produced from coal) for home and street lighting, evidence of plant damage was observed. Physiological studies confirmed that plants produce ethylene by metabolic process during growth and development.
  3. Ripening fruits in particular synthesize quantities of ethylene that build up to rather high concentrations within intercellular spaces of fruit tissue. The most important effect of ethylene on fruit ripening is that it is produced in large amounts which coincides with the respiratory climacteric.
  4. Excess of auxin causes ethylene synthesis.
  5. In the presence of ethylene, roots become apogeotropic while stems turn positively geotropic.
  6. Abscission of various parts (leaves, flowers, fruits,) is stimulated by ethylene which induces the formation of hydrolases.
  7. Ethylene promotes apical dominance and prolongs the dormancy of lateral buds.
  8. In low concentrations ethylene helps in root initiation, growth of lateral roots, and root hairs.

NEET Biology Human Growth And Development Revision Notes

NEET Biology Notes On Human Growth Development Abscisic Acid (Aba)

  • It is also called stress hormone or dormant because the production of hormones is stimulated by drought, water logging, and other adverse environmental conditions.
  • The hormone is an inhibitor that counteracts the influence of growth-promoting hormones (auxin, gibberellins, and cytokinins), induces dormancy, and helps overcome conditions of stress. The hormone was discovered by Addicott et al in 1963.
  • It is commonly formed inside chloroplasts either from mevalonic acid or xanthophyll-like violoxanthin.
  • It is known as dormant as it induces dormancy in buds, underground stems, and seeds.
  • This hormone was first isolated by Addicott et al (1963) from cotton balls.
  • It is produced in many parts of the plants but more abundantly inside the chloroplasts of green cells.
  • The hormone is formed from mevalonic acid or xanthophylls.
  • It is transported to all parts of the plant through diffusion as well as transport channels (phloem and xylem).
  • Abscisic acid induces dormancy of buds towards the approach of winter.
  • The buds as well as seeds sprout only when abscisic acid is overcome by gibberellin.
  • The formation of abscisic acid stops mitosis in the vascular cambium towards the approach of winter.
  • Abscisic acid promotes the abscission of flowers and fruits.

NEET Biology Notes Oon Human Growth Development Calines

  • The effect of auxin on root, stem, and leaves is not an isolated reaction but involves other natural hormones called canines which are of three types :
  1. Rhizocaline: It is a special root-forming honnone produced by the leaves and transported in a polar manner down the stem.
  2. Caulocaline: It is a stem-forming hormone synthesized in roots from where it is translocated to its site of activity in the stem. ,
  3. Phyllocaline: It stimulates mesophyll development in leaves. It is synthesized only in the presence of light and the actual site of its synthesis is not known.

NEET Biology Human Growth And Development Important Points

NEET Biology Notes On Human Growth Development Florigen

It is a floral hormone that is produced in photo-induced leaves and translocated to apical and lateral meristems where flower formation is initiated

Growth And Development Uses Of Some Synthetic Auxins

NEET Biology Human Growth And Development Important Points

NEET Biology Notes On Human Growth Development Useful Information

  • Went is credited with the discovery of auxins.
  • Hitchcock and Zimmerman showed that flowering in Nicotiana can be accelerated by auxins.
  • Auxins prevent premature leaf fall by arresting the formation of the abscission layer.
  • Snow (1933) showed that the reactivation of the cambial cells in the spring season is due to auxins.
  • Went named the growth-promoting substance Auxin (auxin = to grow)
  • Kogl and Haagen Smith isolated three chemicals from human urine and named them auxin a, auxin b, and heteroauxin.
  • IAA was first discovered by KogI et al in 1934.
  • Letham et al obtained the first naturally occurring cytokinin from unripe maize grain called Zeatin (6 hydroxy, 3 methyl trans, 2 butenyl amino purine).
  • Crookes et al recognized ethylene as a plant hormone. r4 Cams and Addict (1961) extracted abscisin-1 and abscisic-II from old cotton bolls and young cotton bolls respectively.
  • Knott (1934) found that the locus for photoperiodic induction occurs in the leaves.
  • Wellensick (1964) found that the locus for perception of cold treatment is the mer- istematic cells, especially the shoot apex.
  • Yabuta (1935) separated the hormone and named it Gibberellin.
  • O Yabuta (1938) prepared a crystalline form of Gibberellin.
  • Hitchcock and Zimmerman showed that flowering in Nicotiana can be acceler¬ated by auxins.
  • Snow (1933) showed that the cambial cells become activated in spring due to auxins.
  • Brain et al (1955) isolated GA3 in pure form.
  • Cross et al (1961) worked out the structure of Gibberellin or GA3. It is chemically CL 19 ^22
  • The first cytokinin was discovered by Miller et al and called Kinetin.
  • Draghett (1933) used the term crypto vegetation to signify a state of vegetation maintained by certain plants under low-temperature conditions of winter.
  • Peter Ray et al showed that IAA promotes the liberation of a water-soluble xyloglucan from the cell wall.
  • Boysen Jensen (1931) while working on coleoptiles of oats (Avena saliva), concluded that growth triggering substance is synthesized in the coleoptile tips.
  • Paal (1919) confirmed that growth-promoting substance is synthesized in the stem tips only.
  • Went extracted the substance from Avena coleoptile tip and observed its effects
    on the stump. He named the substance as auxin.
  • Kogl, Erxlaben, and Haagen-Smit isolated heteroauxin from human urine which was chemically Indole-3-acetic acid (IAA). The term auxin was coined by KogI.

Human Growth And Development NEET Exam Preparation Notes

NEET Biology Notes On Human Growth Development Photoperiodism

  • Light is of crucial significance in the flowering of plants. The response of a plant to the Native lengths of light and dark periods is called photoperiodism and the length of the daylight required by the plant to flower is called photoperiod.
  • Garner and Allard (1920) classified plants into three groups according to their photoperiods.
  • Short-dav plants (SDP or long-night plants): These plants flower when the day length is less than a certain critical length (critical day length is the photoperiod required to induce flowering) say 12 hours. Some examples of short-day plants are tobacco, soybean, Xanlhium, and Chrysanthemum. etc.
  • Long-day plants: These plants flower when the day length is greater than a certain critical length example. Spinach, sugarbeet, radish, henbane, potato etc.
  • Day-neutral plants: These plants flower in all possible photoperiods e.g. tomato, four o’clock, cotton, cucumber, balsam, maize, etc.
  • The photoperiodic stimulus is received by a pigment called phytochrome present in leaves. This pigment is a protein with a chromophore prosthetic group. It seems to be localized in the cell membranes. Phytochrome exists in two interconvertible forms i.e. Pr and Pfr.
  • The Pr form of phytochrome absorbs red light (660 nm) and is converted into Pfr form while Pfr forms absorb far-red light (730 nm) and are converted into Pr form. Under continuous darkness, the Pfr form of phytochrome gradually changes to Pr form which promotes the formation of flowering stimulus in short-day plants.
  • If the long dark period is interrupted by red light, the Pr form is converted into Pfr form which inhibits the formation of flowering stimulus in short-day plants. In long-day plants, the flowering is promoted by the Pfr form of phytochrome as the long light period favors the conversion of Pr to the Pfr form of phytochrome.
  • It is. therefore, concluded that flowering in short-day plants is promoted by the Pr form and inhibited by the Pfr form whereas in long-day plants, flowering is promoted by the Pfr form of phytochrome and inhibited by the Pr form.
  • The floral stimulus is a floral hormone. Butler and others isolated the phytochrome pigment responsible for the above change. It is a glycoprotein having a molecular weight of 1,25,000 and located in the plasma membrane. It occurs in two forms PR and Pp^ which are interconvertible as under :
  • The photo-induced leaves synthesize this floral hormone called florigen which is translocated to the site of flower formation. Cajlachjan (1958) suggested that there are two steps involved in the flowering process, the first mediated by gibberellin and the second by the flowering factor called ‘adhesive.’
  • Together, gibberellin and anthesine constitute the true florigen.

Photoperiodism and C/N Ratio: Kraus and Kraybill, 1918, while working with tomato plants discovered an interesting correlation. They found that different levels of carbohydrate and nitrate supply produce different responses in the plant. Broadly speaking there are four possibilities.

  1. Very high C/N Ratio → Plants remain weakly vegetative and no flowering is observed.
  2. High C/N Ratio → Plants show less vegetative growth but flower profusely.
  3. Low C/N Ratio→ Plants show luxuriant vegetative growth but no flowering is observed.
  4. Very low C/N Ratio → Plants show weak vegetative growth but fail to produce flowers.
  • The Day neutrals or photo neutrals do not need any specific photoperiod for flowering example, Cucumis, Gossypium, impatiens, Lycopersicon, Zea, Mirabilis, etc.
  • The photoperiod needed for flowering is called a critical day length. In short-day plants, it indicates the minimum period whereas in long-day plants, it tells the maximum photoperiod.
  • Based on experiments Knott, and Cajlachjan confirmed that photoperiodic and photoperiodic stimulus is captured by leaves of cotyledons. The experiments were conducted on loin pioups of plants of Chrysanthemum.

The photoperiodic stimulus may be systemic (Xanthium) or localiscil ((cosmos), Host flowering ooouis in red wavelength. poor flowering under blue and no flowering occurs in green.

Human Growth And Development NEET Exam Preparation Notes

NEET Biology Notes On Human Growth Development Vernalization

  • Many species, especially biennials and perennials, arc induced or promoted to flower by low temperatures. Vernalization is the low-temperature treatment given to water-soaked seeds, slightly germinated seeds, or seedlings to hasten the time of plants that will develop from them.
  • So, vernalization can best be defined as “The acquisition or acceleration of tire ability to flower by a chilling treatment.’’ (Chounrd 1960).
  • T.D Lysenko used the term vernalization as a low-temperature promotion of flowering in plants, The low-temperature requirement for flowering was first noticed by lvlippart (1837) while working with two varieties of wheat, the winter wheat and the spring wheat.
  • He concluded that winter wheat requires low treatment (0 – 5° C) for subsequent flowering, a tire phenomenon now called vernalization. It is an aerobic process.
  • Plains, in nature, requiring vernalization commonly behave as biennials. The biennials complete their life cycle in two years. They germinate and grow vegetatively in the first year and produce flowers in the second year of growth.
  • These fulfill their cold requirement during winter.
  • Russian scientists recognized the following two phrases in vernalization.
  • Thermophase. It requires a temperature varying between 10 – 20° C together with some moisture and oxygen (so that the embryo wakes up from the dormancy).
  • This phase has to be completed before the initiation of the primordia of reproductive organs. The period of low-temperature treatment varies from four days to three months in different plants. Thermophase can take place during the day as well as at night.
  • Photophase. A thermophase has to be followed by a period of illumination (i.e., photoperiod) and a period of relatively high temperature.
  • This low-temperature treatment given to the seeds to reduce the vegetative growth period and accelerate flowering is called vernalization or Yarovization. The site of vernalization is believed to be the growing point (apical bud).
  • The German botanist, Melchers (1939) demonstrated that the product of vernalization could be transmitted from a vernalized to an unvernalized Hyoscyamus plant through a graft union. He named this substance vernalin which is a hypothetical one and has not been isolated yet.
  • The vernalization effect is reversible and the process is called deyernalization. If the vernalized seeds are kept at high temperatures or under anaerobic conditions, they revert to their normal nature and produce biennial plants.

Human Growth And Development NEET Chapter Summary

Human development NEET notes Mechanism Of Vernalization

  • To explain the mechanism of vernalization in physiological terms, three different hypotheses have been put forward.
  • Antagonism between vegetative and reproductive growth. According to this theory, vegetative growth and flowering are antagonistic to each other. Thus any means of repressing vegetative growth would result in flowering.
  • Phasic development hypothesis. Lysenko (1932) emphasized the distinction between growth (quantitative change or increase in size) and development (a qualitative change or progressive change in the characteristics of new organs produced in cell division) and opined what has become known as the ‘Phasic development theory’.
  • According to this theory, the process of development of an annual seed plant consists of a series of phases that must occur in some predetermined sequence. When the proceeding phase is completed, the onset of any one phase will only take place.
  • Flower-producing substances hypothesis—Regarding the role of flower-producing substances during vernalization in cereal plants, Purvis (1961) has proposed a scheme. According to Purvis’s scheme, B is some compound that is part of a reaction system leading to flowering.

Growth And Development In Flower Producing Substances Hypothesis

Human Growth And Development NEET Chapter Summary

NEET growth and development Biology Factors Affecting Vernalization

  1. Water and Oxygen. Dry seeds cannot be vernalized. Seeds need to imbibe about 30¬40% moisture before they can be vernalized. Although moisture may be present, in the absence of air or oxygen, seeds or plants cannot be vernalized.
  2. In other words, active respiration is essential. This is supported by the fact that the inhibitors of respiration such as cyanide and dinitrophenol prevent vernalization even when other conditions are favourable.
  3. Temperature. The seeds of plants can be vernalized by exposing them to low temperatures. Usually, a temperature in the range of 1-7° C is equally effective. Vernalization, although weak, is still possible at temperatures lower than this range up to-4 °C and the higher range up to 12°C. Temperature beyond 12°C does not cause vernalization.
  4. Food Substances. If vernalization has to take place, there should be a source of carbohydrates. Isolated embryos of cereals cannot be vernalized till these are supplied with sucrose and minerals.
  5. Effect of Light. Light does not affect the process of vernalization. Many plants like carrots and hyoscyams have both vernalization and photoperiodic requirements for flowering.
  6. Effect on Hormones. Many species with an obligate vernalization requirement such as Carrot and Hyoscyams are rosette in habit during the vegetative stage. When vernalized, these plants show flowering, and flowering is accompanied by rapid elongation.
  7. Such an elongation of the stem is called bolting. In such rosette plants, the vernalization requirement can be replaced by the application of gibberellic acid.
  8. In these plants, GA causes both bolting and flowering without the necessity of exposure to low temperatures.

Human Growth And Development NEET Chapter Summary

NEET Biology Notes On Human Growth Development Senescence

As the young plant grows, it undergoes aging and develops into mature plants in an orderly fashion. Senescence constitutes a collective, progressive, and deteriorative development process that ultimately leads to the complete loss of organization and function of plant or plant parts.

Types of senescence. Mainly senescence is of two types :

  1. Whole plant senescence. In the case of monocarpic species ( which flower and form fruit only once in their lifetime and then die) whole plant senescence occurs e.g.wheat, soybeans (annuals), agave, bamboo, sunflower etc.
  2. Organ senescence. In polycarpic species (which flower and form fruit repeatedly) senescence and death are not associated with flowering and fruiting. Organ senescence is of the following types.
  3. Shoot senescence. In herbaceous perennials, the whole above-ground part of the plant body may senescence and die each year. example: Gladius, Ginger, Rumex, Banana.
  4. Simultaneous or synchronous senescence. Leaves of temperate deciduous woody arcs may sense and fall at a certain season of the year. It is controlled by environmental factors rather than internal factors.
  5. Sequential senescence. It is the progressive senescence of older leaves which may occur at any time of year. Each leaf in most of the plants has a limited life span, so that the shoot grows in height, lower older leaves tend to senesce and die.
  6. Retardants of Sense . Kinetin, a growth regulator, retards senescence of leaves. It causes a rapid increase in the rate of RNA and protein synthesis and it also causes mobilization of metabolites.
  • Growth is a quantitative phenomenon and can be measured over time.
  • Quiescence is the suspension of growth due to external factors such as changes in surrounding conditions.
  • Seed dormancy may be due to rudimentary, embryos, permeable seed coats, mechanically resistant seed coats, physiologically immature embryos, and due to presence of germination inhibitors.
  • The common germination inhibitors are abscisic acid, phenolic acids, short-chain fatty acids, and coumarin.
  • Rhizophora. Sonneratia and Heriticra growing in marshy land show a special type of germination termed vivipary, in which seed germination within the fruit, while still attached to the parent plant.
  • The rate of growth is called the efficiency index.
  • Auxin precursors tire the compounds which can be converted to auxins.
  • Antiauxins inhibit the action of auxins
  • Free auxins can be easily extracted and are active.
  • Bound auxins are inactive and hard to extract. They need the use of organic solvents. A dynamic equilibrium exists between the two forms.

Human Growth And Development NEET Chapter Summary

NEET Biology Notes on Human Growth Development Quanta to Memory

  • The presence of more auxin on the lower side of the stem apex causes more growth oil on that side.
  • The presence of more auxin in the root has a negative effect i.e., it inhibits growth on the lower side.
  • IAA (Indole Acetic Acid) is the principal naturally occurring auxin found in all plants studied so far and also in fungi.
  • IAA Destruction is caused by : (i) Photo-oxidation by blue light, and (ii) Dark oxidation by IAA-oxidase.
  • Auxin IAA stimulates ethylene synthesis in a plant.
  • IAA also occurs in human urine, especially in persons suffering from pellagra.
  • Bioiissay means the testing of a substance for its activity in living organisms under controlled conditions.
  • Abscission is the shedding of leaves, fruits, or (lowers by a plant generally due to a change in the hormonal balance.
  • The term Phytoalexin was introduced by Muller (1956) example. Pisatin in Pisum sativum is due to an infection of Ascochyta Ω.
  • 0•025 % of maleic hydrazide prevents potato sprouting.
  • Cytokinins along with auxins help in the differentiation of roots and shoots.
  • 2,4 D is a synthetic auxin acting as a weedicide.
  • Abscisic acid inhibits gibberellin-mediated amylase formation during the germination of cereal grains.
  • ABA has been found to induce parthenocarpic development in roses.
  • The use of abscisic acid promotes rooting in many stem cuttings.
  • It counteracts the effects of all growth-promoting hormones (auxins, gibberellins, cytokinins) and therefore, keeps their activity under check.
  • The role of IAA in humans is not known.
  • In maize, the single cotyledon never leaves the germinating grain and plumule grows out of coleoptile.
  • Vernalization was first studied in Europe on the winter varieties of cereals such as wheat, barley, rye, and oat.
  • The chemical nature of vernalin (Cold induced stimulus) is not known.
  • In growth anabolic processes dominate over the catabolic processes and therefore growth is the final product of successful metabolism.

NEET Biology MCQs on Human Growth Development

NEET Biology Growth And Development Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Growth is defined as :

  1. increase in size
  2. increase in shape
  3. increase in weight
  4. permanent increase in dry weight accompanied by a permanent increase in weight, size, and volume.

Answer: 4. permanent increase in dry weight accompanied by a permanent increase in weight, size, and volume.

Question 2. The maximum growth rate occurs in:

  1. exponential phase
  2. lag phase
  3. stationary phase
  4. senescence phase.

Answer: 1. exponential phase

Question 3. Mobilization of stored food in germinating seeds is triggered by :

  1. auxins
  2. cytokinins
  3. gibberellins
  4. ethylene.

Answer: 3. gibberellins

Question 4. The highest concentrations of auxin exist:

  1. at the base of various plant organs
  2. in growing tips of plants
  3. in leaves
  4. in xylem and phloem cells only.

Answer: 2. in growing tips of plants

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Plant Growth and Development NEET Questions Question 5. Exogenous application of Gibberellins induces male flower formation on genetically female plants in:

  1. Cucumis
  2. Cucurbita
  3. Ccirica
  4. Coccinia.

Answer: 2. Cucurbita

Question 6. Presence of which of the following is associated with seed dormancy?

  1. Starch
  2. Ethylene
  3. IAA
  4. Abscisic acid.

Answer: 4. Abscisic acid

Question 7. Growth takes place when:

  1. destructive processes are more than constructive ones
  2. destructive and constructive processes are equal
  3. constructive processes are more than destructive processes
  4. only anabolic processes occur, and no catabolic processes.

Answer: 3. constructive processes are more than destructive processes

Question 8. Growing points possess :

  1. meristematic cells
  2. mature cells
  3. dead cells
  4. slowly enlarging cells.

Answer: 1. meristematic cells

Question 9. In higher plant growth takes place :

  1. in the entire plant body
  2. in aerial parts only
  3. by growing points scattered all over the body
  4. by growing points confined to certain regions of the plant.

Answer: 4. by growing points confined to certain regions of the plant.

Plant Growth and Development NEET Questions Question 10. The correct sequence of development stages in the plant is :

  1. Flowering-fruiting-juvenility-germination
  2. Germination-juvenility-flowering-fruiting
  3. Juvenility-flowering-germination-fruiting
  4. Fruiting-flowering-Juvenility-germination.

Answer: 2. Germination-juvenility-flowering-fruiting

Question 11. The correct sequence of cellular growth stage is :

  1. Division-differentiation-elongation
  2. Division-elongation-differentiation
  3. Diffcrcntitation-division-elongation
  4. Elongation-differentiation.

Answer: 2. Division-elongation-differentiation

Question 12. Some chemicals have profound effects on plant growth arc called:

  1. catalytic agents
  2. phytohormones
  3. enzymes
  4. simple hormones.

Answer: 2. phytohormones

Question 13. The short-day winter annual “Pansy” belongs to the genus:

  1. Iberis
  2. Viola
  3. Papaver
  4. Malva.

Answer: 2. Viola

Question 14. The rate of growth of a stem of the plant is measured using:

  1. hydrometer
  2. osmometer
  3. auxanometer
  4. photometer.

Answer: 3. auxanometer

Plant Growth and Development NEET Questions Question 15. Light of low intensity :

  1. increases growth
  2. develops weak stem
  3. decreases growth
  4. does not affect growth.

Answer: 2. develops weak stem

Question 16. The favorable temperature for plant growth is :

  1. 10°-15°C
  2. 15°-20°C
  3. 35°-40°C
  4. 20°-30°C.

Answer: 2. 15°-20°C

Question 17. Plant growth is regulated by :

  1. environment
  2. growth hormones
  3. environment and growth hormones
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. environment and growth hormones

Question 18. Classical experiments on plant growth were performed by:

  1. Devers and Pall
  2. Boysen-Jensen and Darwin
  3. Lamarck-Boysen and Jensen
  4. None of the above.

Answer:2. Boysen-Jensen and Darwin

Question 19. Phytohormones are :

  1. hormones regulating growth from seed to adulthood
  2. growth regulators synthesized by plants and influencing the physiological process
  3. hormones regulating flowering
  4. hormones regulating secondary growth.

Answer: 2. growth regulators synthesized by plants and influencing physiological process

NEET Questions Plant Growth and Development Question 20. Which type of light is favorable for plant growth?

  1. White
  2. Red
  3. Green
  4. Violet.

Answer: 2. Red

Question 21. Plants can be vernalized by :

  1. heat treatment
  2. hormonal treatment
  3. cold temperature treatment
  4. colchicine treatment.

Answer: 3. cold temperature treatment

Question 22. The combination of auxin and cytokinin which is likely to induce shoot differentiation in tobacco callus is :

  1. only auxin and no cytokinin
  2. only cytokinin and no auxin
  3. higher concentration of auxin and lower concentration of cytokinin
  4. lower concentration of cytokinin and higher concentration of auxin.

Answer: 3. higher concentration of auxin lower concentration of cytokinin

Question 23. The substance which enhances stem growth is :

  1. enzyme
  2. vitamin
  3. auxin
  4. abscisic acid.

Answer: 3. auxin

Question 24. The following plant growth substances are not growth promoters:

  1. IAA
  2. Gibberellins
  3. Kinetin
  4. Abscisic acid.

Answer: 4. Abscisic acid.

NEET Questions Plant Growth and Development Question 25. The habit of the cabbage plant can be changed drastically by the application of :

  1. IAA
  2. Gibberellins
  3. Kinetin
  4. Abscisic acid.

Answer: 2. Gibberellins

Question 26. The synthesis of amylase in certain cereals is stimulated by :

  1. IAA
  2. Gibberellins
  3. Kinetin
  4. Abscisic acid.

Answer: 2. Gibberellins

Question 27. The curvature in Avena coleoptile is associated with growth substance :

  1. IAA
  2. Gibberellins
  3. Kinetin
  4. Abscisic acid.

Answer: 1. IAA

Question 28. The short-day winter annual ‘Pansy’ belongs to the genus :

  1. Iberis
  2. Viola
  3. Malva
  4. Papaver.

Answer: 2. Viola

Question 29. 2,4-D stands for :

  1. 2,4-Dichlorobutyric acid
  2. 2,4-Dichlorophenoxy acetic acid
  3. 2,4-Dichloronaphthalene acetic acid
  4. 2,4-Dichloroacetic acid.

Answer: 2. 2,4-Dichlorophenoxy acetic acid

NEET Questions Plant Growth and Development Question 30. Intermodal elongation is promoted by :

  1. gibberellic acid
  2. ethylene
  3. abscisic acid
  4. coumarin.

Answer: 1. gibberellic acid

Question 31. To be very accurate, the long-day plants have :

  1. Short night requirement for flowering
  2. No night requirement for flowering
  3. Long night requirement for flowering
  4. Short-day requirement for flowering.

Answer: 1. Short night requirement for flowering

Question 32. In the R-FR responses of plants it is the :

  1. the first treatment that counts
  2. middle treatment that counts
  3. last treatment that counts
  4. total of all the treatments that count.

Answer: 3. The last treatment that counts

Question 33. Seedless varieties of tomatoes can be produced by :

  1. spraying hormones on plants
  2. spraying radioactive elements
  3. by subjecting seeds to heat treatment
  4. by vegetative propagation of stem.

Answer: 1. spraying hormones on plants

Question 34. Dormancy in potato buds and seeds can be broken by treating them with :

  1. Auxins
  2. Gibberellins
  3. Auxins and cytokinins
  4. Cytokinins and Gibberellins.

Answer: 4. Cytokinins and Gibberellins

Plant Growth And Development MCQ Important Concepts Question 35. Auxin hormones were first discovered by :

  1. Skoog
  2. Hales
  3. Boysen and Jensen
  4. Kogl.

Answer: 3. Boysen and Jensen

Question 36. The ethylene hormone is mainly responsible for:

  1. formation of root hair
  2. ripening of fruit
  3. formation of nodes
  4. formation of intemodes.

Answer: 2. ripening of fruit

Question 37. What will happen if Gibberellins are applied to intact plants?

  1. Increase in root
  2. Ripening of fruits
  3. Leaf extension growth
  4. Sudden elongation of the stem.

Answer: 4. Sudden elongation of the stem.

Question 38. One of the important roles of cytokinin is:

  1. to check senescence
  2. to check abscission
  3. to mobilize solutes from one part to the other
  4. to overcome dormancy.

Answer: 1. to check senescence

Plant Growth And Development MCQ Important Concepts Question 39. An excised leaf does not turn yellow if it is induced to root. This is attributed to synthesis in the root of:

  1. ethylene
  2. cytokinins
  3. gibberellins
  4. auxins.

Answer: 2. cytokinins

Question 40. Which one of the following hormones is chiefly concerned with cell division?

  1. Auxin
  2. Cytokinins
  3. G.A.
  4. 2-4

Answer: 2. Cytokinins

Question 41. In phototropism, auxins :

  1. promote the growth of cells
  2. stimulate differential growth of cells on different sides of the plant
  3. inhibit the growth of cells
  4. stimulate and signal the direction of light or gravity of the plant.

Answer: 2. stimulate differential growth of cells on different sides of the plant

Question 42. From which was kinetin isolated :

  1. Coconut milk
  2. Pineapple
  3. Soyabean
  4. Groundnut.

Answer: 1. Coconut milk

Question 43. In a short-day plant growing in a home garden, phytochrome is normally switched from one form to the other by:

  1. red and far-red light
  2. sunlight
  3. activation by gibberellin or abscisic acid
  4. measuring the length of the dark period between light periods.

Answer: 1. red and far-red light

Question 44. Which of the following are two growth inhibitors?

  1. Florigen and ABA
  2. Salicylic acid and ABA
  3. Cinnamic acid and IAA
  4. NAA and Coumarin.

Answer: 2. Salicylic acid and ABA

Question 45. In unisexual plants, sex can be changed by the application of:

  1. Ethanol
  2. GA
  3. Cytokinins
  4. ABA.

Answer: 2. GA

NEET Questions Plant Growth and Development Question 46. A long-day plant is one that :

  1. requires more than 12 hours of light to flower
  2. increases in height when it flowers
  3. needs a certain minimum length of photoperiod to flower
  4. is not affected by temperature in its flowering response.

Answer: 1. requires more than 12 hours of light to flower

Question 47. Short-day plants require :

  1. Night
  2. Light
  3. Long dark period
  4. Long light period.

Answer: 3. Long dark period

Question 48. During seed germination, its stored food is mobilized by:

  1. ABA
  2. Gibberellin
  3. Ethylene
  4. Cytoxinin

Answer: 4. Cytoxinin

Question 49. Name of the flowering hormone produced in some plants as a result of low-temperature treatment to :

  1. Vemalin
  2. Florigen
  3. Abscisin
  4. Dormin.

Answer: 1. Vemalin

Question 50. A substance that induces dormancy in the seed is :

  1. GA
  2. ABA
  3. Thiourea
  4. Cytokines

Answer: 2. ABA

NEET Questions Plant Growth and Development Question 51. The growth-controlling substances originating at the stem tips are :

  1. Proteins
  2. Vitamins
  3. Enzymes
  4. Auxins.

Answer: 4. Auxins

Question 52. An abnormally long-stemmed plant with pale yellow leaves is called:

  1. Chlorotic
  2. Etiolated
  3. Necrotic
  4. Abnormal.

Answer: 2. Etiolated

Question 53. The ripening of fruits can be accelerated by :

  1. keeping fruits at high temperature
  2. artificially adding ethylene
  3. keeping fruits at low temperature
  4. reducing H2,O2 supply by dehydration.

Answer: 2. artificially adding ethylene

Question 54. Cytokinin is used to :

  1. cause dormancy
  2. induce cell division
  3. regulate cell movements
  4. increase growth.

Answer: 2. induce cell division

NEET Questions Plant Growth and Development Question 55. Auxins are growth hormones related to :

  1. cell elongation
  2. cell differentiation
  3. cell division
  4. cell mutation.

Answer: 1. cell elongation

Question 56. Match the items of column 1 and Column 2.

Growth And Development Match The Items Question 56

  1. A- q,   B – r,   C- p,    D- t
  2. A- q,   B-s,    C-p,     D-t
  3. A – q,  B -p,   C -1,    D – r
  4. A – q,  B- t,   C- p,   D – r.

Answer: 3. A – q,  B -p,   C -1,    D – r

Question 57. Gibberellin was first extracted from :

  1. fungi
  2. algae
  3. bacteria
  4. roots of plants.

Answer: 1. fungi

Question 58. Hormones found in the liquid endosperm of coconut are:

  1. Gibberellin
  2. Auxin
  3. Ethylene
  4. Cytokinin.

Answer: 4. Cytokinin.

Question 59. Senescence in plants can be delayed by :

  1. Auxins
  2. Cytokinins
  3. Gibberellins
  4. Ascorbic acid.

Answer: 2. Cytokinins

NEET Important Questions Plant Growth and Development Question 60. The red-far red (R-FR) responses are not independent of:

  1. IAA
  2. 2, 4-D
  3. GA
  4. Abscisic acid.

Answer: 3. GA

Question 61. The growth hormone auxin occurs in :

  1. root tip and shoot tip
  2. branches
  3. leaf apex
  4. old leaves.

Answer: 1. root tip and shoot tip

Question 62. Gibberellin was discovered and named by :

  1. Darwin
  2. Yabuta and Sumiki
  3. Boysen Jenson
  4. Amon.

Answer: 2. Yabuta and Sumiki

Question 63. Seedless fruits can be had by treating unpollinated flowers with :

  1. sucrose
  2. enzymes
  3. hormones
  4. inhibitors.

Answer: 2. enzymes

Question 64. Photoperiodism is due to :

  1. growth curvature in response to light
  2. response to the relative length of day and night
  3. light period
  4. dark period.

Answer: 1. growth curvature in response to light

NEET Important Questions Plant Growth and Development Question 65. Photoperiodism is associated with the formation of :

  1. auxin
  2. florigen
  3. cytokinin
  4. enzymes.

Answer: 3. cytokinin

Question 66. When the terminal bud is removed, a plant grows more :

  1. tall
  2. bushy
  3. slowly
  4. rapidly.

Answer: 2. bushy

Question 67. Plant growth is :

  1. Limited
  2. Unlimited
  3. Unlocalised
  4. Diffused.

Answer: 2. Unlimited

Question 68. Genetically dwarf plants can elongate on the application of:

  1. Kinetins
  2. Indole acetic acid
  3. GA3
  4. All the above.

Answer: 3. GA3

Question 69. Maximum root growth occurs :

  1. at the apex
  2. in the presence of light
  3. behind the apex
  4. in the presence of soil.

Answer: 3. behind the apex

NEET Important Questions Plant Growth and Development Question 70. Apical dominance in higher plants is due to :

  1. Excess of auxins
  2. enzyme activity
  3. C/N ratio
  4. Light.

Answer: 1. Excess of auxins

Question 71. The Crcscofiraph was invented by :

  1. Darwin
  2. J.C, Bose
  3. F.W, Went
  4. C.V, Kaman,

Answer: 2. J.C, Bose

Question 72. Photoperiodic stimulus is perceived by :

  1. Leaves
  2. Flowers
  3. Buds
  4. Meristem.

Answer: 1. Leaves

Question 73. Which of the following plant growth substances can substitute for vernalization 7

  1. Auxins
  2. Cytokinins
  3. Gibberellins
  4. Ethylene.

Answer: 3. Ethylene.

Question 74. In a pineapple field, spraying NAA (an auxin) induces flowering because it:

  1. stops vegetative growth
  2. promotes flowering
  3. gets converted to ethylene which induces flowering.
  4. stimulates the production of ethylene,

Answer: 3. gets converted to ethylene which induces flowering

Question 75. Leaf aging is retarded by :

  1. cytokinin
  2. florigen
  3. auxin
  4. abscisic acid.

Answer: 1. cytokinin

Question 76. Which one of the following pigments is associated with flowering?

  1. Photochromic
  2. Cytochrome
  3. Chlorophyll
  4. Xanthophyll.

Answer: 1. Phytochromc

Question 77. The red-absorbing form of phytochrome gets converted to the far-red absorbing form after getting irradiated at

  1. 530 nm
  2. 660 nm
  3. 730 nm
  4. 660 nm to 730 nm.

Answer: 2. 660 nm

Plant Growth and Development NEET Questions Question 78. The stimulus of vernalization is received in annual and biennial plants by :

  1. root
  2. tips of young leaves
  3. dry seeds
  4. stem apex.

Answer: 4. stem apex

Question 79. The ‘S’ shaped (sigmoid) growth curve was postulated by:

  1. Sachs
  2. Blackman
  3. Smith
  4. Kogl.

Answer: 1. Sachs

Question 80. Lettuce seeds require a light treatment for germination. This treatment can be replaced by using one of the following phytohormones :

  1. Auxins
  2. Ethylene
  3. Gibberellins
  4. Cytokinins.

Answer: 3. Gibberellins

Question 81. The process of senescence in plants can be reversed by applying :

  1. Ethylene
  2. Auxins
  3. Gibberellins
  4. Cytokinins.

Answer: 4. Cytokinins.

Question 82. The natural form of active auxin, produced by plants, is:

  1. indole acetic acid
  2. colyledauxins
  3. tryptophan
  4. apical acid.

Answer: 1. indole acetic acid

Question 83. Parthenogenetic fruits are prepared by spraying :

  1. auxins
  2. cytokinins
  3. Ethylene
  4. Abscisic acid.

Answer: 1. auxins

Question 84. Elongation of genetically dwarf plants can be done with the help of:

  1. Auxins
  2. Gibberellins
  3. IAA
  4. Cytokinin.

Answer: 2. Gibberellins

Question 85. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

  1. Auxin          –   Dwarf rice
  2. Gibberellins   – Elongation
  3. Cytokinin      – Coconut milk
  4. Abscisic acid  – Early leaf fall,

Select the correct answer using the codes given below—

  1. 2, 3, and 4
  2. 1, 2, and 3
  3. 1, Band 4
  4. 1, 3, and 4

Answer: 1. 2, 3, and 4

Question 86. Hormones responsible for plant and seed dormancy during drought are:

  1. IBA
  2. NAA
  3. ABA
  4. Zealand.

Answer: 3. ABA

Question 87. Growth regulator ethylene is used for:

  1. Retarding ripening of tomatoes
  2. Speeding up the ripening of fruits
  3. Slowing down the ripening of apples
  4. Both B and C.

Answer: 2. Speeding up the ripening of fruits

Question 88. If total growth is plotted against time, the curve obtained is known as:

  1. T-shaped curve
  2. U-shaped curve
  3. G-shaped curve
  4. S-shaped curve.

Answer: 4. S-shaped curve

Question 89. The total period of growth is termed as :

  1. Magnified period of growth
  2. Total period of growth
  3. Grand period of growth
  4. Graceful period of growth.

Answer: 3. Grand period of growth

Plant Growth and Development NEET Questions Question 90. The bioassay for gibberellins is:

  1. Avena curvature test
  2. Soybean callus test
  3. a-amylase induction test in barley aleurone cells
  4. Barley leaf disc test for Chlorophylls.

Answer: 3. a-amylase induction test in barley aleurone cells

Question 91. Graph showing the growth of yeast; This is the type of growth curve noted for most organisms.

Growth And Development Graph Showing The Growth Of Yeast Question 91

The log phase of growth is represented by :

  1. Point A to B
  2. Point B to C
  3. Point C to D
  4. Point A to C.

Answer: 2. Point B to C

Question 92. The segment C-D indicates a point where :

  1. No new individuals are formed
  2. The death rate is zero
  3. The rate of formation and rate of death of individuals is the same
  4. The experiment stopped.

Answer: 3. The rate of formation and rate of death of individuals is the same

Question 93. The segment D-E indicates a period of:

  1. Decline
  2. Maturation
  3. Recommencement of growth
  4. Active growth.

Answer: 1. Decline

Question 94. Which of the following is necessary for flower formation in higher plants?

  1. Water and minerals
  2. Florigen
  3. Phyllocaline
  4. None.

Answer: 2. Florigen

Question 95. If a brief flash of light is provided during a dark period to the plant that requires a short day then the plant is likely

  1. to flower
  2. not to flower
  3. to have no effect
  4. produces more flowers.

Answer: 2. not to flower

Question 96. In many plants, the change over from the vegetative phase to the reproductive phase takes place in response to :

  1. the length of the day
  2. the severity of the temperature
  3. mainly the food material available in the soil
  4. the oxygen present in the air.

Answer: 1. the length of the day

Question 97. In short-day plants, flowering is inhibited by :

  1. Interruption of dark by white or red light
  2. Dark interruption by far-red light
  3. Dark interruption by red light followed by far-red light
  4. Not possible.

Answer: 1. Interruption of the dark by white or red light

Question 98, Which of the following plant hormones substitutes for low-temperature treatment?

  1. Auxins
  2. Gibbcrcllins
  3. Cytokinins
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Gibbcrcllins

NEET Questions Plant Growth and Development Question 99. What does the growth of a single cell, organism, and population have in common?

  1. They are influenced by the environment
  2. They require energy and acquire mass
  3. They result in an S-shaped curve if the size is plotted against time.
  4. All of the above.

Answer: 3. They result in an S-shaped curve if the size is plotted against time.

Question 100. A high concentration of auxin is present in :

  1. Root apex
  2. Shoot apex
  3. Petiole
  4. Node.

Answer: 2. Shoot apex

Question 101. Match List 1 with List 2 and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :

Growth And Development Match Question 101

Codes :

  1. 2,1,3,4
  2. 2,1,4,3
  3. 1,2,4,3
  4. 1,2,3,4

Answer: 2. 2,1,4,3

NEET Biology Tools And Techniques Multiple Choice Questions

NEET Biology Tools And Techniques Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Fluorescent dye bonded to monoclonal antibodies is used to locate particular:

  1. Cell proteins
  2. Cells
  3. Diseased parts
  4. Organs of defence.

Answer: 1. Cell proteins

Question 2. The scientists who developed the technique of keeping tissue and organs alive outside the body are:

  1. Ringer
  2. Cannon
  3. Lorenty
  4. Binning and Rohrer.

Answer: 1. Ringer

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 3. The Electron microscope has revealed the presence of:

  1. Chloroplasts
  2. Leucoplasts
  3. Ribosomes
  4. Chromosomes.

Answer: 3. Ribosomes

Molecular Biology MCQ For NEET Biology With Answers Question 4. Magnification of a “compound microscope” does not depend upon :

  1. The focal length of the objective
  2. The focal length of the eyepiece
  3. Tube length of the microscope
  4. Numerical aperture of the objective.

Answer: 4. Numerical aperture of objective.

Question 5. For studying the metabolism of deoxyribonucleic acid, an autoradiographic technique is used involving:

  1. Tritiated uridine
  2. Tritiated thymidine
  3. Tritiated mannose
  4. Tritiated amino acids.

Answer: 2. Tritiated thymidine

Question 6. Phase contrast microscope was designed by:

  1. Tolles
  2. Zernicke
  3. Hooke
  4. Zsigmondy.

Answer: 1. Tolles

Question 7. Scanning electron microscope (sem) is primarily used for :

  1. 3-D external surface only
  2. 3-D internal study of tissue
  3. 2-D external study
  4. 2-D internal study.

Answer: 1. 3-D external surface only

Question 8. In a microscope. A lens closer to the eye is called :

  1. Ocular
  2. Eye piece
  3. Both 1 & 2
  4. Oculomotor.

Answer: 1. Eyepiece

Molecular Biology MCQ For NEET Biology With Answers Question 9. The electron microscope is made up of :

  1. Fluorochromes
  2. Polariser and analyser filter
  3. Electromagnetic lenses
  4. Objective and ocular lenses.

Answer: 3. Electromagnetic lenses

Question 10. Angstrom, the unit of measurement in the transmission electron microscope , is equal to :

  1. 0.01tim
  2. 0.001pm
  3. 0.0001pm
  4. 0.00001pm.

Answer: 3. 0.0001pm

Question 11. The resolving power of an electron microscope is :

  1. 1A
  2. 10a
  3. 100A
  4. 10004.

Answer: 2. 10a

Question 12. Knoll and Ruska first designed the electron microscope in the year:

  1. 1932
  2. 194S
  3. 1941
  4. 1900.

Answer: 1. 1932

Question 13. Among the following isotopes, which is not radioactive?

  1. C-o
  2. P-
  3. H
  4. O-.

Answer: 4. O-.

Question 14. X-ray crystallography is used to study :

  1. Structure of lipids
  2. Composition of proteins and nucleic acids
  3. Arrangement of proteins
  4. Three-dimensional structure of proteins.

Answer: 2. Composition of proteins and nucleic acids

Question 15. One of the important techniques used to study the synthesis of molecules and to trace the metabolic pathway or events in cells is:

  1. Autoradiography
  2. Microspectrophotometry
  3. Calorimetry
  4. Chromatography.

Answer: 1. Autoradiography

Molecular Biology MCQ For NEET Biology With Answers Question 16. Resolution power is the ability to :

  1. Distinguish two close points
  2. Distinguish two close objects
  3. Distinguish amongst organelles
  4. Magnify images.

Answer: 1. Distinguish two close points

Question 17. What will you call the study of plants and animals outside the body in a glass tube?

  1. In vivo
  2. In vitro
  3. Innate
  4. Desperate.

Answer: 2. Innate

Question 18. When biologists wish to study the internal ultrastructure of cells, they most likely would use :

  1. A good modern light microscope
  2. A scanning electron microscope
  3. A transmission electron microscope
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. A transmission electron microscope

Question 19. Living cells can be studied by :

  1. Phase contrast microscope
  2. Fluorescent microscope
  3. Electron microscope
  4. Light microscope.

Answer: 1. Phase contrast microscope

Question 20. The method most frequently used to determine the molecular weight of proteins is :

  1. X-ray diffraction
  2. Classical chemistry
  3. Ultra-centrifugation
  4. Both 1 and 2.

Answer: 3. Ultra-centrifugation

Biotechnology Principles and Processes MCQ for NEET Question 21. Which of the following techniques other than a microscope

  1. Plasmolysis
  2. Maceration
  3. Chromatography
  4. Auto-radiography.

Answer: 4. Auto-radiography.

Question 22. The electron microscope differs from the ordinary microscope in having resolving power due to the use of:

  1. Electrons, which have a longer wavelength than ordinary light, as the source of illumination
  2. Ultraviolet light as the source of illumination
  3. Fast electrons which have shorter wavelengths than ordinary light rays as the source of illumination
  4. Gamma rays as the source of illumination.

Answer: 3. Fast electrons which have shorter wavelengths than ordinary light rays as the source of illumination

Question 23. A student wants to study the metaphysic behaviour of chromosomes/chromosomes in a living cell. The technique most suitable is:

  1. Phase contrast microscope
  2. Scanning electron microscope
  3. X-ray microscope
  4. Cell fractionation.

Answer: 1. Phase contrast microscope

Question 24. What is the primary objective of cell fractionation?

  1. To view the structure of cell membranes
  2. To identify the enzymes outside the organelles
  3. To determine the size of various organelles
  4. To separate the organelles.

Answer: 4. To separate the organelles.

Question 25. High-wavelength UV rays are used in:

  1. Fluorescent microscope
  2. Polarising microscope
  3. Ultraviolet microscope
  4. Phase-contrast microscope.

Answer: 1. Fluorescent microscope

Biotechnology Principles and Processes MCQ for NEET Question 26. The pattern of protein binding on dna can be studied by

  1. Light microscope
  2. Electron microscope
  3. Ultracentrifugation
  4. X-ray crystallography.

Answer: 4. X-ray crystallography.

Question 27. Fundamentally a dead cell differs from a living cell when seen under a phase contrast microscope because:

  1. It has become separated from other cells
  2. Its vital forces have been destroyed
  3. A change in its surrounding environment has occurred
  4. A change in its specific organization has occurred.

Answer: 2. Its vital forces have been destroyed

Question 28. The part of a cell that can be seen with an electron microscope, but never with a light microscope is/are the:

  1. Nucleus
  2. Golgi bodies
  3. Chloroplasts
  4. Mebrane separating the nucleus from the cytoplasm

Answer: 3. Chloroplasts

Question 29. A lab technician spun a cell suspension from leaf tissue in a centrifuge in a slurry of sucrose at a speed that formed a bright green band about halfway down the solution in the tube. In what fraction would you expect to find the nuclei?

  1. In a pellet at the bottom of the tube
  2. In the green band
  3. In a dark band above the green band
  4. In the supernatant.

Answer: 1. In a pellet at the bottom of the tube

Question 30. You have developed a stain that colours alpha and beta tubulin a bright orange colour. When the stain is ap- plied to non-dividing leaf cells, what area of the cell would you expect to be orange when viewed with a light microscope?

  1. The nucleus
  2. The cell wall adjacent to the surface of the plasma membrane
  3. The cytoskeleton
  4. Flagella.

Answer: 4. Flagella.

Question 31. A cytologist must decide what type of microscope to purchase for his laboratory. The lab examines fibres and hairs. And other forensic evidence as whole specimens. As the microscope salesperson, you suggest that he should buy:

  1. A light microscope with a resolution power of 1 nm.
  2. A scanning electron microscope.
  3. A transmission electron microscope with a maximum magnification of 1,000 x.
  4. An electron microscope with resolution power of about 2 nanometres.

Answer: 2. A transmission electron microscope with a maximum magnification of 1,000 x.

NEET Biology MCQ Test  Question 32. Cellulose in a cell is stained by :

  1. Ivlethylene blue
  2. Zinc chloro-iodide
  3. Sudan iv
  4. Ruthenium red.

Answer: 2. Zinc chloro-iodide

Question 33. Elisa is used to detecting viruses where the key reagent is:

  1. Catalase
  2. Osmic acid
  3. Acetylcholinesterase
  4. Alkaline phosphate.

Answer: 4. Alkaline phosphate.

Question 34. A fluorescence microscope is used to:

  1. Increase resolving power
  2. Localise cell components
  3. Obtain x-ray dif1iaction pattern of dna
  4. Study cells and their components in a living state using phase differences in light rays.

Answer: 2. Localise cell components

NEET Biology MCQ Test  Question 35. Cell organelles can be separated by :

  1. Differential centrifugation
  2. Autoradiography
  3. Thin section microtomy
  4. X-ray diffraction.

Answer: 1. Differential centrifugation

Question 36. If a biochemical analysis of mitochondria is to be done, the best procedure would be:

  1. Subject the cells to cell fractionation (centrifuge) and obtain mitochondria.
  2. Grind the cell filter out the mixture and take the debris
  3. Plasmolyse the cells, filter them and take the debris
  4. Select cells which have a large number of mitochondria.

Answer: 4. Select cells which have a large number of mitochondria.

Mental Health and Community Health For NEET

Mental Health And Community Health For NEET Mental Health Growth Of Human Populations

Modern humans appeared around 50,000 years ago from the archaic Homo sapiens that existed between 1,00,000 and 2,00,000 years ago.

Population is defined as a group of organisms of the same species or other species within which individuals may change genetic information occupying a particular space.

Demography deals with the statistical study of the population.

  • The population has characteristics which are a function of the whole group and not of the individuals; these are population density, birth rate, death rate, age distribution, biotic potential, rate of dispersion and growth form.
  • In the beginning, the human population was sparsely distributed over the earth. Its growth was very slow in the beginning.
  • About ten thousand years ago, the growth of the human population increased. Since then it is grown rapidly.
  • Today in the world the population is not evenly distributed.
  • Nearly 70 per cent of the world population lives in less developed countries
  • In 1700 the human population was about 0.6 billion, it touched the one billion mark around 1850. It reached 6.1 billion by 2000.
  • This dramatic increase is called a population explosion.

Maximum Carrying Capacity is the maximum size which can be supported in the environment. It has the first two components life-supporting capacity and waste assimilative capacity.

  • The increased levels of environmental degradation arise from population explosion and population densities within different parts of the world.
  • Population growth is determined by biotic potential and environmental resistance. The human population shows a T-shaped growth curve in the absence of environmental resistance. Enhanced longevity has also contributed towards the population explosion.

Mental Health Growth Of Human Populations NEET

Malthus, An Economist, Proposed A Theory Of Human Population Growth that states when unchecked population grows geometrically, whereas, the means of sustenance grows only arithmetically and this would cause imbalance. There are positive checks such as floods, wars, volcanic eruptions, earthquakes etc. which maintain population.

Fertility-Related Statistics. Fertility can be measured by a number of the following factors:

Birth Rate. The birth rate is the simplest indicator of fertility and is defined as “the number of live births per 1000 estimated mid-year population, in a given year. It is calculated by the formula

= \(\frac{\text { Number of live births during the year }}{\text { Estimated mid }- \text { year population }} \times 1000\)

The birth rate is an unsatisfactory measure of fertility because the total population is not exposed to childbearing. Therefore it does not give a true idea of the fertility of a population.

Rate Of Change In Population Size 

  1. In the ‘S’ shaped growth curve, the rate of change in population size \(\left[\frac{d \mathrm{~N}}{d t}\right]=r \mathrm{~N}\left[\frac{\mathrm{K}-\mathrm{N}}{\mathrm{K}}\right]\)
  2. In ‘J’ shaped growth curve, Rate of change in population size \(\left[\frac{d \mathrm{~N}}{d t}\right]=r \mathrm{~N}\) where \(\left[\frac{\mathrm{K}-\mathrm{N}}{\mathrm{K}}\right] \text { or }\left[1-\frac{\mathrm{N}}{\mathrm{K}}\right]\) = Environment resistance, r = Biotic potential, population size.

General Fertility Rate (GFR). It is the ‘number of live births per 1000 women in the reproductive age group (15-44 or 49 years) in a given year’.

GFR = \(\frac{\text { Number of live births in an area during the year }}{\text { Mid year female population of age } 15-44} \times 1000\)

The general fertility rate is a better measure of fertility than the crude birth rate because the denominator is restricted to the number of women of childbearing age, rather than the whole population. The major weakness of this rate is that not all women in the denominator are exposed to the risk of childbirth.

Total Fertility Rate (TFR) is the average number of children that would be bom to a woman during her lifetime assuming the age-specific birth rates at a given time. The total fertility rate is lower in developed countries as compared to underdeveloped countries. It is controlled by economics and human aspirations.

Doubling Time. The time required for a population to double itself is called doubling time.

Dobuiling Time = \(\left(\frac{70}{\text { Growth rate (in %age) }}\right)\)

With a 2% growth rate in India, the doubling time will be 70/2 = 35 years

The doubling time for the world population = 35 -10 years

Crude Birth And Crude Death Rates are the number of live births and deaths respectively per thousand people, on July 7 i.e. middle of the year.

Demographic transition. If birth and death rates are equal, it results in a zero population growth rate, it is termed demographic transition. It may occur in all countries as they become developed but it may take many decades in underdeveloped countries.

Immigration is the movement of individuals into a place or country.

Emigration refers to the movement of individuals out of a place or a country.

Population Explosion. If the growth of the population is continued either due to an increased birth rate or decreased death rate, it is called a population explosion. This is a great hazard to the development and prosperity of a nation.

Mental Health Growth Of Human Populations NEET

Reasons For Population Explosion

  1. Management of Natural Disasters: Mitigation of floods, earthquakes, cyclones, and cold weather has lowered mortality rates, thereby leading to population growth.
  2. Management of Epidemics: Control over plague, smallpox, diphtheria, cholera, diarrhea, and whooping cough has also reduced the death rate.
  3. Augmented Food Production: The Green Revolution pertains to the enhancement of crops such as wheat and rice. The White Revolution for dairy and the Blue Revolution for aquaculture have augmented the quantity and accessibility of food for a broader segment of the population.
  4. Modes of Transportation: The enhancement of rapid transportation services has facilitated the delivery of food to remote locations during emergencies. During a flood, food packets are delivered via helicopter or other rapid transportation methods.
  5. Deficiency in Education: Individuals lack education and awareness on the detrimental effects of overpopulation.
  6. Decrease in Infant Mortality Rate and Increase in Life Expectancy. Improvements in medical facilities have reduced the newborn mortality rate and raised the life expectancy of the population.

Annual Average Growth Rate:

It is a measure of the human population. It is calculated as follows:

Annual average growth rate in percent = \(\left[\frac{P_2-P_1}{P_1 \times N}\right] \times 100\)

Where P1 = Population size in the previous census

P2 = Population size in the present census.

N = Number of years between two censuses.

Dependency Ratio = \(\frac{\text { Person in dependent ages }}{\text { Persons in economically providing ages }}\)

Replacement Level (RL). It is the number of children a couple must produce to replace clientele, The actual RL, is always higher than 2.0 because children may the even better than the reproductive ape, In developed countries RL, is achieved at 2. 1 whereas in developing countries it is around 2.7 due to higher mortality rate and short life expectancy.

Three Components Of Environment

  1. Productive System. Such as croplands, and orchards which provide food and fibres.
  2. Protective System. It buffers the air and water cycle and extremes in temperature example, forests and ocean.
  3. Waste Assimilative System. This part assimilates wastes produced by human activities, for example, waterways, and wetlands.

Maximum Carrying Capacity. It is defined as the “Feeding capacity of an environment of an ecosystem for a population of a species under a provided set of conditions.” It is also defined as the “Level beyond which no major increase can occur.” This limit is a constant and represented by K.

Maximum Carrying Capacity Depends Upon Following Components Of Environment:

  1. Productive system and
  2. Protective system.

The use of advances in science and technology for the productive system of the environment has increased the carrying capacity.

Sustainable Development encourages a process of change in which the exploitation of resources, the direction of investments, the orientation of technological development and institutional changes are all in harmony. Such development enhances both present and future potential to meet human needs and aspirations.

The concept of sustainable development, thus, aims at a framework to integrate developmental strategies and environmental policies at local, national and global levels. Development should not endanger the natural systems that support life.

Birth Control Measures

Drugs And Drug Dependence Mental Health Growth Of Human Populations Birth Control Measures

Mental Health and Community Health For NEET Amniocentesis

Amniocentesis Aim. It is a technique to determine:

  1. Sex of the developing baby;
  2. Genetically controlled congenital diseases;
  3. Metabolic disorders in the foetus.

So amniocentesis is a pre-natal diagnostic technique.

Amniocentesis Procedure. It involves the following steps:

  • The location of the foetus is determined by a technique called sonography (using high-frequency ultrasound waves) to prevent accidental damage to the foetus.
  • A fine hollow needle is passed through the abdominal and uterine wall of a pregnant female (about the 14th or 15th week after conception) into the amniotic cavity.
  • A small amount of amniotic fluid is withdrawn. It contains foetal skin cells and a number of proteins, especially enzymes. The cells can be cultured in vitro for further examination.

Demography Statistical Study Population NEET

Amniocentesis Significance:

To know the sex of the baby, congenital genetic diseases and metabolic disorders in the developing foetus, the technique known as amniocentesis is followed.

Thus amniocentesis is a pre-natal diagnostic technique. But the technique is being misused even to abort normal female foetuses. So it has been now banned. Karyotypic studies show that human females are homogametic while human males are heterogametic. It is the father who is biologically responsible for the sex of the child.

Test Tube Babies (In Vitro Fertilization)-IVF.

The Technique of in-vitro fertilization and in-vitro development followed by the embryo transfer in the uterus of the normal female to start the development and finally lead to normal birth is called test tube baby.

Test Tube Babies (In Vitro Fertilization)-IVF Procedure. It involves the following steps:

  1. Removal of unfertilized ovum from the reproductive tract of a female.
  2. Ovum is kept under aseptic conditions.
  3. Fusion of sperm and ovum in a culture medium, outside the female body, to form the zygote.
  4. The zygote is stimulated to develop in-vitro up to 32-celled stages.
  5. The developing embryo is implanted in the endometrium of the uterus at the 32-celled stage. So the pregnancy in the woman starts and further development of the child continues in the womb till it is bom.

Such a baby is called a test tube baby.

Test Tube Babies (In Vitro Fertilization)-IVF Significance

  1. It is a boon to infertile mothers.
  2. It can be used for men with oligospermia (low sperm count).
  3. Old superior cows can donate oocytes.

Embryos can be frozen and preserved in an embryo tank for 10 years for future use. In very rare cases, a surrogate mother may have to be used to bring up an in vitro fertilized ovum to maturity. Though the biological realization of a test tube baby is a remarkable achievement, it has raised several ethical and legal problems including the right over the child.

  • The first test tube baby was bom to Lesley and Gilbert Brown on July 25, 1978, in Oldham, England. Mrs. Brown had obstructed Fallopian tubes. Dr. Patricke Steptoe and Dr. Robert Edwards both from England experienced Mrs. Brown successfully.
  • The world’s first test tube baby (a baby girl) was named Louise Joy Brown. Later, test tube babies were also born in Australia, the United States and some other countries. India’s first test tube baby was bom on August 6, 1986, at K.E.M. Hospital, Mumbai. Her name is Kumari Harsha.
  • Mental Health. Behaviour according to the accepted norms of society is termed mental health.
  • Mental Illness. A person may be physically fit and not suffering from any disease but because of certain inhibitions, abnormal behaviour and abnormal reactions to normal situations of life.
  • Mental Illness is mainly classified into psychosis, neurosis and other disorders such as mental retardation and epilepsy.

Differences Between Psychosis And Neurosis

Drugs And Drug Dependence Mental Health Growth Of Human Populations Differences Between Psychosis And Neurosis

Symptoms Of Mental Illness

  1. Depression.
  2. Insomnia or excessive sleeping.
  3. Compulsive action.
  4. The feeling of hopelessness.
  5. Serious thoughts of suicide.
  6. Unreasonable phobias.

Population Characteristics NEET Exam Preparation

List Of Common Problems Of Adolescence

  1. Anxiety
  2. Hypochondria
  3. Loneliness
  4. Neurasthenia
  5. Phobias
  6. Post-traumatic stress.

Drug Abuse. The constant use of certain drugs forms a habit and one becomes a drug dependent.

  • This is called drug dependency or drug addiction or drug abuse. Such drugs act on the brain and change the behaviour, consciousness and power of perception of an individual, and are called mood-altering or psychotropic drugs.
  • The drugs of abuse are often taken with alcohol or with common medicines such as aspirin. It increases sedation.
  • Drug abuse is not found among well-adjusted, satisfied and happy people. It is more common among those who are under stress and feel insecure.

Anxiety Disorders. These may be

  1. Neurotic anxiety or
  2. Separation anxiety or
  3. School phobia. These disorders are due to overreaction to stress conditions. The symptoms are palpitation, sweating, nausea, trembling, diarrhoea and muscular tension.

Schizophrenia.

It is characterized by the following:

  1. Distorted thoughts
  2. Laughing or crying at an inappropriate time disturbs emotion
  3. Incoherent and bizarre behaviour lasting for a week or more
  4. Auditory hallucination.
  5. Delusion.
  6. List Of Psychological Disorders
  7. Anxiety disorders
  8. Obsessive-compulsive disorders
  9. Attention deficit disorders
  10. Mood disorders
  11. Schizophrenia
  12. Borderline personality disorders
  13. Addictive disorder

Obsessive-compulsive Disorders. These disorders cause total disability and affect a person’s working hours. Affected persons manifest overwhelming obsessions and compulsions.

  • They are compelled to perform an action or an idea despite their own attempt to resist it (compulsion).
  • The most common obsessions are violence, concern about infection by germs or dirt, and constant doubts (obsessions).

Population Characteristics NEET Exam Preparation

Mental Health And Community Health For NEET Drugs

Drugs are substances used to treat diseases or to replace a missing substance essential for growth or combat against genus-causing infection. Another category of dmg includes those substances which work on the nervous system and act either as stimulants or as depressants.

Drug Dependence Or Drug Addiction. It is defined as self-administration of damage for a long period which leads to dependence of the body on them and may cause various disorders.

Drugs are classified on the basis of their action as follows:

Drugs And Drug Dependence Mental Health Growth Of Human Populations Drugs

  • Tranquillisers. They slow down the high centres of the brain and relieve worries. They influence only mental activity but do not affect working efficiency, for example, alcohol, compose, diazepam, Librium (chlordiazepoxide) and luminal.
  • Depressant. Depressants are used to calm anxiety. They produce drowsiness and a feeling of confusion, for example, Barbiturates are used as depressants or sedatives.
  • Stimulants (Antidepressants). These drugs temporarily increase mental alertness or self-confidence. They are also called Mood elevators or Superman drugs, for example. Amphetamines, cocaine, coffee and tea also contain small amounts of stimulants.
  • Narcotic. It is a drug or chemical which depresses the activities of the central nervous system.

Antidepressants: They are essential for the treatment of severe cases of depression and are prescribed in most cases of clinical depression. Four types are in use as given

Drugs And Drug Dependence Mental Health Growth Of Human Populations Antidepressants

Mental Health and Community Health For NEET Psychedelic Or Producing Drugs

These drugs have a strong effect on the cerebrum and sense organs and take the user to a world of fantasy giving him false and temporary happiness. The individual may sense strong colours and strong sounds even though nothing is there. They include LSD (Lysergic acid Diethyl amide), Marijuana and Hashish.

Barbiturates. They are the synthetic drugs. They are sedatives and are the major components of sleeping pills. Its use produces drowsiness, feelings of confusion and sleep. Its withdrawal causes epilepsy.

Cannabis. It is the most ancient drug-yielding plant. Three kinds of drugs are obtained from these plants (Derivation of Cannabis indica).

  1. Hashish or Cliaras is obtained from the flowering tops of female plants.
  2. Bhang is obtained from dry leaves.
  3. Ganja. It is obtained from small leaves and bracts of inflorescence.

Marijuana is another drug obtained from Cannabis sativa. The common reaction of these drugs is relaxation, euphoria, laughing tendency, and rise in blood sugar level.

Human Population Growth Historical Perspective

Kinds And Effects Of A Few Drugs

Drugs And Drug Dependence Mental Health Growth Of Human Populations Kinds And Effects Of A Few Drugs

Classes Of Psychoactive Drugs

Drugs And Drug Dependence Mental Health Growth Of Human Populations Classes of Psychoactive Drugs

Mental Health and Community Health For NEET Tobacco Addiction

The tobacco plant is a native plant of tropical America.

WHO report states that in India, about one million people die every year (2,200 Indians die every day) due to tobacco-related diseases.

Tobacco smoke mutates and inactivates the P-53 gene which checks cancer growth.

Benzpyrene. Carcinogen present in tobacco. About 33 per cent of all cancers are caused by tobacco.

In India, about 19 per cent of women workers engaged in beedi making, have one of four miscarriages at three to four months of pregnancy.

Byssinosis. Acute bronchitis is associated with generalized airflow obstruction.

No Tobacco Day: 31st May. Tobacco is commonly called killer weed.

1996- The Olympics held in Atlanta (USA) had been declared smoke-free.

Health Care Foundation of India (HCFI) has suggested that tobacco should be treated like any other narcotic as regular nicotine use may also lead to addiction.

In India, the graph of smokers skyrocketed by 400 per cent during the 1970-80 period alone. Meanwhile, a six-fold increase in mortality from bronchitis and emphysema was also noted in India.

An “ Anti-tobacco Bill” has been long pending before Parliament.

  • One out of 20 children are tempted by cigarette advertisements.
  • India is one of the top consumers of cigarettes. Over 142 million men and 37 million women above 15 years of age are regular smokers.

Lung Cancer mortality risk for a heavy smoker is 20-30 times greater than that of a non-smoker.

  • China has the biggest cigarette market.
  • According to WHO, by 2025 AD only 15 per cent of the world’s smokers will be in the rich countries compared to the present 28 per cent, while in the Third World, the percentage of smokers will rise from 72 to 85 per cent.

Central Tobacco Research Institute is located at Rajahmundry (A.P.)

Mental Health and Community Health For NEET Alcoholism

Alcoholism. The habit of drinking alcohol is called alcoholism. Alcoholism as a disease was declared by WHO in 1964.

Sedative. Which depresses functional efficiency.

Depressant. Lowers the activities of CNS.

Beer, Wine And Whisky contain 3%, 10% and 40% alcohol.

Malthus Theory Human Population Growth NEET

Anaesthetic. Causes loss of sensation.

Hangover. Mild effects of alcohol even after a long period of its consumption.

Polyneuropathy. A degenerative disease of the nervous system associated with chronic alcoholism.

The most common form of cirrhosis is known as Lenmec’s cirrhosis.

Alcoholism also causes a reduction in life span of 10 to 12 years.

Treatment Of Alcoholism: Abstaining from alcohol; general psychological rehabilitative treatments; use of drugs like Antabuse (disulfiram) and Temposil (Citrated calcium cyanide); aversion therapy; etc.

Mental Health and Community Health For NEET Community Health

The sum total of all the activities that contribute to the improvement of the health of the community.

Vaccination. The introduction of antigens into the body induces the production of specific antibodies, either to confer immunity against subsequent infection by the same antigen or, less commonly, to treat a disease.

Sanitary. Free from dirt and germs that might cause disease.

Sanitation. All the arrangements provide sanitary conditions.

Sterilization. A process which makes things free from germs.

National Programmes: The Government of India has launched various national programmes to eradicate and control some of the major communicable diseases. These are

  1. National Malaria Eradication Programme (N.M.E.P)
  2. National Filaria Control Programme (N. F. C. P.)
  3. National Leprosy Control Programme (N.L.C.P.)
  4. National Smallpox Eradication Programme
  5. National Cholera Control Programme (N.C.C.P.)
  6. Tuberculosis Programme
  7. Other diseases—Trachoma, Cancer, V.D, T.B.

AIDS etc. are also covered under various National Programmes

Drugs And Drug Dependence Mental Health Growth Of Human Populations National Programmes

Universal /National Immunisation Programme:

The success of the smallpox eradication program has catalyzed efforts to eliminate six avoidable illnesses via the universal immunization initiative. The six diseases are diphtheria, pertussis (whooping cough), poliomyelitis, tetanus, TB, and measles.

  • The program was initiated by the World Health Organization in May 1974 and aims to reach every kid by the year 2000 A.D.
  • It was launched in India in 1985 and reached every child by 1992. India has designated the year 2000 A.D. as the year for universal health. The immunization timetable for six selected diseases and two supplementary ones
    1. Cholera and
    2. Typhoid

Malthus Theory Human Population Growth NEET

The Human Population Increased To An Unmanageable Proportion In Recent Times Due To The Following Reasons:

  1. Enhanced longevity has contributed to the population explosion.
  2. Advances in medicines and surgery have made it possible to save thousands of lives.

Human Population Growth Curve Assumes T Shape And Sigmoid Or ‘S’ Shape: When the food supply becomes insufficient in comparison with population, mass starvation death results. The graph of population growth will become T -shaped. When there is no increase in population and the environment can sustain a limited population, the growth curve will become ‘S’-shaped.

Reasons For Depletion Of Environment:

  1. Excessive deforestation,
  2. Indiscriminate mining operations,
  3. Excessive use of fossil fuels.

Limiting Factors Which Prevent The Earth From Supporting a Human Population Of Indefinite Size:

The following are the limiting factors which prevent the Earth from supporting a human population of limited size

  1. Adequate food supply.
  2. The habitable area on the land is limited. If a man tries to create more habitable areas by cutting down trees in forests, it would lead to imbalances in the nature.
  3. Limited natural resources.
  4. The adaptability of an organism for growth to the conditions.
  5. Famine, floods and epidemic diseases.
  6. Adolescence is the period of rapid growth, and physical and mental development period between childhood and adulthood.
  7. Acne resulting from clogged pores of the skin is a common problem of adolescence in both sexes.
  8. Neurasthenia is characterized by the inability to concentrate on enjoying things. It may lead to irritability, fatigue, insomnia, depression and headache.
  9. Phobias are common in adolescents.
  10. Mental Illness is characterized by abnormal behaviour and talk resulting in social and vocational dysfunction.

Important Psychological Disorders Are:

Anxiety disorders, obsessive-compulsive disorders, attention deficit disorder, mood disorder, Schizophrenia, Borderline personality disorder (BPD) Youths are tempted to go for drugs for non-clinical use.

Psychotropic Drugs or mood-altering drugs are also addictive:

  • The substances are classified as sedatives and tranquilizers, opiate narcotics, stimulants, and hallucinogens.
  • Drugs can be administered via inhalation or oral ingestion. They may also be administered by injections.
  • All pharmaceuticals influence the central nervous system. Prolonged usage is exceedingly harmful to health.
  • Nonetheless, some of these medications are given by physicians in appropriate dosages for certain conditions.
  • Alcohol is swiftly absorbed and enters the circulatory system. A multitude of metabolic diseases is linked to persistent and excessive alcohol consumption.
  • These encompass fatty liver disease, cirrhosis, hypertension, cardiovascular disorders, gastric ulcers, and vitamin shortages.
  • Overcoming addiction is feasible with medical supervision and social assistance.
  • The concurrent use of drugs and alcohol

Malthus Theory Human Population Growth NEET

Major Groups Of Psychotropic Drugs, Examples And Effects

Drugs And Drug Dependence Mental Health Growth Of Human Populations Major Groups Of Psychotropic Drugs Examples And Effects

Interaction Of Alcohol With Some Common Drugs

Drugs And Drug Dependence Mental Health Growth Of Human Populations Interation Of Alcohol With Same Common Drugs

Mental Health and Community Health For NEET Synopsis

WHO (World Health Organization) is a specialized, non-political health agency of the United Nations with its headquarters in Geneva. The constitution came into force on 7th April, 1948. Which is celebrated every year as ‘World Health Day’.

Alcohol is by far the number one foetal teratogen. Maternal alcohol intake and characteristic pattern of malformation in the foetus has recently been recognized called FAS, Foetal alcohol syndrome.

Symptoms of FAS include slow growth before and after birth, small head, facial irregularities like narrow eye slits, defective heart and other organs, malformed arms and legs, genital abnormalities and damage of the central nervous system and many, behavioural problems like hyperactivity and nervousness.

Cigarette smoke may be teratogenic and cause cardiac abnormalities and anencephaly (absence of cerebrum). Maternal smoking is also a significant factor in the development of cleft tip, palate and gastrointestinal disturbances. It is linked with sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS).

Anabolic Steroids misused by players are mainly Nandrolone, stanozolol, oxymetholone and methandie- nonc.

Age Distribution Pyramids. For constructing age pyramids, 3-age groups are taken into consideration.

  1. Pre-reproductive age (0-14 years).
  2. Reproductive age (15-60 years).
  3. Post Reproductive age (> 60 years).

There are 3-types of pyramids, i.e. Triangular, Bell-shaped and Urn-shaped

  1. Triangular Pyramid. It indicates an expanding population with a high growth rate.
  2. Bell-shaped Pyramid. It indicates a stable population with a zero growth rate.
  3. Urn-Shaped Pyramid. It indicates a declining population with a growth rate of minus.

Drugs And Drug Dependence Mental Health Growth Of Human Populations Bell Shaped Phyramid

Drugs And Drug Dependence Mental Health Growth Of Human Populations Urn Shaped Pyramid

P1 = Pre-reproductive age, P2 = Reproductive age. P3 = Post-reproductive age

Projected Growth Rates. Year 1999 = 1.4%, Year 2010 = 1.8%, Year 2030 = 0.5%

GIFT. Gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT), a modified form of IVF, was developed in 1984 and is used when at least one fallopian tube is open.

  • The sperms (gametes) are injected into the oviduct (fallopian tube) when the ovulation occurs.
  • The difference between IVF and GIFT is that in GIFT fertilization occurs naturally within the body of a female partner, instead of in the laboratory in IVF.

ZIFT. Zygote intrafallopian transfer is another variation of IVF, and is also called ‘tubal embryo transfer’. In this case, after in vitro fertilization (in a Petri dish or test tube) the zygote is transferred into the fallopian tube. The difference between ZIFT and GIFT is that in ZIFT fertilization is observed/assured, whereas in GIFT it is not.

  • The success of IVF/GIFT/ZIFT declines with the advancement of the age of the woman, perhaps due to poor quality of eggs; and if the success rate is improved, the chances of multiple births are increased.
  • The present rate of growth of the human population is about 2 per cent per annum and in developing countries, it is 2.5% per annum.
  • Sigmoid (S-shaped) and J-shaped growth curves are the two main kinds of growth curves.
  • In a recent cyclone in Bangladesh over 50,000 people were killed but with a birth rate of 3.3 per cent per year, the number was replaced in 40 days.
  • At the current rate of growth human population is doubling every 35 years.

If the 4.5 billion people in the world today continue to increase at the present rate, their combined mass will exceed the mass of the earth which is about 6.5 billion trillion tonnes in a period of 1550 years.

  • Japan is the most densely populated country in the world.
  • Australia is the most thinly populated country.
  • Kerala is the most densely populated state of India. The complete count of individuals in an area is called a census.

Population Characteristics NEET Exam Preparation

The sex ratio in India is 929 females per 1,000 males. About 56% of the world’s population lives in Asia alone

  • Harsha is the name of the first test tube baby bom in India (Kolkata)
  • Laparoscopy involves tubular ligation (blocking fallopian tubes)
  • Biologically females are superior to men because they nurse the foetus in the womb for about 280 days.
  • The Red Cross was established in 1864
  • There is a proposal to bring legislation to discourage the use of tobacco products including a ban on the use/consumption of tobacco in public places and on tobacco advertisements.
  • Blood transfusion was first practised by James BledclI.
  • The mechanism to preserve vaccines is called the cold chain.
  • Amnesia. Loss of memory is associated with excessive alcohol intake.
  • International Day against Drug Abuse and Illicit Trafficking is celebrated on June 27.
  • IV-Drug: Any drug which is taken intravenously and includes addictive narcotic drugs like heroin.
  • Drug phencyclidine is useful in controlling “rogue elephants.”
  • “The Narcotics, Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act 1985” in India is one of the most powerful laws in the world to combat drug trafficking.

Teratogens. The drugs which cause foetal abnormalities when given to a pregnant mother are termed ter¬atogens. The placenta does not act as a barrier. Thalidomide is a well-known teratogen and causes phocomelia. Such drugs affect the foetus in three stages

  1. Fertilization and implantation
  2. Organogenesis
  3. Growth and development.

Other Known Teratogens Are LSD, morphine, methotrexate, stilboestrol, corticosteroids, warfarin, antithyroid drugs, tetracycline etc.

World Breastfeeding Week is celebrated every year from 1-7 August.

  • WHO = World Health Organisation
  • NICD = National Institute of Communicable Diseases
  • ICMR = Indian Council of Medical Research
  • ESI= Employees State Insurance

 

 

Human Health And Disease MCQ With Answers For NEET

Human Health And Disease MCQ With Answers For NEET

Question 1. The population of Homo sapiens was 453 millions in:

  1. 1550 A.D.
  2. 4000 B.C.
  3. 1650 A.D.
  4. 8000 B.C.

Answer: 3. 1650 A.D.

Question 2. The average annual birth rate per 1000 individuals in developing countries is:

  1. 10
  2. 37
  3. 19
  4. None of the above

Answer: 2. 37

Question 3. The causes of uneven distribution of the world’s population in various regions may be due to the:

  1. Geographical factors
  2. Socio-economic factors
  3. Demographic factors
  4. All of the above factors.

Answer: 4. All of the above factors.

Question 4. Major areas of population concentration in the world are:

  1. South East Asia, Japan, India
  2. European countries
  3. Latin American countries
  4. North America.

Answer: 1. South East Asia, Japan, India

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 5. The density of a population in a given country is obtained by:

  1. Dividing the total number of persons living in the country by the total land area
  2. Dividing the total number of persons living in the country by the total fertile land area
  3. Dividing the total number of persons living in the country by the total forest land area
  4. Dividing the total number of persons living in the country by the amount of production of natural resources.

Answer: 1. Dividing the total number of persons living in the country by the total land area

Human Health And Disease MCQ With Answers For NEET

Question 6. The population density of the Netherlands is higher than that of India because of:

  1. More land area is there in the Netherlands as compared to India
  2. A greater proportion of the inhabitable area is there in the Netherlands than that in India
  3. Greater economic advancement of the Netherlands
  4. More natural resources in the Netherlands.

Answer: 2. A Greater proportion of the inhabitable area is there in the Netherlands than that in India

NEET Questions Human Health and Diseases Question 7. The high population concentration of India is due to the:

  1. The poor economic status of the people of the country
  2. Availability of fertile land
  3. Industrial advancement
  4. Non-availability of resources.

Answer: 1. Poor economic status of the people of the country

Question 8. The very dense population of Indo-Gangetic plains is due to the:

  1. Availability of adequate river water
  2. Fertile alluvial soil of the region
  3. Both of the above factors
  4. Presence of large cities.

Answer: 3. Both of the above factors

Question 9. Some densely populated cities like Durgapur and Bhilai came up recently as a result of:

  1. Removal of forests
  2. Better transport facilities
  3. Better agricultural opportunities
  4. Development of resource-based industries.

Answer: 4. Development of resource-based industries.

Question 10. Most of the world’s largest cities are found at coastal locations primarily due to the:

  1. Pleasant coastal climates
  2. Availability of water
  3. Availability of seafood
  4. The fact that the sea provides a cheaper mode of transport.

Answer: 4. Fact that the sea provides a cheaper mode of transport.

NEET Questions Human Health and Diseases Question 11. Demography is the study of:

  1. Fossils and their distribution
  2. Statistics of population
  3. Relationship between man and the environment
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Statistics of population

Question 12. The term biotic potential means:

  1. Distribution of human population in an area
  2. The rate of growth of population in an area
  3. The physiological capacity of an organism to reproduce
  4. The increase in number of human population in a country.

Answer: 3. The physiological capacity of an organism to reproduce

Question 13. The basic cause of continued urban growth is due to the:

  1. Better transport facility
  2. Entertainment facility
  3. Prosperity in cities
  4. Better health facilities.

Answer: 3. Prosperity in cities

Important MCQs on Human Health and Disease Question 14. Increasing urbanization causes:

  1. Overcrowding
  2. Health and pollution hazards
  3. Socio-economic problems
  4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 15. The biosphere consists of interaction ecological functional units called:

  1. Ecosystems
  2. Populations
  3. Communities
  4. Species.

Answer: 1. Ecosystems

Question 16. Agriculture and urbanization are two examples of man’s capacity to create new:

  1. Species
  2. Ecosystem
  3. Biosphere
  4. Lithosphere.

Answer: 2. Ecosystem

Question 17. The middle phase of the population growth curve is a phase of:

  1. No growth
  2. Low growth
  3. Maximum growth
  4. Stabilised growth.

Answer: 3. Maximum growth

Question 18. A population can grow exponentially:

  1. When food is the only limiting resource
  2. When first invading a suitable and previously unoccupied habitat
  3. Only if there is no predation
  4. Only in the laboratory.

Answer: 2. When first invading a suitable and previously unoccupied habitat

Important MCQs on Human Health and Disease Question 19. Which of the following does not directly affect biotic potential?

  1. A female’s age of first reproduction
  2. Carrying capacity of the environment
  3. Length of time a female is fertile
  4. Average number of offspring per brood or litter.

Answer: 2. Carrying capacity of the environment

Question 20. The best way to decrease the population of a country is:

  1. To educate the people
  2. To have better living conditions
  3. Mass killing
  4. To practise and implement family planning techniques.

Answer: 4. To practise and implement family planning techniques.

Question 21. The main factors for the growth of the human population in India are:

  1. High birth rate
  2. Less death rate
  3. Lack of education
  4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 22. The prenatal diagnostic technique is known as:

  1. Implantation
  2. Amniocentesis
  3. Parthenogenesis
  4. Biomedical termination of pregnancy.

Answer: 2. Amniocentesis

Question 23. At the current rate of growth, the human population is doubling itself every:

  1. 50 yrs
  2. 25 yrs
  3. 40 yrs
  4. 35 yrs.

Answer: 4. 35 yrs.

Question 24. The carrying capacity is represented by:

  1. K
  2. S
  3. J
  4. I.

Answer: 1. K

Human Health and Disease NEET Questions Question 25. What is the popular name of IVF?

  1. Amniocentesis
  2. Tubectomy
  3. Rhythm method
  4. Test tube baby.

Answer: 4. Test tube baby.

Question 26. The most thickly populated country in the world is:

  1. Australia
  2. India
  3. Japan
  4. The USA.

Answer: 3. Australia

Question 27. The most thinly populated country in the world is:

  1. Australia
  2. India
  3. Japan
  4. The USA.

Answer: 1. Australia

Question 28. The most thickly populated state of India is:

  1. Orissa
  2. Tamil Nadu
  3. Punjab
  4. Kerala.

Answer: 4. Kerala.

Question 29. The environmental resistance means:

  1. The environmental factors which tend to maintain homeostasis by regulating emigration
  2. Factors imposing a check on population size
  3. Resistance of a species to the environmental factors which impose a check on population size
  4. The physiological capacity of a species to resist changes in the environment.

Answer: 2. Factors imposing a check on population size

Human Health and Disease NEET Questions Question 30. Fertilisation of the ovum may be prevented by:

  1. Tubal ligation
  2. Vasectomy
  3. Use of IUCD
  4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 31. Which is biologically responsible for the sex of the child?

  1. Father
  2. Mother
  3. Both parents
  4. God.

Answer: 1. Father

Question 32. A contraceptive pill contains:

  1. Progesterone and estrogen
  2. Spermicidal salts
  3. Chemicals that cause abortion
  4. Chemicals that prevent fertilization.

Answer: 1. Progesterone and estrogen

Question 33. According to the 1991 census, human population was:

  1. 689 million
  2. 840 million
  3. 1032 million
  4. 960 million.

Answer: 2. 840 million

Question 34. A contraceptive pill prevents ovulation by:

  1. Blocking fallopian tubes
  2. Inhibiting the release of FSH and LH
  3. Stimulating release of FSH and LH
  4. Causing immediate degeneration.

Answer: 2. Inhibiting release of FSH and LH

Question 35. Which mechanical device to control childbirth is fitted on the cervix?

  1. Diaphragm
  2. Condom
  3. Loop
  4. Copper T.

Answer: 1. Diaphragm

Question 36. Laparoscopy means:

  1. Removal of ovary
  2. Removal of a part of the oviduct
  3. Tubular ligation
  4. Fitting copper T.

Answer: 3. Tubular ligation

Question 37. Mothers nurse the foetus in the womb for:

  1. 180 days
  2. 210 days
  3. 270 days
  4. 320 days.

Answer: 3. 270 days

Human Health And Disease MCQ With Answers For NEET Question 38. According to the 1991 census, the urban population of India is about:

  1. 30%
  2. 24%
  3. 57%
  4. 34%.

Answer: 2. 24%

Question 39. At present world population is increasing at the rate of:

  1. 2%
  2. 2.25%
  3. 2.50%
  4. 30%.

Answer: 1. 2%

Question 40. The rapid decline in a population due to a high mortality rate is:

  1. Population density
  2. Population crash
  3. Population explosion
  4. All of the above.

Answer: 2. Population crash

Question 41. Growth of the population of an area depends upon:

  1. Natality rate
  2. Immigration
  3. Environmental resistance
  4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 42. The physiological capacity of a species of animals to produce that progeny in the absence of natural enemies, disease or other inhibiting factors is:

  1. Carrying capacity
  2. Biotic potential
  3. Population explosion
  4. All of the above.

Answer: 2. Biotic potential

Question 43. The concept that “population tends to increase geometrically while food supply increases arithmetically” was put forward by:

  1. Thomas Malthus
  2. Adam Smith
  3. Stuart Mill
  4. Charles Darwin.

Answer: 1. Thomas Malthus

Human Health And Disease MCQ With Answers For NEET Question 44. In India, the human population is heavily weighted towards the younger age groups as a result of:

  1. Short lifespan and low birth rate
  2. Long life-span of many individuals and low birth rate
  3. The short life span of many individuals
  4. Long life span and low birth rate.

Answer: 3. Short life span of many individuals

Question 45. Which mechanical means is used to cover the penis before coital activity?

  1. Diaphragm
  2. Condom
  3. Loop
  4. Copper-T.

Answer: 2. Condom

Question 46. The best way to control the population is:

  1. Education
  2. Family planning
  3. Better living conditions
  4. Better health care.

Answer: 2. Family planning

Question 47. An IUCD is:

  1. Copper-T
  2. Condom
  3. Vasectomy
  4. Pill.

Answer: 1. Copper-T

Question 48. Surgical removal of the testes of males to control the population is:

  1. Castration
  2. Tubectomy
  3. Laparoscopy
  4. Vasectomy.

Answer: 1. Castration

Question 49. A permanent method of birth control is:

  1. Vasectomy
  2. Tubectomy
  3. Both (1) and (2)
  4. None of these.

Answer: 3. Both (1) and (2)

Human Health And Disease MCQ With Answers For NEET Question 50. Which mechanical device to control childbirth is fitted on the cervix?

  1. Diaphragm
  2. Condom
  3. Loop
  4. Cooper T.

Answer: 1. Diaphragm

Question 51. Saheli, a female antifertility pill is used:

  1. Daily
  2. Weekly
  3. Quarterly
  4. Monthly.

Answer: 2. Weekly

Question 52. Which of the following is a 100% effective method of birth control?

  1. Use of oral contraceptives
  2. Use of I.U.C. Devices
  3. Use of condoms
  4. Medical Termination of Pregnancy.

Answer: 1. Use of oral contraceptives

Question 53. In the past, to control population, the Family Planning Department has been advocating:

  1. Ligation
  2. Salpectomy
  3. Vasectomy
  4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 54. Government-sponsored “Family Planning Programme” started in:

  1. 1947
  2. 1950
  3. 1951
  4. 1955.

Answer: 3. 1951

Question 55. Laparoscopy means:

  1. Removal of ovary
  2. Removal of a part of the oviduct
  3. Tubular ligation
  4. Fitting copper T.

Answer: 3. Tubular ligation

NEET Questions Human Health and Diseases Question 56. The chemical method of birth control involves the use of:

  1. Condom
  2. Loop
  3. Cream or jelly
  4. Diaphragm.

Answer: 3. Cream or jelly

Question 57. A contraceptive can be:

  1. Condom, cervical cap or diaphragm
  2. Intrauterine device
  3. Pill
  4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 58. Which of the following is a mechanical device of birth control?

  1. Copper-T
  2. A combined pill
  3. Foam tablet
  4. Abortion pill.

Answer: 1. Copper-T

Question 59. Fertilisation of the ovum may be prevented by:

  1. Tubal ligation
  2. Vasectomy
  3. Use of IUCD
  4. All of these.

Answer: 4. All of these.

Question 60. A sterilization technique is:

  1. Loop
  2. Diaphragm
  3. Tubectomy
  4. Cervical cap.

Answer: 4. Cervical cap

Question 61. According to the 1991 census, the urban population of India was about:

  1. 30%
  2. 24%
  3. 57%
  4. 34%.

Answer: 2. 24%

NEET Questions Human Health and Diseases Question 62. In 1991, the Indian population was:

  1. 832.93 million
  2. 843.93 million
  3. 840.90 million
  4. 830.90 million.

Answer: 2. 843.93 million

Question 63. The 1991 census of population in India indicates:

  1. Sudden fall in the birth rate
  2. Minor fall in birth rate
  3. No fall in birth rate
  4. Increased birth rate.

Answer: 2. Minor fall in birth rate

Question 64. In India, the marriageable age for females is:

  1. 15 years
  2. 18 years
  3. 20 years
  4. 21 years.

Answer: 2. 18 years

Question 65. Which of the following is involved in test-tube baby production?

  1. Laparoscopy
  2. Catheter
  3. In-vitro fertilization
  4. All of these.

Answer: 4. All of these.

Question 66. Amniocentesis can reveal the foetus’s:

  1. Chromosomal abnormalities
  2. Physical deformities
  3. Metabolic disorders
  4. Only (1) and (3).

Answer: 4. Only (1) and (3).

Question 67. In amniocentesis:

  1. The foetal cells are taken out, cultured and examined for metabolic defects
  2. The foetus is examined for metabolic defects
  3. The foetus is examined for sex
  4. The amniotic fluid is examined for metabolic defects.

Answer: 1. The foetus is examined for metabolic defects

NEET Questions Human Health and Diseases Question 68. Which of the following is a pre-natal diagnostic technique?

  1. X-ray technique
  2. IUCD
  3. Tubectomy
  4. Amniocentesis.

Answer: 4. Amniocentesis.

Question 69. Test-tube baby is the one:

  1. Who is reared on artificial medium outside the womb
  2. Whose early growth is inside the female body but later growth on artificial medium
  3. Whose fertilization and early growth are on an artificial medium but later implantation in the female uterus
  4. Whose growth is inside the fallopian tube instead of the uterus.

Answer: 3. Whose fertilization and early growth is on an artificial medium but later implantation in the female uterus

Question 70. Pre-natal defects in the foetus can be detected by:

  1. Laparoscopy
  2. Amniocentesis
  3. Genetic engineering
  4. Sonography.

Answer: 2. Amniocentesis

 

Human Health And Common Human Diseases Notes For NEET

Human Health And Common Human Diseases For NEET

Disease. It is defined as a condition of the body or a part of it in which functions are disturbed. The word disease means lack of ease and comfort.

Health. It is a state of complete physical, mental and social well-being. Health is also linked with social environment and cultural background.

Koch’s Postulate. Robert Koch (1876) studied diseases and pathogens of anthrax caused by Bacillus anthracite, later on, tuberculosis caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis (1882) and cholera caused due to infection of Virbrio cholera (1883). He proposed the following four criteria for establishing an agent of infectious diseases.

The organism must be regularly found in the body of animals that have the disease.

  1. It must be possible to isolate the organism and grow it in pure culture on artificial media.
  2. A healthy animal must contract the disease and show its characteristic symptoms when it is inoculated with the culture of the organism.
  3. It must be possible to recover the same organism from the body of an inoculated animal.

Human Health And Diseases NEET Notes Pdf Download

Kinds Of Diseases

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Notes

  1. Congenital Diseases. (Inborn diseases). Diseases contracted before birth due to defective heredity (chromosomal abnormalities and gene mutations), physiological disturbance or transplacental transmission for example, Haemophilia, Down’s syndrome, colour blindness, hare lip, and transplacental syphilis.
  2. Acquired Diseases. Diseases contracted after birth due to infection, defective diet, hypersensitivity, injury, addition, degeneration, depression, etc.
  3. Infectious Diseases. They are diseases due to pathogens that can be transferred from one individual to another for example, tetanus, measles, flu, malaria, typhoid, cholera, and tuberculosis.
  4. Deficiency Diseases. Diseases caused by absence or deficiency of an essential element, for example, anaemia, goitre.
  5. Degenerative Diseases. Diseases caused by ageing, result in malfunctioning or decreased efficiency.

Human Health And Common Human Diseases For NEET Disease Agents

Any substance which causes a disease by its excess deficiency or absence is called a disease agent.

Types of Disease Agents. Disease agents are of the following types:

  1. Biological Agents. These are also called pathogens (Gr. path means disease; genes means producing). These are those micro-organisms which when successfully infect the human body, multiply and produce toxins in the incubation period which interfere with the normal functioning of the body and cause a disease.
    • These include viruses (mumps, chicken pox, smallpox),
      • Mycoplasma, (for example bronchitis, acute leukaemia),
      • Chlamydia (for example. trachoma)
      • Bacteria (for example, cholera, tetanus),
      • Fungi (ringworm, thrush, moniliasis, pulmonary aspergillosis),
      • Protozoa (for example, giardiasis, sleeping sickness),
      • Helminths (for example, filariasis, ascariasis, taeniasis), and
      • Other organisms (for example, scabies).
  2. Chemical Agents. Some chemical compounds are also causative agents of certain diseases. These are of two types on the basis of their source.
    • Endogenous Chemical Agents. These are formed inside the body. These include urea, uric acid, hormones, enzymes etc.
    • Exogenous Chemical Agents. These enter the human body from outside by ingestion, inhalation or inoculation. These include pollutants like gases, dust, metals etc. and allergens like spores, pollens etc.
  3. Nutritive Agents. These include minerals, carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins and water.
  4. Physical Agents. These include heat (stroke), cold (frostbite), humidity, pressure, radiation, electricity, sound (impaired hearing) etc.
  5. Mechanical Agent. These include injuries, fractures, sprains, dislocations etc.
  6. Genetic Agents. Some diseases are caused by genetic causes and include haemophilia, sickle cell anaemia, etc.
  7. Degeneration. Due to old age.
  8. Social Agents. These may cause mental disorders.
  9. Unknown Reasons. The agents for certain diseases like peptic ulcers, hypertension and coronary heart diseases are yet to be identified.

Human Health And Common Human Diseases For NEET Modes Of Transmission

Communicable diseases are those diseases which can be transmitted from the reservoir of infection or an infected person to healthy but susceptible persons.

There are two modes of transmission:

1. Immediate Transmission Or Direct Transmission:

The pathogens are transmitted straight from an infected individual to a healthy individual without an intermediary agent. It manifests in the following manners:

  1. Through direct contact with an infected individual: Contagious diseases such as chickenpox, smallpox, athlete’s foot, measles, leprosy, ringworm, gonorrhoea, and syphilis are transmitted through direct contact between an infected individual and a healthy individual. Entamoeba gingivalis, the oral amoeba, is transferred through direct mouth-to-mouth contact, such as kissing.
  2. Droplet Transmission: Diseases such as diphtheria, influenza, the common cold, measles, TB, pneumonia, mumps, and whooping cough are transmitted through droplet infection, which involves pathogens contained in minute mucus droplets expelled during sneezing, coughing, spitting, or conversing with infected individuals.
  3. Animal Bites: Rabies viruses are transmitted to humans by the bites of rabid animals such as dogs, monkeys, and cats.
  4. Transplacental Transmission: The viruses responsible for German measles and the bacteria causing syphilis can be transferred from maternal blood to fetal blood via the placenta.

2. Indirect Transmission:

When infections are transmitted from the infection reservoir to a healthy individual via intermediary agents.

It manifests in the following manners:

  1. Vector-borne: Vector-borne diseases include, for instance, the tsetse fly (African sleeping sickness) and sandflies (kala-azar and oriental sores). Female Anopheles mosquito (malaria), rat flea (bubonic plague), Aedes mosquito (yellow fever), Culex mosquito (filariasis), and housefly (typhoid, cholera, dysentery, etc.)
  2. Pediculus humanus capitis (typhus) – Vehicle-borne: Pathogens responsible for cholera, dysentery, and typhoid are disseminated by vectors such as food and water. AIDS is transmitted through the blood of infected individuals.
  3. Airborne: Pathogens are disseminated through wind currents, aerosol sprays, and dust, as exemplified by epidemic typhus.
  4. Formite Borne: Pathogens are disseminated by contaminated items such as handkerchiefs, towels, dinnerware, toys, soap, cutlery, and surgical tools.
  5. Imperfect Hands: The pathogens responsible for disorders such as Ascariasis (Ascaris lumbricoides) and Enterobiasis (Enterobius vermicularis) are transmitted by contaminated hands; therefore, thorough handwashing is essential before to meals.

Human Health And Common Human Diseases For NEET Defence Mechanism Of Body

External Defence/ First, Line Of Defence/Physical And Chemical Barrier. It consists of physical barriers of skin, membranes, friendly microorganisms and chemical barriers.

  1. Skin. Keratinised dead outer epidermal cells do not allow entry to pathogens. Oil and sweat are inhibitory to the growth of most pathogens.
  2. Nostril Hair. They Filter out dust and microorganisms from inhaled air.
  3. External Friendly Microorganisms/Friendly Bacteria. Many friendly bacteria live on the skin and secrete chemicals harmful to pathogens.
  4. Mucous Membranes. They line digestive, respiratory and urinogenital tracts so as to prevent the entry of germs into body parts.
  5. Mucus And Cilia. The mucous membrane of the nasal tract possesses cilia for pushing back dust and germs. It also secretes mucus for trapping and killing them.
  6. Internal Friendly Microorganisms. They occur in the intestine and vagina.
  7. Chemical Barriers
    • Sweat, oil and secretions of extremely friendly bacteria are acidic to prevent the growth of many pathogens.
    • Lysozyme or bacteriolytic enzyme is present in sweat, tears, saliva and mucus.
    • Hl of the gastric juice has germicidal properties.
    • Bile does not allow the growth of microorganisms.

Human Health And Common Human Diseases Notes For NEET

Non-Specific Internal Defence/Second Line Of Defence: A pathogen having entered body tissues/fluid is confronted with the second line of defence consisting of phagocytosis and inflammatory response.

  1. Phagocytosis. Phagocytes present in the blood come out of the capillaries through diapedesis. Phagocytes of blood and macrophages present in tissues attack germs and engulf them. Pus may collect. Pus is a thick liquid formed in the region of the wound and is composed of tissue fluid, damaged body cells, dead phagocytes, some leucocytes and microorganisms.
  2. Inflammatory Response. It is the reaction of living tissues to injury, irritation or infection which is characterised by pain, swelling, redness and heat. Inflammatory’ response can be localised (area of injury or infection) or systemic (whole body). It is caused by the release of an amine called histamine (C5H9N3) from body tissues and lymphocytes.
    • Histamine dilates blood capillaries, makes them more permeable, lowers blood pressure, and allows greater leakage of phagocytes and plasma so that tissue fluid accumulates (histamine also stimulates gastric secretions and uterine contractions).
    • Toxins released by pathogens, and endogens pyrogens (Substances capable of producing fever/pyrexia) produced by leucocytes raise body temperature to stimulate phagocytes and inhibit microorganisms.
    • Pyrogens reset the thermoregulatory centres of the hypothalamus. However, body temperature may rise too high when it is brought down by the administration of antipyretic drugs (for example, paracetamol, and aspirin) and cold packs. Phagocytes attack vigorously when body temperature is high.

Specific Internal Defence Immune System/Third Line of Defence:

A constituent of a pathogen behaves as an antigen. Antigen (antibody generating) is any foreign substance like protein or polysaccharide present on the external coating of the pathogen, the toxin of the pathogen, white of egg, feathers, a constituent of a vegetable, fruit, meat, drug, chemical, tissue or organ transplant which induces the immune system to produce antibodies.

Human Health And Diseases Neet Notes Pdf Download

Antibodies. Chemical substances are produced for the destruction of disease-producing external factors. Antibodies are made of complex proteins called immunoglobulins (Ig). They are of 5 types (IgM, IgG, IgA, IgD and IgE). Some important antibodies are tetanus antitoxin, agglutinins, bacteriolysis, oposonins etc.

Types Of Antibodies

Human Health And Common Human Diseases Types Of Antibodies

Structure Of Antibody And Its Specificity: An antibody is a globular protein consisting of four polypeptide chains; two identical heavy chains, with more than 400 amino acids each, and two Identical light chains, with about 200 ammo acids each.

Along half the molecule, carbohydrate groups are attached and the two heavy chains are held closely together by a series of disulphide bonds. Along the other half, the chains are aligned in two pairs, with one heavy and one light chain in each pair. The entire molecule is shaped like a Y. Each antibody molecule has two functions:

  1. An effector function or type of action taken to eliminate the antigen, and
  2. A specific antigen-binding function.

There are five groups of mammalian antibodies, which are classified according to their effector function IgG, IgM, IgA, IgD, and IgE. (Ig stands for immunoglobin, the term for all proteins with antibody function.) IgG antibodies are the gamma globulins that circulate in the blood and attack both bacteria and viruses.

  • Other groups attach to the plasma membranes of B cells, activate complement, enhance phagocytic activity, and play various other roles in fighting disease-causing microbes.
  • The five groups are distinguished from one another by the amino acid sequences in their constant (C) regions, with all molecules in a group having the same sequence. Additionally, the attached carbohydrate groups help determine the particular effector function of the antibody.

Human Health And Common Human Diseases Immunoglobulins

There must be millions of different kinds of antibodies with regard to specific-binding capacity since one kind exists for almost every kind of foreign macromolecule. The specificity of an antibody for an antigen lies in its sequence of amino acids within the two “arms” of the molecule.

  • These so-called variable (V) regions form the active sites, where the molecule binds to specific antigens. Both arms have the same amino acid sequence and so bind the same kind of antigen.
  • Thus, each antibody can join two antigens, and many antibodies working together can clump, or agglutinate, more antigens for many efficient elimination by die different effectors.

Antimicrobial Substances. Antimicrobial biochemicals are also part of the non-specific immune response. Certain animal cells infected with viruses produce polypeptides called cytokines.

One type of cytokine, an interferon, diffuses to healthy neighbouring cells and stimulates them to produce biochemicals that block viral replication. When these cells become infected, the viruses are unable to take over the protein synthetic machinery to manufacture more of themselves. The spread of the infection halts.

Interferon. It is a protein produced by virus-infected cells. Interferon binds to receptors of non-infected cells, causing the cells to prepare for a possible attack by producing substances that interfere with viral replication. Interferon is specific to the species, therefore, only human interferon can be used in humans.

Human Health And Common Human Diseases For NEET Types Of Immune System

The immune system is of two types:

  1. Humoral Or Antibody-Mediated Immune System (Amis). It is formed of proteinaceous defensive chemicals, called antibodies which are produced by B-Iymphocytes and circulate in the plasma of blood and lymph (humour = body fluids) and protect the body from bacteria and viruses that enter the blood and lymph. There are about 1020(100 million trillion) antibody molecules.
  2. Cell-Mcdialcd Immune System (CMIS). It is formed of highly specialized cells called T-Iymphocytcs which directly attack the pathogenic micro-organisms (like protozoans and fungi) that have entered the host’s body or grafts such as transplanted kidney or skin grafts taken from another person (allografts). It also protects the body from its own cells which have become cancerous.

How Do The Different Kinds Of T Cells Develop: The source of all blood cells, including white cells, is Lhc bone marrow. However, this tissue produces only stem cells —primitive, immature lymphocytes that migrate to other parts of the body for development into mature, functional cells. Most immature lymphocytes are formed during foetal life (prior to birth).

  • About half the lymphocytes that leave the bone marrow pass through the thymus a mass of tissue located within the chest cavity just below the neck. The thymus is quite large during infancy but shrinks to a very small size in early childhood and remains small throughout life.
  • Cells that pass through this organ before entering the circulatory system develop into T cells. They are especially effective in detecting and destroying eukaryotic cells with foreign antigens on their surfaces, such as those that have become cancerous and infected with viruses.
  • The plasma membrane of a T cell contains receptor proteins that recognize one particular antigen. When the cells contact with this antigen, they differentiate into one of three types of T cells—cytotoxic, helper, or suppressor.
  • Cytotoxic (or killer) T cells destroy their target cells by releasing a substance that dissolves holes in their plasma membrane, causing the target cell to lyse. Helper T cells stimulate B cells to make antibodies and facilitate the action of other T cells.
  • Some helper cells secrete lymphokines or interleukins, which are messenger molecules that recruit other white blood cells to the battle site. Suppressor T cells cause both B cells and other T cells to become less active.

Action Of T Cells: When triggered off by antigens, T-cells also produce a clone of T-cells such as

  1. Killer T-cells or KT Cells—Directly attack and destroy antigens.
  2. Helper T-cells or HT cells—Stimulate B-cells to produce more antibodies.
  3. Suppressor T-cells or ST-cells—Check on entire immune system to attack the own body cells. Some of these cells become memory cells.

Memory T-cells. They are sensitised T-cells which retain the memory of antigen-specificity for the future, sometimes lifelong. Killer, helper and suppressor T-cells are also called effector cells.

Action Of B-Cells: The antigen-specific helper T-cells stimulate specific B-lymphocytes to multiply rapidly forming clones of plasma cells. In the presence of antigens, the plasma cells form antibodies at the rate of 2000 molecules per cell per second, a total of some 20 trillion per day.

Distribution Of B-And T-Cells In Human Body

Human Health And Common Human Diseases Distribution Of B And T Cells In Human Body

Antibody Action (Effector Mechanism),

  1. Neutralisation. Some antibodies function as antitoxins and neutralise the toxins produced by pathogens/foreign chemicals.
  2. Agglutination. Antibodies called Agglutinins cause immobilisation and clumping of antigens (precipitation) and antigen-containing pathogens.
  3. Opsonisation/Adherence. Antibodies called opsonins (for example, IgG) attach themselves to the surface of antigen-containing cells so as to be recognised by phagocytes,
  4. Complement Mediated Cell Lysis. Antigen-containing cells are perforated by enzymes produced with the help of lysin antibodies (IgM IgG).
  5. Phagocytosis. The lysed immobilised clumped pathogens are engulfed by killer T-cells and other phagocytes.

Human Health And Common Human Diseases Regulation Of The Human Immune System

Principles Cells Of The Immune System

Human Health And Common Human Diseases Principal Cells Of The Immune System

Immunity: After being stimulated B-cells and T-cells produce numerous effector cells and memory cells. Effector cells help in killing effective antigens and they live for a few days. The memory cells kill the antigens of the second infection and they live for much longer time and some may live even for the whole life.

These memory cells are stored in the spleen and lymph nodes. This explains the reason why some childhood diseases are not contracted for a second time. This is called acquired or active immunity. Immunity is of two types.

  1. Innate immunity—Inborn.
  2. Acquired immunity—Acquired after birth.
    1. Active acquired immunity
    2. Passive acquired immunity

Role Of Lymphoid Organs: The organs where lymphocytes are formed and mature, termed lymphoid organs. They are of two types i.e. Primary lymphoid organs and secondary lymphoid organs. Primary lymphoid organs such as hone marrow and thymus are the sites where B and T-cells can be produced.

  • Secondary lymphoid organs such as lymph nodes, spleen, and mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue such as tonsils are the sites where lymphocytes are stored. They multiply and undergo differentiation at these sites.
  • They acquire an immune response to antigens develop in their organs.

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Innate Or Inborn or- Non-specific or Natural Immunity:

It is present from birth and is inherited from the mother to offspring through the placenta. It is not acquired from the previous attack of disease, for example, innate immunity against distemper (a fatal disease of dogs) and cholera. It is the first line of defence. It consists of four types of barriers

  1. Anatomical
  2. Physiological
  3. Phagocytic and
  4. Inflammatory barriers.

Besides that phagocytes kill bacterial cells, virus-infected cells and some foreign cells of the body by creating perforin-lined pores in the plasma membrane of target cells. These pores allow entry of water into the target cell which then swells and bursts.

Acquired Immunity. The immunity acquired during a lifetime is called acquired immunity. It is specific and also known as adaptive immunity.lt requires many days to be activated. It has four unique properties

  1. Specificity
  2. Diversity
  3. Memory and
  4. Discrimination between self and non-self.

Specific Immunity employs two major groups of cells

  1. Lymphocytes and
  2. The antigen-presenting cells.

Properties Of Acquired Immunity

  1. Specificity. It is able to recognize various foreign molecules.
  2. Diversity. It can recognize a vast variety of foreign (non-self) molecules.
  3. Memory. The immune system responds to first encountered by forming antibodies. It retains the memory and if there is a second attack by the same antigen, (microbe/foreign molecules) evokes a heightened immune response.
  4. Distinguish Between Self And Non-Self Molecules. It can recognise and respond to molecules that are foreign or non-self

Activation Of Adaptive Immunity:

Every antigen is scanned by antigen-presenting cells like macrophages, B lymphocytes, etc. The processed antigen is present on the surface of these cells. A subgroup of T- T-cells, called T helper cells, specifically interacts with the present antigen and becomes activated.

The activated T helper cells then activate B cells and a subgroup of T cells called T cytotoxic cells in a specific manner. The activated B and T cytotoxic cells divide repeatedly to produce clones (similar cells). All the cells of a clone recognize the same antigen and fight it, neutralize the action or eliminate it.

Human Health And Common Human Diseases Formation Of Antigen Antibody Complex

Vaccination: Originally the term vaccination (alter the Latin word vacca = cow) is described as the process of inoculating persons with discharge from cowpox to protect them from smallpox.

But now it is applied to the inoculation of any antigenic material for the purpose of producing active artificial immunity. The first successful polio vaccine (the Salk vaccine) was composed of viruses that had been inactivated by treatment will) formaldehyde.

Kinds Of Vaccine

  1. Killed Vaccine.
    1. The organisms are killed by phenol, alcohol, heat and UV rays, for example, Typhoid.
    2. Vaccine is prepared by killing organisms with the use of formalin, for example, whooping cough, and poliomyelitis (discovered by Salk).
  2. Toxoid. They have lost their toxic property but retained antigenic properties, for example, antitetanus, and diphtheria toxoids.
  3. Attenuated Living Vaccine. Oral ‘Live’ Sabine vaccine (OPV), Antipoliomyelitis (Salk); Antimeasles, B.C.G., yellow fever.
  4. Antigens Isolated From Infectious Agents, for example, polysaccharides of pneumococci.
  5. Antiserum/Serum. It is fibrinogen-free serum or blood plasma of an animal which has antibodies or antitoxins against a particular pathogen/toxin because the animal has been injected with a safe dose of the pathogen at regular intervals, for example, diphtheria, tetanus, or snake bite.
  6. Monoclonal Antibodies (Magic Bullets). They are identical antibody molecules, specific for a particular antigen, which have developed from a single source like hybridoma.

They were devised by Cesar Milstein and George Kohler (1975). Hybrid cell culture formed of antigen-sensitised cells, fused with myeloma/cancerous bone marrow cells for indefinite production of monoclonal antibodies.

Passive Immunity: Passive immunity is short-lived. Passive immunity occurs when an individual is given prepared antibodies and immunoglobulins to combat a disease. Since these antibodies are not produced by the individual’s B cells, passive immunity is short-lived.

  • For example, newborn infants are passively immune to diseases because antibodies have crossed the placenta from the mother’s blood.
  • These antibodies soon disappear, however, so that within a few months, infants become more susceptible to infections. Breastfeeding prolongs the natural passive immunity an infant receives from the mother because antibodies are present in the mother’s milk.
  • Even though passive immunity does not last, it sometimes is used to prevent illness in a patient who has been unexpectedly exposed to an infectious disease.
  • Usually, the patient receives a gamma globulin injection (serum that contains antibodies), perhaps taken from individuals who have recovered from the illness.
  • In the past, horses were immunized, and serum was taken from them to provide the needed antibodies against such diseases as diphtheria, botulism and tetanus.

Interferon: Interferon was first identified in 1957. These are proteins released by cells in response to a viral infection which they help to combat. They do not inactivate the virus but make the healthy cells less susceptible to the viral attack and prevent the viruses from taking over the machinery of the cells. Interferons have proved to be effective in treating influenza and hepatitis.

Common Human Diseases Important Questions For NEET

Antisera

  • Prior to the development of vaccinations, serum with preformed antibodies was utilized.
  • This serum is referred to as Antiserum or hyperimmune serum.
  • When utilized for protection, it is referred to as prophylactic serum.
  • When utilized for therapeutic purposes, it is referred to as therapeutic serum, generally known as Gammaglobulin.
  • It is derived from human blood sera provided by donors and contains antibodies.
  • In certain instances, the body identifies these serum antibodies and antigens, subsequently generating antibodies against them in an allergic response. This condition is referred to as serum sickness.
  • It leads to rash, respiratory distress, and joint swelling.

Human Health And Common Human Diseases For NEET Autoimmunity

The immunity developed against one’s own structure is known as autoimmunity. It has been observed that sometimes the immune system of the body goes off track and starts working against the own body and this in turn leads towards disease for example immunity developed against RBCs causes Anaemia and autoimmunity against the muscular system causes severe wsafeness (myasthenia gravis).

Human Health And Common Human Diseases Autoimmune Disorders

Human Health And Common Human Diseases For NEET Immunodeficiency

It is a disorder of the immune system where one or both components are unable to work properly due to congenital or acquired disease.

  • SCID (Severe Combined Immunodeficiency): It is a congenital immunodeficiency disorder in which both B—and T—lymphocytes are not formed and the patient dies of even minor infection (Such children can survive only in germ-free isolation chambers).
  • Acquired Immuno-Deficiencv Syndrome (AIDS) Cause. AIDS is a severe viral disease which has been able to overcome all the defensive mechanisms of the human body and generally leads to death.

It is caused by a retrovirus-HIV (Human immunodeficiency virus), earlier called LAV (Lymphadenopathy-associated virus) or HTLV (Human T-lymphotropic virus). It was first reported in African green monkeys but was first isolated in man by Moulagnier et al. (1983) and Gallo et.al. (1984). Its genetic material is RNA so it multiplies through the process of reverse transcription. Another peculiar feature of HIV is its mutability.

HIV– Human Immunodeficiency Virus

Subgroup- Lentivirus

Family– Retroviridae

Incubation Period, It ranges between 15-57 months. The average incubation period is 8 months.

Sites From Which HIV Can Be Isolated.

  1. Blood
  2. Semen
  3. Cervical fluid
  4. Saliva
  5. Breastmilk
  6. CSF
  7. Tears
  8. Skin
  9. Lungs
  10. Glial cells, Microglia of CNS.

AIDS Is a Pandemic Disease Symptoms. HIV attacks Helper T- lymphocytes. The reduction in number of Helper T-lymphocytes causes severe cellular immunodeficiency. The number of T-cells drops to even below 200 in comparison to 500-1500 in a normal person.

So it is a disorder of the cell-mediated immune system of the body. These clinically unhealthy persons are called opportunistic. AIDS is characterized by one of the following symptoms:

  1. Pneumocystis Carinii Pneumonia (PCP) is a lung disease. Idiopathic multiple-a skin cancer (Kaposi’s sarcoma) These forms 70% of AIDS cases.
  2. Psychosis Or Chronic Encephalitis– severe brain damage.
  3. Thrombocytopenic Purpura– decreased count of blood platelets causing haemorrhage.
  4. Lymphoma – cancer of lymphatics.
  5. Lymphadenopathy- swelling of lymph nodes.
  6. Another peculiar symptom of AIDS is severe wasting syndrome (substantial weight loss and general decline in health).
  7. AIDS patients also become more susceptible to infections of any system of the body.
  8. When the brain is damaged, then it may cause loss of memory, and the ability to speak and even think.

A full-blown AIDS patient dies within three years and mortality is 100%. The most serious form of AIDS is AIDS-related complex ARC which is characterized by swollen lymph nodes, night sweats and loss of weight.

New Anti-Retrovirus Drugs Against HIV

  1. Protease Inhibitors in combination with AZT blocks the enzyme essential for multiplication of HIV-virus.
  2. Sustiva, also called Efavienz, was developed by Food and Drug Administration (FDA) of USA in September, 1998.
  3. XQ- 9302, a Chinese herbal medicine.
  4. Interleukins (a class of proteins secreted by immune cells) when given in combination with AZT and protease inhibitors can remove the virus even from CD- 4 cells where the virus hides and rests.
  5. Nono Xynol- 9, a spermicide in gel form and claimed to be anti- HIV is found to be ineffective in protecting women from HIV- Infection.
  6. Nevirapine pervents HIV transmission from mother to child.

Two Serological Tests For Anti-HTV Antibodies

  1. Screening Test.
  2. Confirmatory Test.
  1. Screening Test. These tests are not highly specific. The most widely used screening test is the ELISA test.
  2. Confirmatory Test. A commonly employed confirmatory test is the Western Blot test. It is carried out after the screening test shows a positive result.

Immunosuppressants: They are chemicals which suppress the immune reaction of the body towards transplanted organs (for example, kidney, parts of the intestine, heart) for example, cyclosporin.

Infectious Diseases—some of them fatal, have newly emerged and were not previously known:

  1. HIV infection which causes AIDS
  2. Hepatitis C, B and E
  3. A new form of Cholera
  4. A highly fatal respiratory disease caused by a virus called Sin Nombre
  5. A variant of Creutzfedt-Jakob disease—a disease of the central nervous system
  6. Ebola haemorrhagic fever
  7. A haemolytic uraemia syndrome

Reemerging Infectious Diseases: Some of the infectious diseases which were earlier controlled are now reappearing in epidemic forms. They are

  1. Tuberculosis
  2. Cholera
  3. Dengue
  4. Malaria
  5. Plague
  6. Meningococcal meningitis
  7. Diphtheria
  8. Japanese encephalitis

Diseases Caused By Bacteria

Human Health And Common Human Diseases Diseases Caused By Bacteria

Other Bacterial Diseases Are diarrhoeal diseases (Shigella, Escherichia coli, Campylobacter, Salmonella etc.), botulism (food poisoning – Clostridium botulinum); anthrax (Bacillus anthracis); meningitis (Neisseria meningitis) etc.

Common Human Diseases Important Questions For NEET

Diseases Caused By Viruses

Human Health And Common Human Diseases Diseases Caused By Viruses

Dengue Fever. It is a viral fever whose vector is a daytime-biting Aetles aepypti mosquito. Its incubation period is of seven days.

  • It is characterized by high fever (above 102° F), severe frontal headache, pain behind the eyes, muscular and joint pain, loss of appetite, measles-like rash on the chest and upper limbs, nausea, vomiting etc.
  • Dengue haemorrhagic fever is also associated with bleeding from the nose, mouth, and gums and vomiting. In October 1996, Dengue fever was declared as an epidemic.
  • Adult Aetles mosquitoes can be killed by spraying malathion. Aedes mosquito has small, black and white strips on its legs and back. It bites during the daytime in the early hours of the morning and late hours of the afternoon.

The hepatitis -B Virus causes so many deaths in only one day as by AIDS virus in one year. In India, about 4.30 crore people suffer from hepatitis- B. The vaccine against hepa- titis-B is available and is given to the 6th, 10th and 14th years age group of children.

Revac-B vaccine is a genetically engineered vaccine against hepatitis-B disease. It has been developed by Bharat Biotech International Ltd. (Hyderabad).

SARS (Severe Agile Respiratory Syndrome): Typical pneumonia is an infection of lung tissue caused by organisms other than pneu¬monia causing organisms, maybe a virus, metapneumo virus another virus called corona vims has also been identified.

  • Symptoms And Signs Of SARS
    • High fever
    • One or more respiratory symptoms (Cough, breathlessness or hypoxia.)
    • Headache, muscular stiffness, loss of appetite vague feeling of discomfort, confusion, rash and diarrhoea
    • Close contact with a person having SARS for the previous 10 days.
  • Countries Which reported SARS cases: China. Hongkong, Taiwan province, Singapur, Vietnam and Canada In India only 12 cases of SARS were reported.
  • Modes Of Transmission Droplet infection spread through respiratory surface Diagnostic Test. Rapid molecular Genetic Test ( PCR Test) 2. Serological Test. Treatment. Combination of Antiviral drugs and cortical steroids plus other intensive supportive treatment.

Protozoanal Diseases: Malaria, amoebiasis, sleeping sickness etc are the main protozoan diseases caused by Plasmodium, Entamoeba and Trypanosoma respectively. Malaria is spread by the female Anopheles mosquitoes, amoebiasis is spread by contaminated food and water, and sleeping sickness is spread by Glossina (Tse-tse fly).

Helminth Diseases: Tueniasis, ascariasis and filariasis are common helminth diseases of man. These are caused by Taenia solium, Ascaris lumbricoides and Wuchereria bancrofii respectively. Human infection of Taenia occurs by taking undercooked measly pork while that of Ascaris occurs through contaminated food. Filariasis is spread through Culcx and Aedes mosquitoes.

Important STDs And Common Techniques For Their Detection

Human Health And Common Human Diseases Important STDs And Common Techniques For Their Detection

Human Health And Common Human Diseases Non Communicable Diseases

Heart Diseases: These are the most common cause of death in human beings in the present century. Rheumatic heart diseases result from the repeated attacks of rheumatic fever in childhood.

  • The toxins cause inefficiency of the valves between the auricle and the anti-ventricle. Arteriosclerosis is another common cardiovascular disease caused by the deposition of calcium or cholesterol in the walls of the arteries. Hypertension is characterized by persistent high blood pressure.
  • Coronary thrombosis, also called myocardial infarction, involves the formation of a thrombus in the coronary artery. High sperm cholesterol, cigarette smoking, hypertension, diabetes and obesity are other risk factors for coronary heart disease.

Diabetes Mellitus

Diabetes Mellitus Causes

  • Deficiency of insulin hormone due to hypoactivity of p—p-cells of Islets of Langerhans of the pancreas.
  • Obesity and overweightness.
  • Mental shocks.
  • Heredity (diabetes controlled by a recessive gene present on the short arm of chromosome 11).

Diabetes Mellitus Symptoms. Due to a deficiency of insulin hormone, the person can neither store glucose as glycogen nor use glucose as respiratory fuel, so diabetes mellitus is characterized by:

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Hyperglycemia (blood glucose many times greater than normal), polyuria or diuresis (excessive urination, about 10 litres per day), polydipsia (excessive thirst), polyphagia (increased hunger), glycosuria (sugar in urine, about 100 g/24 hrs), loss of weight, decreased glycogen level in liver, blurred vision, reduced healing capacity etc. Due to incomplete oxidation of fats, ketonic bodies are formed, so secondary symptoms of diabetes mellitus are:

Ketonemia (ketones in the blood), Ketonuria (ketones in urine), acidosis (pH of blood decreased from 7.4 to 6.8), diabetic coma and death.

  • A person suffering from diabetes is called a diabetic. It is reported in about 1-3% of Indian population. China now has 20 million diabetics and their number is swelling each year by 750,000. About 5.3 per cent of the inhabitants of Beijing city suffer from diabetes.
  • So Beijing is becoming the city of diabetics. There are over 15 million known diabetics in India with Delhi alone accounting for over 3 lakhs. Increasing urbanization and a changing lifestyle with less physical exercise and overeating are responsible for the increase.

27th June is called Diabetes Day: Diabetes occurs in two forms

  1. Insulin-dependant Diabetes (IDDM—Type-1 diabetes). It occurs due to a deficiency of insulin from (β cells of Islets of Langerhans. It is more severe and generally occurs in young.
  2. Non-insulin-Dependent Diabetes (NIDDM—Type-2). It occurs due to the failure of the target cells to take up insulin from the blood. It generally affects after 40 years of age. Patients are mostly overweight so should reduce their weight by a low-calorie diet and exercise.

Diagnosis. Diabetes mellitus can be diagnosed by testing blood and urine sugar levels.

Diabetes Insipidus

Diabetes Insipidus Cause. The main cause of diabetes insipidus is decreased secretion of ADH (anti-diuretic hormone), also called vasopressin, from the neurosecretory cells of the hypothalamus and released from the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland.

Diabetes Insipidus Symptoms. Deficiency of ADH causes decreased permeability of the wall of collecting tubules and decreased reabsorption of water from the urine, so diabetes insipidus is characterized by:

Diuresis, polydipsia, loss of weight, weakness etc. but urine is sugar free.

Arthritis: It is a disease more of advanced age characterised by the abnormality of joints. The common three types of arthritis are :

  1. Degenerative Arthritis (Osteoarthritis). It first attacks the cartilage of the joint. The lumps are formed which make the movement impossible. It causes joint fixation or ankylosis.
  2. Rheumatoid Arthritis. It first attacks the synovial membrane (membrane which lines the joints) and causes inflammation which leads to stiffness of the joints.
  3. Gout. It is a type of arthritis in which the accumulation of uric acid crystals occurs at the joints. These crystals make movement difficult and also cause severe pain.

Human Health And Common Human Diseases For NEET Allergies

Allergies Definition. An allergy is the hypersensitivity of a person to some foreign substance, called an allergen, which either comes in contact with or enters the body. About 15% of the Indian population suffers from one or other type of allergic disorder.

  • Allergy, also known as hypersensitivity, is an inappropriate overreaction of the immune system.
  • An allergy is a non-infectious, unnatural and unusual reaction to a substance called an allergen which is generally a weak antigen.
  • Common allergies are anaphylaxis, urticaria, hay fever, asthma, eczema, etc.
  • Antibodies belonging to the class IgE trigger allergy by combining with the antigen and surface of mast cells in the connective tissue.
  • Mast cells release a large amount of histamine into the bloodstream.
  • The symptoms of an allergy reaction develop in response to histamine which stimulates capillary dilation, increased permeability, closure of bronchial tubes, mucus secretion, pain and swelling.
  • A severe allergic reaction called anaphylactic shock occurs when a large amount of histamine is suddenly) released by the mast cells.
  • All the peripheral arteries dilate at once causing a very low blood pressure or shock. It is fatal if not immediately treated.
  • Allergies are treated with drugs that cause vasoconstriction: antihistamines in the case of normal allergic reaction and epinephrine in the case of anaphylactic shock.

Human Health And Common Human Diseases For NEET Inflammation

Inflammation Definition. Damage to the body’s tissues triggers a defensive response called inflammation.

  • Inflammation can be caused by microbial infection, or physical agents (heat, radiant energy, electricity or sharp objects).
  • Inflammation is usually characterized by four symptoms.
    1. Redness
    2. Swelling.
    3. Heat
    4. Pain
  • Sometimes a fifth symptom, loss of function, is present,
  • Inflammation has the following functions:
  • To destroy the injurious agent to limit the effects of the injurious agent on the body by confining or walling off
  • To repair or replace tissue damaged by the injurious agent
  • Any substance or agent that tends to cause a rise in the body temperature (fever) is called pyrogen.
  • Pyrogens are released by WBCs that set the body’s thermostat at high temperatures.

Human Health And Common Human Diseases Allergy Types

Type Of Allergens. The common allergens are dust, pollens, spores, feathers, fur, venom food and drugs. Some physical agents also act as allergens.

Allergens Mechanism. It involves 3 steps:

  1. Sensitisation. In this, allergen acts as a mild antigen so stimulates the formation of antibodies which bind to mast cells of connective fissure.
  2. Second Stimulation. In this, allergens combine with antibody-bound mast cells which rupture and release histamine.
  3. Histamine Action causes hypersensation.

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Symptoms Of Allergic Reactions. The following are the symptoms of allergies

  • A person may suffer from high fever which affects the mucous membrane of the eyes, nose and upper respiratory tracts.
  • The mucous membrane of the lower part of the respiratory tract leads to cough and asthma.
  • Reddening of skin, the appearance of blisters on the skin.
  • Accumulation of tissue fluid below the skin.
  • Watering of eyes and inability to breathe.

Human Health And Common Human Diseases Congential Diseases

Human Health And Common Human Diseases For NEET Cancer

Cancer is characterized by uncontrolled growth and division of certain body tissues, so forming a tumour. It is more common in people between 40 to 60 years of age. It is one of the chief killers today. Every year about 6 million people throughout the world are diagnosed as having cancer, being equally divided between developed and developing countries.

  • In the world, about 4 million people die of cancer which accounts for about 10% of all deaths. In India, 80 per cent of cancer patients come from viral areas and are first diagnosed with cancer at an advanced stage.
  • Neoplasm is a new abnormal tissue that is capable of continued growth, formation of tumours, crowding and disruption of normal cells. Tumours are of two types, benign and malignant. A benign tumour is a large localised mass of abnormal tissue which presses other tissues but does not infiltrate adjacent tissues because it is encapsulated in connective tissue.
  • A Malignant Tumour is a large mass of abnormal tissue which is not encapsulated, is capable of invading adjacent tissue and distant sites. Metastasis is the spread of cancerous cells from one part of the body to other parts through blood, lymph or the formation of secondaries from a malignant tumour.

Cancers Are Of the Following Types:

1. Carcinoma:

It is a carcinoma of epithelial or epidermal tissues and its derivatives, including skin, mucous membranes, glands, lungs, breasts, pancreas, and stomach.

2. Sarcoma:

It is a malignancy of primordial mesodermal tissue, including connective tissue, bone, muscle, and lymph nodes.

3. Kaposi:

Kaposi sarcoma is a secondary condition linked to AIDS. Leukemia (= Leukemia). It is a malignancy characterized by an excessive and uncontrolled proliferation of white blood cells (200,000—1,000,000/mm³) and immature myeloid stem cells.

In a prevalent form of leukaemia, white blood cells invade the bone marrow, spleen, liver, lymph nodes, and other organs, resulting in damage and enlargement.

In myelocytic leukaemia, the 9th and 22nd chromosomes amalgamate their transposable elements, resulting in the degeneration of erythroblastic tissue in the bone marrow.

Hemorrhaging is occurring at several locations. Tonsils and cervical lymph nodes hypertrophy. The predominant cancers in India are oral-pharyngeal cancer in males and cervical-uterine cancer in females.

4. Adenoma: Glandular carcinoma

5. Lymphoma:

It is a malignancy of the lymphatic system and spleen, characterized by the overproduction of lymphocytes.

Carcinogenic Factors (Factors inducing Cancer).

Carcinogens/Chemical Carcinogens. They are substances/often environmental pollutants which cause cancer, for example, soot (skin, lungs). coal tar (3, 4, benzopyrene—skin and lungs), cigarette smoke (N-nitroso- dimethyl—lungs), cadmium oxide (prostate gland), aflatoxin (liver), 2-naphthyl amine and 4-aminobiphenyI (urinary bladder), mustard gas (lungs), nickel and chromium compounds (lungs), asbestos (lungs, pleural membrane), diethylstilbestrol (DES—vagina), vinyl chloride (liver).

  • Radiations. Both UV and ionising radiation increase the incidence of cancer. For example, Leukaemia incidence is 10 times higher in radiologists than other medical workers.
  • Heat. Reverse smoking causes mouth cancer. Kangri (heating device) increases the incidence of cancer in Kashmiris.
  • Tobacco. Tobacco chewing produces mouth cancer. Smoking increases the chances of throat and lung cancers.

Biological Agents. Some viruses and other parasites, excessive secretion of certain hormones are believed to produce cancers.

Mechanical Agents. Friction, trauma or continuous irritation seem to produce cancer.

Mechanical Agents Symptoms. A lump or hard area, swelling or sore that does not heal, unexplained loss of weight, difficulty in swallowing, persistent cough or hoarseness, change in colour of a mole/wart, a change in digestive/bowel habits, loss of blood through a natural orifice or excess out of date loss of blood in women.

Therapy: Cancer can be controlled in early stages and control depends upon the location and spread of the cancer

1. Radiation Therapy. In this, the cancerous parts of the body are exposed to ionising radiation like X-rays which kill the cancerous cells. It gives good results in skin, lip, mouth and cervix cancers.

It is used in almost 80% of cancer patients for treatment Brachytherapy is a special radiotherapeutic technique in which a very high doze of radiation in a short period to a small volume of body tissue by small radioactive sources like Radium, Cobalt 60, Iridium-192, etc. arranged in a geometrical fashion in and around the tumour.

2. Hormonal Therapy. In this, a hormone-caused cancer is treated by another hormone which neutralizes carcinogenic hormones for example, breast cancer can be controlled by testosterone.

3. Surgery. It involves the removal of cancerous parts by operative methods.

4. Chemotherapy. A number of chemicals like mercaptopurine, 6-aminopterin etc. are known to kill cancerous cells or inhibit DNA synthesis and cell division in cancer cells. Catharantlius roseus, commonly called sadabahar, provides two anti-cancerous drugs; Vincristin and Vinblastin which are used against leukaemia.

A new drug called Photoferin has been discovered in the U.S.A. to cure throat cancer. It is a modified porfimer sodium extracted from cow’s blood.

Drugs Used In Chemotherapy Of Cancer

Human Health And Common Human Diseases Drugs Used In Chemotherphy Of Cancer

Human Health And Common Human Diseases Anticancer Drugs Site Of Action

5. New Anti-Cancer Drugs. The new drug, Doxil, contains an antitumour ingredient called Doxorubicin.

  • Recently Israeli researchers have developed a new technique of new dmg delivery in which liposomes (a group of ball-like biomaterials) infiltrate the malignant tumours through the gaps in the blood vessels of cancerous tissue and release the anticancerous doxil to kill the cancerous cells.
  • These liposomes cannot penetrate into healthy tissue as no such gaps exist in their blood vessels.

6. Gene Therapy For Skin Cancer. A revolutionary form of gene therapy for skin cancer has been developed by Mary Collins of the Institute of Cancer Research (London). In this, tumour cells are genetically engineered to carry a protein—Interleukin-2.

Then the tumour cells are injected into the skin of the patient where they begin to release Interleukin- 2 which stimulates the white blood cells to attack cancer cells in the skin, hopefully preventing cancer from spreading.

Therapy Mechanism: Carcinogenic factors activate certain genes called oncogenes. Jumping genes or transposons are also involved. The activated oncogenes result in uncontrolled cell proliferation or cancer.

Cancer cells have irregular, hypertrophied nuclei, abundant nuclear granules, an increased number of lysosomes, reduced cristae in mitochondria, melanin, mucus, fat droplets and debris in cells.

ABO Blood Group:

Whether a person has type A, type B, type AB or type O blood depends on the presence or absence of specific substances on the red blood cells. There are two of these substances- antigens A and B.

  • Thus a person with antigen A is considered to be with blood group A, a person who is in blood group O has neither of the antigens and a person with antigen B, blood group is called B. If both the antigens A and B are present the blood group is called AB. The blood group character is controlled by a set of three alleles.
  • During injury or disease blood is lost and is generally replaced by transfusion. The blood is obtained from a donor and must be compatible with that of the person receiving, i. e.. recipient.
  • In case the blood is not compatible then the antibodies present in them cause clumping of blood in the capillaries and may result in death. The plasma of B-group blood contains antibodies A. The formation of clumps occurs in case B group blood is mixed with blood group A.

Human Health And Diseases Neet Previous Year Questions With Answers

Rh Factor. The Rh-blood types were first discovered in the Rhesus monkey. It was found that RH (rhesus) antigens were causing many of the transfusion failures that were unexplained by the A-B-O system. There are at least eight different Rh antigens discovered so far. A person is called Rh- Rh-Rh-positive if he has any one of these antigens and Rh-negative if the antigens are absent.

  • A complication arises if the blood of an Rh-negative is transferred to Rh- a positive individual or vice-versa.
  • When the red blood cells of an Rh-positive person is transfused into a person with Rh-negative blood an agglutination of red cells occurs. The antibodies against the Rh antigen are present in the Rh- Rh-negative person. The agglutinated cells clog up capillaries and the white cells of the recipient attack and break up the red blood cells (hemolysis).
  • Repeated exposure to transfusion increases the speed and seriousness of the antibody-antigens response. In such cases, serious complications arise which lead to death.

Human Health And Common Human Diseases Disease Agents

Human Health And Common Human Diseases Types Of Diseases And Causive Agents And Examples

Human Health And Common Human Diseases Immunity

Human Health And Common Human Diseases Diseases Names And Features

 

 

Human Health And Disease Class 12 Multiple Choice Questions

NEET Biology Human Health And  Common Human Diseases Multiple Choice Questions And Answers

Question 1. Common examples of allergens are mites in dust, pollens, and animal dander. Allergy is due to the release of chemicals such as:

  1. IgF
  2. Histamine
  3. Colostrum
  4. Histamine and serotonin

Answer: 4. Histamine and serotonin

Question 2. Which of the following is an autoimmune disease?

  1. Gout
  2. Rheumatoid arthritis
  3. Diabetes inspires
  4. SCID.

Answer: 2. Rheumatoid arthritis

Question 3. BCG vaccine is given against:

  1. Typhoid
  2. Cholera
  3. TB
  4. Diphtheria.

Answer: 3. Diphtheria.

Question 4. Which of the following is a symptom(s) of ascariasis?

  1. Muscular pain and fever
  2. Internal bleeding and anaemia
  3. Blockage of intestinal passage
  4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 5. The appearance of dry, scaly lesions on various parts of the body such as skin, nails and scalp accompanied by intense itching. This disease is caused by:

  1. Epidermophyton
  2. Microsporum
  3. Trichophyton
  4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Human Health And Disease Class 12 MCQs

Human Health and Disease MCQs with Answers Question 6. Elephantiasis or filariasis is caused by Wuchereria bancrofti and W. malayi. The major symptoms are

  1. Chronic inflammation of lymphatic vessels of lower limbs
  2. Deformities of genital organs
  3. Swelling of scrotum
  4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 7. Sporozoites of malarial parasite on entering the blood first attack:

  1. RBCs
  2. Liver cells
  3. Blood platelets
  4. WBCs

Answer: 2. Liver cells

Question 8. Who is the initiator of the ‘Lab to Land’ concept?

  1. M.S. Swaminathan
  2. Norman Borlaug
  3. G.S. Khush
  4. G.S. Randhawa.

Answer: 1. M.S. Swaminathan

Question 9. In pneumonia, symptoms include fever, cough, chills, and headache, and lips and fingers may turn grey to blue colour. It is caused by

  1. Streptococcus pneumonia
  2. Haemophilus influenza
  3. Aedes
  4. Both (1) and (2).

Answer: 4. Both (1) and (2).

Question 10. The proteins produced by B-lymphocytes in response to pathogens are called

  1. Antigens
  2. Interferons
  3. Antibodies
  4. PMNL.

Answer: 3. PMNL.

Question 11. Japenese elephantiasis is transmitted by:

  1. Housefly
  2. Tse-tse fly
  3. Phlebotomus
  4. Mosquito.

Answer: 4. Mosquito

Human Health and Disease MCQs with Answers Question 12. Select the correct statement:

  1. Barbiturates when given to criminals make them tell the truth
  2. Morphine is Olien given to persons who have undergone surgery as a painkiller
  3. Chewing tobacco lowers blood pressure and heart rate
  4. Cocaine is given to patients who have undergone surgery and recovering slowly.

Answer: 2. Morphine is Olien given to persons who have undergone surgery as a pain killer

Question 13. A patient is suspected to be suffering from acquired immune deficiency syndrome. Which diagnostic technique will you recommend for its detection?

  1. ELISA
  2. MRI
  3. Ultrasound
  4. Widal

Answer: 1. ELISA

Question 14. The side effects of the use of anabolic steroids in females are

  1. Aggressiveness
  2. Masculinisation
  3. Enlargement of clitoris and deepening of voice
  4. All the above

Answer: 4. All the above
.
Question 15. At what stage does HIV infection usually show symptoms of AIDS

  1. When the infecting retrovirus enters host cells
  2. When viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase
  3. Within 15 days of sexual contact with an infected person
  4. When HIV replicates rapidly in the helper T- lymphocytes and damages a large number of these.

Answer: 4. When HIV replicates rapidly in the helper T-lymphocytes and damages a large number of these.

Question 16. Antigens are:

  1. The micro-organisms which are the source of disease in the body
  2. A foreign body which is harmful to the animal and evokes the generation of antibodies
  3. The substance generated in the body in response to the infection
  4. None of these.

Answer: 2. A foreign body which is harmful to the animal and evokes the generation of antibodies

Question 17. Koch’s postulates include which of the following?

  1. The organism must be regularly found in the body of the patient
  2. Must be isolated and grown in an artificial medium
  3. When the culture is inoculated into the healthy person it must cause disease and can be recovered again
  4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 18. Reservoir of infection is:

  1. Site where pathogens reside without causing any damage
  2. Soil, water and air
  3. Another animal
  4. Another person who is suffering.

Answer: 1. Site where pathogens reside without causing any damage

Question 19. Antibodies fight against:

  1. Starvation
  2. Stress
  3. Thirst
  4. Infection.

Answer: 4. Infection.

Human Health and Disease NEET Questions Question 20. The humoral immune system consists of:

  1. A family of diverse proteins present in body fluids
  2. Some special types of cells destroy the pathogens
  3. Both cells as well as polysaccharides
  4. All the above.

Answer: 1. A family of diverse proteins present in body fluids

Question 21. How many principal lines of defence are present in the body?

  1. Two
  2. Three
  3. Five
  4. Innumerable.

Answer: 2. Three

Question 22. Which of the following is a correct statement?

  1. B-cells directly engulf the pathogenic bacteria
  2. B-cells produce antibodies soon after they are produced
  3. B-cells produce a large clone of plasma cells soon after it is formed
  4. The B-cells produce the plasma cells in the body only after they are triggered by a specific antigen.

Answer: 4. The B-cells produce the plasma cells in the body only after they are triggered by a specific antigen.

Question 23. Antiserum is a serum containing:

  1. Antigens
  2. Leucocytes
  3. Active antibodies
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Active antibodies

Question 24. Interferon is a glycoprotein which possesses:

  1. Antiviral activity
  2. Antifungal activity
  3. Antiparasitic activity
  4. Antibacterial activity.

Answer: 1. Antiviral activity

Question 25. Antibodies are:

  1. A large family of protein molecules produced by the body’s defence cells in the body fluids neutralise the antigens
  2. The chemicals produced by the invading microbes destroy and damage the body’s cells
  3. Certain substances enclosed in lymphocytes
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. A large family of protein molecules produced by the body’s defence cells in the body fluids which neutralise the antigens

Human Health and Disease NEET Questions Question 26. The mode of transmission of communicable diseases is dealt by a branch of science named:

  1. Epidemiology
  2. Immunology
  3. Aetiology
  4. Angiology.

Answer: 1. Epidemiology

Question 27. The degree of pathogenicity is called:

  1. Infestation
  2. Infection
  3. Virulence
  4. Resistance.

Answer: 3. Virulence

Question 28. Which one of the following diseases is caused by bacteria?

  1. Chicken-pox
  2. Poliomyelitis
  3. Measles
  4. Tetanus.

Answer: 4. Tetanus.

Question 29. Which one of the following communicable diseases is not caused by bacteria?

  1. Diphtheria
  2. Typhoid
  3. Leprosy
  4. Poliomyelitis.

Answer: 4. Poliomyelitis.

Question 30. The causative organism of cholera is a:

  1. Bacterium
  2. Protozoan
  3. Nematode
  4. Virus.

Answer: 1. Bacterium

Human Health And Disease MCQ With Answers For NEET Question 31. Tetanus is caused by:

  1. Bacterium
  2. Fungus
  3. Protozoan
  4. Virus.

Answer: 1. Bacterium

Question 32. Poliomyelitis is caused by

  1. Bacteria
  2. Virus
  3. Protozoan
  4. Nematodes.

Answer: 2. Virus

Question 33. AIDS is caused by:

  1. Cocci
  2. Bacilli
  3. TMV
  4. HIV.

Answer: 4. HIV.

Human Health And Disease MCQ With Answers For NEET Question 34. Invention and study of the effects of medicines on the organism is known as:

  1. Toxicology
  2. Pharmacology
  3. Pharmacy
  4. Haematology.

Answer: 2. Pharmacology

Question 35. DPT vaccine is given to infants to immunize them against:

  1. Diphtheria, pneumonia and typhoid
  2. Diphtheria, whooping cough and tetanus
  3. Diarrhoea, pneumonia and tuberculosis
  4. Diphtheria, whooping cough and typhoid.

Answer: 2. Diphtheria, whooping cough and tetanus

Question 36. Dengue fever is caused by:

  1. Bacteria
  2. Plasmodium
  3. Virus
  4. Entamoeba histolytica.

Answer: 3. Virus

Question 37. Vims cause contagious epidemic disease with high fever and a rash all over the body. Its incidence is among children. It’s one attack that gives immunity. Which one is of the following?

  1. Mumps
  2. Plague
  3. Brain fever
  4. Measles.

Answer: 4. Measles.

Question 38. Syphilis is a venereal disease. It is caused by:

  1. Neisseria
  2. Vibrio
  3. Corynebacterium
  4. Treponema pallidum.

Answer: 4. Treponema pallidum.

MCQs on Human Health and Diseases Question 39. The contagious diseases are:

  1. Measles
  2. Chickenpox
  3. Whooping cough
  4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 40. Where are the gametocytes of Plasmodium first formed and found?

  1. Liver of man
  2. Stomach of female mosquito
  3. Blood of man
  4. RBC of the blood of man.

Answer: 4. RBC of the blood of man.

Question 41. Entamoeba histolytica has:

  1. Well developed pseudopodia
  2. Contractile vacuole
  3. Both (1) and (2)
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 4. None of the above

Question 42. Which mosquito actually transmits malaria and acts as an intermediate host of Plasmodium?

  1. Male Anopheles
  2. Female Anopheles
  3. Male Culex
  4. Female Culex.

Answer: 2. Female Anopheles

MCQs on Human Health and Diseases Question 43. The credit of working out the complicated life cycle of Plasmodium goes to:

  1. Louis Pasteur
  2. John Snow
  3. Robert Koch
  4. Ronald Ross.

Answer: 4. Ronald Ross.

Question 44. The symptoms of Malaria fever appear at their peak in a patient when:

  1. Sporozoites enter liver
  2. Merozoites enter red blood cells
  3. Red blood cells rupture and haemozoin is released
  4. Gametocytes are formed.

Answer: 3. Red blood cells rupture and haemozoin is released

Question 45. Which of the following worms is viviparous?

  1. Wuchereria bancrofti
  2. Ancylostoma dudoenale
  3. Ascaris lumbricodes
  4. Taenia solium.

Answer: 1. Wuchereria bancrofti

Question 46. The infective stage of plasmodium is:

  1. Trophozoite
  2. Sporozoite
  3. Merozoite
  4. Schizont.

Answer: 2. Sporozoite

MCQs on Human Health and Diseases Question 47. A chronic contagious eye disease, caused by a virus is called:

  1. Thrombosis
  2. Myopia
  3. Conjunctivitis
  4. Night blindness.

Answer: 3. Conjunctivitis

Question 48. The region of the body where the poliomyelitis virus multiplies is:

  1. Nerve cells
  2. Muscle cells
  3. Intestinal cells
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Nerve cells

Question 49. The disease Tilariasis’ is caused by the worm:

  1. Wuchereria bancrofti
  2. Ancylostoma duodenale
  3. Trichinella spiralis
  4. Enterobius vermicularis.

Answer: 1. Wuchereria bancrofti

Question 50. The mode of transmission of the disease Filariasis is:

  1. Bite of mosquito
  2. Eating unwashed eatables
  3. Eating unripe Pork
  4. Both (2) and (3).

Answer: 1. Bite of mosquito

Question 51. Which mosquito aids in the transmission of the disease filariasis?

  1. Male Anopheles
  2. Female Anopheles
  3. Culex
  4. Both (1) and (2).

Answer: 3. Culex

Biology MCQ Human Health and Disease Question 52. A disease characterised by chronic sleeplessness is:

  1. Insomnia
  2. Jaundice
  3. Sleeping sickness
  4. Nervous breakdown.

Answer: 1. Insomnia

Question 53. Trachoma is caused by the infection of:

  1. Virus
  2. Fungus
  3. Nematode
  4. Bacterium.

Answer: 1. Virus

Question 54. Chickenpox can be easily identified from measles due to the:

  1. High fever
  2. Irritation all over the skin
  3. Dew drop-like rashes
  4. Sneezing and water discharge from the nose.

Answer: 3. Dew drop-like rashes

Question 55. Varicella virus causes:

  1. Smallpox
  2. Chickenpox
  3. Measles
  4. Influenza

Answer: 2. Chickenpox

Biology MCQ Human Health and Disease Question 56. Elephantiasis is caused by:

  1. Tapeworm
  2. Wuchereria
  3. Ascaris
  4. Culex.

Answer: 2. Wuchereria

Question 57. The incubation period of smallpox is:

  1. 2 days
  2. 12 days
  3. 12 hours
  4. 2 to 12 days.

Answer: 2. 12 days

Question 58. The infective period of enteric fever is:

  1. 6 hours
  2. 6 days
  3. 6 weeks
  4. 6 minutes.

Answer: 2. 6 days

Question 59. Protection against poliomyelitis and tetanus is done simultaneously by:

  1. Sulpha drugs
  2. Gamma globulin inoculation
  3. Multiple vaccines
  4. Pasteur treatment.

Answer: 3. Multiple vaccine

Question 60. After floods, the victims are usually attacked by:

  1. Appendicitis
  2. Peritonitis
  3. Rabies
  4. Cholera.

Answer: 4. Cholera.

 

Morphology Of Flowering Plants MCQs For NEET Biology

NEET Biology Inflorescence And Flower Multiple Choice Questions And Answers

Question 1. If a raceme inflorescence is branched, it is called :

  1. Umbel
  2. Panicle
  3. Head
  4. Cymose.

Answer: 2. Panicle

Question 2. The arrangement of flowers in a raceme is :

  1. Basipetal
  2. Acropetal
  3. Head
  4. Cymose.

Answer: 2. Acropetal

Question 3. A raceme of sessile flowers is termed :

  1. Catkin
  2. Hypanthodium
  3. Spike
  4. Umbel.

Answer: 3. Spike

Question 4. Multiparous cyme is the characteristic of :

  1. Calotropis
  2. Acacia
  3. Begonia
  4. Bignonia.

Answer: 1. Calotropis

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Morphology of Flowering Plants NEET Questions Question 5. ln Mimosa pudica, the inflorescence is :

  1. Raceme
  2. Cymose head
  3. Spike
  4. Umbel.

Answer: 2. Cymose head

NEET Biology MCQs Morphology of Flowering Plants

Question 6. Involucre forms the cup in the inflorescence of :

  1. Fig
  2. Salvia
  3. Sunflower
  4. Poinsettia.

Answer: 4. Poinsettia.

Question 7. Zig-development of the inflorescence axis is an example of:

  1. Helicoid cyme
  2. Verticillasrer
  3. Umbel
  4. Scorpioid.

Answer: 1. Helicoid cyme

Question 8. Considering the angiosperm flower :

  1. Anemophilous are more advanced than regular flowers
  2. Irregular flowers are more primitive than regular flowers
  3. A solitary axillary or solitary terminal flower is more primitive than the inflorescence, likewise, capitulum and umbel are the most advanced forms of inflorescence.
  4. An inflorescence is more primitive than a solitary axillary or solitary terminal flower and the umbel is more primitive than a spike.

Answer: 3. A solitary axillary or solitary terminal flower is more primitive than the inflorescence, likewise capitulum and umbel are the most advanced forms of inflorescence.

Question 9. In Musaceae, the inflorescence is :

  1. Spike
  2. Head
  3. Capitulum
  4. Spadix.

Answer: 4. Spadix.

Morphology of Flowering Plants NEET Questions Question 10. Ovule of Opuntia is coiled and called:

  1. Anatropous
  2. Circinotropous
  3. Hemitropous
  4. Amphitropous.

Answer: 2. Circinotropous

Question 11. An inflorescence in which flowers arise from different levels but reach the same level is called :

  1. Catkin
  2. Umbel
  3. Corymb
  4. Spadix.

Answer: 3. Corymb

Question 12. Cauliflory is :

  1. Formation of flowers in clusters
  2. Production of flowers on young branches
  3. Production of flowers on old stem from new buds
  4. Formation of plants from epiphyllous buds.

Answer: 3. Production of flowers on old stem from new buds

Question 13. Feathery stigma is present in :

  1. Wheat
  2. Pea
  3. Ceasalpinia
  4. Darura.

Answer: 1. Wheat

Question 14. The inflorescence in candytuft is :

  1. Raceme
  2. Corymb
  3. Cyme
  4. Umbel.

Answer: 2. Corymb

Morphology of Flowering Plants NEET Questions Question 15. Hypanthodium is a characteristic inflorescence of:

  1. Ficus
  2. Pineapple
  3. Mulberry
  4. Poinsettia.

Answer: 1. Ficus

Question 16. In onion, the inflorescence is :

  1. Umbellate cyme
  2. Catkin
  3. Raceme
  4. Corymb.

Answer: 1. Umbellate cyme

Question 17. In a compound umbel, each umbellet is subtended by :

  1. Involucre
  2. Ramenta
  3. Involucral
  4. Bracteole.

Answer: 3. Involucral

Question 18. The inflorescence of Acacia is to be distinguished as a:

  1. Spike
  2. Spikelet
  3. Cymose head
  4. Raceme.

Answer: 3. Cymose head

Question 19. The peduncle is :

  1. Floral axis
  2. Inflorescence axis
  3. Thalamus
  4. Bract.

Answer: 2. Inflorescence axis

NEET Questions Morphology Of Flowering Plants Question 20. Inflorescence with a female flower in the middle and male flowers all around surrounded by a cup-like structure is known as :

  1. Catkin
  2. Cyathium
  3. Verticillaster
  4. Capitulum.

Answer: 2. Cyathium

21. A brightly colored bract-like covering associated with the banana the inflorescence is called :

  1. Spathe
  2. Scape
  3. Spiral
  4. Scapigeron.

Answer: 1. Spathe

Question 22. Inflorescence is :

  1. Number of flowers present on an axis
  2. Arrangement of flowers on an axis
  3. Method of the opening of flowers
  4. Type of flowers bome on the peduncle.

Answer: 2. Arrangement of flowers on an axis

Question 23. In monocots male gametophyte is :

  1. Megaspore
  2. Nucellus
  3. Microspore
  4. Tetrad.

Answer: 3. Microspore

Question 24. Inflorescence of mulberry is :

  1. Catkin
  2. Raceme
  3. Spadix
  4. Capitulum.

Answer: 1. Catkin

Morphology of Flowering Plants MCQ With Answers  Question 25. A catkin of unisexual flowers is found in :

  1. Mulberry
  2. Wheat
  3. Onion
  4. Fig.

Answer: 1. Mulbeny

Question 26. The inflorescence of wheat is :

  1. Spike
  2. Spikelet
  3. Spike of spikelets
  4. Panicle of spikelets.

Answer: 3. Spike of spikelets

Question 27. Flower is a :

  1. Modified cone
  2. Modified spike
  3. Modified branch system
  4. Modified reproductive shoot.

Answer: 4. Modified reproductive shoot.

Question 28. Flowers are always present in :

  1. Cryptogams
  2. Pteridophytes
  3. Angiosperms
  4. Bryophytes.

Answer: 3. Angiosperms

Question 29. The floral formula represents :

  1. Number and arrangement of floral parts
  2. Number of flowers in an inflorescence
  3. Type of flowers in a family
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Number and arrangement of floral parts

Morphology of Flowering Plants MCQ With Answers  Question 30. Flowers devoid of sepals and petals are called as :

  1. Florets
  2. Monothecous
  3. Achlamydeous
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Achlamydeous

Question 31. Unisexual flowers are also known as :

  1. Diclinous
  2. Uniparous
  3. Unitemic
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Diclinous

Question 32. In the case of the superior ovary, the thalamus is :

  1. Superior
  2. Epigynous
  3. Hypogynous
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Hypogynous

Question 33. The arrangement of sepals and petals in a bud condition is also called :

  1. Inflorescence
  2. Aestivation
  3. Venation
  4. Placentation.

Answer: 2. Aestivation

Question 34. Which type of inflorescence occurs in Ficus?

  1. Verticillaster
  2. Hypanthodium
  3. Cymose
  4. Racemose.

Answer: 2. Hypanthodium

Morphology of Flowering Plants MCQ With Answers  Question 35. Spike with unisexual flowers or catkin occurs in :

  1. Mulberry
  2. Grass
  3. Wheat
  4. Callistemon.

Answer: 1. Mulberry

Question 36. An edible inflorescence is :

  1. Raphanus sativus
  2. Brassica oleracea
  3. Brassica rapa
  4. Mustard.

Answer: 2. Brassica oleracea

Question 37. The smallest flowering plant is :

  1. Woffia
  2. Polyalthia
  3. Rffiesia
  4. Mimosa.

Answer: 1. Woffia

Question 38. A bi-or tricarpellary syncarpous unilocular ovary having one ovule at the base represents the placentation of the type :

  1. Parietal
  2. Marginal
  3. Free central
  4. Basal.

Answer: 4. Basal.

Question 39. Umbel inflorescence occurs in :

  1. Coriandrum
  2. Colocasia
  3. Musa
  4. Sunflower.

Answer: 1. Coriandrum

Morphology of Flowering Plants NEET Questions Question 40. A plant is termed monoecious if it bears :

  1. Both male and female flowers
  2. Either male or female flowers
  3. Male, female, and bisexual flowers
  4. Male, female, and neutral flowers.

Answer: 1. Both male and female flowers

Question 41. Monadelphous stamens occur in :

  1. Lady’s Finger
  2. Hibiscus
  3. Gossypium
  4. All of the above

Answer: 4. All of the above

Question 42. From the life cycle point of view, the most important part of a plant is :

  1. Flower
  2. Leaf
  3. Stem
  4. Root.

Answer: 1. Flower

Question 43. The ovule is attached to the placenta by :

  1. Petiole
  2. Pedicel
  3. Funiculus
  4. Hilum.

Answer: 3. Funiculus

Morphology of Flowering Plants NEET Questions Question 44. In a flower the placenta is a tissue :

  1. In the corolla tube where filaments are attached
  2. In other lobes where pollens are attached
  3. In the ovary where the ovules are attached
  4. On the thalamus where floral whorls are attached.

Answer: 3. In the ovary where the ovules are attached

Question 45. Which of the following has male and female flowers on different plants :

  1. Ranunculus
  2. Carrica papaya
  3. Caesalpinia
  4. Cotton.

Answer: 2. Carrica papaya

Question 46. The term tetradynamous is applied when there are :

  1. 6-Stamens-2 long and 4 shorl
  2. 4 Stamens-2 long and 2 short
  3. 6 Stamens-2 short in the outer whorl and 4 long in the inner whorl
  4. 6 Stamens-2 short and 4 long

Answer: 3. 6 Stamens-2 short in the outer whorl and 4 long in the inner whorl

Question 47. The vexillum, wings, and keel in pea flowers constitute :

  1. Calyx
  2. Corolla
  3. Androecium
  4. Gynaecium.

Answer: 2. Corolla

NEET Questions Morphology Of Flowering Plants Question 48. Staminodes are found in :

  1. Malvaceae
  2. Liliaceae
  3. Caesalpinoideae
  4. Mimosoideae.

Answer: 3. Caesalpinoideae

Question 49. A monoecious anther is :

  1. A sterile stamen
  2. A stamen with two lobes
  3. Another with one lobe
  4. Fused in all parts.

Answer: 3. Anther with one lobe

Question 50. A stalk-bearing androecium and gynoecium are called :

  1. Anthropocene
  2. Andropore
  3. Sporangiophore
  4. Gynandrophore.

Answer: 4. Gynandrophore.

Question 51. What is the technical term used for a sterile stamen?

  1. Spur
  2. Staminode
  3. Stallion
  4. Staminate.

Answer: 2. Staminode

NEET Questions Morphology Of Flowering Plants Question 52. Glumes are modified :

  1. Leaves
  2. Bracts
  3. Calyx
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Bracts

Question 53. Anemophilous Plants have :

  1. Small petals and stick pollen
  2. No petals and light pollen
  3. Colored petals and large pollen
  4. Colored petals and heavy pollen.

Answer: 2. No petals and light pollen

Question 54. Diadelphous condition is present on :

  1. Citrus
  2. Bombyx
  3. Pisum
  4. Brassica.

Answer: 3. Pisum

Question 55. Number of female flowers in a cyathium is :

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. Several.

Answer: 1. 1

Question 56. Cleistogamous flowers are found in :

  1. Ficus bengalensis
  2. Commelina benghalensis
  3. Adina portfolio
  4. Anthoc ephalus cadamba.

Answer: 2. Commelina benghalensis

Question 57. The inflorescence in the family Compositae is :

  1. Capitulum
  2. Spadix
  3. Umbel
  4. Catkin.

Answer: 1. Capitulum

Question 58. Superficial placentation is seen in :

  1. Cosmos
  2. Calotropis
  3. Nymphaea
  4. Brassica.

Answer: 3. Nymphaea

Morphology of Flowering Plants MCQ With Answers Question 59. Spadix inflorescence occurs in :

  1. Mulberry
  2. Banana
  3. Coriander
  4. Delonix.

Answer: 2. Banana

Question 60. The ovule is attached to the funiculus at the point called :

  1. Pedicel
  2. Petiole
  3. Anthropocene
  4. Hilum.

Answer: 4. Hilum.

Question 61. When stamens are adnate to perianth leaves it is known AS:

  1. Episepalous
  2. Epipetalous
  3. Gynandrous
  4. Epiphyllous.

Answer: 4. Epiphyllous.

Question 62. The longest stigma is found in :

  1. Zea mays
  2. Dioscorea
  3. Date palm
  4. Bamboo.

Answer: 1. Zea mays

Question 63. A flower is said to be actinomorphic if it can be divided in two :

  1. Similar halves by a single vertical section.
  2. Exactly equal halves by any vertical section through the center
  3. Halves having sepals and petals in equal numbers
  4. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’.

Answer: 2. Exactly equal halves by any vertical section through the center

Morphology of Flowering Plants MCQ With Answers Question 64. Perianth is found in a flower in which :

  1. Calyx and corolla are not distinguishable
  2. Stamens are leaf-like
  3. Corolla is leaf-like but calyx is coloured
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Corolla is leaf-like but calyx is coloured

Question 65. Hypanthodium is :

  1. Thalamus
  2. Fruit
  3. Inflorescence
  4. Ovary.

Answer: 3. Inflorescence

Question 66. Persistent calyx forms a dry bladder-like enclosing edible berry in :

  1. Nicotiana
  2. Solanum
  3. Physalis
  4. Capsicum.

Answer: 3. Physalis

Question 67. The colored structures associated with the flowers of Poinsettia (dogwood) are :

  1. Petals
  2. Bracts
  3. Perianth
  4. Carpels.

Answer: 2. Bracts

Question 68. A bisexual flower that never opens in its lifespan is called:

  1. Heterogamous
  2. Homogamous
  3. Cleistogamous
  4. Dichogamous.

Answer: 3. Cleistogamous

Question 69. Hypanthodium inflorescence is found in :

  1. Coriander
  2. Sunflower
  3. Cauliflower
  4. Fig.

Answer: 4. Fig.

Question 70. Stamens with free anthers but filaments fused into several groups are:

  1. Polyadelphous
  2. Diadelphous
  3. Monadelphous
  4. Syngenesious

Answer: 1. Polyadelphous

Question 71. In the flowering plants, angiosperms, an ovule represents:

  1. Megasporophyll
  2. Megasporangium
  3. A megaspore
  4. A megaspore mother cell.

Answer: 2. Megasporangium

Morphology of Flowering Plants MCQ With Answers Question 72. An orthotropous ovule is one in which the micropyle and chalazaarc’.

  1. Oblique of funiculus
  2. At the right angle to the funiculus
  3. Parallel to funiculus
  4. In the straight line of funiculus.

Answer: 4. In the straight line of funiculus.

Question 73. Pappus is a modification of :

  1. Calyx
  2. Corolla
  3. Stamens
  4. Gynoecium.

Answer: 1. Calyx

Question 74. Gynandrophore is found in:

  1. Malverstrum
  2. Brassica campestris
  3. Gynadropsis
  4. Allium cepa.

Answer: 3. Gynadropsis

Question 75. Diadelphous slamens occur in :

  1. Gramineae
  2. Cucurbitaceae
  3. Papilionatae
  4. Malvaceae.

Answer: 4. Malvaceae.

Question 76. Synandrous refers to the fusion of:

  1. Filaments only
  2. Anthers only
  3. Filaments and anthers
  4. Anthers and gynoecium.

Answer: 3. Filaments and anthers

Question 77. In synanthropic condition :

  1. Anthers of a flower are fused but the filaments are free
  2. Filaments of androecium are used but anthers are free
  3. Filaments and anthers are fused
  4. Anthers filaments and gynoecium are fused.

Answer: 1. Anthers of a flower are fused but the filaments are free

Question 78. In a flowering plant the largest number of haploid cells occur in :

  1. Ovule
  2. Microsporangia
  3. Root tip
  4. Cambium.

Answer: 2. Microsporangia

Question 79. Which of the following is a polycarpic plant?

  1. Pea
  2. Agave
  3. Pear
  4. Bamboo.
  5. Agave

Answer: 3. Bamboo.

Question 80. Syngenesious condition is found in :

  1. Acacia
  2. Peruniu
  3. Sunflower
  4. Hibiscus.

Answer: 3. Sunflower