NEET Biology

NEET Biology Plant Kingdom Bryophyta Characters

Bryophyla Gk. Bryon = moss +pliyton = plants are also called “Amphibious plants or kingdom Plantae”.

Tlicse are liverworts, mosses, and hornworts which collectively constitute a group of vascular plants. About 25,000 species of liverworts and mosses are known.

1. The plants represent two morphologically distinct generations i.e. gametophytic and sporophytic.
2. The gametophytic phase is the dominant phase of the cycle and in general plant body term is used for this phase.
3. The plant body in primitive forms like Riccia and Marchantia is thalloid but mosses like Funaria. it may be differentiated into rhizoids, stems, and leaves.
4. The thalli of Riccia and Marchantia are attached to the substratum by unicellular, unbranched rhizoids, which may be smooth-walled or tuberculated but in mosses like Funaria, rhizoids are branched, multicellular, and obliquely septate.
5. The plant body is made up of simple thin-walled parenchymatous cells. The xylem, phloem (vascular tissue), and mechanical tissue (sclerenchyma, etc.) are altogether lacking in bryophytes.
6. Bryophytes are found in moist places due to the following reasons:
7. In the absence of true roots, cells can absorb water directly from the ground or atmosphere.
8. Biflagellate sperms of bryophytes need water for their movement to reach
   the archegonium (female sex organ) for fertilization.
9. Mosses seldom reach heights. Funaria is 1-3 cm in height. They rarely grow more than 15 cm in height. The tallest species of Moss has been reported from New Zealand having a size of 60 cm.
10. Vegetative propagation. They have a very good power of regeneration.
11. Sexual reproduction. Bryophytes have evolved a life cycle that comprises two phases gametophyte (IN) and sporophyte (2N). The conspicuous stage in the life cycle is gametophyte which may be thallus, liver-like as in liverworts, or leafy as in mosses.

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Bryophyta NEET Notes

Vegetative reproduction occurs by:

1. Progressive death and decay of thallus
2. Adventitious buds
3. Persistent apices
4. Tubers
5. Gemmae
6. Bulbils
7. Protonema

Gametophytes

1. At maturity, the gametophytes are nutritionally independent, while sporophytes are dependent upon as well as being permanently attached to gametophytes.
2. Bryophytes reproduce vegetatively by tubers, gemmae, fragmentation, etc.
3. The male sex organ is called the antheridium.
4. Antheridium is made up of a mass of astrocytes enclosed by the sterile jacket.
5. Each astrocyte gives rise to biflagellate sperms (male gamete).
6. Sexual reproduction is of the oogamous type
7. The female sex organ is called archegonium.
8. Each archegonium is a multicellular flask-shaped structure. Its lower dilated, swollen part is called the venter and its slender, elongated upper part is called the neck.
9. Sex organs antheridium and archegonium are multicellular and jacketed.
10. The venter encloses the egg (female gamete) and venter canal cell. The neck encloses a row of neck canal cells.
11. The syngamy (fertilization) takes place in water. The sperms swim in the water to reach the archegonium. One of the sperm fuses with an egg to form a diploid zygote.
12. The zygote undergoes continuous divisions without undergoing any resting period
13. The developing embryo is retained inside the center, where it finally develops into sporogonium.
14. The sporophytes (sporogonia) are partially or completely dependent upon gametophytes.
15. The sporogonium is usually differentiated into foot, seta, and capsule.
16. In Riccia foot and seta are absent. The capsule is embedded in the thallus. In Riccia even the sex organs are found inside the thallus.
17. In capsule, meiosis occurs in spore mother cells to form haploid spores.
18. The spores are homosporous i.e. only of one type- the young gametophyte.
19. Haploid spores, after dispersal from the capsule, may germinate either directly into gametophytic thallus (Riccia, Marchantia, or may form filamentous protonema which bears adventitious buds to give rise to leafy paint (gametophore)

Bryophyta NEET Study Material

Alternation of generations.

1. Bryophytes exhibit a distinct and heteromorphic alternation of generations in which two phases gametophytic and sporophytic follow each other in regular sequences.
2. The first phase is gametophyte which produces male and female gametes (i.e. antheridium and archegonium).
3. The sporophyte phase starts immediately after fertilization of egg and sperm with the formation of a diploid zygote.
4. The zygote forms a diploid multicellular sporogonium which is usually differentiated into foot, seta, and capsule (moss).
5. Haploid spores are formed after meiosis. Thus spore is the first cell of the gametophytic generation.
6. The spore germinates to give rise to the plant body (haploid) directly or after protonema formation.
7. Because a gametophytic stage alternates with a sporophytic stage, a clear alternation of generations is present which is of a heteromorphic type
8. Bryophytes are considered more advanced than green algae as they represent a multicellular sporophytic generation.

NEET Biology Plant Kingdom Bryophyta Funaria

It is a moss located in damp and shaded environments. The primary plant is part of the gametophytic generation, characterized by a leafy gametophore. It originates from the lateral bud of the protonema, which signifies the juvenile stage.

• The plant possesses rhizoids, cauloid stem-like structures, and phylloid leaf-like structures. Leaves are green and produce food through photosynthesis. The stem has inadequate branching, with lateral branches present.
• Vegetative reproduction occurs by the fragmentation of leafy gametophores, protonema, and secondary protonema, among other methods. The plant is monoecious, possessing male reproductive organs at the apex of the male branch and female reproductive organs at the apex of the female branch.
• The male branch tip is enveloped by peritoneal leaves and exhibits a rosette-like morphology. The female branch of Perichaetia exhibits leaves with a bud-like appearance; this aspect is unsightly, as both sexes are located on separate branches.
• Antheridia are club-shaped and interspersed with green, unbranched filamentous filaments known as paraphysis.
• A single antheridium produces a substantial quantity of motile, biflagellate, curved-body antherozoids.
• Archegonia are flask-shaped formations. They also alternate with paraphyses that possess the same structure and function.
• A solitary archegonium possesses a contorted neck, comprising 6-10 neck canal cells, a distended venter containing a single oosphere, and a venter canal cell.
• Antherozoids navigate through the water to reach the archegonium, guided chemotactically by sucrose, enter the neck, and fuse their nucleus with the oosphere to form an oospore (2N).

Bryophyta NEET Question Bank

Oospore divides mitotically to produce sporogonium having foot, seta, and capsule. 1 Capsule has apophysis, theca, and operculum.

• Sporogonium has green cells so it is partially Aa—1 dependent on the gametophyte.
• The spore sac in theca part has spore mother cells (2N) which by meiosis produce haploid spores. The peristome (32 teeth in two whorls) helps in spore liberation.
• A single spore on a suitable substratum produces primary protonema.
• Thus in the life cycle of Funaria, there are two distinct generations. One of these is a haploid independent leafy moss plant, the other is a diploid sporophyte.
• The two alternate with each other, it is called heteromorphic Alternation of Generations and the life cycle is diplohaplontic.

Liver worts

• The protonema stage is absent.
• Vascular tissues as well as conducting tissues are absent.
• Liverworts have unicellular rhizoids instead of roots.
• The plant body of liverworts shows dichotomous branching.
• The plant body possesses scales or amphigastria for retaining moisture and protection.
• Capsule possesses elaters for dehiscence.
• The capsule is devoid of any assimilatory tissue, columella, and peristome.
• The capsule is the fertile part of sporogonium
• Sporogonium may or may not show distinction into the foot, seta, and capsule

Mosses

• They possess a juvenile filamentous stage called protonema.
• Multicellular rhizoids are present instead of roots.
• Sporogonium is differentiated into foot, seta, and capsule.
• Capsule has abundant assimilatory tissue and columella.
• Capsule produces haploid spores.
• In mosses elaters are absent.
• Moss plant develops on protonema as buds.
• Moss leaves [phylloids] may have non-vascular midribs.

Economic importance

The peat deposits of Sphagnum, an aquatic moss, are harvested in blocks, desiccated, and utilized as fuel due to their exceptional absorptive capabilities and antiseptic attributes.

• Sphagnum is utilized for wound dressing. Sphagnum, owing to its water-retention capacity, is utilized for packaging plants and cut flowers destined for distant locations.
• Gardeners utilize this moss for vegetative proliferation during layering and similar techniques. Peat holds significant value for agriculturalists. Its incorporation into clayey soils enhances the soil’s texture.
• Peattar, ammonia, and paraffin are some of the byproducts of peat. It is an excellent soil enhancer, it occupies ponds, pools, etc., and ultimately, due to its rampant proliferation, they get filled.
• The debris is progressively transformed into solid earth. Sphagnum in the pools resembles soil and is therefore referred to as quaking bogs.
• Bryophytes have a significant role in soil erosion prevention. The expansive carpets or mats they create stabilize the soil, so preventing erosion.
• Function in ecological succession. The Moss stage is the second phase of biological succession on bare rock, gradually transforming the rock substrate into rich soil.
• Wetlands. Sphagnum peat mosses proliferate swiftly in shallow waterways, creating dense mats on the water’s surface. They provide a deceptive semblance of solidity, resulting in the drowning of both animals and humans.
• Cuisine. Mosses serve as sustenance for several small creatures. Certain avian species, such as GrouseChicken, consume the capsules of Bryum and Polytrichum.

Apophysis It is a sterile and photosynthetic lower part of the capsule. Paraphysis are sterile structures present in archegonia and antheridia Analogous structures are those which are functionally similar but genetically different.

• The leaves and stem of Funaria are functionally similar to the leaves and stem of angiosperms but genetically different.
• Perichaetial leaves whorl of leaves surrounding archegonia.
• Perigonial leaves. A whorl of leaves surrounding antheridia.
• Homosporous. Morphological meiospores in bryophytes are of one kind. This condition is called Homosporous.
• Heteromorphic alternation of generations. When the gametophyte and the sporophyte of the same plant are completely different in size and shape, that is called heteromorphic alternation of generations or heterologous type of alternation of generations.
• Columella is a sterile structure present in the capsule of Funaria surrounded by a spore sac in theca region.
• Cauloid and PhyllokL The stem and leaf-life organs of bryophytes are generally called as cauloid and phylloid respectively as there is the complete absence of vascular tissue and these are gametophytic structures. ChJorenema or Caulanema. The colored branches of protonema are called chlorine or caulanema Cauloid. Stem-like structure of moss is called cauloid.

Bryophyta NEET Question Bank

NEET Biology Plant Kingdom Bryophyta Quanta To Memory

• In the Bryophyte’s life cycle, the dominant phase is a gametophyte because the main plant body is gametophytic and dominant.
• In Bryophytes meiosis occurs in diploid spore mother cells.
• A goldmine of liverworts is in the western Himalayas.
• True mosses Funaria (cord moss),Sphagnum (Peat or Bog or Turf mosses) Polytrichum (Hair cap moss) Pogonatum (Maiden hair moss) Tortula (Twisted moss).
• Fossil bryophytes have been recorded from tertiary beds in the Cenozoic era Example Mucorales, and Jungermanniales.
• Outer, larger peristome teeth are hygroscopic in nature and inner, smaller are non-hygroscopic.
• Elaters are hygroscopic because of peculiar thickening and their movements loosen the spore masses which are discharged and dispersed by air.
• Sphagnum is commonly called bog moss peat moss or turf moss as it can convert into bogs because of its creeping nature.
• It is true moss. With this development the water of bogs becomes acidic (pH 3.7 or lower), followed by compression from plants on the top leading to the development of dark-colored peat which can be used as fuel on drying.
• The sporophytic stage of bryophytes is generally made up of foot, seta, and capsule and Ricca (a liverwort) has only capsule.
• Sphagonal used is for skin disorders extracted from Sphagnum.
• Elaters exhibit xerochasy.
• Funaria is also known as cord moss.
• A capsule of Marchantia forms about 3,000,000 spores.
• Pogonatum sporogonium is without apophysis.
• The flat roof of the columella is called the epiphragm.
• The central sterile column of the capsule is called the columella.
• Bryophytes are non-vascular plants with multicellular sex organs.
• An erect gametophyte of bryophyte is called a gametophore.
• Sterile hairs mixed with sex organs are called paraphyses.
• The most complete fossil among Bryophytes -Naiadita lanceolate
• Leaves of funaria are one cell thick In moss capsule peristome teeth are 32 and arranged in two rows.
• Synoicous—Bryophytes in which male and female sex organs are intermixed on the same plant.
• More stomata are present in apophysis, less in theca, and are absent in operculum.
• In bryophytes, rhizoids are mostly tuberculate and may be smooth, (eg. Riccia)
• In Funaria after fertilization the female branch becomes erect and the male branch is hence pushed to a side.
• In Hepaticeae the sex organs are embedded in thallus.
• Antheridia and archegonia are enclosed by multicellular sterile jackets.
• In T. S. the stem shows a continued strand in the center outside which lies the cortex.
• Outer layers of the cortex have chloroplast.
• Leaves of Funaria are sessile and are analogous to real leaves of higher plants.
• Rhizoids of Funaria are non-green and help in vegetative reproduction.
• Paraphysis are unbranched, green multicellular thread¬ structure intermixed with antheridia and archegonia.
• The paraphysis of the male branch is knobbed and the female branch is not pointed.
• Paraphysis prepares food and absorbs water for sex organs.
• The Epidermis of the apophysis of the capsule is provided with stomata.
• Capsule is a partial parasite on gametophytes. Hypodermis is 2 cells thick.
• Just below the lid or operculum, a perforate disc of thin-walled cells extends from the epidermis to the columella called as diaphragm.

Bryophyta NEET Mcqs

NEET Biology Plant Kingdom Bryophyta Questions From Competitive Examinations

Question 1. Female sex organs of bryophytes are called:

1. Oogonia
2. Ascogonia
3. Archegonia
4. Antheridia.

Answer: 3. Archegonia

Question 2. The term bryophyta was coined by:

1. Iyengar
2. Linnaeus
3. Braun
4. Bentham.

Answer: 3. Braun

Question 3. Apopliysis occurs in:

1. Marchantia
2. Pteridium
3. Apocyanaceae
4. Mosses.

Answer: 4. Mosses.

Question 4. Moss sporophyte does not possess:

1. Flaters
2. Seta
3. Foot
4. Columella.

Answer: 1. Flaters

Question 5. Thallus of riccia is :

1. Haploid
2. Diploid
3. Triploid
4. Tetraploid.

Answer: 1. Haploid

Bryophyta NEET Exam Preparation

Question 6. Bryophytes have :

1. Archegonia
2. Dominant gametophytic and parasitic sporophytic phases
3. Thalloid plant body
4. A11 the above.

Answer: 4. A11 the above.

Question 7. In funeral, calyptra is formed from :

1. Capsule
2. Archegonium
3. Columella
4. Antheridium.

Answer: 2. Archegonium

Question 8. In bryophytes, the adult plant body is :

1. Epiphyte
2. Sporophyte
3. Gametophyte
4. Sporophyll.

Answer: 3. Gametophyte

Question 9. Which of the following pair of plants is not a seed producer?

1. Funaria and ficus
2. Funaria and fern
3. Puccinia and pinus
4. Ficus and chlamydomonas.

Choose the wrong pair :

1. Heapiicopsida – Marchantia
2. Lycopsida – selaginella
3. Bryopsida – anthoceros
4. Pteropsida – dryopteris
5. Sphenopsida – equisetum.

Answer: 2. Lycopsida – selaginella

Question 10. Archegoniophore is present in :

1. Marchantia
2. Chara
3. Adiantum
4. Funaria.

Answer: 3. Adiantum

Bryophyta NEET Exam Preparation

Question 11. Read the following statements and answer the question which follows them.

1. In liverworts, mosses, and fems gametophytes are free-living
2. Gymnosperms and some fems are hetero sperms and some fems are heterosporous
3. Sexual reproduction is in focus, volvox and Albugo are oogamous
4. The sporophyte in liverworts is more elaborate than that in mosses
5. Both pinus and Marchantia are dioecious

Answer: 1. In liverworts, mosses, and fems gametophytes are free-living

Question 12. How many of the above statements are correct?

1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. One

Answer: 2. Three

NEET Biology Kingdom Fungi Features Of Fungi

This division comprises more than 100,000 species of fungi and has representation in almost every available habitat on earth and many fungi are of major economic or medical significance to man.

1. They are composed of moulds, yeast, mushrooms, puffballs and toadstools.
2. Fungi are found in almost all types of habitats. Many species of phycomycetes are found in water and are called aquatic fungi.
3. Fungi are well adapted to the environment and nutrition. They grow in a wide range of temperatures and pH.
4. Psychrophilic fungi grow at and below freezing point while thermophilic fungi remain viable even at 62°C.
5. Most of the fungi grow well in acidic pH between 5 — 6-5 pH. Light is generally not essential for the growth of fungi.
6. The fungi are achlorophyllous non-vascular thallophytes.
7. Their mode of nutrition is either saprophytic, parasitic or symbiotic.
8. 5 Fungi are dimorphic. Some pathogenic fungi of humans and other animals have a unicellular and yeast-like form in their hosts but when they grow saprobically in the soil they have filamentous bodies Example Blastomyces dermatitis.
9. The thallus is very simple and may be unicellular (yeast ) or consists of a network of hyphae called mycelium. The mycelium may be aseptate and coenocytic (Rhizopus) or septate as in Penicillium, Agaricus etc.
10. The reserve food material is in the form of glycogen and oil droplets.
11. Their mode of reproduction is vegetative by fragmentation, and asexual by formation of conidia, oidia, zoospores and chlamydospores.
12. Sexual reproduction is oogamous in lower forms (Phycomycetes, Ascomycetes), by somatogamy in higher forms (Basidiomycetes) and is absent in deuteromycetes. So fungi show a reduction in sexuality.

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Kingdom Fungi NEET Notes

Sexual reproduction transpires through isogamy, anisogamy, heterogamy, gametangial contact, gametangial copulation, spermatization, and somatogamy. Somatogamy can be classified as pseudogamous, monogamous, or adelphogamous.

Three mycelial phases exist—dikaryotic, diploid, and haploid—due to distinct nuclear processes: plasmogamy, karyogamy, and meiosis.

NEET Biology Kingdom Fungi Classification Of Fungi

NEET Biology Kingdom Fungi Oomycota

This group includes fungi with aseptate mycelium. These are lower fungi. This group is further divided into phycomycetes and zygomycetes. Phycomyceles. = Oomycetes = Algal fungi = Egg fungi.

They are popularly called algal fungi because they bear a striking resemblance to some algae ( Vaucheria) in the morphology of the thallus. The thallus ranges from unicellular to a profusely branched filamentous mycelium which is coenocytic.

Asexual reproduction takes place by sporangiospores equivalent to conidia often called conidiosporangia. Sexual reproduction is mainly by gametangia contact when present is isogamous or heterogamous.

Karyogamy generally follows plasmogamy so there is no dikaryophase in the life cycle. Common examples are black moulds, pink moulds, white rust, Phytophthora and downy mildews. Zygomycetes (conjugation fungi)

1. These are saprophytic or parasitic fungi and can be grown on a culture medium.
2. During life history a diploid resting spore called zygospore is produced by conjugation, hence the name of the group is zygomycetes.
3. Mycelium is coenocytic.
4. Hyphae are non-septate and haploid.
5. Hyphae produce aerial branches called sporangiophores bearing sporangia at the tip of hyphae which produces non-motile spores.

1. Squinting Fungus.

Pilobolus crystallinus is a coprophilous or dung mould.

2. Rhizopus and Mucor.

Bread Mould (Rhizopus stolonifer) Rhizopus is a saprophytic fungus. Mycelium is made up of rhizoidal hyphae meant for attachment and absorption of food and water, stoloniferous hyphae which bear at nodes vertically a group of aerial hyphae called sporangiophores.

Hyphae are aseptate and coenocytic. It has many nuclei and reserves food in the form of oil and glycogen.

• The life cycle is of Haplontic type.
• Vegetative reproduction by fragmentation.
• Asexual reproduction. Under favourable conditions, sporangia is borne on sporangiophores.

Each sporangium has a central dome-shaped columella and many multinucleate sporangiospores. Sporangiospore on dispersal to other substratum again produces new mycelium.

Kingdom Fungi NEET Study Material

Sexual reproduction. It occurs at the end of the growing season under unfavourable conditions. Sexual reproduction employs the conjugation of two gametangia resulting in the formation of azygospore.

Zygospore (2N) is the only diploid structure zygospore wall breaks so there is the formation of promycelium. Then a germ sporangium develops at the tip of the promycelium. This germ sporangium develops uninucleate haploid meiospores known as germ spores. So life cycle is haplontic.

NEET Biology Kingdom Fungi Eumycota

Ascomycetes. They are also called Sac fungi characterised by the presence of ascus in which usually 8 ascospores are produced. Many asci are grouped to form a fructification called ascocarp which is of 4 types viz.

Cleistothecium (closed ) Example Penicillium

Apothecium ( open cup-shaped ) Example Peziza and

Perithecium (flask-shaped) with pore called ostiole Example Clavicepspurpurea.

Ascostroma – cushion-like and chambered, locules separated by stroma and having asci. Yeast ( Saccharomyces cerevisiae).

It is commonly employed in bread making and beer brewing and is also called brewer’s or baker’s yeast. It is unicellular ascomycetes.

It consists of a mass of protoplast surrounded by a cell wall. The protoplast has stored foods in the form of glycogen, fat and volutin granules.

The nucleus is situated on one side of the vacuole. Asexual reproduction is by budding and fission Example A small protuberance arises which gradually increases in size.

It is known as bud. Meanwhile, the nucleus of the mother cell divides mitotically and migrates into an enlarged bud.

In this way, a large number, of buds are formed in a chain. Sexual reproduction is by conjugation of two yeast cells.

Yeast may be homothallic or heterothallic. The diploid cell may multiply by budding or it may produce ascospores. There are two stages, haploid and diploid which regularly alternate with each other.

So in Saccharomyces cerevisiae, the life cycle is the haplodiplontic type and haplontic in Schizosaccharomyces homosporous and diplontic Example Saccharomycodes Ludwig. Yeasts are used in baking, as food and in the alcohol industry.

Basidiomycetes. These are also called club fungi (due to Basidium) characterised by the presence of complicated fruiting bodies called basidiocarps. They bear reproductive structures called basidia.

Each basidium produces four basidiospores exogenously. The common examples are the smuts, rusts, the toadstools and puffballs. Mushroom.

Agaricus campestris is the most common form of mushroom which being edible is also cultivated. In Punjab, it is called Dhingari. Basidiospores are produced in a reproductive structure called basidiocarp which is differentiated into a stalk called a stipe and a cap-like structure called pileus.

Basidiospores germinate to form primary mycelium which is of short duration.

Then there is somatogamy in two different strains resulting in the formation of dikaryotic mycelium. On the mycelium are produced ring fruiting bodies (basidiocarps) also called fairy rings.

In each basidiocarp are produced club-shaped basidia in hymenium layers of gills which are present in pileus. Gills bear numerous basidia and paraphyses. Each basidium is club-shaped and produces four basidiospores exogenously, basidiospores are borne on stalk-like structures called sterigmata.

Kingdom Fungi NEET Question Bank

Basidiospores on dispersal again produce haploid or monokaryotic primary mycelium. Thus completing the life cycle in which there is a monokaryotic phase (primary mycelium) eukaryotic phase, and diplophase (only represented by basidium). Deuteromycetes.

These are also called “ Fungi Imperfecti” as the sexual stage is not found. The conidial stage is similar to the conidial stage of ascomycetes.

The fungi of this class cause many diseases of plants Example Colletotrichumfalcatum causes red rot of sugarcane. Deuteromycetes, Helminthosporium, Alternarici, Fusarium.

NEET Biology Kingdom Fungi Useful Terms

Clamp Connection. It is a small looped hypha which develops at the time of cell division and septa formation in the dikaryon of basidiomycetous fungus.

Cleistothecium. Closed ascocarp is termed cleistothecium. Eucarpic. When only a part of the thallus is used for the formation of reproductive bodies.

Holocarpic. Cells which is completely converted into reproductive structures. Dolipore septum. It is a complex pore in the septum of the hypha of a basidiomycetous fungus.

Diplanctism. The successive production of two different types of zoospores by a single fungal organism is termed as diplanetism Example Saprolegnia.

Mycobiont. Fungus partner of lichen. Parasexuality.

It was first reported by Pontecarvo and Roper in 1952 in Aspergillus nidulans and the imperfect stage of Einericella nidulans. Some fungi have genetic recombination of a type which is different from the normal sexual type. This other than sexual mode of reproduction is called parasexuality.

Predaceous fungi. These are animal trapping Examples Dactylella, and Arthrobotrys (belong to deuteromycetes). They capture small insects such as eelworms, rotifers, and protozoans and use them as food Rust. Fungal genera of Uredinales cause dark spots on the stems and leaves of hosts, for example, Puccinia.

Smut. Fungal genera of Ustilaginales produce a large number of black dusty spores (chlamydospores), ExampleUstilago.

Zygospores. These are thick-walled spores of zygomycetous fungi formed after the fusion of two gametangia.

Plectenchyma. When the mycelium gets organised into loosely or compacdy woven tissue-like structures.

Pseudoparenchyma. Mycelium in which the hyphae are very closely packed to lose their identity.

Perithecium A type of ascocarp which is flask-shaped and bears a pore through which ascospores are discharged, for Example, neurospora or cells. Somatogamy Fusion of two somatic hyphae.

Heterothallism. It was discovered by A.I. Blakeslee. He found two types of species in Mucorales and designated them as homothallic and heterothallic types.

In homothallic species, a zygospore is formed by conjugation of hyphae produced from a single mycelium Example R.sexualis. In the heterothallic species Example, R. stolonifer zygospore is not formed if two hyphae are produced from a single mycelium.

In these species, sexual union occurs only between two different mycelia considered as (+) and (-) strains. (+) and (-) strains are alike morphologically but differ physiologically. This is known as heterothallism.

The heterothallism may be morphological or physiological. Heterothallic fungi may be bipolar or tetrapolar. In bipolar species, there is only one pair of compatibility factors whereas in tetrapolar species there are two pairs of genetic factors.

Heterothalism is a device to prevent inbreeding and promote outbreeding. The haploid fungi reproduce asexually by producing a large number of mitospores. These spores germinate and give rise to new individuals.

All these individuals are genetically identical as they are formed from the same parent fungus by mitosis.

Kingdom Fungi NEET Mcqs

Sexual reproduction involves the fusion of gametes and meiosis. Homothallic species reproduce sexually by fusion of gametes produced from two gametangia having almost similar genetic constituents (i.e., inbreeding) and, therefore, have fewer chances of genetic variation among the offspring.

Heterothallic species, on the other hand, ensure a combination of two gametes belonging to genetically different individuals (i.e., outbreeding) which results in greater genetic variation among the offspring so that they can withstand abnormal environmental conditions and adapt themselves in different substrata. Therefore, heterothallism is a device to prevent inbreeding and promote outbreeding.

NEET Biology Kingdom Fungi Economic Importance Of Fung

1. As Food, Yeast is used because it contains about 50% protein. Yeast protein is called single-cell protein.
2. Agaricus bisporous, Volvaria and Lentinus elodus are some edible mushrooms.
3. Research Tools. Neurospora and Physarum are used in several genetics and biochemistry experiments.
4. Antibiotics. Penicillin ( from Penicillium nolatum and P. chrysogenum), and griseofulvin ( from Penicillium griseofulvum), are some antibiotics obtained from fungi).
5. Acids. Several organic acids are produced from species of Rliizopus, Aspergillus, Mucor, etc.
6. Hormones. Gibberellin is obtained from Giberellafujikuroi.
7. Vitamins. Saccharomyces cerevisiae and other yeasts are good sources of vitamin B- ) complex and riboflavin.
8. Spoilage of food grains. Rliizopus, Mucor, Aspergillus, Penicillium, etc. are spoiling agents of food grains, fruits etc.
   • Poisonous fungi. Amanita phalloides, A. verna and Boletus satavus are highly poisonous fungi. Coprinus, Psilocybe and Incocybe are also poisonous. Amanitaphalloides is called “Death cup”.
9. Some fungi are extremely poisonous. For example- Amanita phalloides (death cup) produces poisonous toxins like a-amanitin, phalloidin, etc., which stop the synthesis of mRNA.
   • Sclerotia of the fungus Claviceps purpurea contains many poisonous alkaloids which cause poisoning in human beings. The acute condition of such poisoning is called ‘St. Anthony’s fire’, Helvetia (saddle fungus) is a poisonous cup fungus and can be fatal if consumed.
10. Toxins and aflatoxins. Amanitaphalloides, A. vema, Clavicepspurpurea, Aspergillus flavus, etc. produce toxins and aflatoxins.
    • Some fungi contaminate our food and secrete toxins. These toxins are called mycotoxins. They are very harmful and cause illness when such contaminated food is consumed. Some of the important mycotoxins are.
    • Aflatoxins are produced by Aspergillusflavus and related strains. Some of these are carcinogenic.
    • Amatoxins and Phallotoxins are produced by the mushroom- Amanita phalloides (death cup).
    • Coprine is produced by the edible mushroom Coprinus atramentanius.
    • Ochratoxins are produced by Aspergillus ochraceus and Penicillium viridicatum.
    • Trichothecenes are produced by species of Fusarium, Cephalosporium, Trichoderma, etc.
    • Zearalenone is produced by species of Fusarium.
11. Hallucinogenic drugs. Psilocybe mexicana, Amanita in sharia, Incocybe, etc. are some fungi which produce some hallucinogenic drugs, responsible for nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, and even death. LSD is obtained from fungus, Claviceps purpurea.
12. Lichens used in medicines. Jaundice, hydrophobia, lung diseases.
    • Lichens as a source of dyes
    • Other uses
    • Nitrogen fixation by yeasts like Saccharomyces and Rhodotorula
    • Production of latex by Mycena galopus.
    • Soil building by Rhizopus, Cladosporium, Aspergillus etc.
    • Along with bacteria, fungi work as decomposers.
    • Biological control of growth of hyperparasites like insects, nematodes, bacteria and even other fungi.
    • Neurospora is good research material for geneticists and Physarum for molecular biologists for the study of DNA.

NEET Biology Kingdom Fungi Lichens

Lichens are a distinct assemblage of intriguing organisms that coexist with mosses on tree trunks and rocks. Lichen is a symbiotic relationship between a fungus and an alga.

• The fungal element is referred to as mycobiont, whereas the algal element is termed phycobiont.
• Lichen is a symbiotic relationship between algae and fungi, with the algae potentially being blue-green or green in color.
• Algae synthesize food from carbon dioxide and water, whereas fungi assimilate water and minerals.
• Lichens are fundamentally categorized into three types: Crustose lichens. The thallus is planar and creates a crust on rock, exemplified by Graphic scripta, Haemotoma puniceum, Lecanora, and Rhizocarpon.
• Foliose lichens are broad and leaf-like, exhibiting lobed structures; examples include Parmelia, Xanthoria, and Physcia. Fruticose lichens.
• They exhibit extensive branching akin to shrubs and are affixed to the substrate via a disc. The branches produce reproductive structures known as apothecia. Usnea, Cladonia exemplars.
• Asexual reproduction occurs by the use of soredia. Lichens serve as markers of atmospheric pollution.
• Certain lichens are used in pharmaceuticals and as sustenance. Lichens are crucial in soil formation, facilitating succession on a rock known as xerosere.

Old Classification of Lichens based on Habitat

1. Terricolous —Growing on soil Example Lecidea, Cladonia.Floerkeana
2. Saxiscolous —Growing on rocky substrata Examples Dermatocarpon, Porina, Xanthoria
3. Corticolous—Growing on wood bark Example Usnea, Parmelia.
4. Lignicolous — Developing on wood Example Cyphelium

NEET Biology Kingdom Fungi Economic Importance Of Lichens

1. Beneficial Activities
   • Early colonizer. Lichens are the pioneers of plant growth on bare rocks and are called first colonizers.
2. Soil builder.
   • The lichens are pioneers of vegetation in a lithosere ( succession on rocky surface). They bring about the biological weathering of rocks by forming acids such as carbonic acid, oxalic acid, etc., which leads to soil formation.
3. Food.
   • Some lichens are a valuable source of food for wild animals and cattle.
   • Cladonia rangiferina growing to a height of about 30 cm, in the arctic regions, serves as food for Reindeer, hence called ‘reindeer-moss’.
   • Certaria islandica is used as a food article in Iceland (hence called ‘Iceland moss’), Sweden and Norway.
   • Lecanora esculenta is used as food in Israel.
   • Enocarpon miniatum is used as a vegetable in Japan.
   • Umblicaria esculenta is used as food in Japan.
   • Parmelia, generally called rathapu in Telugu is used as a spice in curry (curry powder ) in South India and it is also used as a food, as well as in making chocolates and pastries.
   • Species of Stereocaulon and Evemia are also used as fodder.
4. Medicinal uses
   • Cladonia pyxidata is used in the treatment of whooping cough.
   • Pannelia permata is used in the treatment of snakebites.
   • Parmelia sexatilis is used in the treatment of epilepsy.
   • Lobaria purmelia is used in the treatment of lung diseases.
   • Evemia and Usnea are used in the treatment of haemorrhage
   • Usnea barbata is used in the treatment of urinary diseases.
   • Some species of Usnea and Cladonia are used to extract an antibiotic called usnic acid which has antibacterial activity and has proved very effective against tuberculosis when used in combination with streptomycin.
   • Peltigera and Black pepper are used in the treatment of rabies.
   • Peltigera canina is used in the treatment of hydrophobia and liver ailments.
   • Cetraria islandica is used in the treatment of diabetes and respiratory diseases.
   • Rocella montagnei is used in the treatment of angina.
   • Cladonia, Rocella and Evemia are used in controlling different types of fevers.
   • The protolichesterinic acid obtained from some lichens has anticarcinogenic properties.
5. Industrial uses
   • The lichens contain carbohydrates in the form of lichenin. Hence, they are used in producing alcohol in countries like Sweden and Russia.
   • Species of Evemia, Pseudomia, and Ramalina contain essential oils and hence they are used in the manufacture of soaps and perfumes. Besides, they also contain chemicals like geraniol, naphthalene, etc.
   • A red dye is obtained from the Ochrolechia species.
   • A brown dye is obtained from Parmelia species.
   • A dye orchill is prepared from Rocella tinctoria.
   • Another brilliant colouring dye is, cud-bear obtained from lichen species.
   • Litmus used as an acid-base indicator is obtained from Rocella Montagne and Lasallia pustulate.
   • Indicator of air pollution. Lichens act as an indicator of air pollution because no lichen can be found in areas of heavy industrial pollution. After all, lichens are sensitive to S02.
   • Njfixation. Lichens having blue-green algae are important in fixing nitrogen.
   • Chemicals. Some lichen yields important chemicals. For example:
   • Ramalina siliquosa yield salzinic acid.
   • Parmelia subtrudecta yield lecanoric acid.
   • Cladonia crispate yields squamatic acid.
   • Religious importance. Sweet-scented thalli of lichens like Evemia and Ramalina are used in the preparation of ‘ dhup’ and ‘hawan samagris’.

Kingdom Fungi NEET Exam Preparation Medium

Harmful Activities

1. Damaging buildings. In humid areas, lichen can grow on window panes, marble and cement damaging the building by their etching activity.
2. Poisonous. Some lichens are poisonous, such as Letharia vulpina due to vulpinic acid, Cetraria juniperina due to pinastrinic acid, Parmelia molluscum due to selenium, Xanthoria parietina due to beryllium and Evemiafutjuracea due to chlorine.
3. In deuteromycetes or fungi imperfectii sexual reproduction is absent or yet to be discovered.
4. A few important members of Deuteromycetes are :
   • Colletotrichumfalcatum causes red rot of sugarcane.
   • Helminthosporium oryzae causes brown leaf spot disease in rice.
   • Altemaria solani causes early blight disease of potato and tomato.
   • Cercospora personata causing tikka disease.
   • Fusarium oxysporium causing wilt disease.
   • Fusarium moniliforma causes balance disease of rice and releases gibberellins.

1. Fungal tissue is called plectenchyma which is formed due to well-organised hyphae either forming parallel called prosenchyma or giving the appearance of parenchyma of higher plants called pseudoparenchyma.
2. In liquid media, particularly in the presence of a high concentration of sugar the hyphae become segmented like in yeast called as torula stage.
3. Aflatoxins, a type of mycotoxin was discovered in 1961 in Aspergillusflavin and later on in many other members.
4. Morchella is morel or sponge mushroom and is highly-priced for their delicacies.
5. In 1845-1860 a million people died in Ireland alone due to the destruction of potato crops by Phytophthora infestans. This famine led to the discovery of plant pathology.
6. Most parasitic fungi are autoecious except rust. Puccinia is heteroecious as it requires two hosts after its life cycle, i.e. wheat (primary host) and barberry. (secondary host).
7. Thiamine (Vit. B) produced by Saccharomyces cerevisiae Riboflavin by Saccharomyces cerevisiae Vit B12 Eremothecum ashbyic YitaminsPhodatarala gracilis Keratimophilic Fungio Grown on nails, feathers, hairs, hoofs.
8. Fungi growing on
9. Tree bark = Carticolous
10. Dungwood = Cophoprhilous
11. Burnt wood = ep xylic and xerophilous
12. “Lomasomes” or “plasmoalemmasomes” are some membranous structures found in between the plasmalemma and cell wall of some fungi. Chlorophyll is absent in all fungi.
13. Yeast is also called sugar fungus or Zuckerpilz. Neurospora crassa was regarded as Drosophila of the plant kingdom.
14. Largest fungus. Giant puffball Parmelia lichen is called Rock flower. Cladonia is known as Reindeer moss. Pethigera is called dog lichen.
15. Coprinus comatus (Basidiomycetes) fungus is used in making ink (from gills). So it is called an Inky Cap mushroom.
16. In fungi vesicular structures that develop from cell membranes are called lomasomes. They are found in between the cell wall and cell membrane and help in the elaboration of the cell wall.
17. Some fungi emit light and are called luminescent fungi. These fungi have luciferase enzyme which acts on luciferin in the presence of oxygen, for example, Xylaria hypoxylon, Panus sp, and Arrnillaria mallet. Fossil fungi are Mucarites combrensis, Agarites wardens, and Penicillites curtipes.
18. The fungi which grow in trees are called lignicolous fungi Example Polyporus, and Trametes.
19. Heterothallism was discovered by Blakeslee in the species of Mucor. It refers to the sexual union between hyphae of opposite strains. Homothallic mycelia are self-fertile.

NEET Biology Kingdom Fungi Quanta to Memory

1. The fungi which grow on dung are called Coprophilous fungi eg. Mucor media, Pilaria, and Pilobolus.
2. Famous Irish Famine caused by: Late blight of potato Fungus Phallus unpicks is a member of Basidiomycetes is a dead man’s finger.
3. Hydnum is a member of articles called tooth fungus.
4. In Deuteromycetes Parasexuality is an alternative method of sexual reproduction
5. Phycomycetes are called algal fungi or lower fungi.
6. The torula stage is the budding of oidia in a sugary solution.
7. About 2300 antibiotics have been discovered so far from various fungi. Of these, some 123 have been extracted from Penicillium and 115 from Aspergillus.
8. The best work on fungi produced so far is ‘Silloge Fungorum’ by Saccardo. The work on Puccinia, Penicillium and Neurospora aroused interest in this branch.
9. Several mycotoxins (aflatoxins, zearalenone, ochratoxins, trichothecenes) are produced by fungi.
10. Many forms (For example, Amanita phalloids) are poisonous.
11. Cleviceps purpurea causes ergotism. It also yields a hallucinogenic drug called L. S. D. Rotting of wood (Polyporss, Fomes, Ganoderma), allergies (Mucor, Aspergillus etc.) deterioration of articles (Cladisporium, Altemaria, Chaetomium) is caused by many forms.
12. Several forms are eaten as food Example, Agaricus and Morchella. Yeast cakes, incaparina, SCP etc. are edible products obtained from yeasts. Penicillium sp. is used for flavouring cheese. Yeasts are used in brewing and baking.
13. Aspergillus causes Aspergillosis in human beings. A pheromone is a substance secreted to the outside by an individual and received by a second individual of the same species in which it induces a specific reaction Example a definite behaviour i.e. fusion of two yeast cells during sexual reproduction.

NEET Biology Kingdom Fungi Questions For Competitive Examinations

Question 1. Which one of the following is a harmful lichen?

1. Umbilicaria
2. Letharia
3. Usnea
4. Caledonia.

Answer: 2. Letharia

Question 2. Mycorrhizal association occurs in pinus, ficus and :

1. Utricularia
2. Legumes
3. Eucalyptus
4. Azadirachta.

Answer: 3. Eucalyptus

Question 3. The collateral host is:

1. Additional host
2. Host in which life cycle is completed
3. Alternate host
4. Infected host.

Answer: 1. Additional host

Question 4. Sexual reproduction is absent in :

1. Deuteromycetes
2. Phycomycetes
3. Ascomycetes
4. Basidiomycetes.

Answer: 1. Deuteromycetes

Kingdom Fungi NEET Previous Year Questions

Question 5. In an ascus of ascomycetes, the number and arrangement of ascospores are:

1. 8 In linear order
2. 4 In linear order
3. Both a and b
4. 8 Or 4, linear order or unordered.

Answer: 4. 8 Or 4, linear order or unordered.

Question 6. Mycelium of mucor/rhizopus is :

1. Aseptate and unicellular
2. Septate and unicellular
3. Septate and multicellular
4. Coenocytic.

Answer: 4. Coenocytic.

Question 7. Fungi are always:

1. Heterotrophs
2. Saprophytes
3. Parasites
4. Autotrophs.

Answer: 1. Heterotrophs

Question 8. Which of the following produces aflatoxin?

1. Viruses
2. Bacteria
3. Fungi
4. Nematodes.

Answer: 3. Fungi

Question 9. An example of an obligate anaerobe is :

1. Clostridium
2. Hiv
3. Aspergillus sp
4. Penicillium notatum

Answer: 1. Clostridium

Question 10. An adhesive pad of fungi penetrates the host with the help of:

1. Mechanical pressure and enzymes
2. Hooks and suckers
3. Softening by enzymes
4. Only by mechanical pressure.

Answer: 1. Mechanical pressure and enzymes

Question 11. One of the following attacks inflorescence and grains equally :

1. Loose smut of wheat
2. Covered smut of barley
3. Com smut
4. Late blight of potato.

Answer: 1. Loose smut of wheat

Question 12. Which of the following fungi releases mycotoxin in stored rice grains?

1. Aspergillus
2. Altemaria
3. Fusariurn moniliforme
4. Penicillium.

Answer: 1. Aspergillus

Question 13. Match the disease and causative agent

1. A-1,B-2,3-3,4-4
2. A-4,B-3,3-2,4-1
3. A-2,B-3,3-4,4-1
4. A-4,B-2,3-1,4-1

Answer: 2. A-4,B-3,3-2,4-1

Question 15. Lichen growing on wood is called :

1. Saxicolous
2. Terricolous
3. Corticolous
4. Lignocolous.

Answer: 4. Lignocolous.

Question 16. A fungal filament system is known as mycelium, but pseudo mycelium is formed in:

1. Yeast
2. Rhizopus
3. Aspergillus
4. Synchytrium.

Answer: 1. Yeast

Question 17. The causal agent of red rot of sugarcane is

1. Helminthosporium
2. Fusarium
3. Pythium
4. Colletotrichlim.

Answer: 4. Colletotrichlim.

Kingdom Fungi NEET Notes

Question 18. White rust of crucifers is :

1. Puccinia graminis
2. Ustilago tritici
3. Albugo candida
4. Aspergillus flavus

Answer: 3. Albugo candida

Question 19. Among rust, smut and mushrooms all three :

1. Are pathogens
2. Are saprobes
3. Bear ascocarps
4. Bear basidiocarps.

Answer: 1. Are pathogens

Question 20. Which of the following environmental conditions are essential for optimum growth of mucor on a piece of bread?

1. Temperature of about 25°c
2. Temperature of about 5°c
3. Relative humidity of about 5%.
4. Relative humidity of about 95%
5. A shady place
6. A brightly illuminated place

Choose the answer from the following options :

1. 2, 2 and 5 only
2. 2, 3 and 6 only
3. 1, 3 and 5 only
4. 1, 4 and 5 only.

Answer: 4. 1, 4 and 5 only.

Question 21. Yeast and algae are the main sources of

1. Vitamin b complex
2. Vitamin c
3. Minerals
4. Vitamin k.

Answer: 2. Vitamin c

Question 22. Red rot of sugarcane and white rust of radish are respectively caused by:

1. Albugo candida and cercospora
2. Colletotrichum and fusarium 28.
3. Pythium and phytophthora
4. Albugo candida and puccinia graminis
5. Colletotrichum and albugo candida

Answer: 5. Colletotrichum and Albugo candida

Question 23. Azolla increases soil fertility of:

1. Maize
2. Barley
3. Rice
4. Wheat.

Answer: 3. Rice

Question 24. Identify from the following examples, a fungus which is of medicinal importance.

1. Agaricus
2. Saccharomyces
3. Penicillium
4. Cercospora.

Answer: 3. Pehicillium

Question 25. Which pair of the following belongs to basidiomy- cetes?

1. Pufballs and claviceps
2. Peziza and stinkhorns
3. Morchella and mushrooms
4. Birds’ nest fungi and puffballs.

Answer: 4. Birds’ nest fungi and puffballs.

Question 26. Ergot of rye is caused by a species of:

1. Uncinula
2. Ustilago
3. Claviceps
4. Phytophthora.

Answer: 3. Claviceps

Question 27. Deuteromycetes are called imperfect fungi due to :

1. Lack of cell wall
2. Lack of sexual reproduction
3. Lack of asexual reproduction
4. Lack of vacuoles.

Answer: 2. Lack of sexual reproduction

Question 28. Select the wrong statement:

1. Anisogametes differ either in structure, function or behaviour
2. In oomycetes female gamete is smaller and motile, while the male gamete is larger and non-motile
3. Chlamydomonas exhibits both isogamy and anisogamy and the focus shows oogamy
4. Isogametes are similar in structure, function and behaviour.

Answer: 2. In oomycetes female gamete is smaller and motile, while the male gamete is larger and non-motile

NEET Biology Kingdom Fungi Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. The branch of botany which is concerned with the study of fungi is called:

1. Parasitology
2. Mycology
3. Bacteriology
4. Embryology.

Answer: 3. Bacteriology

Question 2. The parasitic fungi take their food from the host with the help of:

1. Talparaphysis
2. Soredia
3. Hausloria
4. Conidia.

Answer: 2. Soredia

Question 3. Fungi that are used as food :

1. Rusts
2. Smuts
3. Mushrooms
4. Downy mildews.

Answer: 2. Smuts

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 4. Multinuclcatc and aseptate hyphae of rhizopus are called

1. Oidia
2. Hcterolhallic
3. Chlamydospores
4. Coenocytic.

Answer: 4.  Coenocytic.

MCQs on Kingdom Fungi NEET Question 5. Sporangia in rhizopus are borne on :

1. Rhizoidal hyphae
2. Lateral branch of sporangiophore
3. Tips of sporangiophores
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Tips of sporangiophores

Question 6. Commercial mushrooms are grown in soil enriched with horse manure. These mushrooms are :

1. Autotrophic
2. Parasitic
3. Saprophytic
4. Chemosynthetic

Answer: 3. Saprophytic

Question 7. Mushroom is :

1. Puccinia
2. Parasitic
3. Agaricus
4. Chemosynthetic.

Answer: 1. Puccinia

Question 8. Who found the phenomenon of heterothallism in Rhizopus

1. Aiexopouios
2. Blakeslee
3. Lyenger
4. R.n. Singh

Answer: 2. Blakeslee

Question 9. Sporangiospores are :

1. Flagellated
2. Biflagellated
3. Multinucleated
4. Ciliated

Answer: 3. Multinucleated

MCQs on Kingdom Fungi NEET Question 10. Torula stage is found in medium

1. Rich in sugars
2. Pesticides
3. Antibiotics
4. Rich in fats.

Answer: 1. Rich in sugars

Question 11. Sexual reproduction in rhizopus is by

1. Spores
2. Oidia
3. Conjugation of two gametangia
4. Conidia.

Answer: 3. Conjugation of two gametangia

Question 12. Yeast is an important source of:

1. Proteins
2. Sugars
3. Riboflavin
4. Vitamin c

Answer: 2. Sugars

Question 13. Ascocurp of penh llllnni is :

1. Crithccitiiu
2. Apntliccium
3. Acroslromn
4. Clcistotlicdum.

Answer: 4. Clcistotlicdum.

Question 14. Early blight and late blight arc caused respectively by :

1. Aspergillus and penicillium
2. 11Sthugo and puccinia
3. Graphiola and agarlcus
4. Aliemaria and phytophthora.

Answer: 4. Aliemaria and phytophthora.

Question 15. Citric acid is commercially manufactured from :

1. Mucor
2. Citromyccs pfefferiaur
3. Aspergillus
4. Saccharomyces.

Answer: 3. Aspergillus

MCQs on Kingdom Fungi NEET Question 16. The protective sterile covering in the ascocarp is :

1. Upidcrm
2. Epicarp
3. Peridium
4. Periderm

Answer: 3. Peridium

Question 17. The hyphae of rhizopus are :

1. Branched, tubular and coenocytic
2. Branched and septate
3. Unbranched and septate
4. Unbranched, unicellular and tubular.

Answer: 1. Branched, tubular and coenocytic

Question 18. Torula stage is observed in :

1. Puccinia
2. Mucor
3. Agaricus
4. Penicillium.

Answer: 2. Mucor

Question 19. Yeasts are used commercially in :

1. Butter industry
2. Wine and baking industry
3. Tobacco industry
4. Textile industry

Answer: 2. Wine and baking industry

Question 20. In Rhizopus, which of the stages does not contain ‘n’ number of chromosomes

1. Hyphae
2. Stolon
3. Rhizoids
4. Zygospore

Answer: 4. Zygospore

Kingdom Fungi NEET Questions Question 21. The majority of the species of rhizopus are :

1. Parasitic
2. Saprophytic
3. Epiphytic
4. Lithophytic.

Answer: 2. Saprophytic

Question 22. When fungi feed on dead organic matter, they are called

1. Parasite
2. Saprophytes
3. Lithophytes
4. Dimorphic.

Answer: 2. Saprophytes

Question 23. Which of the following is used commonly in genetical experiments:

1. Mucor
2. Rhizopus
3. Morchella
4. Neurospora.

Answer: 4. Neurospora.

Question 24. Which of the following is unicellular and uninucleate?

1. Rhizopus nigricans
2. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
3. Puccinia graminis
4. Morchella esculenta.

Answer: 2. Saccharomyces cerevisiae

Kingdom Fungi NEET Questions Question 25. In a lichen, the fungal partner belongs to :

1. Phycomycetes
2. Ascomycetes
3. Basidiomycetes
4. Deuteromycetes

Answer: 2. Ascomycetes

Question 26. “Foolish seedling disease of rice” has been behind the discovery of which growth hormones?

1. Auxins
2. Ethylene
3. Gibberellins
4. Cytokinins.

Answer: 3. Gibberellins

Question 27. Plasmodium is a thallus found in:

1. Myxomycetes
2. Phycomycetes
3. Ascomycetes
4. Basidiomycetes.

Answer: 1. Myxomycetes

Question 28. Fungi reproduce by only asexual methods in :

1. Myxomycetes
2. Ascomycetes
3. Basidiomycetes
4. Deuteromycetes.

Answer: 4. Deuteromycetes.

Kingdom Fungi NEET Questions Question 29. Zygospore of mucor germinates to form :

1. Mycelium
2. Promycelium
3. Hyphae
4. Germ tube.

Answer: 2. Promycelium

Question 30. Penicillin is produced from :

1. Penicillium chrysogenum
2. Penicillium claviform
3. Penicillium expansum
4. Penicillium divarication.

Answer: 1. Penicillium chrysogenum

Question 31. Black rust of wheat is caused by :

1. Rhizopus
2. Yeast
3. Penicillium
4. Puccinia tritici.

Answer: 4. Puccinia tritici.

Question 32. A facultative parasite is one which :

1. Always requires a living host
2. Is normally saprophytic but can also become parasitic
3. Is normally a parasite but can also become a saprophyte
4. Always requires dead organic matter.

Answer: 2. Is normally saprophytic but can also become parasitic

Kingdom Fungi NEET Questions Question 33. The severe famine of West Bengal of 1942-43 was due to the destruction of rice crop by a fungus :

1. Helminthosporium
2. Penicillium
3. Puccinia
4. Rhizopus.

Answer: 1. Helminthosporium

Question 34. Yeast (saccharomyces) belongs to :

1. Phycomycetes
2. Ascomycetes
3. Basidiomycetes
4. Deuteromycetes.

Answer: 2. Ascomycetes

Question 35. Rhizopus belongs to :

1. Zygomycetes
2. Ascomycetes
3. Deuteromycetes
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Zygomycetes

Question 36. Fleming discovered penicillin from :

1. Penicillium camembert
2. P. Notatum
3. P. Chrysogenum
4. P. Expansum.

Answer: 2. P. Notatum

Question 37. How many ascospores are formed in saccharomyces cerevisiae:

1. 2
2. 4
3. 8
4. 16.

Answer: 2. 4

Kingdom Fungi Questions NEET Question 38. Yeast is found abundantly in :

1. Horse dung
2. Nose of fishes
3. Moist bread
4. Organic substances are rich in sugar.

Answer: 4. Organic substances rich in sugar.

Question 39. The yeast cell wall is made up of:

1. Pectin
2. Carbohydrate
3. Glucose and mannose
4. Fungal cellulose.

Answer: 4. Fungal cellulose.

Question 40. When a portion of fungal mycelium is used in the formation of reproductive structure :

1. Eucarpic
2. Acarpic
3. Holocarpic
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Eucarpic

Question 41. An alga and a fungus remain in lichens in :

1. Parasitic relationship
2. Symbiotic relationship
3. Saprophytic relationship
4. Epiphytic relationship.

Answer: 2. Symbiotic relationship

Kingdom Fungi Questions NEET Question 42. Wheat rust is caused by :

1. Albugo
2. Ustilago
3. Aspergillus
4. Puccinia.

Answer: 4. Puccinia

Question 43. ‘Smuts’ belong to the genus :

1. Puccinia
2. Ustilago
3. Altemaria
4. Phytophthora.

Answer: 2. Ustilago

Question 44. Which of the following is a fungal disease?

1. Tuberculosis
2. Smallpox
3. Rabies
4. Ringworm.

Answer: 4. Ringworm.

Question 45. ‘Ergot of rye’ is caused by :

1. Puccinia
2. Ustilago
3. Ciaviceps
4. Alternaria.

Answer: 3. Ciaviceps

Kingdom Fungi Questions NEET Question 46. In yeast, cell wall contains :

1. Amylose and glucose
2. Glucose and mannose
3. Glucose and muramic acid
4. Sucrose and mannose.

Answer: 2. Glucose and mannose

Question 47. The coprophilous fungi inhabit:

1. Dung
2. Deadwood
3. Decaying leaves
4. Food.

Answer: 1. Dung

Question 48. Bakane disease is connected with the discovery of :

1. Ga
2. Iaa
3. Aba
4. 2, 4 — D.

Answer: 1. Ga

Question 49. Mycorrhiza is a relationship between :

1. Algae and fungi
2. Fungi and the roots of higher plants
3. Fungi and rhizoids of lower plants
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Fungi and the roots of higher plants

Kingdom Fungi Questions NEET Question 50. Which one of the following is edible?

1. Agaricus
2. Rhizopus
3. Neurospora
4. Peronospora.

Answer: 1. Agaricus

Question 51. Aflatoxins are produced by some :

1. Bacteria
2. Fungi
3. Viruses
4. Algae.

Answer: 2. Fungi

Question 52. Fungi in the division oomycete are known as :

1. Egg fungi
2. Sac fungi
3. Club fungi
4. Cup fungi.

Answer: 1. Egg fungi

Question 53. Heterothallism prevents :

1. Breeding
2. Inbreeding
3. Crossbreeding
4. Interbreeding.

Answer: 2. Inbreeding

Kingdom Fungi Questions NEET Question 54. Dolipore septum is a characteristic feature of:

1. Phycomycetes
2. Zygomycetes
3. Ascomycetes
4. Basidiomycetes.

Answer: 4. Basidiomycetes.

Question 55. Apothecial cups are the characteristic of:

1. Aspergillus
2. Saccharomyces
3. Peziza
4. Agaricus.

Answer: 3. Peziza

Question 56. Dikaryotisation in basidiomycetes takes place :

1. Plasmogamy
2. Plasmogamy and karyogamy
3. Clamp connection formation
4. Karyogamy is followed by meiosis.

Answer: 3. Clamp connection formation

Question 57. Smut of maize is caused by :

1. Ustilago avenae
2. Ustilago maydis
3. Ustilago hordei
4. Ustilago nuda.

Answer: 2. Ustilago maydis

Question 58. Funga l hyphae penetrate the hard cell walls of their hosts with the help of:

1. Enzymes
2. Hormones
3. Sharp tips
4. Sugar exudates.

Answer: 1. Enzymes

Kingdom Fungi NEET MCQ Question 59. The hyphal system is called mycelium in:

1. Algae
2. Fungi
3. Bryophytes
4. Pteridophytes.

Answer: 2. Fungi

Question 60. Penicillin was first discovered by :

1. Alexander fleming
2. P. Ehrlich
3. Robert Koch
4. S. Waksman.

Answer: 1. Alexander Fleming

Question 61. Select the correctly matched pair.

1. Cause of Irish potato famine – altemaria solani
2. Cause of Bengal potato famine – helminths – emporium
3. Black wart disease of potato – phytophthora infestans
4. Late blight of potato – cytoplasm candida.

Answer: 3. Black wart disease of potato – phytophthora infestans

Question 62. To digest the food that lies in external, medium fungi secrete:

1. Enzymes
2. Hormones
3. Sugar
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Enzymes

Kingdom Fungi NEET MCQ Question 63. Which of the following is a fungicide?

1. Enzymes
2. Bordeaux mixture
3. 2-4 D
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Bordeaux mixture

Question 64. Late blight of potatoes is caused by :

1. Altemaria solani
2. Phytophthora infestans
3. Albugo candida
4. Fusarium moniliforme.

Answer: 2. Phytophthora infestans

Question 65. White rust of “crucifers” is caused by :

1. Albugo candida
2. Pythium
3. Cercospora
4. Phyllactinia.

Answer: 1. Albugo candida

Question 66. Yeast cells are the best source of:

1. Biotin
2. Vitamin (b11, b12)
3. Vitamin a
4. Vitamin d.

Answer: 2. Vitamin D.

Kingdom Fungi NEET MCQ Question 67. Fungal extract of which fungus is used as poison?

1. Lentinus
2. Volveriella
3. Amanita
4. Armillaria.

Answer: 3. Amanita

Question 68. All fungi are always :

1. Autotrophs
2. Heterotrophs
3. Saprophytes
4. Parasites.

Answer: 2. Heterotrophs

Question 69. Rhizopus is :

1. Parasite
2. Obligate parasite
3. Epiphyte
4. Saprophyte

Answer: 4. Saprophyte

Question 70. Aecidial stages of puccinia develop on :

1. Wheat leaves
2. Wheat stem
3. The upper surface of the barberry leaf
4. The lower surface of barberry leaf.

Answer: 4. Lower surface of barberry leaf.

Kingdom Fungi NEET MCQ Question 71. ‘Reindeer moss’ is a lichen used as food by men. This belongs to the genus:

1. Cetraria
2. Lobaria
3. Usnea
4. Cladonia.

Answer: 4. Cladonia.

Question 72. Which of the following groups contain typically coenocytic forms :

1. Lichens
2. Phycomycetes
3. Liverworts
4. Chlorophyceae.

Answer: 2. Phycomycetes

Question 73. Dikaryon formation occurs in :

1. Phycomycetes and slime moulds
2. Ascomycetes and slime moulds
3. Basidiomycetes and Phycomycetes
4. Both ascomycetes and basidiomycetes.

Answer: 4. Both ascomycetes and basidiomycetes.

Question 74. A basidiomycetous fungus producing uredospores on wheat plants is :

1. Ustilago
2. Puccinia
3. Phytophthora
4. Altemaria.

Answer: 2. Puccinia

MCQs on Kingdom Fungi NEET  Question 75. When an entire body of a fungus is used in the formation of reproductive structure, the organism is called as :

1. Acarpic
2. Holocarpic
3. Eucarpic
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Holocarpic

Question 76. Asci are formed in :

1. Ascobolus
2. Saccharomyces
3. Penicilliurn
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 77. Which of the following stages in rhizopus is diploid?

1. Zygospore
2. Hypha
3. Stolon
4. Spore.

Answer: 1. Zygospore

Question 78. “Fungi imperfecti” reproduce by :

1. Sexual method
2. Asexual method
3. Vegetative methods
4. Sexual and asexual methods.

Answer: 2. Asexual method

MCQs on Kingdom Fungi NEET  Question 79. The yeasts and mushrooms differ from algae because they :

1. Cannot carry out photosynthesis
2. Lack of cellulosic cell wall
3. Reproduce by sexual methods
4. Are terrestrial as well as aquatic.

Answer: 1. Cannot carry out photosynthesis

Question 80. Which group is a pioneer of xerophytic succession?

1. Algae
2. Fungi
3. Bryophytes
4. Lichens.

Answer: 4. Lichens.

Question 81. The absorptive nutrition of fungi is aided by :

1. Dikaryon formation
2. Spore formation
3. The fact that they are all parasites
4. Their large surface area-to-volume ratio.

Answer: 4. Their large surface area-to-volume ratio.

Question 82. Branched conidiophores are found in :

1. Penicilliurn
2. Rhizopus
3. Ustilago
4. Saccharomyces.

Answer: 1. Penicilliurn

Question 83. Mushroom is a :

1. Saprophyte
2. Photosynthesises the food material
3. Facultative parasite
4. Obligate parasite.

Answer: 1. Saprophyte

MCQs on Kingdom Fungi NEET  Question 84. Among the following which one is an example of heterothallism :

1. Pteris
2. Rhizopus
3. Cycas
4. Castor beans.

Answer: 2. Rhizopus

Question 85. In which of the following plants, columella is present in sporangium?

1. Yeast
2. Spirogyra
3. Ulothrix
4. Rhizopus.

Answer: 4. Rhizopus.

Question 86. Powdery mildew of crops is caused by :

1. Ascomycetes (Erysiphe)
2. Basidiomycetes (mushroom)
3. Phycomycetes (Albugo)
4. Bacteria.

Answer: 1. Ascomycetes (Erysiphe)

Question 87. Which of the following is not a prokaryote?

1. Bacteria
2. Yeast
3. Blue-green algae
4. Viruses.

Answer: 2. Yeast

Question 88. Which statement about fungal nutrition is not true?

1. Some fungi are active predators
2. Some fungi form mutualistic associations with other organisms
3. Fungi can make some of the compounds that are vitamins for animals
4. Facultative parasites can grow only on their specific hosts.

Answer: 3. Fungi can make some of the compounds that are vitamins for animals

MCQs on Kingdom Fungi NEET  Question 89. The organism used for alcohol fermentation is :

1. Saccharomyces
2. Aspergillus
3. Pseudomonas
4. Penicillium.

Answer: 1. Aspergillus

Question 90. Which causes the disease of potatoes?

1. Pythium debaryanum
2. Phytophthora infestans
3. Peronospora destructor
4. Synchytrium endobioticum.

Answer: 2. Phytophthora infestans

Kingdom Fungi NEET MCQ Question 91. Gametangial copulation (conjugation) is common in :

1. Ascomycetes
2. Zygomycetes
3. Chytridiales
4. Deuteromycetes.

Answer: 2. Zygomycetes

Question 92. A fungus which requires only a single host for the completion of its life cycle is called :

1. Heteroecious
2. Autoecious
3. Heterothallic
4. Heterosporous.

Answer: 2. Autoecious

Question 93. A thick strand of underground hyphae resembling a root is called as :

1. Rhizoid
2. Rhizophore
3. Rhizomorph
4. Radicle

Answer: 3. Rhizomorph

Kingdom Fungi NEET MCQ Question 94. In yeast meiosis occurs in:

1. Ascospores
2. Ascus mother cell
3. Bud
4. Pseudomycelium.

Answer: 2. Ascus mother cell

Question 95. A group of algal cells imprisoned in fungal mycelium serving for vegetative multiplication of lichen called :

1. Isidium
2. Soredium
3. Cephalodium
4. Helotism.

Answer: 2. Soredium

Question 96. Which of the following is mainly caused by the preparation of alcohol?

1. Lactobacillus
2. Azotobacter
3. Penicillium
4. Saccharomyces.

Answer: 4. Saccharomyces.

Question 97. Motile sperms are absent in :

1. Rhizopus
2. Funaria
3. Fern
4. Cycas.

Answer: 1. Rhizopus

Kingdom Fungi NEET MCQ Question 98. The first antibiotic isolated was :

1. Neomycin
2. Terramycin
3. Streptomycin
4. Penicillin.

Answer: 4. Penicillin.

Question 99. Organisms which obtain their food from nonliving material in the environment are called :

1. Sporophytes
2. Epiphytes
3. Parasites
4. Saprophytes.

Answer: 4. Saprophytes.

Question 100. In rhizopus sexual fusion takes place between :

1. Two gametangia
2. Two gametes
3. Two hyphae
4. Two sporangia.

Answer: 1. Two gametangia

Question 101. The source of infection for wheat rust in wheat plants is :

1. Uredospore
2. Teleutospore
3. Basidiospore
4. Aeciospore.

Answer: 4. Aeciospore.

Kingdom Fungi Questions NEET Question 102. Select the correctly matched pair :

1. Bioindicator of pollution – lichen
2. Litmus yielding lichen – paramecia saxatilis
3. Claviceps purpurea — smut of barley
4. Fungus usnea – source of streptomycin

Answer: 1. Bioindicator of pollution – lichen

Question 103. The taxonomy of true fungi is based on :

1. Life history
2. Mode of nutrition
3. Sexual reproductive structures
4. Complexity of vegetative structure.

Answer: 3. Sexual reproductive structures

Question 104. Which one of the following is achlorophyllous :

1. Chlorobium
2. Chlamydomonas
3. Yeast
4. Euglena.

Answer: 3. Yeast

Question 105. The common black mould is :

1. Rhizopus
2. Aspergillus
3. Saccharomyces
4. Penicillium.

Answer: 1. Rhizopus

Kingdom Fungi Questions NEET Question 106. Open ascocarp is :

1. Apothecium
2. Perithecium
3. Ascoonium
4. Cleistothecium.

Answer: 1. Apothecium

Question 107. Hypertrophy of floral parts is caused by :

1. Cystopus or albugo
2. Aspergillus
3. Cephaleuros
4. All the above.

Answer: 1. Cystopus or albugo

Question 108. Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic relationship between higher plants and :

1. Virus
2. Fungi
3. Algae
4. Bacteria.

Answer: 2. Fungi

Question 109. Identify the wrongly matched pair :

1. Smut disease of cultivated plants – ustilago
2. Smut of wheat – Puccinia
3. Loose smut of wheat – ustilago tritici
4. Late blight of potatoes – phytophthora infestans.

Answer: 2. Smut of wheat – Puccinia

Question 110. Binucleate spores of Puccinia graminis released from barberry leaf and responsible for initial infection in a wheat plant are called:

1. Pycniospores
2. Aeciospores
3. Uredospores
4. Teleutospores.

Answer: 2. Aeciospores

Question 111. The sequence of structures in a conidial mycelium of penicillium spinulosum shall be :

1. Foot cell → condiophore → phialides → conidia
2. Conidiophore→ foot cell → sterigmata→ conidia
3. Foot cell → phialides →conidia
4. Conidiophore → phialides → conidia.

Answer: 4. Conidiophore →phialides→ conidia.

Kingdom Fungi Questions NEET Question 112. The conidia of penicillium are :

1. Thick-walled, uninucleate
2. Thin-walled uni-or multinucleate
3. Thick-walled multinucleate
4. Thin or thick-walled, multinucleate.

Answer: 2. Thin-walled uni-or multinucleate

Question 113. In penicillium aspergillus the conidial chains borne at the tips of:

1. Metulae
2. Sterigmata
3. Rami
4. Conidiophores.

Answer: 2. Sterigmata

Question 114. Which is regarded as drosophila of the plant kingdom?

1. Neurospora
2. Aspergillus
3. Penicillium
4. Yeast.

Answer: 1. Neurospora

Question 115. Mehta is famous for his work on :

1. Blast of rice
2. Brown leaf spot of rice
3. Wheat rust
4. White smut.

Answer: 3. Wheat rust

Question 116. Phytophthora infestans is characterised by :

1. Coenocytic mycelium
2. Exposed sporangiophores with sympodial branching
3. Cellulosic cell wall
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Kingdom Fungi Questions NEET Question 117. Ascocarp of penicillium is :

1. Cleistothecium
2. Perithecium
3. Apothecium
4. Ascostroma.

Answer: 1. Cleistothecium

Question 118. The term ‘lichen’ was first coined by :

1. Linnaeus
2. Theophrastus
3. Fritsch
4. John ray.

Answer: 2. Theophrastus

Question 119. Which food is used by a fungal partner made by an algal partner in a lichen?

1. Starch
2. Sugar
3. Mannitol
4. Glycogen.

Answer: 3. Mannitol

Question 120. After plasmogamy, the ascogonium of penicillium shows :

1. Formation of autogenous hyphae
2. Transverse septation into dikaryotic cells
3. Crozier formation
4. Coiling of antheridium around the ascogonium.

Answer: 2. Transverse septation into dikaryotic cells

Question 121. The two conidia of a chain in aspergillus are connected through a space called :

1. Separating disc
2. Connective
3. Isthmus
4. Disjunctor.

Answer: 2. Connective

Question 122. Which of the following refers to the perfect stage of Aspergillus?

1. Eurotium
2. Emericella
3. Both of these
4. None of these.

Answer: 3. Both of these

Question 123. Meiosis in aspergillus occurs inside the :

1. Crozier
2. Ascogenous hyphae
3. Ascus
4. Ascus mother cell.

Answer: 4. Ascus mother cell.

Question 124. Bunt of wheat/kamal bunt is caused by :

1. Ustilago tritici
2. Tillctia tritici
3. Puccinia graminis tritici
4. Puccinia recondida.

Answer: 2. Tillctia tritici

Question 125. Hyphal outgrowth arising from the lower cortex of the thallus of foliose lichens is called:

1. Mycelium
2. Rhizines
3. Haustoria
4. Rhizoids.

Answer: 2. Rhizines

Question 126. The edible fruiting bodies which are underground arc called :

1. Truffles
2. Puff balls
3. Ascocarp
4. Basidiocarp.

Answer: 1. Truffles

Question 127. Lichenin/lichen starch is present in :

1. Cells of phycobiont
2. Cell walls of phycobiont
3. Cells of mycobiont
4. Cell walls of mycobiont.

Answer: 4. Cell walls of mycobiont.

Question 128. The yeast/s showing diplobiontic life history :

1. Saccharomyces
2. Saccharomyces
3. Schizosaccharomyces
4. None.

Answer: 2. Saccharomycodes

Question 129. An anticancer drug is obtained from a giant puffball which is :

1. Amanita
2. Lycoperdon
3. Claviceps
4. Clavatia.

Answer: 4. Clavatia.

Question 130. Wilt of banana and tomato is caused by :

1. Sclerotia
2. Puccinia
3. Fusarium
4. Altemaria.

Answer: 3. Fusarium

Question 131. The source of griseofulvin an anti-ringworm drug is :

1. Torula
2. Penicillium griseofulvum
3. Penicillium chrysogenum
4. Candida.

Answer: 2. Penicillium griseofulvin

Question 132. Extract of sclerotia of a fungus is used to produce l.s.d. It is :

1. Cannabis (bhang)
2. Amanita
3. Claviceps
4. Poppy.

Answer: 3. Claviceps

Question 133. In this fungus, the zygote acts as an ascus and the diploid nucleus undergoes meiosis to form four ascospores:

1. Penicillium
2. Yeasts
3. Phycomycetes
4. All fungi.

Answer: 2. Yeasts

Question 134. What is unique in the cell wall of fungi?

1. Cellulose
2. Diaminopimelic acid
3. Acetyl glucosamine
4. Muramic acid.

Answer: 3. Acetyl glucosamine

Question 135. Point out the wrong pair:

1. Ascocarp—ascomycetes
2. Coenocytic mycelium—lower fungi
3. Clamp connections—oomycetes
4. Basidiocarp—clamp connections.

Answer: 1. Ascocarp—ascomycetes

Question 136. The passing of the life cycle by a fungus only on one host is known as:

1. Endurance
2. Autoecious
3. Heteroecism
4. Epiphytism.

Answer: 2. Autoecious

Question 137. A parasite which can act as a saprophyte as well is known as:

1. Obligate saprophyte
2. Facultative saprophyte
3. Obligate parasite
4. Facultative parasite.

Answer: 2. Facultative saprophyte

Question 138. The term heterogeneous means :

1. Presence of heterokaryon
2. Presence of heterothallism
3. Passing of life cycle on two hosts
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Passing of life cycle on two hosts

Question 139. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched

1. Angular leaf spot—
2. Wilt of cotton—
3. Leaf spot of cotton—
4. Red rot of sugarcane—

Answer: 3. Leaf spot of cotton—

Question 140. Match the terms in column 1 with those in column 2.

1. 1-E,2-A,3-B,4-C,5-D
2. 1-E,2-A,3-C,4-B,5-D
3. 1-E,2-A,3-B,4-D,5-C
4. 1-E,2-A,3-C,4-F,5-D

Answer: 1. 1-E,2-A,3-B,4-C,5-D

Question 141. Match list 1 wish list 2 and select the correct

1. A-4,B-2,3-3,4-1
2. A-3,B-2,3-4,4-1
3. A-4,B-3,3-2,4-1
4. A-3,B-2,3-1,4-d

Answer: 3. A-4,B-3,3-2,4-1

Question 142. The phenomenon in which plasmogamy, karyogamy and haploidisation do not follow a sequence in terms of time and space is called :

1. Heterozygosity
2. Parasexuality
3. Homozygosity
4. Heterothallism.

Answer: 2. Parasexuality

Question 143. Phytoalexins are:

1. Certain chemicals produced by pathogens to kill the host
2. Certain phenolic substances are produced by the host to kill the pathogens
3. Certain chemicals essential for better growth of plants
4. Certain inorganic substances help the pathogens to invade the host cells.

Answer: 2. Certain phenolic substances produced by the host to kill the pathogens

Question 144. In yeast, during budding, which process occurs?

1. Doubling of chromosomes
2. Spindle formation
3. Unequal division of cytoplasm
4. Synopsis.

Answer: 3. Unequal division of cytoplasm

Question 145. Which one of the following is not the mode of reproduction in yeast?

1. Budding
2. Fission
3. Plasmogamy
4. Oogamy.

Answer: 4. Oogamy.

Question 146. The umbrella-shaped structure of the basidiocarp of Agaricus is known as :

1. Gill
2. Stipe
3. Pileus
4. Hymenium.

Answer: 3. Pileus

Question 147. Dolipore septa are found in :

1. Deuteromycetes
2. Basidiomycetes
3. Zygomycetes
4. Phycomycetes.

Answer: 2. Basidiomycetes

Question 148. Hymenium in Agaricus represents the :

1. The rhizomorphs
2. Fertile layer of basidia
3. The presence of dolipore septal complex
4. The haplomycelium.

Answer: 2. Fertile layer of basidia

Question 149. Fairy rings are formed by :

1. Agaricus
2. Wood fungi
3. Moulds
4. Penicillium.

Answer: 1. Agaricus

Question 150. Massive fortifications produced in Agaricus are known as :

1. Basidiocarp
2. Pyrenocarp
3. Ascocarp
4. Cystocarp.

Answer: 1. Basidiocarp

Question 151. The part of the mushroom visible above the ground is :

1. Ascus
2. Basidium
3. Ascocarp
4. Basidiocarp.

Answer: 4. Basidiocarp.

Question 152. gills are seen in :

1. Bacteria
2. Oscillatoria
3. Ulothrix
4. Agaricus.

Answer: 4. Agaricus.

Question 153. Which of the following is an edible fungus?

1. Mucor
2. Verticillium
3. Agaricus
4. Fusarium.

Answer: 3. Agaricus

Question 154. Substances which are formed by host tissue in response to injury, physiological stimuli, infectious agents or their products which inhibit the growth of micro-organisms are called :

1. Inhibitions
2. Phytotoxins
3. Phytoalexins
4. Prohibitions.

Answer: 3. Phytoalexins

Question 155. Consider the following processes heterokaryon formation diploidisation of nucleus  restoration of diploid nuclei to their haploid state (apodization) parasexual cycle in fungi involves :

1. 1 and 2
2. 1 and 3
3. 2 and 3
4. 1,2 and 3.

Answer: 4. 1,2 and 3.

Question 156. Which one of the following substances plays an important role in the biochemical defence of host plants?

1. Mycotoxin
2. Phytoalexin
3. Vivotoxin
4. Pathotoxin.

Answer: 2. Phytoalexin

Question 157. The well-known famine in Ireland in the 40s has been attributed mainly to the failure of the potato crop which was infected by :

1. Alternaria solani
2. Phytophthora infestans
3. Phytophthora parasitic
4. Pythium aphanidematum.

Answer: 2. Phytophthora infestans

Question 158. Large strain cells are found in the yeast :

1. Saccharomyces
2. Saccharomyces
3. Both
4. None.

Answer: 1. Saccharomyces

Question 159. The structure first to enter a bud in yeast :

1. Mitochondrion
2. Nucleus
3. Endoplasmic reticulum
4. Vacuole.

Answer: Nucleus

Question 160. Yeast is used for the production of :

1. Ethyl alcohol
2. Acetic acid
3. Cheese
4. Curd.

Answer: 1. Ethyl alcohol

NEET Biology Kingdom Protista

Protists show remarkable variations in cell organization, patterns of cell division and life cycle. The occurrence of organisms with flexible lifestyles justifies the erection of the intermediate eukaryotic kingdom.

Characters of Protists

1. This kingdom includes diverse kinds of mostly unicellular and primarily aquatic eukaryotes.
2. They are eukaryotic organisms having typical eukaryotic cell organelles such as nuclei, mitochondria, ER, Golgi bodies, plastids etc.
3. The mode of nutrition is absorptive, ingestive or photo-autotrophic.
4. Mostly bear eukaryotic flagella composed of 9 + 2 internal microtubular structures.
5. Protists may be motile or non-motile. Protists show mainly three types of mechanisms
   of locomotion.
6. Sarcodine protists move with the help of pseudopodia. Flagellate protists move with the help of flagella and in other groups of ciliata locomotion is with the help of short-sized, hair-like cilia.
7. They may be haploid or diploid.
8. Reproduction is asexual as well as sexual.
9. Asexual reproduction occurs by binary or multiple fission or spore formation. It
   involves mitosis only. Sexual reproduction in protists involves syngamy and meiosis.
10. They may show zygotic meiosis or gametic meiosis.

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Notes

Major Groups of Protists Dinoflagellates (Pyrrophyta)

• They have two distinct unequal flagella. The cell wall is divided into plates. They reproduce asexually.
• Some are phosphorescent. Dinoflagellates are unicellular, photosynthetic protists which store starch or oils as their reserve food material.
• These are brown-red (due to xanthophyll pigment) and are characterised by the presence of a transverse groove (girdle) which divides the cell into two semi-cells.
• The cellulosic cell walls sometimes form structured plates called theca, conferring upon them an armoured appearance.
• Out of the two flagella emerging from the groove, one lies in the longitudinal direction, while the other lies transversely in a furrow between the plates.
• Several dinoflagellates exhibit bioluminescence (fire algae). The species of Gonyaulax and other dinoflagellates produce toxic blooms (red tides) in the ocean.
• The toxins may get concentrated in the tissues of animals (shellfish, oysters etc.).
• Dinoflagellates exhibit some prokaryotic characteristics (absence of histone protein, simpler mitosis, centromere and spindle absent) as well as eukaryotic characters (cell organelles bounded by a membrane, 9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules in flagella).
• Whorling Whips. Dinoflagellates, due to spinning caused by the activity of transverse flagellum (in cingulum/annulus) and longitudinal flagellum (in sulcus).
• Dinoflagellates, diatoms and euglena-like flagellates are protistan algae or photosynthetic protists. They account for over 80% of CO2 fixed in the biosphere.

Kingdom Protista NEET Notes

Diatoms

The diatoms are the major producers in the seas. They lack flagella. They float in water due to the presence of lipids in them. They have overlapping cell walls with deposition of silica. Their fossils are known as diatomaceous earth.

They are diploids and reproduce sexually as well as asexually. The main features of diatoms are:

1. Diatoms are unicellular, noh-flagellate golden-brown algae. Their cell wall (frustule) nude up of the overlapping halves (upper kitchen and lower hypothec) like a soap tvv |vtn divh. and impregnated with silica.
2. Reserve food material in diatoms is in the form of lipid/volutin. Light storage lipids keep the cell afloat.
3. Sperms of diatoms have a single whiplash flagellum.
4. The oil in vv hale blubber, in fish and shark liver oils are believed to be the condensates from oil droplets originally present in the diatoms.
5. The good walls of diatoms are resistant to natural degradation. Hence, huge deposits of diatom frustules (diatomaceous earth) occur in the world- which are powdered and used in toothpaste and metal polish.
6. Diatomaceous earth is also used as an absorbent for nitroglycerine to make explosives and for filtration of liquids, especially in sugar refineries.
7. The diatom cell walls have thicker and thinner areas producing a complex series of ‘markings’ on the cell surface.
8. Diatoms reproduce asexually by cell division which occurs more frequently during midnight or early morning hours.
9. In a population of diatoms, the average size goes down as the division progresses. The original size is restored by the auxospore formation.

Euglena-like flagellates (Euglenoids)

Euglena-like flagellates are found in freshwater. They are covered by a pellicle as the cell wall is absent. They bear one or two flagella. They have a myxotrophic mode of nutrition.

1. Euglenoids are naked (cell walls absent); 1/2/3 flagella arise from an invagination at the anterior end of the cell.
2. Pyrenosomes. In euglenoids, a chloroplast contains a proteinaceous body or pyrenoid.
3. The latter has a central clear area or pyrenophore with a disc-shaped pyrenosome on either side.
4. A paramylum shell is formed over it. Paramylum granules also occur freely in the cytoplasm.
5. Euglenoids show both plant-like and animal-like characteristics.
6. A photosensitive eye spot senses the intensity and direction of light and helps in phototactic.

Slime moulds

Slime moulds may be acellular or cellular. They glide as a mass of protoplasm on decaying vegetable matter, ingesting food particles. The moving strands of protoplasm are called plasmodium in acellular slime moulds and pseudoplasmodium in cellular slime moulds.

1. Cellular slime moulds (Example; Dictyostelium) are uninucleate, haploid, naked amoeboid a large number of these aggregate to form slug (pseudoplasmodium) — the cells of the slug behaving as one unit without losing their individuality. Hence, these exhibit a primitive type of multicellularity. There occurs a division of labour among the aggregating amoebae. This aggregation of individual cells coupled with the division of labour confers upon them die name ‘communal slime moulds’.
2. The acellular slime moulds are characterised by the presence of a multinucleate, free-living, naked amoeboid mass of protoplasm (plasmodium) which may be a minute, homogeneous protoplasmodium or divided into vein-like network (phaneroplasmodium Plmarum). Under dry conditions, the plasmodium gets transformed into sporangia. Thread-like sterile structures (papillitis the sporangia help in the dispersal of spores.
3. Slime moulds show both fungus-like (spore production) and animal-like (ingestive nutrition) characteristics.
4. The fructifications or fruiting bodies of slime moulds are of three types-
   1. Sporangia. One to several thousand sporangia develop on a single plasmodium.
   2. They may be stalked or sessile, globose, cylindrical or cup-shaped and variously sculptured.
   3. lasrnodiocarps. These are mostly sessile and develop around some of the main veins of plasmodium. They are variously shaped.
   4. Australia. They are large, sessile, globose or hemispherical structures that resemble a mass of fused sporangia.
   5. Capillitia Sterile threads in sporangia of acellular slime moulds for dispersal of spores.
   6. Communal Slime Moulds. Cellular slime moulds due to the formation of pseudoplasmodium by coming together of numerous myxamoebae.

Kingdom Protista NEET Study Material

Protozoan Protists

1. Protozoan protists are classified into four
2. Foraminifera (Example Globigerinare giant, multinucleate sarcodines protected by
   a many-chambered external shell made up of calcium carbonate.
3. These produce thread-like extensions (branched through the pores in the shells to capture their The fossils of foraminifers (shells) are usually found in the regions of the earth containing petroleum.
4. Radiolarians are giant multinucleated sarcodines (several cm. in diameter), having an internal skeleton of silica.
5. Helicozoans are beautiful, freshwater sarcodines covered by a shell of silica. These give out filopodia for capturing prey.
6. Sporozoans are parasitic protozoans which form spores e.g. Plasmodium (Malarial parasite.) They form spores as sporozoites at some stage of their life cycle.
7. Ciliates have cilia all over their body. Cilia are used for locomotion and feeding.
8. Ciliates have specialised organelles for performing a variety of their functions. The defence organelles flask-shaped, trichocysts are used to paralyse prey. Trichocysts also help in the anchorage of the ciliates during feeding.
9. Ciliates exhibit nuclear dimorphism i.e. micronucleus for reproduction and macronucleus for controlling body functions.
10. Binary fission is the main mode of reproduction. Some ciliates as Paramecium reproduce sexually by conjugation.
11. The fossils of foraminifers (shells) are usually found in the regions of the earth containing petroleum.
12. Radiolarians are giant multinucleated sarcodines (several cm. in diameter), having an internal skeleton of silica.
13. Helicozoans are beautiful, freshwater sarcodines covered by a shell of silica. These give out filopodia for capturing prey.
14. Sporozoans are parasitic protozoans which form spores e.g. Plasmodium (Malarial parasite.) They form spores as sporozoites at some stage of their life cycle.
15. Ciliates have cilia all over their body. Cilia are used for locomotion and feeding.
16. Ciliates have specialised organelles for performing a variety of their functions. The defence organelles flask-shaped, trichocysts are used to paralyse prey. Trichocysts also help in the anchorage of the ciliates during feeding.
17. Ciliates exhibit nuclear dimorphism i.e. micronucleus for reproduction and macronucleus for controlling body functions. Binary fission is the main mode of reproduction. Some ciliates as Paramecium reproduce sexually by conjugation.

NEET Biology Kingdom Protista Amoeba Proteus

Important points

1. Amoeba are living grey-coloured, asymmetrical protozoan with a size of about 0.25 to 0.60 mm long.
2. The body of an Amoeba is bounded by a single-layered, thin, elastic living membrane called a plasma membrane or plasmalemma.
3. The body consists of protoplasm differentiated into a centrally placed nucleus and cytoplasm. The cytoplasm consists of two distinct regions the outer ectoplasm and the inner endoplasm.
4. The ectoplasm is thin, clear and transparent. It is said to be protective in function.
5. Endoplasm is inner, granular translucent. The endoplasm can be differentiated into two regions by their physical nature i.e., an outer stiff viscid zone called plasma gel and inner more fluid called plasmasol.
6. The endoplasm contains a contractile vacuole, many food vacuoles, globules and crystals.
7. In amoeba process of digestion takes place first in an acidic medium and then in an alkaline medium.
8. Pseudopodia of amoeba are tipped by hyaline caps.
9. The contractile vacuole is a clear bubble-like spherical structure present in the outer part of the endoplasm meant for osmoregulation. Suspended in the endoplasm are endoplasmic reticulum, ribosomes, mitochondria, Golgi bodies and Iysosomes.
10. The nucleus is dense and disc-shaped. It is situated more or less near the centre. It is bounded by a nuclear membrane. Inside the nucleus lies nucleoplasm.
11. Scattered in the nucleoplasm are a large number of chromosomes. It also contains one or two nucleoli (Sing— Nucleolus). The nucleus controls the vital functions of life.
12. Locomotion with the help of pscudopodia.
13. The single-celled body performs all vital functions of life.
14. It has a holozoic mode of nutrition. Ingestion takes place by import, invagination, circumfluence and circumvallation. Digestion of food takes place inside food vacuoles.
15. Excretion and respiration take place on the general surface of the body.
16. Reproduction by asexual means only maybe by binary, multiple fission or
    sporulation.
17. Cyst formation during unfavourable periods also helps in dispersal.
18. Amoeba was first observed by R.R. Holf inI755, and H.I. Hirschfield described the details in 1862.

NEET Biology Kingdom Protista Entamoeba Histolytica

1. It is pathogenic, photo/oan and belongs to class Carolina (sarcosine)
2. It is a human parasite and inhabits the large intestine and lower part of the small intestine.
3. It feeds on erythrocytes and worn-out cells.
4. It is irregular in shape with a single blunt pseudopodium.
5. The contractile vacuole is absent.
6. A single rounded nucleus with a fine peripheral layer of chromatin granules and many food vacuoles present.
7. Reproduction is asexual.
8. The cysts are quadrinucleate.
9. Infection of human beings occurs by taking food and water contaminated with faecal matter containing cysts.
10. Entamoeba histolytica causes amoebic dysentery’ (enteritis).
11. It occurs in two forms, trophozoite form (magna form) and precystic form fminuta form).
12. Trophozoite form (20-30 pm) pathogenic form lives in mucosa and submucosa of the large intestine and may reach the liver, brain, and gonad. It is active, motile, feeding form having a single nucleus and food vacuole; cyst absent.
13. The precystic form (12-15 mm) non-pathogenic form lives in the lumen of the large intestine. It is inactive, non-motile, non-feeding stage have 4 nuclei and a cyst.
14. It was discovered in Russia by Losch (1875).

NEET Biology Kingdom Protista Plasmodium

Important points

• It is an important pathogenic parasite which causes malaria in man.
• The lift cycle is completed in two hosts, mini is the primary host of Plii simulitmi and the mosquito is the intermediate (secondary) host.
• When an infected female Anopheles mosquito sucks the blood of a man. it injects thousands of into humans along with its saliva.
• The sporozoites reach the liver cells within half an hour after a mosquito bite.
• The sporozoites multiply in the liver through asexual reproduction known as Schizogony.
• The complete two cycles in the liver are known as pre-Erythrocytic schizogony and exo-Krythrocytic schizogony.
• Piv-l-erythrocytic cycle produces a large number of cryptoincrozoitcs and the Exolirythrocytic cycle produces metacrypto merozoitcs. They are of two sizes and are called micro meta crypto merozoites and macro meta crypto merozoites.
• Metacry ptomerozoitcs attack the R.B. Cs in man and start the erythrocytic schizogony.
• The various stages in this cycle are the signet ring stage, the Amoeboid stage, the Trophozoite stage and the Schizont.
• Some yellow-coloured excretory granules are formed on the surface of RBC known as SchufTner’s dots. During this cycle, the haemoglobin of the RBCs breaks into Hacmozoin, a toxic substance.
• After die completion of the erythrocytic cycle the RBC ruptures and this causes shivering. The haemozoin is released out of the R.B.Cs and this causes malaria fever.
• After completing several erythrocytic cycles in the human, the parasites become so plentiful, that they either kill the host or may die themselves due to the struggle for existence. To avoid the chances of total extinction, the parasites go to the other host i.e. female anopheles mosquito.

The parasites make two types of gametocytes, in the human R.B.C.s i.e.

Microgametocytes (Male) and megagametocytes (female). These gametocytes are sucked into the crop of mosquitoes when it bites an infected person.

The male gametocytes produce male gametes (each one about 6) and female gametocytes produce one female gamete each in the lumen of the crop of mosquito. The process by which the male gametes separate away from the male gametocyte is known as exflagellation.

Fertilization takes place in the cavity of the crop of mosquito and a large number of zygotes are formed. The zygotes become spindle-shaped as they pass through the wall stomach and are known as vermiform or ookinete. Some zygotes fail to penetrate and are passed out with faeces.

Kingdom Protista NEET Question Bank

The zygotes gel encysted in the stomach wall and are known as oocysts (sporocysts). There may be up to 5000 oocysts present on the stomach wall of one infected mosquito.

A large number of sporozoites are produced in the sporocysts by repeated divisions. This asexual phase is termed sporogony.

As the wall of sporocyst ruptures the sporozoites are released into the haemolymph and carried to salivary glands. During the sucking of blood, the sporozoites are injected into the body of a healthy person along with saliva.

NEET Biology Kingdom Protista Paramecium

Important points

Found in fresh water having decayed organic matter, bacteria, also known as slipper animalcule because its shape resembles like sole of a slipper and the size is about 0.3 mm.

The outer membrane is thick, inelastic and tough and is known as a pellicle.

• The oral groove extends from the anterior end and runs obliquely backwards making the body asymmetrical.
• There are rows of cilia present all over the body which arise from basal bodies (kinetoscope). The cilia are longer at the posterior end and known as caudal tuft.
• In Paramecium about 2500 cilia are present. Cilia beat in metachronous fashion and a cilium beats 10-11 times per sec. Caudal tuft cilia of paramecium are tactile.
• A row of cilia, kinetosomes and kinetodesmata constitute kinety. All the kineties form the infraciliary system or neuromotor system.
• The cytoplasm is divided into ectoplasm and endoplasm.
• A definite cell mouth is present known as the cytostome which opens into a funnel-shaped structure known as the cytopharynx, which leads to the endoplasm A temporary cytopyge or cell anus is present for the egestion of undigested food. Nutrition is holozoic.
• There are two contractile vacuoles present, one at each end of the body, meant for osmoregulation. Each contractile vacuole has a central reservoir and few radiating canals.
• Posterior contractile vacuole works more efficiently in paramecium.
• There are two nuclei which show nuclear dimorphism and make nuclear apparatus.
• They are situated in the endoplasm. Types of nuclei present are meganucleus and micronucleus. The meganucleus controls vegetative activities, divides by amitosis and contains trophochromatin (mostly RNA). The micronucleus controls reproductive activities, divides mitotically and contains dichromatic (mostly DNA).
• The species of paramecium having only three nuclei is Paramecium aurelia.

The food particle is taken through the cytostome into the endoplasm, where it becomes a vacuole known as a food vacuole.

The food vacuoles revolve in cytoplasm along an ‘8’ or ‘0’ shaped path. The movement is due to cyclosis (Rotatory streaming movement of cytoplasm).

In the ectoplasm is present a large number of sacs, all over the inner side of the pellicle known as trichocysts. These are discharged when Paramecium is stimulated and gets enlarged and thus plays a defensive role. They also help in anchorage.

Paramecium swims actively in water along a spiral path with the beating of cilia (effective stroke and recovery stroke). The spiral path results due to forward push, axial rotation and turning of the anterior end.

• Reproduction takes place asexually and sexually. Asexual reproduction takes place by transverse binary fission.
• Asexual reproduction, generation after generation leads to senility and ageing in paramecium. It resorts to sexual reproduction for rejuvenation.
• Sexual reproduction takes place by conjugation (amphimixis).
• Paramecium also overcomes senility by a cystotomy, autogamy, tendonitis and he mixes.
• In Paramecium bursaria, the green alga zoochlorella lives as a symbiont.
• Paramecium respond to electric current (galvanotaxis). If the current is weak it moves towards the cathode and if the electric current is strong moves towards the anode and then swells and disintegrates.

Paramecium contains self-duplicating bodies in cytoplasm mainly; Kappa particles other mutant particles are pi, lambda and ft particles.

Kingdom Protista NEET Mcqs

NEET Biology Kingdom Protista Trypanosoma

Important points

1. It is a parasitic zooflagellate that mostly parasitizes the blood of vertebrates, first observed by Fonle (1901 ).
2. Common species of Trypanosoma which live as parasites in the blood of man are: T. gambiense (causes African Sleeping sickness spread by tse fly, Glossina pelpalis), T. rhodesiense. (causes fast African sleeping sickness) and T. cruzi (causes South American trypanosomiasis or Chagas disease, transmitted by a large blood-sucking bug).
3. The body is microscopic, elongated, leaf-like flattened, covered by pellicles and tapering at both ends. The anterior pointed end bears flagellum and the posterior end is blunt.
4. Trypanosoma shows polymorphism. The four morphic forms me viz.
   1. Leishmania form
   2. Lcptomqnuil form
   3. Crilhidial form
   4. Trypanosoma form
5. Tire trypanosomal form occurs both in the invertebrate and vertebrate host and crithidia is found in the invertebrate host only.
6. The cytoplasm contains numerous greenish refractile granules called volutin granules supposed to store food material.
7. Large oval vesicular nucleus present with nucleolus or endosome in the middle.
8. It obtains its food by osinotrophy from the blood.
9. Excretion and respiration through the general surface.
10. Sexual reproduction is unknown and it reproduces asexually by longitudinal binary fission.
11. The life cycle is completed in two hosts. The primary host is a man and the intermediate host or vector is a tsetse fly.
12. Infection to man is caused by the introduction of meta cysts by the bite of the tsetse fly.
13. Ablastin. It is the antibody produced during early infection of trypanosoma.
14. Meninges-encephalitis is caused by Trypanosoma.

NEET Biology Kingdom Protista Leishmania

Leishmania is also a digenetic, parasitic flagellate. The vertebrate host is man and the invertebrate host is sand fly of the genus Phlebotomus. Reserve hosts are cats and dogs. Leishmania is an intracellular parasite of man.

It is dimorphic. Two forms are:

1. Leishmania form
2. Leptomonad form

Leishmania donovani causes kala-azar or Visceral Leishmaniasis or dum dum fever in Africa, South America; India, and China. In Kala Azar Antimony compounds, like tartar emetic, sodium antimony tartrate, gluconate etc are used as drugs.

Leishmania tropica is a causative agent of Oriental sore. This species is more common in Africa and Central Asia.

NEET Biology Kingdom Protista Giardia

Monogenetic parasite of the human large intestine classified under the class Flagellata.

Giardia lamblia also referred to as Giardia intestinalis, is colloquially termed the “grand old man of the intestine.” Giardia induces “giardiasis” or dysentery in humans. Other species are also present in rabbits, dogs, cats, rats, guinea pigs, etc.

Trichomonas

• Trichomonas is a monogenetic, parasitic flagellate organism.
• Trichomonas is the predominant protozoan present in all vertebrate taxa. Trichomonas buccalis is located in the oral cavity and exacerbates pyorrhea.
• Trichomonas vaginalis is present in the vagina of a human female. It induces vaginitis and leucorrhea in females. Male individuals remain unaffected.
• Trichomonas hominis resides in the human large intestine, resulting in recurrent diarrhea.
• Helizoans (Solar Animalcules). The protists exhibit radiating axopodia reinforced by axial filaments. Illustration of Actinophrys. The latter exists in both freshwater and saltwater. It is heterotrophic.

NEET Biology Kingdom Protista Foraminiferans

Sarcodines possess one or more chambered calcareous shells, with extracapsular protoplasm that generates reticulopodia.

• Foraminifera ooze frequently accumulates at the seabed and, with time, transforms into limestone formations. The Egyptian pyramids are constructed from it.
• Petroleum-bearing formations frequently contain fossilized foraminifera.
• The White Chalk of the Cretaceous period and the Nummulitic Limestones of the Eocene epoch are of foraminiferal origin. Illustrations. Haphidium (also known as Polystomella), Globigerina.

NEET Biology Kingdom Protista Radiolarians

The snowlines are of considerable size and multifaceted. The chromosomal count is elevated.

• Aulocantha possesses the highest chromosomal count, totalling 1600. Radiolarians possess siliceous, structured capsules, with the intracapsular region containing nuclei and vacuoles.
• The extracapsular region contains pseudopodia (niopodia, axopodia, or reticulopodia).
• Radiolarian ooze resembles diatomaceous earth. Chalk was developed during the Ordovician-Carboniferous period, and siliceous powder was produced in Tertiary rocks. Illustrations. Acanthomctra, Ccillozoie.

Kingdom Protista NEET Exam Preparation

NEET Biology Kingdom Protista Types Or Parasites

1. Permanent parasite. Parasitic for whole life, Example Entamoeba,
2. Obligate parasite. Unable to live outside the body of the host. Example viruses, Mycoplasma, (Hi) Facultative parasites, capable of living as a parasite (normally free-living), e.g. Clostridium tetani
3. Temporary parasite. Comes in contact with the host for only a part of the lifecycle,
4. Periodic parasite. Visiting host at a specific period of life history (W) Intermittent parasite. Temporary parasite visiting host at intervals. Example female Mosquito, Leech,
5. Incidental parasite. An organism becoming parasitic over host perchance/incidentally
6. Ectoparasite. On the surface of the host, Example Hydramoeba.
7. Endoparasite. Parasites live inside the body of the host It is of the following types.
8. Intracellular/Cytozoic parasite Endoparasite within host cells, Example Plasmodium.
9. intercellular/Histozoic/Tissue parasite. Endoparasite in spaces amongst cells Example Trichinella.

Body Fluid Parasite. In blood and other fluids, for example, Trypanosoma, (x) Coelozoic/ Cavity/Gut/Parasite. In the lumen/cavity of the body and organs, for Example; Giardia noxious/ Monogenetic parasite.

Passing life in a single host,  Heteroxenous/Heteroecious/ Digenetic parasite. Passing life in two hosts Hyper parasite.

Parasite over Parasite. Protozoan. Noscma is parasitic over protozoan Spliaerospora which is itself- parasitic overToad Fish. Pathogenic parasite, disease-causing (x iv) Non-pathogenic parasite.

Types of Hosts Primary Host. Host in which the parasite becomes sexually mature. Definitive Host.

Host of the adult parasite, Intermediate/Secondary Host. The host in which the parasite passes its larval stage is the collateral Host. Alternate host in which the parasite can subsist but cannot complete its life cycle.

• Coordinated ciliary beating may be metachronous (when cilia of transverse rows beat simultaneously) or synchronous (when cilia of longitudinal rows beat simultaneously). Among the protozoans, ciliates arc fastest in their locomotion and cover about 2 min per second.
• Medium in the food vacuole of Paramecium is first acidic and then alkaline.
  Nuclear dimorphism. Presence of two morphologically and physiologically different nuclei e.g. in ciliates.
• The Chromatin of the meganucleus is called trophochromatin,
  while that of the micronucleus is called idiochromatin.
• Trichocysts: Reported by Ellis. Pellicle, an extracellular coat of Paramecium is compa
  able to the skin of higher animals. Hill (1752) Discovered Paramecium. T.H. Sonneborn (1917) Reported that Paramecium caudatum has 16 syngens (varieties showing conjugation), while P. aurelia has 14 syngens.He also reported the cytoplasmic inheritance of Kappa particles in Paramecium.
• Ceratium is a member of dinoflagellates which are called fire algae as most of their members have luciferin compounds.
• Nosema was discovered by Pasteur (1865) causing the chronic disease ‘pebrine’ in silkworms and mosena disease in honeybees.
• Oriental sores also called cutaneous leishmaniasis because of the formation of 2-3 raised nodular lesions of about 2 5 cm in diameter on the skin of the exposed part of the body. Entamoeba gingivalis is not a causative agent of pyorrhoea but aggravates it, the causative agent is Trichomonas tenax. Chromatoid bodies stain easily with dyes which stain the chromatin therefore called so actually they are reserve food bodies formed in precystic forms which form cysts by secreting thin transparent cysts.
• The damaged cells of the spleen release lysolecithin which further damages RBC causing excessive release of bile pigments even in urine, therefore, called black water fever by Plasmodium falciparum. Coclozoic parasites are those which live in the alimentary canal or cavities of the host body, example; Entamoeba histolytica, Giardia lamblia and Balantidium coli.
• Schizogony is also called agamogony which is an asexual process not related to the sexual phenomenon. The product of schizogony generally grows into trophozoite.
• In certain species, capillitia have granules of carbonate of lime in capillitial threads called limeknots. The spores germinate into protoplasm exhibiting amoeboid movements before karyogamy therefore called myxamoebae.

Important Contributors

• Term Protista was given by Eamst Haeckel
• Leeuwenhoek (1674. 1675, 1681). First to see and sketch protozoan protists including Vorticella and Gia- cs> Golgi (1885). Studied erythrocytic cycle of Plasmonlia (from his stool). Goldfuss (1822). Separated protozoa from other animals. Von-Sicbold (1845). Found protozoans to be unicellular.
• The term unicellular was replaced with acellular by Dobel. Haeckel. In 1873, he differentiated protozoa from metazoa. Haeckel (1886) carved the kingdom protista for single-celled organisms. Lnvernn (1880). Discovered Plasmodium in erythrocytes.

Quanta to memory

• The earliest Protist was probably a flagellate. Flagella helped in moving the large eukaryotic cell through the water to where it could survive i.e. towards the light in the case of photoautotrophs and towards food in the case of heterotrophs. Flagellated cells are absent in red algae, higher seed plants and higher fungi. Several aquatic larval stages of animals are ciliated.
• The presence or absence, number, appearance, shape and place of insertion of flagella are important characteristics of protists. Proterospongia.
• A colonial protozoan protist having choanocyte-like flagellated and collared cells. It is a connecting link between Protista and Porifera. Auxospores.
• Rejuvescent spores formed in diatoms to correct the size which decreases with each binary fission. Schuffner’s granules are absent in the blood of a person infected with P. malariae. A few members of dinoflagellates, Gonyaulax and Gymnodinium produce the so-called ‘red tide’.
• A sudden increase in their number at the sea surface over a vast expanse makes the sea appear red. A toxin released by such large numbers may kill other marine animals like fish.
• Zooxanthellae. Dinoflagellates symbionts in other protists and invertebrates. Some dinoflagellates such as Noctiluca are phosphorescent (bioluminescent).
• They make the sea surface glow in the dark. Volvox colony is called coenobium as the zooids (individuals of the colony) are interconnected by protoplasmic strands. Noctiluca has photogenic granules with a light-emitting pigment called luciferin.
• It shows bioluminescence so is commonly called night light. The process of sexual reproduction allows greater variation in the progeny than asexual reproduction by mitosis.
• The rapid evolutionary advancements made during the one billion years of eukaryotic existence were believed to be made possible by sexual reproduction. Entamoeba gingivalis is found in 70% population and spreads through kissing. E. histolytica was discovered by Lamble however details regarding its pathogenicity were given by Losch.
• E. coli is found as an endocommensal in the colon of about 50% population. Egyptian pyramids are formed of Foaminiferan ooze. Aulocantha (a radiolarian protozoa) has the largest number of chromosomes (1600).
• Opalina is found as an endo commensal in the rectum of the frog. Vorticella is an epizoic protozoan and is commonly called bell-animalcule.

Kingdom Protista NEET Previous Year Questions

NEET Biology Kingdom Protista Questions From Competitive Examination

Question 1. In amoeba, contractile vacuole is present :

1. Near trailing end
2. Near advancing end
3. In the middle of the body
4. Near the nucleus.

Answer: 1. Near trailing end

Question 2. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?

1. Culex pipiens—filariasis
2. Aedes aegyptii—yellow fever
3. Anopheles culinarians—leishmaniasis
4. Glossina palpalis—sleeping sickness

Answer: 3. Anopheles culinarians—leishmaniasis

Question 3. A contractile vacuole meant for osmoregulation is not found in:

1. Sarcodina
2. Sporozoa
3. Zooflagellata
4. Slime moulds.

Answer: 2. Sporozoa

Question 4. Malaria is caused by :

1. Virus
2. Bacterium
3. Sporozoan
4. Helminth.

Answer: 3. Sporozoan

Question 5. Which of the following is not connected with the reproduction of protozoans?

1. Cryptogamy
2. Schizogamy
3. Autogamy
4. Conjugation.

Answer: 2. Schizogamy

Question 6. Which of the following features is common in all protozoans?

1. Holozoic nutrition
2. Contractile vacuole
3. Pseudopodia
4. Eukaryotic organisation.

Answer: 4. Eukaryotic organisation.

Question 7. What of the following is not true of Euglena?

1. Presence of chlorophyll
2. Presence of proteinaceous pellicle
3. Presence of cellulose cell wall
4. Presence of flagellum.

Answer: 3. Presence of cellulose cell wall

Question 8. Which of the following is incorrect:

1. Omnivory
2. Holozoic nutrition
3. Photoautotrophy
4. Pseudopodia feeder.

Answer: 3. Photoautotrophy

Question 9. Which of the following features is common amongst euglena, amoeba, entamoeba and trypanosoma?

1. Binary fission
2. Holozoic nutrition
3. Contractile vacuole
4. Multiple fission.

Answer: 1. Binary fission

Kingdom Protista NEET Notes

Question 10. Which of the following unicellular organisms has a macronucleus for trophic function and one or more micronuclei for reproduction?

1. Euglena
2. Amoeba
3. Paramecium
4. Trypanosoma.

Answer: 3. Paramecium

Question 11. man in the life cycle of plasmodium is

1. Primary host
2. Secondary host
3. Intermediate host
4. None of these

Answer: 2. Secondary host

Question 12. Entamoeba histolytica differs from amoeba in the absence of

1. Pseacopodia
2. Contractile vacuole
3. Nucleus
4. Aectoplasm

Answer: 2. Contractile vacuole

Question 13. Myxomycetes are :

1. Saprobes or parasites, having mycelia, asexual reproduction by fragmentation, sexual reproduction by fusion of gametes
2. Slimy mass of multinucleate protoplasm, having pseudopodia-like structures for engulfing food, reproduction through fragmentation or zoospores
3. Prokaryotic organisms, cellular or acellular, saprobes or autotrophic, reproduce by binary fission
4. Eukaryotic, single-celled or filamentous, saprobes or autotrophic, asexual reproduction by fusion of two cells of their nuclei

Answer: 2. Slimy mass of multinucleate protoplasm, having pseudopodia-like structures for engulfing food, reproduction through fragmentation or zoospores

Question 14. The thalloid body of a slime mould (myxomycetes) is known as:

1. Fruiting body
2. Mycelium
3. Protonema
4. Plasmodium

Answer: 4. Plasmodium

Question 15. What is common about trypanosoma, noctiluca, monocystis and giardia?

1. They produce spores
2. These are all parasites
3. These are all unicellular protists
4. They have flagella.

Answer: 3. These are all unicellular protists

Question 16. Which one of the following is a slime mould?

1. Physarum
2. Thiobacillus
3. Anabaena
4. Rhizopus

Answer: 1. Physarum

Question 17. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched

1. Yeast – ethanol
2. Streptomycetes – antibiotic
3. Coliforms- vinegar
4. Methanogens- gobar gas

Answer: 3. Coliforms- vinegar

Question 19. Single-celled eukaryotes are included in :

1. Fungi
2. Archaea
3. Monera
4. Protista.

Answer: 4. Protista.

Kingdom Protista NEET MCQs

Question 20. Which one of the following life cycle stages of the malarial parasite is responsible for the relapse of malarial symptoms?

1. Merozoite
2. Hypnozoite
3. Sporozoite
4. Gametocyte

Answer: 1. Merozoite

NEET Biology Kingdom Protista Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Protists which arc diploid reproduce sexually by the process of:

1. Zygotic meiosis
2. Cyst formation
3. Binary fission
4. Gametic meiosis.

Answer: 4. Gametic meiosis.

Question 2. Photosynthetic protists are :

1. Diatoms, euglenoids and slime moulds
2. Sareodincs Dinoflagellates and diatoms
3. Euglcnoids, diatoms and dinoflagellates
4. Ciiatcs. Zooflagellates and dinoflagellates.

Answer: 3. Sareodincs. Dinoflagellates and diatoms

Question 3. Unicellular organisms having mouth, gullet, anus, sensory structures and pellicle belong to the group:

1. Zoomastigina
2. Ciliophora
3. Sporozoa
4. Sarcodina.

Answer: 2. Ciliophora

Question 4. Red tide is caused by :

1. Gonyaulax
2. Noctiluca
3. Triceratops
4. Pyrocyst.

Answer: 1. Gonyaulax

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Kingdom Protista MCQs Question 5. Sea water glows during the night due to the occurrence of:

1. Gonyaulax
2. Noctiluca
3. Euglena
4. Cyclotella.

Answer: 2. Euglena

Question 6. Diatomaceous earth is formed due to the remains of the following parts of diatoms:

1. Cell wall
2. Chloroplast
3. Cytoplasm
4. All of these.

Answer: 1. Cell wall

Question 7. Pyorrhoea is caused by :

1. Entamoeba gingivalis
2. Trichomonas buccalis
3. Lieshmania donovani
4. Trypanosoma gambiense.

Answer: 2. Trichomonas buccalis

Question 8. The vegetative phase of slime moulds is called:

1. Cyst
2. Hypha
3. Plasmodium
4. Sporangium.

Answer: 3. Plasmodium

Question 9. Diatoms are also known as :

1. Cyanobacteria
2. Blue-green algae
3. Green algae
4. Golden brown algae.

Answer: 2. Blue-green algae

Kingdom Protista MCQs Question 10. Microfossils are often associated with petroleum-bearing formations belonging to :

1. Euglenoids
2. Dinoflagellates
3. Rotifers
4. Foraminiferans.

Answer: 2. Dinoflagellates

Question 11. Photosynthetic protists contribute a percentage of global photosynthesis:

1. 80
2. 70
3. 50
4. 50

Answer: 1. 80

Question 12. Which of the following is an insect vector for leishmania?

1. Male anopheles mosquito
2. Female anopheles mosquito
3. Sand flies
4. Tse-tse fly.

Answer: 3. Sand flies

Question 13. Light sensitive structure of euglenoids is :

1. Cilium
2. Eye spot
3. Flagellum
4. Chloroplast.

Answer: 2. Eye spot

Question 14. The class of phylum protozoa to which amoeba belongs is:

1. Ciliata
2. Rhizopoda
3. Mastigophora
4. Sporozoa.

Answer: 3. Mastigophora

Question 18. Amoeba is:

1. Saprozoic
2. Autotrophic
3. Heterotrophic
4. Parasitic.

Answer: 3. Hetcrotrophic

Question 19. The type of pseudopodium found in amoeba is:

1. Filopodium
2. Reticulopodium
3. Lobopodium
4. Axopodium.

Answer: 3. Lobopodium

Question 20. Pseudopodia in amoeba are formed by :

1. Pressure flow of cytoplasm
2. Cell membrane contraction
3. Movement of vacuoles
4. All the above.

Answer: 1. Pressure flow of cytoplasm

Kingdom Protista MCQs Question 21. Food particles are procured by amoeba by :

1. Invagination and import
2. Circrumvallation
3. Circumfluence
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 22. In amoeba, food is stored and digested in food vacuoles which is analogous to:

1. Stomach of rabbit
2. Liver of rabbit
3. Alimentary canal of rabbit
4. The intestine of a rabbit.

Answer: 1. Stomach of rabbit

Question 23. The contractile vacuole’s function in amoeba is :

1. Reproduction
2. Digestion of food
3. Storage of food
4. Osmoregulation.

Answer: 4. Osmoregulation.

Question 24. Locomotion in amoeba takes place by :

1. Pseudopodia
2. Flagella
3. Cillia
4. Seta

Answer: 1. Pseudopodia

Question 25. The freshwater amoeba and intestinal amoeba are alike in the possession of single contractile vacuole

1. The absence of cilia
2. The structure of the cyst
3. Their mechanism of dispersal.

Answer: 2. The structure of the cyst

Question 26. Which mom widely accepted means of promotion m amoeba?

1. Walking movement theory
2. Willing movement theory
3. Sol-gel theory
4. Surface tension theory.

Answer: 3. Sol-gel theory

Kingdom Protista MCQs Question 27. Food capturing is the function of:

1. Food vacuole
2. Rctieulopodium
3. Nucleolus
4. Eye spot.

Answer: 2. Rctieulopodium

Question 28. Surface tension theory explains the theory of:

1. Amoeboid movement
2. Caterpillar movement of hydra
3. Jerking movement of Euglena
4. Tension develops on the surface during the movement of paramecium in water.

Answer: 1. Amoeboid movement

Question 29. Excretion in amoeba takes place mainly by :

1. Food vacuole
2. General surface
3. Contractile vacuole
4. Pseudopodia.

Answer: 2. General surface

Question 30. If the water of the pond becomes dry, the amoeba will:

1. Stick to the gills of the fish
2. Undergo encystment
3. Enter down into the soil
4. Enter in the body of vertebrates.

Answer: 2. Undergo encystment

Question 31. Chromatin in the nucleus of amoeba is present in the form of:

1. Reticulum
2. Fine granular material
3. Rod-like structure
4. Spherical structure.

Answer: 2. Fine granular material

Question 32. Due to the formation of many pseudopodia simultaneously, the amoeba is often called:

1. Polymorphic
2. Polypodial
3. Lobose protozoan
4. Rhizopod protozoan.

Answer: 2. Polypodial

Question 33. Under favourable conditions, amoeba reproduces by:

1. Binary fission
2. Multiple fission
3. Encystment
4. Fragmentation.

Answer: 1. Binary fission

MCQs on Protista Question 34. The contractile vacuole of amoeba is analogous to:

1. Sweat glands of man
2. The uriniferous tubule of a frog
3. The pulsating heart of a rabbit
4. Typhlosole of earthworm.

Answer: 2. Uriniferous tubule of frog

Question 35. Amoebulae are the by-products of:

1. Syngamy
2. Fragmentation
3. Multiple fission
4. Binary fission.

Answer: 3. Multiple fission

Question 36. Kala-azar is a protozoan disease spread by:

1. Glossina palpalis
2. Culex vislmin
3. Plileobotamus argentipis
4. Aedes Egypt.

Answer: 3. Plileobotamus argentipis

Question 37. Bioluminescence is exhibited by :

1. Uislimania
2. Ceratium
3. Toxoplasma
4. Entamoeba.

Answer: 4. Entamoeba.

Question 38. Entamoeba histolytica lives as an endoparasite in:

1. Stomach of man
2. The large intestine of a man
3. Liver of man
4. Lungs of man.

Answer: 2. Large intestine of man

MCQs on Protista Question 39. How many nuclei are found in the meta cyst of Entamoeba histolytica?

1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four

Answer: 4. Four

Question 40. Besides the bead-like chromatin granules, what is present inside the nucleus of Entamoeba histolytica

1. Parabasal body
2. Micronucleus
3. Karyosomc
4. Contractile vacuoles.

Answer: 3. Karyosomc

Question 41. Infective cyst of entamoeba has :

1. One nucleus with four chromosomes
2. One nucleus with two chromatids
3. Only one nucleus
4. Four nuclei.

Answer: 4. One nucleus with two chromatids

Question 42. Amoebic dysentery is caused by:

1. Amoeba proteus
2. Plasmodium vivax
3. Trypanosoma
4. Entamoeba histolytica.

Answer: 4. Entamoeba histolytica.

MCQs on Protista Question 43. From a single cyst of entamoeba, the number of young ones which hatch out are :

1. 8
2. 4
3. 6
4. 2.

Answer: 3. 6

Question 44. Reproduction in trophozoite of entamoeba histolytica takes place by:

1. Conjugation
2. Multiple fission
3. Autogas
4. Binary fission.

Answer: 2. Multiple fission

Question 45. Which of the following is a human parasitic protozoan found in the mouth attacking gums and teeth?

1. Giardia intestinalis
2. Entamoeba coli
3. Entamoeba histolytica
4. Entamoeba gingivalis.

Answer: 4. Entamoeba gingivalis.

Question 46. Entamoeba histolytica differs from amoeba proteus in not having:

1. Pseudopodia
2. Contractile vacuole
3. Ectoplasm and endoplasm
4. Nucleus.

Answer: 2. Contractile vacuole

Question 47. The infective stage of entamoeba histolytica is:

1. Mature cyst
2. Young trophozoite
3. Mature trophozoite
4. Sporozoite.

Answer: 1. Mature cyst

MCQs on Protista Question 48. Trophozoite and minuta. The trophozoite is the active, motile, feeding form and is pathogenic whereas minute is the cystic small, spherical, non-motile, non-feeding form which is non-pathogenic to man and serves for transmission of the parasite from one to another host:

1. Statement is wrong
2. Statement is true
3. The statement is partially correct
4. None of these.

Answer: 2. Statement is true

Question 49. The cell of paramecium is bounded by a firm membrane called :

1. Cuticle
2. Pellicle
3. Epidemlis
4. Plusmaleirtifia

Answer: 3. Epidemlis

Question 50. Cilia in paramecium arise from :

1. Kinetochore
2. Kinetosome
3. Kinetodesma
4. None of these above.

Answer: 2. Kinetosome

Question 51. Cilia of paramecium are :

1. Of uniform length
2. Much longer on the posterior end
3. Much longer on the anterior end
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Much longer on the posterior end

Question 52. Cilia in paramecium are :

1. Ulotrichous
2. Atrichous
3. Heterotrichous
4. Spirotrichous.

Answer: 1. Holotrichous

MCQs on Protista Question 53. The position of the oral groove in paramecium is:

1. Dorsovcntral
2. Ventral
3. Anterolateral
4. Posterolateral.

Answer: 2. Ventral

Question 54. In paramecium trichocysts alternate with the bases of the cilia the function of trichocysts is:

1. Anchorage, offence and defence
2. Protection
3. Anchorage to cilia
4. Secretion.

Answer: 1. Anchorage, offence and defence

Question 55. Paramecium has:

1. Single nucleus
2. Two nuclei of the same size
3. Two nuclei; a macronucleus and a micronucleus
4. Four nuclei.

Answer: 3. Two nuclei; a macronucleus and a micronucleus

Biology MCQ Protista Question 56. What response is shown by paramecium when it faces a foreign body or chemical?

1. Avoiding reaction
2. Remains undisturbed
3. Fights its way through
4. Round up remains at one spot.

Answer: 1. Avoiding reaction

Question 57. The mode of ingestion in paramecium is:

1. Holophytic
2. Saprozoic
3. Holozoic
4. Saprophytic.

Answer: 3. Holozoic

Question 58. Movement of food vacuole in paramecium along a definite path due to rotatory streaming movement of protoplasm is known as:

1. Cytokinesis
2. Cyclosis
3. Endomixis
4. Metagenesis.

Answer: 2. Cyclosis

Question 59. The cyclosis is to ensure that :

1. Food material is digested completely
2. Digested food material is distributed uniformly
3. Excretory products are removed
4. Mixing of food with enzymes takes place properly.

Answer: 2. Digested food material is distributed uniformly

Question 60. Undigested food material is removed from paramecium by:

1. Bursting of contractile vacuole
2. Bursting of food vacuole
3. Temporarily formed anus
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Temporarily formed anus

Question 61. Macronucleus is responsible for :

1. Genetic functions of the organism
2. Initiating conjugation
3. Initiating binary fission
4. Vegetative functions of the organism

Answer: 4. Vegetatiye functions of the organism

Biology MCQ Protista Question 62. Cytoproct serves for:

1. Intake of h,O
2. Controlling of activities of cilia
3. Exit of undigested wastes
4. Entry of food vacuoles.

Answer: 3. Exit of undigested wastes

Question 63. The function of two contractile vacuoles is :

1. Removal of excretory products after digestion
2. Removal of nitrogenous wastes
3. Removal of excess water content from the cytoplasm
4. Respiration.

Answer: 3. Removal of excess of water content from cytoplasm

Question 64. During favourable conditions, binary fission occurs. Its advantages are:

1. Faster multiplication
2. Slower increase in the number
3. Consumes less time
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Faster multiplication

Question 65. Usually, one binary fission takes :

1. One hour
2. Half an hour
3. Three hours.

Answer: 3. Three hours.

Question 66. Two mating types of paramecium stand for the two individuals of:

1. Two species
2. One species
3. One variety of one species
4. Two varieties of the same species.

Answer: 4. Two varieties of the same species.

Biology MCQ Protista Question 67. Synkaryon divides:

1. Twice to form four nuclei
2. Thrice to form eight nuclei
3. Four to form sixteen nuclei
4. Once two nuclei

Answer: 2. Thrice to form eight nuclei

Question 68. Each ex-conjugant gives rise to how many daughter paramecia

1. Four
2. Three
3. Eight
4. Two

Answer: 1. Four

Question 69. In paramecium aurelia and p. Caudatum, the position of cytoproct is:

1. Posterolateral
2. Anterolateral
3. Posteroventral
4. Anterodorsal.

Answer: 1. Posterolateral

Kingdom Protista NEET Biology Question 70. The function of the neuromotor system in paramecium is to:

1. Co-ordinate the various stimuli
2. Co-ordinate the ciliary beat
3. Control osmoregulation
4. Control digestion.

Answer: 2. Co-ordinate the ciliary beat

Question 71. Plasmodium was discovered by :

1. Golgi and celli
2. Ronald ross
3. Charles laver
4. Patric mansu.

Answer: 3. Charles Laveran

Question 72. The average incubation period of Plasmodium vivax is:

1. 10 Days
2. 12 Days
3. 14 Days
4. 20 Days.

Answer: 3. 14 Days

Question 73. The duration of erythrocytic schizogony in Plasmodium malaria is about:

1. 24 Hours
2. 48 Hours
3. 72 Hours
4. 30 Hours.

Answer: 2. 48 Hours

Kingdom Protista NEET Biology Question 74. Exflagcllalion of the male gametocyte of plasmodium occurs in :

1. Erythrocyte of man
2. Salivary glands of female anopheles
3. Stomach of the female anopheles
4. Liver cells of man.

Answer: 3. Salivary glands of female anopheles

Question 75. The merozoites arc produced during schizogony or :

1. Binary fission
2. Multiple fission
3. Repeated mitotic division
4. Fragmentation.

Answer: 2. Multiple fission

Question 76. The infective stage in the life cycle of plasmodium is:

1. Schizont
2. Sporozoite
3. Ookinete
4. Mcrozoilc.

Answer: 2. Sporozoite

Question 77. Fusion of male and female gametes of plasmodium takes place in:

1. Liver cells of man
2. The gut of a female Anopheles mosquito
3. Blood cells of man
4. Salivary glands of the mosquito.

Answer: 2. The gut of female anopheles mosquito

Kingdom Protista NEET Biology Question 78. Oocyst of plasmodium is formed in :

1. Erythrocyte of man
2. Plasma of man
3. Liver cells of man
4. Gut wall of mosquito.

Answer: 4. Gut wall of mosquito.

Question 79. The life cycle of plasmodium is:

1. Polymorphic
2. Polygenetic
3. Digenetic
4. Monogenetic.

Answer: 3. Digenetic

Question 80. The agony phase of the sexual phase of plasmodium is completed in:

1. The blood of man
2. The liver cells of man
3. Stomach of female Anopheles mosquito
4. Salivary glands of the female anopheles mosquito.

Answer: 3. Stomach of the female anopheles mosquito

Question 81. Mild tertian malaria is caused by :

1. Plasmodium vivax
2. Plasmodium falciparum
3. Plasmodium ovale
4. Plasmodium malariae.

Answer: 3. Plasmodium ovale

Kingdom Protista NEET Biology Question 82. The toxic malarial pigment causes chills and fever is known as:

1. Haemoglobin
2. Haematin
3. Haemozoin
4. Schuffner’s granules.

Answer: 3. Haemozoin

Question 83. The schizont stage in the life cycle of plasmodium occurs in :

1. Erythrocytes of man
2. Leucocyte cells of man
3. Salivary glands of female anopheles
4. Stomach of female anopheles.

Answer: 1. Erythrocytes of man

Question 84. Cerebral malaria is caused by :

1. Plasmodium falciparum
2. Plasmodium malariae
3. Plasmodium ovale
4. Plasmodium vivax.

Answer: 1. Plasmodium falciparum

Question 85. Which of the following do not have locomotory organelles

1. Rhizopoda
2. Rhizopod
3. Ciliata
4. Sporozoa.

Answer: 4. Sporozoa.

Question 86. Trypanosoma gnmbirnsr causes the disease :

1. Hcri beri
2. Sleeping sickness
3. Malaria.

Answer: 3. Malaria.

Kingdom Protista NEET Biology Question 87. Trypanosoma gamblers live in the human body in :

1. Lymph
2. Blood
3. Cerebrospinal fluid
4. Cerebrospinal fluid and blood.

Answer: 4. Cerebrospinal fluid and blood.

Question 88. Trypanosoma is transmitted by :

1. Contamination
2. Inoculation
3. Contagious
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Inoculation

Question 89. Schaffner’s dots are present in :

1. Entamoeba
2. Schizont stage ofplasmodium
3. Ookinete stage of plasmodium
4. Trophozoite stage of plasmodium.

Answer: 4. Trophozoite stage of plasmodium.

Question 90. The most potent drug against malaria fever is :

1. Septran
2. Daraprim
3. Cinchona
4. Tetracycline

Answer: 2. Daraprim

Question 91. Which one of the following is a non-pathogenic protozoan?

1. Entamoeba coli
2. Entamoeba gingivalis
3. Entamoeba histolytica
4. Leishmania.

Answer: 1. Entamoeba coli

Kingdom Protista NEET Biology Question 92. What is the number of metacryptozoite formed per schizoint in Plasmodium vivax?

1. 10,000
2. 15,000
3. 40,000
4. 30,000

Answer: 1. 10,000

Question 93. Dinoflagellates resemble dinosaurs in:

1. Armoured body
2. Time of origin
3. Having flagellate cells
4. Being heterotrophs.

Answer: 1. Armoured body

Question 94. The micronucleated cyst stage is found in:

1. Entamoeba histolytica
2. Leishmania
3. Trypanosoma
4. Entamoeba coli.

Answer: 4. Entamoeba coli.

Question 95. The life history of the human malarial parasite in Anopheles was first described by :

1. Celli
2. Ronald ross
3. Grassi
4. Laveran.

Answer: 3. Grassi

Question 96. Paroxysm in tertian malaria occurs after every :

1. 72 Hours
2. 48 Hours
3. 24 Hour
4. 12 Hours

Answer: 2. 48 Hours

Kingdom Protista MCQs Question 97. When a freshwater pond is about to dry, the likely response of amoeba will be:

1. Binary fission
2. Encystment
3. Quick feeding
4. No change

Answer: 2. Encystment

Question 98. The marine, pelagic, bioluminescent and tentacled protozoan is

1. Noctiluca
2. Giardia
3. Balantidium
4. Mastigoamoeba.

Answer: 1. Noctiluca

Question 99. Which stage of plasmodium is likely to be found in the stomach of a female anopheles, which has just taken a blood meal from a patient with malaria?

1. Merozoites, trophozoites and gametocytes
2. Sporozoites, trophozoites and gametes
3. Merozoites, gametocytes and zygotes
4. Gametocytes, ookinetes and gametes.

Answer: 1. Merozoites, trophozoites and gametocytes

Question 100. Which of the following organelles is not seen in the protozoa?

1. Setae
2. Flagella
3. Undulating membrane
4. Lobopodium.

Answer: 1. Setae

Question 101. Removal of micronucleus in paramecium will impair the function of :

1. Reproduction
2. Excretion
3. Locomotion
4. Osmoregulation.

Answer: 1. Reproduction

Kingdom Protista MCQs Question 102. Bouts of recurrent fever in malaria are due to :

1. Entry of sporozoites in the liver
2. Merozoites attacking fresh rbc
3. Anticoagulants and irritants are introduced during mosquito bites.
4. Release of merozoites and their metabolic wastes.

Answer: 4. Release of merozoites and their metabolic wastes.

Question 103. Trypanosoma is :

1. Non-pathogenic
2. Polymorphic
3. Non-genetic
4. Facultative.

Answer: 2. Polymorphic

Question 104. Schizogony in plasmodium occurs in :

1. Rbc of man
2. Alimentary canal of mosquito
3. Liver of man
4. Rbc and liver of man.

Answer: 4. Rbc and liver of man.

Question 105. Plasmodium vivax belongs to the class :

1. Telosporea
2. Sarcodina
3. Mastigophora
4. Ciliata.

Answer: 1. Telosporea

Question 106. Black water fever is another name for :

1. Yellow fever
2. Scarlet fever
3. Encephalitis
4. Etivo-automonal malaria.

Answer: 4. Etivo-automonal malaria.

Kingdom Protista MCQs Question 107. Protozoans living in the seminal vesicle of earthworms are:

1. Monocytes
2. Balantidium
3. Trichonympha
4. Opalina.

Answer: 1. Monocystis

Question 108. Which of the following adjectives cannot be correctly applied to describe entamoeba histolytica?

1. Digenetic
2. Dimorphic
3. Pathogenic
4. Endoparasite.

Answer: 1. Digenetic

Question 109. For a malarial parasite, humans are :

1. Intermediate hosts
2. Reservoir hosts
3. Final host
4. Carrier.

Answer: 1. Intermediate hosts

Question 110. The transmission of entamoeba histolytica takes place by:

1. Female anopheles mosquito
2. Air
3. Kissing
4. Contaminated food and water.

Answer: 4. Contaminated food and water.

MCQs on Protista Question 111. Cavity of man. It causes :

1. Pyorrhoea
2. Amoebic dysentery
3. Bronchitis
4. No disease.

Answer: 4. No disease.

Question 112. African sleeping sickness or gambiense fever is caused by :

1. Entamoeba
2. Trypanosoma
3. Leishmania
4. Trichomonas.

Answer: 2. Trypanosoma

Question 113. Slime moulds belong to :

1. Fungi
2. Protista
3. Monera
4. Plantae

Answer: 2. Protista

Question 114. Shell or frustules occur in :

1. Diatoms
2. Heliozoans
3. Radiolarians
4. Foraminifera.

Answer: 1. Diatoms

Question 115. A common phycobiont in lichens is :

1. Microcystis
2. Euglena
3. Citraria
4. Trebauxia.

Answer: 4. Trebauxia.

MCQs on Protista Question 116. Physarella and physarum are the examples of :

1. Cellular slime moulds
2. Acellular slime moulds
3. Protozoan
4. Blue-green algae.

Answer: 2. Acellular slime moulds

Question 117. A genus with a single species is termed as :

1. Monotypic
2. Typical
3. Atypical
4. Polytypic.

Answer: 1. Monotypic

Question 118. The first act in taxonomy is :

1. Description
2. Identification
3. Naming
4. Classification.

Answer: 2. Identification

Question 119. Which of the following possesses characteristics of a plant and animal :

1. Euglena
2. Bacteria
3. Mycoplasma
4. Paramecium.

Answer: 1. Euglena

Question 120. The wall is two-layered in :

1. Mycoplasma
2. Archaebacteria
3. Gram +ve bacteria
4. Gram -ve bacteria.

Answer: 4. Gram -ve bacteria.

MCQs on Protista Question 121. Cellular slime moulds are :

1. Haploid
2. Diploid
3. Triploid
4. Polyploid.

Answer: 1. Haploid

Question 122. Protistan cells contain:

1. 70 S ribosomes
2. 80 S ribosomes
3. Polyribosomes
4. Genophore.

Answer: 3. Polyribosomes

Question 123. Flagellated structures are absent in :

1. Red algae
2. Mushroom
3. Higher seed plants
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 124. In protist flagella if present are :

1. 9+0
2. 0 +2
3. 2+7
4. 9 + 2 Fibrillar.

Answer: 4. 9 + 2 Fibrillar.

MCQs on Protista Question 125. Distinct cell walls are absent in :

1. All protists
2. Some protists
3. Photosynthetic protists
4. Heterotrophic protists.

Answer: 4. Heterotrophic protists.

Question 126. Which day is celebrated as is malaria day?

1. 20Th aug.
2. 15Th aug.
3. 26Th Jan
4. 5Th june.

Answer: 1. 20Th aug.

Question 127. Malarial parasites could best be obtained from a patient

1. An hour before the rise in temperature
2. When the temperature rises with vigour
3. When the temperature comes to normal
4. An hour after the temperature rise.

Answer: 2. When the temperature rises with vigour

Question 128. Locomotory organelles in the protista are :

1. Flagella
2. Cilia
3. Pseudopodia
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 129. Which species of protists are known as the whirling whips because of the spin produced by two flagella beating in opposing grooves along their hard-surfaced bodies?

1. Diatoms
2. Chrysophytes
3. Dinoflagellates
4. Golden brown algae.

Answer: 3. Dinoflagellates

Kingdom Protista NEET Biology  Question 130. Shellfish taken from water during a red tide would be:

1. Poisoned with neurotoxin
2. Rich in proteins
3. Dead
4. Rich in minerals.

Answer: 1. Rich in proteins

Question 131. The protists in which cell also decrease with each division is:

1. Dinoflagellates
2. Diatoms
3. Slime moulds
4. Radiolarians.

Answer: 2. Diatoms

Question 132. Bivalved siliceous shell occurs in :

1. Foraminiferans
2. Radiolarians
3. Heliozoans
4. Diatoms.

Answer: 4. Diatoms.

Question 133. Auxospores or re-juvenescent cells occur in :

1. Dinoflagellates
2. Diatoms
3. Zooflagellates
4. Sporozoans.

Answer: 2. Diatoms

Kingdom Protista NEET Biology  Question 134. Eye spot or stigma of euglena occur attached to :

1. The membrane of the contractile vacuole
2. The membrane of the cytopharynx
3. The membrane of the reservoir
4. Both 2 and 3.

Answer: 2. The membrane of the cytopharynx

Question 135. The cell wall is absent in :

1. Dinoflagellates
2. Diatoms
3. Euglenoids
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Euglenoids

Question 136. Mesokaryon is :

1. A nucleoid with distinct chromosomes
2. A nucleus with condensed chromosomes
3. Nucleoid with histone protein
4. A nucleus-like structure.

Answer: 2. A nucleus with condensed chromosome

Question 137. The transverse groove present in dinoflagellates is :

1. Sulcus
2. Cingulum or girdle
3. Annulus
4. Both 2 and 3

Answer: 4. Both 2 and 3

Question 138. A non-contractile vacuole called pustule is present near the flagellar base in :

1. Diatoms
2. Dinoflagellates
3. Euglenoids
4. None of these.

Answer: 2. Dinoflagellates

Question 139. The toxin of gonyaulax catenella is called :

1. Hypnotoxin
2. Saxitoxin
3. Mycotoxin
4. Both 1 and 3.

Answer: 2. Saxitoxin

Question 140. The mass of streaming protoplasm (wall-less mass of multinucleate protoplasm) in plasmodial (acellular) slime moulds is called the :

1. Sporocytes
2. Sporangia
3. Plasmodium
4. Pseudoplasmodium.

Answer: 3. Plasmodium

Question 141. Multinucleate decomposer organisms are:

1. Pelomyxa
2. Physarum
3. Dictyostellum
4. Arcella.

Answer: 2. Physarum

Question 142. Reninococcus is a :

1. Halophile
2. Methanogen
3. Chemolithotroph
4. Myxobacterium

Answer: 2. Methanogen

Question 143. Cellulose digestion of termites is carried out by :

1. Monocytes
2. Trichonympha
3. Trichomonas
4. Lophomonas.

Answer: 2. Trichonympha

Question 144. Motile zygote of plasmodium occurs in :

1. Salivary glands of anopheles
2. Human RBCs
3. The gut of female anopheles
4. Human liver.

Answer: 3. Gut of female anopheles

Question 145. Egyptian pyramids are made of rocks formed from :

1. Radiolarian ooze
2. Armoured dinoflagellates
3. Foraminiferan shells
4. Diatomaceous earth.

Answer: 3. Foraminiferan shells

Question 146. Heliozoans actinophrys are :

1. Zooflagellates
2. Sporozoans
3. Slipper animalcules
4. Sun animalcules.

Answer: 4. Sun animalcules.

Question 147. In a weak electric field, the paramecium moves :

1. Towards the negative pole
2. Towards the positive pole
3. Around to avoid the effect of the current
4. Forms cyst and does not move.

Answer: 1. Towards the negative pole

Question 148. The crithidial stage in the life history of Trypanosoma gambiense is found in :

1. Salivary glands of tsetse fly
2. Liver of man
3. Cerebrospinal fluid of man
4. Blood vascular system of the pig.

Answer: 1. Salivary glands of tsetse fly

Question 149. Protists obtain food as :

1. Photosynthesisers
2. Chemosynthesisers
3. Holotrophs
4. Photosynthesisers, symbionts and heterotrophs.

Answer: 4. Photosynthesisers, symbionts and heterotrophs.

Question 150. Protistan genome has :

1. Membrane-bound nucleoprotein embedded in the cytoplasm
2. Free nucleic acid aggregates
3. The gene containing nucleoproteins condensed together in a loose mass
4. Nucleoprotein in direct contact with cell substance.

Answer: 3. Gene containing nucleoproteins condensed together in a loose mass

Question 151. Myxamoebae belong to :

1. Acellular slime moulds
2. Cellular slime moulds
3. Sarcodina
4. Both 2 and 3

Answer: 2. Cellular slime moulds

NEET Biology The Living World Understanding Life

• Both life and non-living entities consist of identical elements and are regulated by the same physical laws.
• The estimated number of known living organisms is 1.7 million, comprising 1.2 million animals and 500,000 plants.
• All living organisms exhibit varying degrees of organization.
• Despite the fact that non-living components comprise live organisms, life cannot be generated merely by assembling all necessary ingredients in appropriate quantities.
• Aggregation, interaction, equilibrium, and transformation govern all forms of organizations.
• A living creature is both an autonomous entity and a component of the natural environment.
• Micro and macromolecules constitute life, and these molecules are perpetually engaged in interactions with one another.
• Approximately 5,000 compounds exist in the biosphere, encompassing 3,000 distinct reaction types.
• A cell may harbor 2000 enzymes to facilitate diverse metabolic pathways.
• Following water, proteins are the most prevalent compounds in the body.
• Cellulose is the predominant molecule in plants, whereas chitin is the most prevalent in animals.
• Energy transfers and transformations occur continuously within a living cell.
• Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) serves as the cellular energy currency.
• Biological processes harness free energy from their surroundings.
• Biological systems are governed by entropy.

NEET Biology The Living World Notes

• Energy-releasing reactions that are capable of proceeding spontaneously are exergonic as aerobic respiration, lactic acid fermentation, and alcoholic fermentation
  1. Aerobic respiration: C₆H₁₂O₆+6O₂→6CO₂+6H₂O
  2. Lactic acid fermentation: C₆H₁₂O₆→2C₃H₆O₃
  3. Alcoholic fermentation: C₆H₁₂O₆→2C₂H₅OH+2CO₂
• Endergonic reactions are energy-consuming and cannot proceed at all unless energy is supplied continuously from an external source. fit Living organisms maintain their internal organization stable irrespective of changes in the environment.
• Reproduction is a characteristic feature of all living organisms and ensures the perpetuation of the species.
• DNA is the genetic material (RNA in plant viruses) and it is the only material capable of replication.
• Living organisms can adapt themselves according to need. LJ Living organisms have a definite life span. Death is the terminal stage of the life cycle.
• Death plays several positive roles such as reducing the population and recycling of materials.
• Life can be defined as a unique complex organization of molecules expressing itself through chemical reactions that lead to growth, development, responsiveness, adaptation, and reproduction.
• Atoms are nature’s building material All plants and animals and non-living substances are formed of matter.
• Any material in the universe that has mass and occupies a space is defined as matter. The building blocks of matter are atoms. These atoms aggregate and constitute elements.
• There are more tlum l(X) elements occurring in nature, out of these only 25 are essential to life. C. H, O. N, and P. S constitute about 98% of the mass of every living organism. performs the activities of life such as nutrition, growth, respiration, irritability, reproduction, etc.

NEET Biology The Living World Notes

• It is the reversible crystallo-colloidal solution. Huxley called protoplasm the ‘physical basis of life’. Life without protoplasm cannot exist.
• Chemical bonds act as the glue of life Chemical bond. It is an attractive force that links two atoms to form a molecule. Covalent bond. When two atoms share a pair of valence electrons, the bond is called a covalent bond. Single bond.
• A bond in which a single pair of electrons is shared. Double bond. When four electrons are shared, the bond is called a double bond (O = O).
• The hydrogen bond is a weak chemical bond formed as a result of dipole-dipole interaction in which a partially electronegative atom of one molecule gets bonded to a partially electropositive but covalently held hydrogen atom.
• Water is a polar molecule. Molecules that exhibit charge separation are called polar molecules because of their magnetic poles. Therefore, water is a polar molecule. In the water molecule, the oxygen atoms bear a partial negative charge (d) and each hydrogen atom has a partial positive charge (d+).
• In liquid water, the negatively charged oxygen atom of one molecule of water is attracted to the positively charged hydrogen atom of another molecule of water. The bond resulting from this attraction is called a hydrogen bond.
• Biomolecules. The molecules present in living systems are called biomolecules. Micromolecules. They are simple molecules with low molecular weight.
• Micromolecules may be inorganic or organic. Inorganic micromolecules include water and inorganic salts. The organic macromolecules include sugar, amino acids, nitrogen bases, and nucleotides.
• The micromolecules are as important as macro molecules for living organisms. Whereas most of the organic micromolecules constitute the basic unit for the formation of macromolecules, water, and salts have their role to play.
• Macromolecules. They have a large size and their molecular weight runs into several thousands or even millions. All of them are organic compounds.
• A macromolecule is formed by the linking together of several smaller molecular units or monomers. This phenomenon is called Polymerisation.
• ACTH is a hormone that is the smallest protein with 39 amino acids and has mol. wt. 4500.
• Haemocyanin (a Cu++ containing respiratory pigment of mollusks) is the largest protein. It has mol. wt. 9,10,000 and 8200 amino acids.
• Term homeostasis was given by Cannon and refers to a favorable internal environment.

Life Span of Some Organism

1. Mayfly- 1 day
2. Monkey- 26 days
3. Cat- 35 to 40days
4. Elephant- 65 days
5. Man- 100 days
6. Tortoise- 200 year
7. Sequoia tree – 3000 years to 4000 years
8. Wheat- 5 months
9. Dog- 20 to 30 years (recordes 29 years 5 months)
10. Horse- 60 years
11. Eagle- 90 years
12. Parrot- 140 years
13. Banyan Tree- 200 years to 4000 years
14. Ficus religious- 2000 years to 3000 years

NEET Biology The Living World Growth And Development

Growth

• An increase in the mass or overall size of a tissue or organism or its parts is called growth.
• Growth occurs due to the synthesis of protoplasmic and apoplasmic substances.
  1. Protoplasmic substances include cytoplasm and nucleus.
  2. Apoplasmic substances produced by the cells constitute the matrix of the tissues.
  3. Growth as a result of metabolism involves the transfer of energy and it occurs when anabolism exceeds catabolism. There will be degrowth in reverse situations.
• Growth involves three processes in general:

1. Cell proliferation
2. Cell enlargement
3. Secretion of extracellular matrix.

Development

1. Development is characterized by three features Growth, Morphogenesis, and Differentiation.
2. During morphogenesis cells begin to move or migrate, to shape the new individual For Example; A zygote develops into a blaslula, a blaslula into a gastrula, and so on.
3. Differentiation is the process of tissue formation, cells change their shape and form and turn into particular types of cells, depending on their position in the body. Differentiation results in increasing diversity of cells.

The Living World Class 11 Notes For NEET

NEET Biology The Living World Energy Flow And Change In Living Systems

• Energy is the ability to do work, life requires a constant flow of energy to perform life functions.
• Energy exists in two states.
  1. Potential energy. The energy of position; and
  2. Kinetic energy. The energy of action. Much of the work performed by organisms involves changing potential energy (of food) to kinetic energy as exergonic reactions.
• All the energy changes that take place in the universe, from nuclear explosions to the buzzing of bees, are governed by two laws of thermodynamics.
• The first law is “ Energy is neither created nor destroyed, it only undergoes transfer or transformation.” Hence total amount of energy in the universe remains constant.
• The second law is “ All objects in the universe tend to come to disorder or randomness which is continually increasing in the universe.”
• In the process of transfer and transformation, a system (also an organism) loses some energy in the form of heat leading toward a state of randomness.
• The energy lost to disorder is referred to as entropy. Organisms minimize entropy by intake of food (input of energy).
• Although energy cannot come into or go out of the universe, Earth is constantly receiving energy from the Sun which heats the oceans and continents.
• Part of it is trapped by photosynthetic organisms to change it into chemical energy as endergonic reactions.
• The stored energy (ATP) can be shifted to other molecules by forming different chemical bonds or can be changed into kinetic energy; motion, light, electricity, and heat.

Enzymes direct Metabolic Pathways

• Enzyme. Any of a group of catalytic proteins that are produced by living cells, and that mediate and promote the chemical processes of life without themselves being altered or destroyed.
• Chemical reactions require activation energy to get started. Living systems contain enzymes that lower the activation energy. Life is therefore a process run by enzymes.
• Most enzymes are globular proteins with one or a few grooves on their surface called active sites which only particular substrates can fit into. Therefore enzyme-substrate interactions are specific and because of this, a cell can run a thousand reactions at a time.
• Each cell in our body contains 1000 to 5000 different types of enzymes.
• Enzyme activity is sensitive to the presence of modulators that bind to the enzymes.
• A substance that decreases the enzyme activity is called an inhibitor and if it increases the activity, it is an activator. Binding sites for these are called allosteric sites.
• Sometimes end product of the reaction acts as an allosteric inhibitor for the enzyme. This is also known as feedback or end-product inhibition.

The Living World Class 11 Notes For NEET

NEET Biology The Living World Homeostasis

• Hemostasis is the maintenance of the internal environment of the body. For this, all molecules cells tissues, organs, and systems must work together.
• A feedback system also operates which provides information about the physiological state and content of the system and appropriate adjustments are made accordingly.
• Most regulatory mechanisms of our body run through negative feedback loops.

The Living World Class 11 Notes For NEET

NEET Biology The Living World Thermoregulation

• Thermal energy is generated during the exergonic events of metabolism.
• Ectothermic organisms predominantly dissipate their thermal energy to the surrounding environment. Examples include fish, amphibians, reptiles, and flora. Their body temperature fluctuates with the environment and is referred to as poikilotherms.
• Endothermic organisms conserve their heat energy for utilization. For instance, mammals, birds, and some fish such as tuna and swordfish. They possess insulating materials such as adipose tissue, fur, and plumage to minimize thermal dissipation to the surroundings.
• These species maintain a reasonably consistent body temperature and are referred to as homeotherms.

NEET Biology The Living World Important Points

NEET Biology The Living World Reproduction And Survival

Reproduction:

The process through which an organism produces offspring of the same species is termed reproduction.

• The fundamental characteristic of life is reproduction, and millions of years ago, DNA developed this capability. The continuation of organisms occurs via reproduction. “No entity endures eternally; nevertheless, existence persists.”
• DNA is the hereditary molecule that encompasses all information pertaining to growth, differentiation, and functioning, thus referred to as a “blueprint.
• ” The information encoded in DNA is utilized by cellular machinery to synthesize proteins, which may include enzymes or other types of molecules.
• Viruses possess genetic material but lack the cellular machinery to utilize it; instead, they exploit the machinery of host cells.
• Outside the live cell, they are inanimate; hence, their crystals can be preserved in a container for several years. A virus cannot be cultivated in an artificial media.

NEET Biology The Living World Important Points

NEET Biology The Living World Adaptation

• Adjustment to new or altered environmental conditions by changes in genotype or phenotype is called adaptation.
• Adapted organism means that its appearance, behavior, structure, and mode of life make it suitable to survive in a particular habitat.
• Every organism must be adapted if it is to survive.
• Adaptations arc of two types:

1. Short term adaptations

Useful variations that develop in specific conditions to overcome short unfavorable periods. Example:

1. Hibernating animals become inactive in unfavorable conditions, metabolism becomes low; and the source of energy is stored fat.
2. Dormancy of seeds, and their germination with the onset of favorable conditions.
3. Tanning (darkening) of skin due to exposure to sunlight, more melanin is formed in the top layer of skin to protect the underlying tissue from solar radiation.
4. Phototropism and geotropism are shown by growing plants.

2. Long-term adaptations

Useful variations that develop gradually over a long period as a permanent change, For Example:

1. Different types of beaks and claws in birds for feeding and perching.
2. The thick tail of the Kangaroo serves as the 5th limb.
3. Backward protrusion of our ankle bone helps us stand erect.
4. An opposable thumb in our hand makes it skillful.
5. Female mosqutoes have to pierce and suck type mouth parts to suck human blood since the protein of mammalian blood is necessary for the production of their eggs.
6. Desert plants are either leafless or have fleshy succulent stems covered by thick epidermis and wax layers.
7. Night-blooming plants have either white or scented flowers to attract pollinators.
8. The hummingbird (flower pecker) only hovers around the flower and does not sit on it as it can’t bear the bird’s load.
9. The polymorphism in bees and termites is an adaptation for the division of labor in the colony.
10. Aquatic plants have thin narrow ribbon-shaped orhighly dissected leaves to provide the least resistance to water currents and adsorb maximum light.
11. The submerged parts are covered over by mucilage. Mechanical tissues are absent.
12. Plants with both submerged and emerged leaves usually show heterophylism. The emerged leaves are broad and entire while the submerged ones are dissected or ribbon-like Example, Limnophila.

NEET Biology The Living World Important Points

NEET Biology The Living World Death And Its Significance

• Life and death represent the dual aspects of existence. The term death pertains exclusively to larger organisms characterized by higher levels of biological complexity.
• At the cellular level, creatures do not perish as a cell splits into new cells; such organisms are termed “immortal,” exemplified by Amoeba, Paramecium, and Hydra.
• Each organism perpetuates its existence by its progeny, namely via gametes.
• Thus, “Death is the cost incurred for attaining a superior level of organization.”
• It is a self-regulating homeostatic mechanism that monitors population density to avert overcrowding.
• Death facilitates the recycling of matter, which is essential for maintaining equilibrium in nature.
• Dead cells and tissues, such as heartwood (sclerenchyma) and cork, play crucial roles in providing support and protection to living tissues. Vessels in sapwood function as conduits for transporting water and minerals to significant elevations.
• Histolysis of larval structures is necessary for the formation of adult structures during metamorphosis.
• Aging is a prerequisite for death, except accidental death. Therefore, it is an integral component of the life cycle.
• In humans, “clinical death” refers to the absence of a pulse and fixed pupils. Biological death transpires several hours later, as other tissues and organs continue to function for an extended period following clinical death. For transplantation, the organ or tissues are excised within minutes post-mortem.
• Occasionally, an organism may seem lifeless yet rejuvenates when favorable conditions return; for instance, the leaves of club moss (Selaginella lepidophylla), which appears as desiccated straw, regain its verdancy within hours of being submerged in water.
• The ease of Mvrothamnus and Cratemstigma in Africa is comparable. This arc is titled ‘The Resurrection Plant.

The Living World NEET Exam Preparation Notes

NEET Biology The Living World Virus

Virus: (Latin: Virus = venom or poisonous fluid) A large group of infectious agents ranging from 10-250 nanometres in diameter, composed of a protein sheath surrounding a nucleic acid core, characterized by total dependence on living cells for reproduction.

• Beijcrinck in 1898 in Holland found that the filtrable, invisible, and noncultivable infectious entity would diffuse through an agar gel, like a fluid. He thought the fluid itself alive and called it contagium vivum fluiduni i.c. a living infectious fluid.
• Viral diseases of vertebrates were well known by 1 892, Louis Pasteur had been studying canine rabies for some time. He indicated the cause of this disease as a virus. The term virus was then commonly used for a variety of infectious agents, including bacteria.
• LoefTler and Frosch in 1898. showed that the agent of foot-and-mouth disease of cattle, like TMV, passed through bacteria-retaining filters, and was neither visible with a microscope nor cultivable on inanimate media.
• Walter Reed (1900) and his associates discovered the virus of yellow fever, the first viral disease of man.
• Features of Virus
  1. They are not free-living and occur only as obligate intracellular parasites.
  2. They have only a single kind of nucleic either DNA or RNA, but never both.
  3. Nucleic acid is a single molecule, i.e., one replicon, which may be single or double-stranded.
  4. The outer shell-capsid is mostly of protein, except for a few animal viruses where additional polysaccharides are also present.
  5. They can be propagated in living culture media only.
  6. They contain no metabolic enzymes or protein synthetic machinery of their own.
  7. They use host machinery for the synthesis of their proteins.
  8. They replicate. They do not grow, but their nucleic acid directs the host cell to make various parts of the virus and then to assemble these parts into complete, infectious particles, virions.
  9. The virus is noil-cellular.
  10. Viruses behave as non-living outside and when inside living cells behave as living.
  11. In inert conditions it is non-living but whenever it comes in contact with an organism it multiplies and show’s living phase.
  12. It is a connecting link between non-living and living.
• Infection of a host cell by Virus. The steps involved in infection of host cell adsorption, separation of nucleic acid from the coat, penetration of nucleic acid, maturation, and release.
• Genetic recombination. Genetic recombination in the T-even phage was discovered in 1946 by Delbriick.
• Hershey, who. performed genetic crosses between infecting bacteria with a host range (h) and rapid-lysis (r) mutants of phages. It occurs by lysogeny, transduction, etc.
• Structure of Virus

The Living World NEET Exam Preparation Notes

Chemical Structure and Composition

Viruses have a very simple structure. A virus is made of a nucleic acid core and protein coat called a capsid which surrounds the core.

A fully assembled particle, i.e., a virion, is capable of infecting the host.

1. The nucleic acid. A virion always contains only a single kind of nucleic acid, i.e., either DNA or RNA. The nucleic acid may occur as single or double strands. Plant viruses contain only single or double-stranded DNA or single or double-stranded RNA Bacterial viruses (bacteriophages) contain single or double-stranded DNA  or single-stranded RNA.
2. The infectious property of a virion is due to its nucleic acid. A host cell can synthesize complete virion if only free viral nucleic acid is injected within the cytoplasm of a living host cell.

Capsid or the protein coat:

The protein shell is referred to as a capsid. It consists of several similar protein subunits known as capsomeres.

• Capsomeres consist of one or more types of proteins. The host specificity of viruses is attributed to the proteins of the capsid.
• In a viral particle, the capsomeres are organized symmetrically, imparting a distinct form to the virus.
• Certain larger virus particles, known as virions, possess an extra layer of lipids or lipoproteins surrounding the capsid.
• Virions with an extra coating are termed enveloped
  • Example: Influenza virus, mumps virus), while those lacking this covering are designated as naked
  • Example: TMV

The Living World NEET Exam Preparation Notes

NEET Biology The Living World Kinds Of Viruses based on Host

• Bacteriophages Viruses infecting bacterial cell
• Mycophage – Virus infecting fungi
• Cyanophage viruses infecting cyanobacteria (Safferman and Morris isolated from Plectonema)
• Coliphages Any bacteriophage infecting Escherichia coli
• Zoophages (Animal virus) Viruses infecting animal cells
• Phytophages (Plant viruses) Viruses infecting plant cells
• Protozoa Virus Infecting protozoa (Diamond and Mattem demonstrated virus infecting amoeba and entamoeba.
• Mycoplasmal viruses infecting mycoplasma (Gourlay 1970)
• Satellite viruses (Incomplete viruses). Sometimes one virus may depend upon the assistance of another virus in the same cell to help it perform a necessary function of its existence.
• The first satellite virus to be recorded was found in association with a virus disease of tobacco, tobacco necrosis (Kassanis, 1963).
• Slow viruses (Prions). Prions are described as proteinaceous particles thought to cause many diseases including the slow virus diseases.
• Prions were named by Stanley B. Prusiner. Prions can survive heat, radiation, and chemical treatments that normally ate, They appear to be composed of only proteins.
• He viruses cause a range of infections viz. acute, chronic, persistent, latent, slowly progressive, and infections.

NEET Biology The Living World Study Material

NEET Biology The Living World Some Important Viruses

1. Influenza – Paramyxovirus
2. Smallpox – Variolla virus
3. Measles – Paramyxovirus
4. Polio – Enterovirus
5. German measles (Rubella) Tago viru
6. Cold – Orthoinyxo virus
7. Chickenpox – Varicella virus
8. Mumps – Paramyxovirus
9. Rabies – Rhadbo virus
10. HIV – Human Immuno Deficiency Virus

Some Common diseases of plains are caused by Viruses

1. Rosette disease
2. Little leaf of Brinjal
3. Yellow vein mosaic
4. Potato leafroll
5. Leaf curl of papaya
6. Bunchy top
7. Grassy shoot
8. Tobacco mosaic

NEET Biology The Living World Study Material

Classification and Nomenclature of Viruses

1. Numerous classification methods have been offered repeatedly. Their classification mostly relied on host range, clinical epidemiology, and pathological signs.
2. The categorization put forth by Lwoaff Horne and Tournler (1962) was utilized more frequently than alternative classifications.
3. The classification was determined by the type of nucleic acid found in viruses. The International Committee on Virus Nomenclature has established a standard for virus nomenclature. The designation comprises two components.
4. The initial segment represents the virus’s common name, whereas the subsequent segment encompasses the encoded information pertaining to the virus.

The second part is known as the cryptogram. It contains the following four pairs:

1. The first pair – represents the type of nucleic acid/number of strands in nucleic acid.
2. The second pair – represents the molecular weight of nucleic acid/amount of nucleic acid expressed as a percentage.
3. The third pair – denotes the shape of the virus shape of nucleoprotein.
4. The fourth pair- denotes the type of host carrier used in the transmission of the virus.

Example. The cryptogram of Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV)

R/l : 2/5 : E/E S/A

It can be explained as under:

1. First pair – Nucleic acid – RNA (R) single-stranded – (1).
2. Second pair – Molecular weight of nucleic acid – (2) hundred thousand/ Amount of nucleic acid (5%).
3. Third pair – Shape of virus – elongated (E)/shape of nucleoprotein- elongated (E).
4. Fourth pair – Host – seed plants or spermatophytes (S)/carrier of transmission – air.

NEET Biology The Living World Study Material

Example. The Cryptogram of Influenza Virus

1. R/I : (2-3)/10 : S/E: V/A
2. It can be explained as under:
3. First pair: Nucleic acid – RNA (R)/single-stranded – (1)
4. Second pair- Molecular weight of nucleic acid – (2 or 3) hundred thousand/ Amount of nucleic acid (10%).
5. Third pair – Shape of virus – spherical (S)/shape of nucleoprotein – elongated (E).
6. Fourth pair – Host – vertebrate (V)Transmission by – air
7. Classification of human viral diseases based on the tissue affected

• NaCl is an important constituent of our blood. It plays a role in the maintenance of erythrocytes in blood.
• Carbon is the main sinistral element of living cells and
• CO2 is the main source.
• Molecular oxygen is necessary for life.
• Energy transfers and energy transformations continuously take place in a living cell.
• Carbohydrates are the main energy sources.
• Glucose of the simplest carbohydrate.
• Lipids are a major group of insoluble hydrocarbons. They are the main constituents of the membranes of the cell.
• Steroids form hormones.
• Proteins are the building materials of the body.
• Amino acids are the building blocks of proteins.
• Nucleic acids are information storage devices of cells.
• DNA and RNA are the two main nucleic acids formed by nucleotides.
• Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is the ‘energy currency’ of the cell.
• The living system utilizes free energy from the environment.
• Living systems also billow both laws of ilicrmodynamies
• Living systems are subject to entropy.
• Living organisms maintain their internal organization
• stable irrespective of changes in the environment. It is termed homeostasis.
• Living systems are open systems.
• Metabolism is the total of all chemical reactions taking place in the body.
• Metabolism reactions are of two types i.e. building up reactions termed anabolism and breaking down reactions as catabolism.
• All metabolic reactions are regulated and directed by enzymes.
• Enzymes are proteinic substances and act as catalysts, thus termed biocatalysts.
• Biochemical pathways are regulated and often depend upon the allosteric site of the enzyme.
• Organisms may be poikilothermal or homeothermal about the regulation of temperature.

NEET Biology The Living World Study Material

NEET Biology The Living World Quanta To Memory

1. In vitro. Studies in artificial medium.
2. In vivo. Studies in natural medium.
3. The oldest living tree is the bristle cone pine named Methuselah at 10,000 ft. on the calif side of the white mountains, with a confined age of 4600 years.
4. Amoeba, bacteria, and Paramecium are thought to be immortal as these do not suffer from natural death.
5. It has not been possible to create life because the nature of the molecular organization is complex and has not been completely understood.
6. The art of keeping tissues and organs alive outside the body of an animal was demonstrated by Sidney Ringer.
7. Homeostasis is maintained at the level of the organism as a whole with the cellular level as the basis.
8. Resurrection plants like Selaginella lepidophylla dry up in humid conditions but become green and alive with rain. Other examples are Craterostigma and Myrothamnus.
9. The concentration of salt in the body is .9% (0.9 gm in 100 ml) and it is isotonic with the cytosol. The life span of Macrozainia is about 10,000 to 12,000 years.
10. Kangaroo rat lives in arid areas. It does not drink water and depends upon only metabolic water. It feeds on dry seeds.
11. Neoteny: a phenomenon in which. the larva develops the gonads and starts reproduction without undergoing metamorphosis example, the Axolotl larva of Ambystoma (Tiger salamander).
12. Mammalian RBCs are biconcave and enucleated except for Camel and Llama.
13. The tusks of elephants are upper incisors while the tusks of walruses are upper canines.
14. Peplomeres. The envelope is composed of both viral and host components. Peplomeres represent the subunits. Capsomeres. Capsid is made of identical protein subunits capsomeres.
15. Flowers of Oplirys nucifera resemble the females of Calpa-aurea and are pollinated by male wasps.
16. Bushmen of the Kalahari desert employ signals of fingers and thumbs to indicate animals during hunting. A.T.P. is called the energy currency of cells (Lipman 1941).

The Living World NEET Chapter Summary

NEET Biology The Living World Questions From Competitive Examinations

Question 1. Saline DNP is given to patients suffering from cholera as

1. Na+ ions help in the retention of water in body tissues
2. Ncal is involved in the supply of energy
3. Naci furnishes most of the cell fuel
4. Nacl impairs nerve impulses involved in the transmission of pain sensation.

Answer: 1. Na+ ions help in the retention of water in body tissues

Question 2. Vims that have an arthropod as an intermediate host before attacking a vertebrate is :

1. Rcovirus
2. Adenovirus
3. Papovavirus
4. Parvovirus.

Answer: 2. Adenovirus

Question 3. Caulimo (cauliflower mosaic) viruses have :

1. Dsdna
2. Ssdna
3. Ssrna
4. Dsrna.

Answer: 1. dsDNA

Question 4. Which of the following is not an adaptive feature?

1. Phototropism
2. Cell division
3. Hibernation
4. Accommodation.

Answer: 2. Cell division

The Living World NEET Chapter Summary

Question 5. Tire process which cannot take place in the absence of viruses:

1. Transformation
2. Conjugation
3. Translocation
4. Transduction.

Answer: 4. Transduction.

Question 6. Mimicry is for:

1. Offense and defense
2. Concealment
3. Offense
4. Transition

Answer: 1. Offence and defence

Question 7. Volant adaptation is for :

1. Swimming
2. Flying
3. Climbing
4. Running.

Answer: 2. Flying

Question 8. The smallest unit of life is :

1. Dna
2. Rna
3. Cell
4. Protein.

Answer: 3. Cell

Question 9. When a spontaneous process occurs then :

1. Free energy decreases
2. Free energy increases
3. Free energy remains constant.
4. Sometimes increases and sometimes decreases.

Answer: 2. Free energy increases

Question 10. Each molecule of NADH-, releases how many ATP molecules?

1. 3
2. 2
3. 4
4. 8.

Answer: 1. 2

Question 11. The maximum life span of a dog is :

1. 5 Years
2. 10 Years
3. 15 Years
4. 20 Years.

Answer: 4. 20 Years.

The Living World NEET Chapter Summary

Question 12. The most abundant element present in plants is :

1. Manganese
2. Eon
3. Carbon
4. Nitrogen

Answer: 3. Carbon

Question 13. Living steady state has a self-regulatory mechanism called:

1. Feedback mechanism
2. Homeothermy
3. Homozygosity
4. Homeostasis.

Answer: 4. Homeostasis.

Question 14. Energy flow and energy transformations of a living system follow-:

1. Law of limiting factor
2. Law of thermodynamics
3. Liebig’s law of minimum
4. Biogenetic law.

Answer: 2. Law of thermodynamics

Question 15. The statement correct about enzymes is :

1. They are amino acids
2. They are most active at a temperature of 0°c
3. They are all proteins
4. They are most active at pH 6.9.

Answer: 3. They are all proteins

Question 16. During strenuous exercise glucose is converted into :

1. Glycogen
2. Pyruvic acid
3. Starch
4. Lactic acid.

Answer: 4. Lactic acid.

Question 17. In which form is the food transported in plants 7

1. Sucrose
2. Fructose
3. Glucose
4. Lactose.

Answer: 1. Sucrose

The Living World NEET Chapter Summary

Question 18. Which one of the following statements regarding enzyme inhibition is correct :

1. Competitive inhibition is seen when a substrate competes with an enzyme for binding to an inhibitor protein
2. Competitive inhibition is seen when the substrate and the inhibitor compete for the active site on the enzyme
3. Non-competitive inhibition of an enzyme can be overcome by adding a large amount of substrate
4. Non-competitive inhibitors often bind to the enzyme irreversibly.

Answer: 2. Competitive inhibition is seen when the substrate and the inhibitor compete for the active site on the enzyme

Question 19. An organic substance bound to an enzyme and essential for its activity is called :

1. Co-enzyme
2. Holoenzyme
3. Apoenzyme
4. Isoenzyme.

Answer: 1. Co-enzyme

Question 20. An enzyme that can stimulate the germination of barley seeds is:

1. A-amylase
2. Lipase
3. Protease
4. Invertase.

Answer: 1. A-amylase

Question 21. Which of the following processes needs bacteriophage?

1. Translation
2. Conjugation
3. Transformation
4. Transduction.

Answer: 4. Transduction.

Question 22. Transfer of genetic information through virus is :

1. Conjugation
2. Conduction
3. Transduction
4. Transformation.

Answer: 3. Transduction

Question 23. The virus that infects bacteria is made up of :

1. Protein only
2. Dna and lipid
3. Dna and protein
4. Rna and protein.

Answer: 3. Dna and protein

The Living World NEET Chapter Summary

Question 24. Identify the hepatitis vims, that cannot survive independently and it require another hepatitis vims for its multiplication :

1. Hepatitis-a vims
2. Hepatitis-b vims
3. Hepatitis-c vims
4. Hepatitis-d vims.

Answer: 4. Hepatitis-d vims.

Question 25. Which has ssrna?

1. Hav
2. Hbv
3. Ascaris
4. Entamoeba

Answer: 1. Hav

Question 26. Blumberg (1963) discovered :

1. Hiv
2. Hbv
3. Hav
4. Cold vims.

Answer: 2. Hbv

Question 27. Small proteins produced by vertebrate cells naturally in response to viral infections and which inhibit the multiplication of viruses are called :

1. Antitoxins
2. Interferons
3. Lipoproteins
4. Immunoglobulins.

Answer: 2. Interferons

Question 28. The genetic material of retrovirus is :

1. DNA
2. RNA
3. Both dna and RNA
4. None of these.

Answer: 2. RNA

Question 29. Provirus is :

1. A free vims
2. A free dna
3. Primitive vims
4. Integrated viral genome

Answer: 4. Integrated viral genome

Question 30. Viroids cause :

1. Tobacco mosaic
2. Tulip yellow mosaic
3. Cauliflower mosaic
4. Potato spindle mosaic.

Answer: 4. Potato spindle mosaic.

The Living World NEET Chapter Summary

Question 31. The host of TMV is:

1. Datura
2. Triticum
3. Nicotiana
4. Withania.

Answer: 3. Nicotiana

Question 32. Prions are infectious agents associated with mad cow disease. These agents are :

1. DNA
2. RNA
3. Proteins
4. All of the above.

Answer: 3. Proteins

Question 33. A virus envelope is known as :

1. Virion
2. Nucleoprotein
3. Core
4. Capsid.

Answer: 4. Capsid.

Neet Special Self Assessment Test Unit The Living World

Question 1. Match the terms in column a with suitable terms in column b. Column b.

1. 1-C,2-F,3-B,4-A,5-D,6-E,7-G
2. 1-D,2-B,3-A,4-E,5-F,6-G,7-C
3. 1-C,2-F,3-B,4-G,5-A,6-D,7-E
4. 1-C,2-F,3-B,4-E,5-D,6-A,7-G

Answer: 1. 1-C,2-F,3-B,4-A,5-D,6-E,7-G

Question 2. Match the words of column 1 with that of column 2.

1. 1-F,2-E,3-D,4-C,5-B,6-A,
2. 1-E,2-F,3-A,4-C,5-B,6-D
3. 1-E,2-F,3-A,4-B,5-C,6-D
4. 1-E,2-F,3-A,4-C,5-D,6-B

Answer: 2. 1-E,2-F,3-A,4-C,5-B,6-D

The Living World NEET Chapter Summary

Question 3. Which of the following is the correct sequence of scientific methods of gathering information?

1. Observation, formulation of hypothesis, testing of hypothesis, developing theory
2. Formulation of hypothesis, testing of hypothesis, developing theory
3. Observation, testing of hypothesis, formulation of hypothesis, developing theory
4. Developing theory, observation, formulation of hypothesis, and testing of hypothesis.

Answer: 2. Formulation of hypothesis, testing of hypothesis, developing theory.

Question 4. Which of the billowing is a card statement?

1. A hypothesis is a tentative theory
2. The hypothesis is an intelligent guess
3. The control experiment establishes the validity of the working experiment.
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 5. Match the items in column 1 with those in column 2 Which of the following is correct?

1. 1-C,2-D,3-D,4-A
2. 1-C,2-B,3-A,4-D
3. 1-C,2-B,3-A,4-D
4. 1-C,2-D,3-A,4-B

Answer: 4. 1-C,2-D,3-A,4-B

Question 6. Match die statements of the two columns column 1 column 2

1. 1-A,2-D,3-D,4-E
2. 1-A,2-B,3-D,4-C
3. 1-A,2-C,3-D,4-B
4. 1-A,2-B,3-B,4-D

Answer: 3. 1-A,2-C,3-D,4-B

Question 7. As a result of decomposition after death :

1. C, H, O. N. P. S. K. Ca is returned to the ecosystem
2. Get the above elements recycled
3. These elements are freed from their covalent bonds
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 8. A living organism is considered to be open system because it has access to:

1. Matter
2. Energy
3. Matte and energy
4. Sunlight and matter.

Answer: 3. Matte and energy

Question 9. Carbon is a principal structural element of living cells. The carbon is obtained by living systems from :

1. Glucose
2. C02 of atmosphere
3. Inorganic c02 dissolved in water
4. Any organic molecule.

Answer: 3. Inorganic c02 dissolved in water

The Living World NEET Chapter Summary

Question 10. Which of the following is the main energy storage molecule in all living systems?

1. Lipids
2. Proteins
3. Carbohydrates
4. Both 1 and 3

Answer: 3. Carbohydrates

Question 11. Membranes often contain steroids. It is a type of:

1. Lipids that contain four carbon ring
2. Lipid with a long chain
3. Formed of 15-carbon fatty acid
4. All of the above.

Answer: 1. Lipids that contain four carbon ring

Question 12. For water to become a vapor, there must be sufficient heat energy to :

1. Break its hydrogen bonds
2. Break its covalent bonds
3. Lower its specific heat
4. Raise its specific heat.

Answer: 1. Break its hydrogen bonds

Question 13. A molecule that adds hydrogen ions to a solution is known as

1. Buffer
2. Base
3. An acid
4. A hydrophobic substance.

Answer: 3. An acid

Question 14. Which of the following is not an example of an open system?

1. Cell
2. Living system
3. Thermos flask
4. Blue-green alga.

Answer: 3. Thermos flask

Question 15. Growth occurs due to :

1. Synthesis of apoplastic substances
2. Synthesis of protoplasmic substances
3. Metabolism which involves the transfer of energy
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

NEET Biology The Living World Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. The total of all living and non-living things on the earth constitutes:

1. Organism
2. Organ system
3. Community
4. Biosphere

Answer: 4. Biosphere

Question 2. Which of the following regulates the organization at different levels?

1. Aggregation
2. Interaction
3. Equilibrium and change
4. All of these.

Answer: 4. All of these.

Question 3. The living beings can utilize only:

1. Heat energy
2. Free energy
3. Light energy
4. Mechanical energy.

Answer: 2. Free energy

Question 4. Biolumincsccncc in glowworm (firefly) is on account of the transformation of cellular energy ATP into:

1. Heat energy
2. Light energy
3. Electric energy
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Light energy

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

The Living World NEET  Question 5. Energy in a state of randomness or disorder is known as:

1. Free energy
2. Heat energy
3. Light energy
4. Entropy.

Answer: 4. Entropy.

Question 6. Which of the explanations accounts for the statement that “still we have not been able to create life.” ?

1. All molecules of life have not been found.
2. The nature of the molecular organization is complex and not completely understood.
3. Life molecules except a few are known.
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. The nature of the molecular organization is complex and not completely understood.

Question 7. The life span of a parrot is:

1. 200 Years
2. 20 Years
3. 70 Years
4. 140 Years

Answer: 4. 140 Years

Question 8. Resurrection plant is:

1. Pinus
2. Eucalyptus
3. Selaginella lepidopliylla
4. Dryopteris.

Answer: 3. Selaginella lepidopliylla

Question 9. Homeostasis is represented by:

1. Intake of more salt during summer
2. Intake of more fat during winter
3. Provide energy to cells
4. Sweating during exercise.

Answer: 4. Sweating during exercise.

The Living World NEET  Question 10. Homeostasis is:

1. Tendency to resist change
2. Disturbance in regulatory control systems
3. Tendency to change with change in environment
4. Use of extracts of living organisms in homeopathy.

Answer: 1. Tendency to resist change

Question 11. Which of the following has the longest life span?

1. Elephant
2. Parrot
3. Tortoise
4. Horse.

Answer: 3. Tortoise

Question 12. Viruses are:

1. Living cellular organisms
2. Non-living entities
3. Living inside the host cells
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Living inside the host cells

Question 13. You have observed that organisms die. Which of the following statements appear to you as scientifically sound?

1. An organism dies because all its cells die.
2. Because an organism can be bom again.
3. Death is a natural part of the life cycle.
4. Otherwise, the earth will become too crowded.

Answer: 3. Death is a natural part of the life cycle.

Question 14. Organisms have :

1. A closed system
2. Open system
3. A system of exporting energy
4. A system of exporting materials.

Answer: 2. Open system

NEET Biology MCQs on Diversity in Living World Question 15. Energy is required by cells for:

1. Overcoming entropy
2. Biosynthesis of molecules
3. Transport
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 16. heterotrophs take energy from :

1. Light
2. Inorganic molecules
3. Organic molecules
4. Various reactions.

Answer: 3. Organic molecules

Question 17. Homeostasis operates at which level of hierarchy?

1. Cell level
2. Population-level
3. Ecosystem
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 18. Female anopheles mosquitoes suck human blood to obtain:

1. Malarial parasites
2. Proteins for the production of egg
3. DNA
4. Chemicals for attraction of males.

Answer: 2. Proteins for the production of egg

Question 19. Both the entire and finely dissected leaves occur in :

1. Ivy
2. Eucalyptus
3. Linmopliila
4. Nyntpltaea.

Answer: 3. Linmopliila

NEET Biology MCQs on Diversity in Living World Question 20. The flowers of which of the following plants resemble the tangles of certain wasps:

1. Lathyrus aphaca
2. Ophrys nuciferine
3. Calotropis procera
4. Antigonon spp.

Answer: 2. Ophrys nuciferine

Question 21. DNA is unique among molecules in being :

1. Able to withstand high temperatures
2. Form polymer complex
3. Replicate itself
4. Replicate and transcribe RNAs.

Answer: 4. Form polymer complex

Question 22. Which of the following organize themselves into societies with adaptations for the division of labor?

1. Mosquitoes
2. Honey bees
3. Termites
4. Both 2 and 3.

Answer: 4. Both 2 and 3.

Question 23. Glucose concentration of blood for normal body functioning:

1. 0.9 gin/100 ml
2. 80-100/Mg 100 ml
3. 200 Mg/100 ml
4. 500 Mg/100 ml.

Answer: 2. 80-100/Mg 100 ml

The Living World MCQ for NEET Question 24. Common salt helps in the digestion of food because it:

1. Maintains turgidity of rbc
2. Prevents dehydration
3. It is an important constituent of blood plasma
4. It forms hc1 of gastric juice and digestion occurs in an acidic medium.

Answer: 4. It forms hc1 of gastric juice and digestion occurs in an acidic medium.

Question 25. Kangaroo makes use of its thick tail as the fifth limb. It is an example of:

1. Short term adaptation
2. Long term adaptation
3. Temporary adjustment for sitting
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Long-term adaptation

Question 26. Adaptations significant for the evolution of species are :

1. Short-term and heritable
2. Long-term and heritable
3. Long-term and non-heritable
4. Short-term and non-heritable.

Answer: 2. Long-term and heritable

Question 27. A wheat crop is ripening in the field. It shows :

1. Energy transfer
2. Energy transformation
3. Entropy
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 28. Geotropism is an example of :

1. Short term adaptation
2. Long term adaptation
3. None of above
4. Both of the above.

Answer: 1. Short-term adaptation

Question 29. Artificial blood is :

1. Chloro fluorocarbons
2. Pfc (perfluorocarbons)
3. Lsd
4. Leghaemoglobin.

Answer: 2. Pfc (perfluorocarbons)

The Living World MCQ for NEET Question 30. Why drip of glucose anil not fructose is given to a needy patient

1. Glucose acts as a respiratory fuel
2. It is an open-chain simple sugar and provides instant energy
3. Fructose changes the pH of body fluid
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 31. The short-term adaptations develop due to a temporary change in the environment and arc :

1. Inherited through genes
2. Inherited by male
3. Inherited by female
4. Not inherited.

Answer: 4. Not inherited.

Question 32. The study of the migration of birds is called :

1. Ornithology
2. Etiology
3. Kalology
4. Phenology.

Answer: 4. Phenology.

Question 33. Which of the following explanations accounts for the statement: “it has yet not been possible to create life”?

1. The nature of molecular organization is complex and not completely understood
2. All molecules of life have not been identified yet
3. Most molecules are known except for a few
4. The earth is now with reducing conditions.

Answer: 1. The nature of molecular organization is complex and not completely understood

Question 34. Price of life is :

1. Atp
2. Photosynthesis and respiration
3. Death
4. All the above

Answer: 4. All the above

Question 35. The adaptation shown by the entire species is :

1. Temporary
2. Permanent
3. Both of 1 and 2
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Permanent

NEET Biology MCQ The Living World Question 36. Which factor is not involved in dna replication?

1. Control enzymes
2. Monomers
3. Energy source-atp
4. None of the above.

Answer: 4. None of the above.

Question 37. Atom is fundamental to an understanding of chemistry. What is fundamental to an understanding of biology?

1. Cell-organelles
2. Cell
3. Ecosystem
4. Biosphere.

Answer: 2. Cell

Question 38. Essential aspects of life are :

1. Energy kinetics
2. Reproduction
3. Adaptation
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 39. Which one of the following is called the energy currency of cells?

1. Adp
2. Amp
3. Atp
4. Gtp.

Answer: 3. Atp

NEET Biology MCQ The Living World Question 40. The most at of the human body is:

1. Hypothalamus
2. Pituitary
3. Thyroid
4. Pineal body.

Answer: 1. Hypothalamus

Question 41. The contraction of muscles  represents the transformation of chemical energy into:

1. Heat energy
2. Light energy
3. Mechanical energy
4. Electrical energy.

Answer: 3. Mechanical energy

Question 42. The ilex elopement of extra melanin line to exposure of skin to sunlight is helpful in:

1. Maintaining the skin viable
2. An absorbing all solar radiations
3. Protecting internal organs front radiations
4. Both 2 and 3.

Answer: 4. Both 2 and 3.

Question 43. If a person is exposed to an excess of sunlight, his skin becomes dark. This is:

1. An adaptation
2. Mimicry
3. Pharmacology
4. Both 4 and 3.

Answer: 1. An adaptation

Question 44. Some organisms resemble other organisms, which escape from enemies. This phenomenon is called:

1. Homology
2. Analogy
3. Adaptation
4. Mimicry.

Answer: 4. Mimicry.

NEET Biology MCQ The Living World Question 45. The adaptations are for :

1. Change
2. Improvement
3. Survival
4. Decline.

Answer: 3. Survival

Question 46. Organisms with the smallest life span are:

1. Silk moth
2. Mayfly
3. Sequoia
4. Man.

Answer: 2. Mayfly

Question 47. The highest level of organization is:

1. Protoplasm
2. Organ system
3. Ecosystem
4. Ecosphere.

Answer: 4. Ecosphere.

Question 48. The amount of energy released per mole of glucose is:

1. 6.86 kcal
2. 68.6 kcal
3. 668 Kcal
4. 686 Kcal.

Answer: 4. 686 Kcal.

Question 49. Which of the following is a long-range adaptation?

1. Ankle bone
2. Opposable thumb
3. Tail in kangaroo
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 50. Which type of organization is found in Hydra?

1. Tissue
2. Protoplasmic
3. Organ system
4. Cellular.

Answer: 1. Tissue

Question 51. The death is significant because it :

1. Kills the organisms
2. Restores the efficiency of any organization
3. Keeps a check on the increasing population
4. Both 2 and 3

Answer: 4. Both and.

Question 52. Which of (lie following maintains the balance of species and contributes to homeostasis?

1. Death
2. Reproduction
3. Physiotherapy
4. Both and (11).

Answer: 4. Both and (11).

Question 53. Non-covalent bonds include all the following:

1. A carbon-carbon double bond
2. An ionic bond
3. A hydrogen bond
4. Van der Waal’s interaction.

Answer: 1. A carbon-carbon double bond

Question 54. Covalent bonds in contrast to non-covalent bonds:

1. Have an energy level of about 1 keal/mol
2. Are stable relative to the kinetic energy of molecules at room temperature
3. Are readily broken at room temperature
4. Are the main force in maintaining the three-dimensional structure of large molecules such as proteins.

Answer: 4. Are the main force in maintaining the three-dimensional structure of large molecules such as proteins.

Question 55. Which of the following is not a feature of living organisms?

1. Highly organized and complete entities formed of one or more cells
2. Carry out and control numerous chemical reactions
3. Cannot acquire energy
4. Grow in size, develop, and produce offspring similar to them.

Answer: 3. Grow in size, develop and produce offspring similar to them.

Question 56. The hierarchies of biological organization start with :

1. Cell level and end in biosphere
2. Molecular level and end in ecosystem
3. Submicroscopic molecular level and end in the biosphere
4. Microscopic cellular level and end in the biosphere.

Answer: 3. Submicroscopic molecular level and end in the biosphere

Question 57. Water is a polar molecule because of its magnetic poles. In the water molecule:

1. Oxygen atom bears a partial negative charge (8′)
2. Each hydrogen atom has a partial, positive charge (8‘)
3. Oxygen atom has a positive charge and hydrogen a negative charge
4. Both 1 and 2.

Answer: 4. Both 1 and 2.

Question 58. Common table salt (NaCl) is an important lattice of ions in which atoms are held together by electrical attractions. Which of the following is not correct?

1. Direct NaCl molecules can be formed
2. No direct nacl molecule can be formed
3. The electronegativity of a chlorine atom is 3-1 is higher than that of a sodium atom (0-9)
4. Nacl is electrically neutral.

Answer: 2. No direct nacl molecule can be formed

NEET Biology Homeostasis and Osmoregulation Excretion

• Elimination: Excretion is the removal of metabolic waste products from the organism.
• The metabolism of carbs and lipids generates CO2 and H2O, which are readily excreted. Excretion occurs via the lungs (expired air), skin (sweat), or kidneys (urine).
• Protein metabolism generates nitrogenous waste products, including ammonia, which is the primary nitrogenous catabolic byproduct of protein resulting from amino acid degradation.
• Nephrology: Examination of the anatomy, function, and pathologies of the kidneys (G. nephros = kidney, logos = discourse).
• Urology:  Examination of the female urinary tract and the male urogenital tract (G our = urine, logos = discourse)
• Urography: The X-ray assessment of the urinary system following the administration of contrast agents.

NEET Biology Homeostasis and Osmoregulation Excretory Products

1. They are mainly excess of amino acid, ammonia, urea, uric acid, trimethyl amine oxide (in teleost fishes), guanine (in spiders), allantoin, hippuric acid, ornithinic acid, creatine, and creatinine.
2. In addition, CO₂, ammonia, sweat, and bile pigments are all excretory products.
3. Nature of Excretory products. Based on the nature of the nitrogenous excretory end-products, animals are classified into the following main categories.
4. Ammonotelic animals. These animals excrete their nitrogenous wastes as ammonia. Excretion of ammonia is suited to an aquatic habitat.
5. Ammonia is found as the chief excretory product in the majority of primitive aquatic animals, certain Protozoa, Polychaetes, Crustaceans, some mollusks, and teleost fishes.
6. It is also excreted by secondarily aquatic animals such as larvae of insects, aquatic tortoises, and turtles. Amphibian tadpoles excrete mainly ammonia whereas adults produce urea.
7. Uricotelic animals. The nitrogenous excretory end product is uric acid. Most terrestrial animals, including insects, terrestrial gastropods, terrestrial reptiles, and birds excrete mainly uric acid.
8. Ureotelic animals. Urea is the major excretory product For Example Earthworms, some gastropods, adult amphibians, Elasmobranch fishes, and mammals.
9. Aminotelic animals eliminate amino acids. They are mollusks (Unio, Pila, etc) and echinoderms (Starfish, Sea cucumber, etc.)

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NEET Biology Homeostasis and Osmoregulation List Of Excretory Products

1. Ammonia
2. Urea
3. Uric acid
4. Creatine. Normally in the urine of children, pregnant and lactating mothers, creatine excretion increases during catabolism of tissue proteins.
5. Creatinine. Formed during the metabolism of creatine derived from catabolism of muscular proteins.
6. Trimethylamine Oxide (TMAO). Marino telcos fishes excrete a large proportion of their nitrogen as trimethylamine oxide (a soluble non-toxic substance). It resembles urea.
7. Guanine. Spiders exclusively excrete guanine which resembles uric acid.
8. Ornithinic Acid. It is excreted in small amounts by birds and is formed by a combination of benzoic acid,
9. Hippuric acid. The benzoic acid present in the diet of mammals combines with glycine to form less toxic hippuric acid.
10. Pterydlnes. Pigments are present in the insects. Excreted in fecal matter or deposited in wings or fat bodies.
11. Mineral ions.
12. Allantoin. Formed by oxidation of uric acid.
13. Amino acids. Excess is eliminated as such in Unio and echinoderms.

Homeostasis And Osmoregulation NEET Notes

NEET Biology Homeostasis and Osmoregulation Excretory Organs Of Invertebrates

1. There are no special excretory organs in protozoans, porifers, and coelenterates.
2. Ammonia is the main excretory product and diffuses directly out of the body through the general surface.
3. Plantyhelminthes. (Planaria, Liver fluke, etc.) Carry out excretion by flame cells and main excretory products arc nitrogenous wastes.
4. Annelids have nephridin for excretion and osmoregulation.
5. Arthropods – Crustaceans carry out excretion through green (antennary) glands and the excretory product called urine contains ammonia, some urea, and amino acid.
6. Insects, centipedes, and millipedes eliminate uric acids as solid precipitate extracted by blind malpighian tubules.
7. Scorpions and spiders (Arachnids) have malpighian tubules or coxal glands or both for excretion.
8. Molluscs have one or two pairs of kidneys, Keber’s organs, and organs of Bojanus for excretion.
9. Echinoderms lack special structure but excretion is carried out by diffusion through gills and tube feet.

NEET Biology Homeostasis and Osmoregulation Excretory Organs Of Vertebrates

1. Integument. Substances such as salts, water, CO_2, and fat derivatives are removed Guanosine → guanine from the body through the integument.
2. Gills. In marine fishes, in addition to removing CO₂ gills remove excess salts.
3. Alimentary Canal. It helps in removing certain salts such as calcium phosphate from the body.
4. Salt glands. In some marine fishes, reptiles, and birds, salt-excreting glands are found.
5. Liver. The liver produces urea during the ornithine cycle. It also excretes bile pigments.
6. Lungs. Lungs remove CO₂ along with certain volatile substances like alcohol, ketone bodies, aromatic oils, water vapors, etc.
7. The neural gland is an excretory gland in the urochordates which opens into the pharynx
8. Kidney. This is a major excretory organ which develops from the mesoderm. The kidney is divided into two main parts
9. outer cortex which contains all the pails of the nephron except Henlc’s loop and
10. the inner medulla which contains Kettle’s loops.
11. The nephron is the structural and functional unit of the kidney.
12. Each nephron is composed of a body (Bowman’s capsule and glomerulus), secretory tubule, proximal convoluted tubule (PCF), Henlc’s loop, and distal convoluted tubule CT).
13. A stir of ureters carries urine from the kidneys to the urinary bladder.
14. A urinary bladder is a sac-like structure with a clastic wall that stores urine.
15. The urethra is a small narrow tube that connects the urinary bladder to the exterior. It is very narrow and small for women.

Archinephrie. It is also called the ancestral kidney. It is believed that the primitive vertebrate ancestor had this type of kidney.

• Such a kidney is found today in the larvae of certain cyclostomes {example, Mexico) but do not occur in any adult vertebrate. Glomeruli are only present in some of the posterior tubules.

Pronephric Kidney. It appears as an embryonic functional kidney in cyclostomes, fishes, and amphibians. It is non-functional in the embryonic life of reptiles, birds, and mammals.

• It is retained throughout life in adult cyclostomes and a few bony fishes. It is also called the anterior kidney due to its anterior position. Each tubule has a glomerulus.

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Mesonephric Kidney. It is also called the middle kidney. In lamprey, most adult fishes, and amphibians, the mesonephric kidney is functional both in the embryo as well as in adults.

• In reptiles, birds, and mammals it is functional in embryos and is replaced by a metanephric kidney in the adults. It consists of a large number of tubules that develop internal glomeruli enclosed in capsules forming Malpighian bodies.
• In sharks, ami caecilians (limbless amphibians) mimics extend posteriorly throughout the length of the coelom. Mich a kidney is called an opisthonephric kidney.

Metanephric kidney. It is also called the posterior kidney. Tubules (nephrons) are very large in number. Ilie glomeruli arc is very well developed. Mctancphric kidneys are found in adult amniotes (reptiles, birds, and mammals).

Opisthonephros. Temporary structure develops behind pronephros

NEET Biology Homeostasis and Osmoregulation Valuable Information

Ornithine cycle occurs in the liver.

• Waste products of adenine and guanine metabolism are excreted by man as uric acid.
• Glucose is completely reabsorbed by blood in the tubules in a normal human kidney.
• About 1500 ml of water is lost by plasma through the kidney in 24 hours.
• Branchiostoma is the chordate that possesses nephridia with flame cells (Solenocytes).
• The neural gland is an excretory organ of urochordates.
• The kidney is dark red in the cortex and pale red in the medulla.
• The main excretory organ of prawns are paired green glands.
• Malpighian tubules show peristaltic movement i.e. 5-15 per minute at 20-25°C in cockroaches.
• Earthworm excretes ammonia when sufficient water is available but eliminates urea during a shortage of water.
• Amphibian larvae are ammonotelic and turn ureotelic during metamorphosis.
• Desert snakes are mostly uricotelic.
• The toad Xenopus and lung fishes are normally ammonotelic when living in water but they turn ureotelic and retain urea when lying immobile or dormant during summer.
• Urine yields an aromatic smell due to the presence of crinoids.
• Urine on standing gives a pungent smell because of the conversion of urea into ammonia due to microbial action.
• Sharks retain so much urea in their blood that their osmotic blood pressure approaches that of seawater. It minimizes the loss of water from the body to the concentrated saline water of the sea.
• Chloragogen (Yellow) Cells. These are found in the visceral peritoneum of the gut and in the coelomic fluid in the earthworm. They function like the vertebrate liver. They store and distribute food, synthesize hemoglobin, and produce urea by deamination for excretion.
• A remarkable fall in blood pressure affects the normal functions of the kidney because of reduced renal filtration.
• A large amount of NaCI is excreted along with sweat.
• Muscular cramps may occur due to salt deficiency.

NEET Biology Homeostasis and Osmoregulation Physiology Of Excretion

Ammonia, a metabolic waste, quickly diffuses and reacts with water to produce a very hazardous substance.

Ammonia is transformed into urea in the liver via the ornithine cycle as follows:

Renal Physiology:

The kidneys filter urea and other waste products from the blood and excrete them through urine.

It occurs through three processes:

1. Glomerular filtration.
2. Reabsorption
3. Tubular secretion.

NEET Biology Homeostasis and Osmoregulation Functions Of Kidney

The kidney performs excretion, and osmoregulation; regulates pH, salt contents, blood pressure, the expulsion of medicines, poisons, etc. homeostasis and secretes renin.

1. Regulatory Functions of Kidneys
2. Regulation of osmotic pressure of ECF. (extracellular fluid)
3. Regulation of pH.
4. Regulation of electrolyte pattern of ECF.
5. Regulation of erythrocytes (RBCs) count in blood.
6. Regulation of Renal Blood Flow. These are the homeostatic functions of kidneys.
7. Erythropoiesis. Macula-dense juxtaglomerular cells near the glomerulus are believed to produce renal Erythropoietic factor which increases the production of RBC in bone marrow.

Homeostasis And Osmoregulation NEET Biology Notes

NEET Biology Homeostasis and Osmoregulation Disorders Of Excretory System

1. Dysuria-painful urination.
2. Polyuria-unusually large amounts of urine.
3. Oligouria-scanty urine.
4. Gout-Deposition of uric acid at joints.
5. Azotemia-Presence of urea and other nitrogenous wastes in blood.
6. Haematuria-Presence of blood in the urine.
7. Bacteriuria-Bacteria in urine.
8. IVP-Intra venous pyelogram-X-ray film of kidneys after injection of the contrasting medium.
9. Uremia In this condition there are high concentrations of non-protein nitrogens which include urea, uric acid, creatinine, and a few less important compounds. Urea accumulation in the blood is comparatively high in uremia.
10. Bright’s disease (Nephritis). Inflammation of the kidney.
11. Urethritis Inflammation of the lining of the urethra due to bacterial infection (commonly
    Gambino. causing painful urination.
12. Nocturnal Enuresis. Bed-wetting during sleep.
13. Renal colic is an excruciating pain on account of kidney stones. The incidence of annex stones is slightly higher in males than females.
14. Polycystic disease or kidney. Inherited kidney disorder characterized by multiple bilateral cysts that cause enlargement of the kidney.
15. Nocturia is a renal disease in which the volume of urine rises so much at night that the person is compelled to wake up to ease out.
16. The urine of a man suffering from diabetes inspires is tasteless and watery.
17. Glycosuria (diabetes colitis). It is a disorder in which the concentration of glucose becomes very high and the excess is removed along with urine. It is caused by to deficiency of hormone insulin.
18. Nephrolithiasis. Presence of stone in kidney.
19. Pyelolithotomy. Removal of a stone from the renal pelvis.

NEET Biology Homeostasis and Osmoregulation Artificial Kidney

1. An artificial kidney is used to filter the blood of a person with kidney failure. It functions on the principle of dialysis i.e. the separation of smaller molecules from larger ones in a solution through a semipermeable membrane between the solution and the water.
2. The smaller molecules pass through the membrane into the water on the other side, the larger ones do not. In the case of man blood is the fluid which is sent for filtration, it is called hemodialysis.
3. The kidney machine sends blood into a cellophane tube suspended in a saline solution of the same composition as that of blood plasma except that no urea is present.
4. As the blood flows through the cellophane tube excess nitrogenous waste products like ammonia and urea, and an excess of H+ ions diffuse out into the surrounding saline solution because the cellophane tube has pores large enough to allow the free passage of those small molecules.
5. The blood, after its purification, is pumped back into the body through a vein. The artificial kidney is so efficient that the filtration of urea from the blood is more rapid than the normal kidney.
6. The use of artificial kidneys, however, is of great discomfort to the patient and there is a risk of blood clotting. And then the patient needs to get his blood dialysed every second or third day which is an expensive and troublesome affair

• Maintenance of homeostasis or a steady state is very important for normal life processes.
• The specialized transport epithelia of animals are engaged in osmoregulation.
• Osmoregulation is the maintenance of water and salt levels in the body.
• Osmoconformers show’ an excellent ability to tolerate a wide range of cellular osmotic environments. c& osmoregulators maintain an internal osmolarity.
• Water and solute regulation in terrestrial environment
• Terrestrial animals adapt as follows to regulate water and solute.
• Minimizing water loss by forming a waxy coating of the exoskeleton of insects and shells in land snails.
• Formation of a stratified keratinized layer of skin.
• Drinking and eating moist food.
• Kangaroo rats can recover 90 % of water loss by using metabolic water.
• Nasal counter current mechanism.
• Most desert animals are nocturnal to avoid the heat of the day.
• formation of dry feces and concentrated urine.
• Osmoregulation by kidneys in mammals. Kidneys play an important role in maintaining the concentration and osmotic pressure of the blood when the water intake of an animal is very high. The urine, excreted has to be hypotonic in order to remove the excess of water.
• Contrarily, when there is a threat of excessive water loss from the body, the urine needs to be hypertonic to reduce the loss of water with urine. Thus the osmotic concentration of the blood is maintained.
• Almost all vertebrates including mammals can produce hypotonic urine, diluted and lower in osmotic pressure than their blood. Many freshwater vertebrates like fishes secrete very dilute urine.
• In mammals, osmoregulation is carried by :
• Counter-current mechanism (flow of fluids in two opposite directions in two loops and vasa recta and osmolarity sea water is 1000 most.
• ADH – HAAS control system. ADH hormone af- feels permeability of DCT and CT.

Homeostasis And Osmoregulation Neet Question Bank

Juxtaglomerular apparatus. (JGA). It is a specialized structure, located where the distal convoluted tubule passes close to Bowman’s capsule between the afferent and efferent arterioles.

1. The cells of this apparatus secrete substances like renin which modulates blood pressure and thus renal blood flow and GFR are regulated.
2. Myogenic and juxtaglomerular mechanisms work together to autoregulate the GFR over a wide range of blood pressure. In addition to these extrinsic neural control also regulates the filtration rate.
3. Hormonal Control. The hormones taking part in the regulatory mechanism of urine formation are as follows:
4. Control by juxtaglomerular apparatus which operates multi-hormonal Renin Angiotensin Aldosterone system. (RAAS).
5. Aldosterone. Mineral corticoids are secreted. by the adrenal cortex under the impact of ACTH on the pituitary, osmotic concentration of blood plasma, and renin-angiotensin mechanism. Aldosterone increases Na+ absorption of tubules along with Cl“ but it also brings about excessive potassium ions.
6. An antidiuretic hormone secreted by the posterior lobe of the pituitary regulates the amount of water excreted in the urine.
7. It increases the reabsorption of water in the distal convoluted tubules and collecting tubules as well and deficiency of this hormone lowers the permeability of cells of the distal convoluted tubule, collecting tubule, and collecting duct, by decreasing the reabsorption of water.
8. Its release is triggered by osmoreceptors of the hypothalamus when these receptors detect an increase in osmolarity in the blood above a set point of 300 most L ‘l. Then these cells promote thirst.

Atrial natriuratic Factor. (ANF) a peptide hormone opposes the regulation by UAAS.

Parathormone. This hot mono helps in maintaining calcium-phosphorus balance,  evinces hiss of calcium
in mine ami increases the elimination of phosphate in the mine.

1. Thyroxine is secreted by the thyroid controls the working of the kidney and its deficiency reduces urine output.
2. Kidneys conserve as much water as possible, urine can roach an osmolarity of about 1200 most considerably hypertonic to blood (about 300 tons).

Conservation of water is an adaptive feature.

1. Micturition is an act of voiding the urine.
2. Proteinuria, Albuminuria, Glycoairia
3. Hematuria, Haemoglobinuria, and Uremia are the common disorders of the kidney.
4. An artificial kidney is used to remove the excess urea from the blood of a patient by a process called hemodialysis.
5. Lungs eliminate around 18 L of CO₂ per hour and about 100 ml. of water per day in normal resting conditions.
6. The skin eliminates wastes such as sweat and sebum.

The liver is the main site for the elimination of cholesterol, bile pigments, and inactivated products of steroid hormones, some vitamins, and drugs.

NEET Biology Homeostasis and Osmoregulation Quanta To Memory

1. Cyclostomes (Hagfish) Embryo–archinephros Adult pronephros and opisthonephos.
2. Lamprey– Adults–opisthonephros
3. Fishes–Elasmobranch (Scoliodon)
4. Two regions–anterior non-renal and posterior wide– renal
5. Trimethylamine excretory products of teleost fishes Bony fishes–Aglomerular kidneys, ammonotelic
6. Urodaeum–Middle chamber of the cloaca in which the ureter opens.
7. Adult Birds–Metanephric
8. Embryo–Mesonephric
9. A long loop of Henle for reabsorption of water, No urinary bladder except Ostrich Malpighian body = Renal corpuscle A frog can lose water through its skin and nephron. Salts are also lost through the skin.
10. Reptiles conserve water in two ways.
11. impermeable coat of homy scales.
12. Small glomeruli in the kidney and reabsorption of water in the urinary tubules and cloaca.
13. Desert mammals have exceptionally long Henle loops for greater reabsorption of water.
14. Kangaroo rats of deserts survive on metabolic water alone as they take dry food. One gm of carbohydrates, protein or fat yield ( 0.6 gm 0.4 gm 1.1 gm of water respectively) on complete oxidation.
15. Marine turtles, Sea snakes, and Sea birds have special Salt secreting glands, that excrete salts of seawater as they drink seawater.
16. Hormones–ADH, Aldosterone, and Thyroxine are involved in urine formation.
17. Botryoidal tissue is found in leeches and excretory in function.
18. Filtration fraction Ratio between GFR (Glomerular Filtration Rate) and RPF (Renal plasma flow)
19. Uriod–a bad-smelling substance formed by a breakdown by bacteria.
20. Renal threshold. Maximum limit up to which a substance can be reabsorbed from nephric filtration into blood capillaries.
21. Homoeostasis includes water balance, salt balance, acid-base balance, and balance of harmful substances.
22. The loop of Henle is located in the medulla of the kidney.
23. Cells of an earthworm analogous to the vertebrate liver are known as chloragogen cells.
24. The largest number of sweat glands in man are found on the palms.
25. Urine is light yellow, repulsive odor, is slightly acidic, having a specific gravity between 1.003 and 1.04.
26. The urea reabsorbing segment is found in the renal tubule of sharks.
27. The right human kidney is slightly lower than the left kidney because the liver pushes the kidney of its side down.
28. The sweat glands in rabbits are mostly concentrated on the lips.
29. Bidder’s Canal. Present in the male frog’s kidney, transfers sperm from the vasa efferentia to the ureter.
30. Nephrectomy. Surgical removal of a kidney.

Urinary Bladder. Absent in cyclostomes, cartilaginous fishes, snakes, crocodilians, and birds.

1. The first kidney transplant in India was performed on December 1. 1971, at the Christian Medical College, Vellore, Tamil Nadu on a 35-year-old patient named Shanmughan.
2. Each kidney has about sixteen renal pyramids.
3. The terminal and non-convoluted part of the PCT of the nephron is called the pars recta.
4. Columns of Bertini. Conical projections of the renal cortex into the renal medulla between the renal pyramids.
5. The hepatic vein has with maximum amount of urea, while the renal vein has with minimum amount of urea.
6. Both afferent and efferent arterioles in Bowman’s capsule are arterial.

Homeostasis And Osmoregulation Neet Mcqs

NEET Biology Homeostasis and Osmoregulation Questions From Competitive Examinations

Question 1. The figure shows a human urinary system with structures labeled 1 to 4. Select an option that correctly identifies them and gives their characteristics and functions.

1. B – pelvis – broad funnel-shaped space inner to the hilum, directly connected to loops of Henle.
2. C – medulla – inner zone of kidney and contains complex nephrons.
3. D – cortex – the outer part of the kidney and does not contain any part of nephrons.
4. A – adrenal gland – located at the anterior part of the kidney. Secrete catecholamines which stimulate glycogen breakdown.

Answer: 4. A – adrenal gland – located at the anterior part of the kidney. Secrete catecholamines which stimulate glycogen breakdown.

Question 2. The formation of concentrated (hyperosmotic) urine in vertebrates generally depends on :

1. Length of the proximal convoluted tubule
2. Length of Henle’s loop
3. Area of bowman’s capsule epithelium
4. Capillary network forming glomerulus.

Answer: 2. Length of Henle’s loop

Question 3. Ciliated funnels found on the ventral side of the kidney in frogs are:

1. Ostia
2. Corpora adipose
3. Nephrostome
4. Bidder’s organs.

Answer: 3. Nephrostome

Question 4. Urine is always fluid except in :

1. Reptiles and amphibians
2. Reptiles and mammals
3. Reptiles and frogs
4. Reptiles and birds.

Answer: 4. Reptiles and birds.

Question 5. Urine is transported through :

1. Wbcs
2. Erythrocytes
3. Blood plasma
4. All of the above.

Answer: 3. Blood plasma

Question 6. In hydra, wastes of food digestion and nitrogenous wastes are removed from :

1. Mouth & mouth
2. Mouth & tentacles
3. Body wall and body wall
4. Mouth and body wall,

Answer: 4. Mouth and body wall

Question 7. Blood vessels leading into the bowman’s capsule are called :

1. Renal vein
2. Renal artery
3. Efferent arteriole
4. Afferent arteriole.

Answer: 4. Afferent arteriole.

Question 8. In peritoneal dialysis, dialysate is passed into :

1. Urinary bladder
2. Abdominal cavity
3. Thoracic cavity
4. Stomach.

Answer: 2. Abdominal cavity

Question 9. Separation of amino acid and carboxylic groups is called :

1. Deamination
2. Transamination
3. Egestion,
4. Excretion.

Answer: 1. Deamination

Homeostasis And Osmoregulation Neet Mcqs

Question 10. The presence of urea in the blood is referred to as:

1. Uraemia
2. Hacmaturia
3. Diarrhea
4. Anuria,

Answer: 1. Uraemia

Question 11. Reabsorption of water in the distal part of kidney tubules is controlled by :

1. Vasopressin
2. Oxytocin
3. Calcitonin
4. Relaxin.

Answer: 1. Vasopressin

Question 12. Cockroaches are :

1. Ureotelic
2. Uricotelic
3. Ammonotelic
4. Aminotelic.

Answer: 2. Uricotelic

Question 13. In the nephron, Na⁺ is reabsorbed in :

1. Glomerulus
2. Pct
3. Dct
4. Loop of Henle.

Answer: 4. Loop of Henle

Question 14. The volume of urine is regulated by :

1. Aldosterone
2. Aldosterone, ADH and testosterone
3. Aldosterone and ADH
4. Ads alone.

Answer: 3. Aldosterone and ADH

Question 15. Absorption of Na⁺ and K⁺ ions occur in :

1. Bowman’s capsule
2. Proximal convoluted tubule
3. Distal convoluted tubule
4. Loop of Henle.

Answer: 3. Distal convoluted tubule

Question 16. The liquid which collects in the cavity of the bowman’s capsule is :

1. Blood plasma minus blood proteins
2. Glycogen and water
3. Urea, glycogen, and water
4. Urea.

Answer: 1. Blood plasma minus blood proteins

Question 17. Renin is secreted from :

1. Juxtaglomerular cells
2. Podocytes
3. Nephridia
4. Stomach.

Answer: 1. Juxtaglomerular cells

Question 18. Ornithine cycle removes :

1. CO₂ and ammonia from blood in the liver
2. Ammonia and urea from blood in the liver
3. CO₂ and urea from blood in the liver
4. Ammonia and uric acid from blood in the liver.

Answer: 1. CO₂ and ammonia from blood in the liver

Question 19. Match the excretory organs listed under column 1 with the animals given under column 2. Choose the answer which gives the correct combination of alphabets of two columns :

1. A = t; b = q;  c = s;  d = r
2. A = q; b = t;  c = s;  d = r
3. A = q; b =s;   c = t;  d = p
4. A = s; b = q;  c = p;  d = t.

Answer: 1. A = t; b = q;  c = s;  d = r

Homeostasis And Osmoregulation Neet Mcqs

Question 20. Animals which excrete urea produced during the metabolism of amino acids are:

1. Ureotclisni
2. Uricotelism
3. Ammonolelism
4. Aminotelism.

Answer: 1. Ureotclisni

Question 21. Which of the following nephritis is not found in earthworms?

1. Septal nephridia
2. Maeronephric
3. Integumentary
4. Pharyngeal.

Answer: 2. Maeronephric

Question 22. Excretory waste of birds and reptiles are :

1. Urea
2. Urea and uric acid
3. Uric acid
4. Ammonia and uric acid.

Answer: 4. Ammonia and uric acid.

Question 23. When a freshwater protozoan possessing a contractile vacuole, is placed in a glass containing marine water, the vacuole will :

1. Increase in size
2. Decrease in size
3. Increase in number
4. Disappear.

Answer: 2. Decrease in size

Question 24. Which one of the following is not correct for a normal human?

1. The pH of urine is around 8.
2. On average, 25-30 mg of urea is excreted via urine.
3. The presence of ketone bodies in urine is an indicator of diabetes mellitus.
4. Glycosuria can be treated with hemodialysis.
5. Relaxation of smooth muscles of the bladder and simultaneous contraction of the urethral sphincter causes the release of urine.

Answer: 3. Glycosuria can be treated with hemodialysis.

Question 25. Osmoregulation in paramecium is a function of contractile vacuole trichocysts

1. Contractile vacuole
2. Trichoyts
3. Cytopyge
4. Cytostome.

Answer: 1. Contractile vacuole

Question 26. Blood leaving the liver and moving to the heart will have more concentration of:

1. Bile
2. Urea
3. Glycogen
4. Amino acid.

Answer: 2. Urea

Question 27. Which one of the following statements is correct concerning saltwater balance inside the body of living organisms?

1. When water is not available camels do not produce urine but store urea in tissues
2. Salmon fish excrete a lot of stored salt through the gill membrane when in fresh water.
3. Paramecium discharges concentrated salt solution by contractile vacuoles
4. The body fluids of freshwater animals are generally hypotonic to surrounding water.

Answer: 1. When water is not available camels do not produce urine but store urea in tissues

Question 28. Which one of the following groups of structure/organs have similar functions?

1. Typhlosole in earthworms, intestinal villi in rats, and contractile vacuole in amoeba.
2. Nephridia in earthworms, malpighian tubules in cockroaches, and urinary tubules in rats.
3. Antennae of cockroach, tympanum of frog, and clitellum of earthworm.
4. Incisors of rats, the gizzard of cockroaches, and tube feet of starfish.

Answer: 2. Nephridia in the earthworm, malpighian tubules in cockroaches, and urinary tubules in rat

Question 29. Based on excretion, people are:

1. Ammonotclic
2. Ureotelic
3. Uricotelic
4. None of these.

Answer: 1. Ammonotclic

Question 30. Which has the minimum concentration of urea in blood?

1. Renal arteries
2. Renal vein
3. Aortic arteries
4. Vena cava.

Answer: 2. Renal vein

Homeostasis And Osmoregulation NEET Notes

Question 31. The net pressure gradient that causes the fluid to filter out of the glomeruli into the capsule is :

1. 20 Mm hg
2. 75 Mm hg
3. 30 Mm hg
4. 50 mm hg.

Answer: 1. 20 Mm hg

Question 32. A person is undergoing prolonged fasting. His urine will be found to contain abnormal quantities of :

1. Fats
2. Ketones
3. Amino acids
4. Glucose.

Answer: 2. Ketones

Question 33. Seagulls excrete an excess of NaCl from :

1. Liver
2. Lungs
3. Nasal cavity
4. Kidney.

Answer: 3. Nasal cavity

Question 34. Juxtaglomerular cells of the renal cortex synthesize an enzyme called :

1. ADH
2. Oxytocin
3. Renin
4. Urochrome.

Answer: 3. Renin

Question 35. Which of the following statements is true?

A. Urine is hypertonic in distal convoluted tubule

B. When the urine passes into the collecting tubule, it becomes hypotonic.

C. Urine is isotonic in the proximal convoluted tubule

D. Urine becomes more and more hypotonic as it passes through the Henle’s loop.

Choose The Correct Answer 

1. A And D only
2. A, B, And C only
3. B And C only
4. C Only.

Answer: 4. C Only.

Question 36. Match the excretory functions of section 1 with the parts of the excretory system in section 2. Choose the correct combination from among the answers given.

1. 1 – D, 2 – a, 3 – b, 4 – c
2. 1 – D, 2 – c, 3 – b, 4 – a
3. 1 – E, 2 – d, 3 – a, 4 – c
4. 1 – E, 2 – d, 3 – a, 4 – b

Answer: 1. 1 – D, 2 – a, 3 – b, 4 – c

Question 37. The voluntary response to the distension of the urinary bladder is :

1. Polyurea
2. Micturition
3. Mellitus
4. Menstruation

Answer: 2. Micturition

Question 38. Glucose is mainly reabsorbed in,

1. Pct
2. Dct
3. Henle’s loop
4. Nephron.

Answer: 1. Pct

Question 39. Marine teleost fishes secrete :

1. Uric acid
2. Urea
3. Ammonia
4. All of these.

Answer: 2. Urea

Question 40. Antennary glands of crustaceans are for :

1. Respiration
2. Neurosecretion
3. Excretion
4. Olfaction.

Answer: 3. Excretion

Homeostasis And Osmoregulation NEET Notes

Question 41. Part of the nephron impermeable to salt is :

1. Descending limb of the loop of Henle
2. Ascending limb of the loop of Henle
3. Collecting ducts
4. Distal convoluted tubule

Answer: 1. Descending limb of the loop of Henle

Question 42. Refer to the following mg diagram and identify the parts of a kidney indicated.

1. 1 = Cortex, 2 = neplmm. 3 = Pelvis.  4 = Medulla, 5 = ureter
2. 1 = Cortex. 2 = Medulla, 3 = nephron, 4 = pelvis. 5 = Ureter
3. 1 = Nephron, 2 = cortex, 3 = medulla, 4 = ureter, 5 = pelvis
4. 1 = Nephron, 2 = cortex, 3 = medulla, 4 = pelvis, 5 = ureter
5. 1 = Nephron, 2 = ureter, 3 = pelvis, 4 =  medulla, 5 = cortex

Answer: 4. 1 = Nephron, 2 = cortex, 3 = medulla, 4 = pelvis, 5 = ureter

Question 43.  Match the entries in column 1 with those in column 2 and choose die correct answer from the following.

1. A-5, b-3, c-2, d-4, e-1
2. A-4, b-5, c-3, d-2, e-1
3. A-5, b-3, c-4, d-2, e-1
4. A-3, b-5, c-2, d-1, e-4
5. A-2, b-1, c-3, d-4, e-5.

Answer: 1. A-5, b-3, c-2, d-4, e-1

Question 44. Which of the following is the first formed nitrogenous waste of vertebrates?

1. NH₂
2. Urea
3. NH₃
4. NH₄.

Answer: 3. NH3

Question 45. Which of the following is added as an artificial kidney in hemodialysis?

1. Dialysing liquid
2. Dialyzer
3. Bubble trap
4. Blood pump.

Answer: 2. Dialyzer

Question 46. Earthworms are :

1. Uricotelic when plenty of water is available
2. Uricotelic under conditions of water scarcity
3. Ammonotelic when plenty of water is available
4. Ureotelic when plenty of water is available.

Answer: 3. Ammonotelic when plenty of water is available

Question 47. Angiotensinogen is a protein produced and secreted by

1. Endothelial cells (cells lining the blood vessels)
2. Liver cells
3. Juxtaglomerular (jg) cells
4. Macula densa cells

Answer: 2. Liver cells

Question 48. A person who is on a long hunger strike and is surviving only on the water will have :

1. Less amino acids in his urine
2. More glucose in his blood
3. Less urea in his urine
4. More sodium in his urine.

Answer: 3. Less urea in his urine

Question 49. The shifting of ammonotelism to ureotelism is seen in :

1. Frog
2. Fishes
3. Snake
4. Protopier

Answer: 1. Frog

Homeostasis And Osmoregulation Neet Biology Notes

Question 50. The proximal convoluted tubule (pct) is lined with

1. Cuboidal epithelium
2. Simple brush border epithelium
3. Simple cuboidal brush border epithelium
4. Columnar epithelium.

Answer: 3. Simple cuboidal brush border epithelium

Question 51. Jg cells, under low glomerular blood flow. Release

1. Angiotensin I
2. Angiotensin ii
3. ADH
4. Aldosterone.

Answer: 3. ADH

Question 52. Consider the following four statements (1-4) about certain desert animals such as kangaroo rats:

1. They have a dark colour high rate of reproduction and excrete solid urine.
2. They do not drink water, breathe it at a slow rate to conserve water, and have their hotly covered with thick hairs.
3. They feed on dry seeds and do not require drinking water.
4. They excrete very concentrated urine and do not use water to regulate body temperature.

Which two of the above statements for such animals are true?

1. 1 And 2
2. 3 And 4
3. 2 And 3
4. 3 And 1

Answer: 3. 2 And 3

Question 53. Which one of the following correctly explains the function of a specific part of a human nephron?

1. Podocytes: create minute spaces (slit pores) for the filtration of blood into the bowman’s capsule
2. Henle’s loop: most reabsorption of the major substances from the glomerular filtrate
3. Distal convoluted tubule: reabsorption of k⁺ ions into the surrounding blood capillaries
4. Afferent arteriole: carries the blood away from die glomerulus towards the renal vein.

Answer: 1. Podocytes: create minute spaces (slit pores) for the filtration of blood into the bowman’s capsule

Question 54. Which one of the following statements is correct concerning kidney function regulation?

1. When someone drinks a lot of water, ADH release is suppressed
2. Exposure to cold temperatures stimulates ADH release
3. An increase in glomerular blood flow stimulates the formation of angiotensin
4. During summer when the body loses a lot of water by evaporation, the release of ADH is suppressed.

Answer: 1. When someone drinks a lot of water, ADH release is suppressed

Question 55.  Which one of the following is not a part of a renal pyramid?

1. Peritubular capillaries
2. Convoluted tubules
3. Collecting ducts
4. Loops of Henle.

Answer: 2. Convoluted tubules

Question 56. The maximum amount of electrolytes and water (70-80 percent) from the glomerular filtrate are reabsorbed in which part of the nephron?

1. Distal convoluted tubule
2. Proximal convoluted tubule
3. Descending limb of the loop of Henle
4. Ascending limb of the loop of Henle.

Answer: 2. Proximal convoluted tubule

Question 57. Juxtaglomerular apparatus is made up of :

1. Juxtaglomerular cell, macula densa, and lacis cell
2. Juxtaglomerular cell, Purkinje cell, and chief cell
3. Juxtaglomerular cell, lacis cell, and myoepithelial cell
4. Juxtaglomerular cell, macula densa, and  argentaffin cell

Answer: 1. Juxtaglomerular cell, macula densa, and lacis cell

NEET Biology Homeostasis and Osmoregulation Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Excretion refers to :

1. Removal of metabolic wastes and toxic products from the body
2. Removal of non-nitrogenous wastes from the body
3. Removal of synthetic products
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Removal of metabolic wastes and toxic products from the body

Question 2. Kidney of amniotes belongs to the following type :

1. Pronephros
2. Mesonephros
3. Metanephros
4. None of these.

Answer: 3. metanephros

Question 3. About how many nephrons are present in each kidney of a human?

1. 1000,000
2. 2000
3. 1000
4. 16.

Answer: 1. 1000,000

Question 4. Vertebrate kidney and contractile vacuole of protozoan resemble each other in :

1. Excretion of minerals
2. Excretion of nitrogenous wastes
3. Excretion of excess water content and wastes
4. Excretion of glucose.

Answer: 3. Excretion of excess water content and wastes

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

MCQs on Osmoregulation For NEET Question 5. The cavity of the kidney which leads into the ureter is called :

1. Renal pelvis
2. Renal tubule
3. Bowman’s capsule
4. Neck.

Answer: 1. Renal pelvis

Question 6. The glomerulus is responsible for :

1. Secretion
2. Reabsorption
3. Filtration
4. Osmoregulation.

Answer: 3. filtration

Question 7. A fish excretes nitrogen in the form of:

1. Amino acids
2. Ammonium ions
3. Uric acid
4. All of the above.

Answer: 2. Ammonium ions

Question 8. Capillaries of glomeruli are :

1. Entirely venous
2. Entirely arterial
3. Venous and arterial
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. entirely arterial

Question 9. The kind of epithelial cells that form a lining of the neck of the tubule are:

1. Pyramidal
2. Columnar
3. Ciliated cuboidal
4. Ciliated columnar.

Answer: 3. Ciliated cuboidal

Question 10. What kind of epithelial cells form the lining of the body of renal tubules?

1. Pyramidal
2. Columnar
3. Cuboidal
4. Ciliated columnar.

Answer: 3. Cuboidal

Question 11. The separation of amino acid into the amino group and the carboxylic group is called :

1. Deamination
2. Defecation
3. Excretion
4. Transamination.

Answer: 1. Deamination

MCQs on Osmoregulation For NEET Question 12. Uriniferous tubules are concerned with the formation of:

1. Amino acids
2. Glucose
3. Urine
4. Co-enzyme

Answer: 3. urine

Question 13. Uriniferous tubules are found :

1. Only in man
2. In all mammals
3. In all vertebrates
4. In all chordates and some lower animals.

Answer: 3. In all vertebrates

Question 14. The maximum amount of urea is present in :

1. Renal artery
2. Renal vein
3. Hepatic artery
4. Hepatic vein.

Answer: 4. Hepatic vein

Question 15. A condition which fails the kidney is known as:

1. Uraemia
2. Anuria
3. Diarrhoea
4. Haematuria.

Answer: 2. Anuria

Question 16. The function of the kidney is to :

1. Form urine
2. Maintain a constant fluid environment in which cells are bathed
3. Remove toxic substances from the body and expel extra fluid
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

MCQs on Osmoregulation For NEET Question 17. Materials from tubule enter cells against a gradient because of:

1. Active transport
2. Passive transport
3. Turgor pressure
4. Imbibition.

Answer: 1. Active transport

Question 18. The yellow colour of urine is due to :

1. Bile pigment
2. Picric acid
3. Vitamin B
4. Urochrome.

Answer: 4. Urochrome

Question 19. Urine is formed by the process of:

1. Ultrafiltration, plasmolysis and absorption
2. Ultrafiltration, secretion and absorption
3. Ultrafiltration, reabsorption and secretion
4. Ultrafiltration, secretion and osmosis.

Answer: 3. Ultrafiltration, reabsorption and secretion

Question 20. In the glomerular filtrate, all the constituents of blood except proteins and cells are present. The process involved is :

1. Phagocytosis
2. Ultrafiltration
3. Reabsorption
4. Secretion.

Answer: 2. Ultrafiltration

Question 21. The osmoregulatory tissue in all animals is :

1. Connective.
2. Muscular
3. Nervous
4. Epithelial.

Answer: 4. Epithelial

Question 22. The vitamin that is excreted by urine in higher vertebrates is :

1. vitamin A
2. vitamin E
3. vitamin C
4. vitamin K.

Answer: 3. vitamin C

Solved NEET MCQs On Homeostasis Question 23. The pressure exerted by the glomerular afferent arteriole is:

1. +95 mm Hg
2. +70 mm Hg
3. +75 mm Hg
4. +80 mm Hg.

Answer: 3. +75 mm Hg

Question 24. The difference between glomerular filtrate and blood plasma is:

1. First is concentrated and the second is dilute
2. The first is white and the second is yellow
3. Difference of potassium
4. Protein.

Answer: 4. Protein.

Question 25. The end products of fat and carbohydrate metabolism are excreted.

1. Kidney
2. Liver
3. Lungs
4. Skin.

Answer: 3. Lungs

Question 26. A person has taken a large amount of ‘meal which contains high muscle protein. His urine will eliminate more amount of :

1. Urea
2. Uric acid
3. Glucose
4. Glycogen.

Answer: 2. Uric acid

Question 27. Which one of the following increases glomerular pressure?

1. Renin
2. Aldosterone
3. Angiotensin
4. ADH.

Answer: 3. Angiotensin

Question 28. The urinary bladder of a frog performs the function of :

1. Ultra-filtration
2. Storage of urine
3. Secretion
4. Selective reabsorption.

Answer: 2. Storage of urine

Solved NEET MCQs On Homeostasis Question 29. When the kidney is no longer held in place securely the stage is called the :

1. Nephritis
2. Nephrosis
3. Ptosis
4. Diuresis.

Answer: 3. Ptosis

Question 30. In which of the following does the gut expel excretory waste along with faeces?

1. Human being
2. Dog
3. Sheep
4. Earthworm.

Answer: 4. Earthworm

Question 31. The glomerulus is a network of:

1. 5 parallel capillaries
2. 50 parallel capillaries
3. 500 parallel capillaries
4. 5000 parallel capillaries
5. more than 5000 parallel capillaries.

Answer: 2. 50 parallel capillaries

Question 32. What does glomerular filtrate consist of ?

1. Water and plasma proteins
2. Water and urea
3. Water, urea, glucose and inorganic salts
4. Water, urea, inorganic salts, lipids.

Answer: 3. Water, urea, glucose and inorganic salts

Question 33. In the kidney the high capillary bed is found :

1. In Bowman’s capsule
2. Around anterior tubules
3. Around a loop of Henle
4. Not found.

Answer: 1. In Bowman’s capsule

Solved NEET MCQs On Homeostasis Question 34. In Bright disease (Nephritis) :

1. The amount of urea in the blood increases
2. Blood comes out along with urine
3. Kidney stones are developed
4. All of the above.

Answer: 2. blood comes out along with urine

Question 35. The pack rat, a rodent, often goes for long periods without drinking, eats leaves of juicy plants and moves about in the open only in the evening and at night. From these habits, you can guess that it lives in :

1. Desert areas
2. The Arctic tundra
3. The woodlands of the eastern U.S.
4. The water.

Answer: 1. Desert areas

Question 36. The main nitrogenous waste substance excreted by the pack rat will probably be :

1. Ammonia
2. Urea
3. Uric acid
4. None of these.

Answer: 2. Urea

Question 37. An advantage of excreting nitrogenous wastes in the form of uric acid is that :

1. Uric acid can be excreted in almost solid form
2. The formation of uric acid requires a great deal of energy
3. Uric acid is the first metabolic breakdown product of acids
4. Uric acid may be excreted through the lungs.

Answer: 1. Uric acid can be excreted in almost solid form

MCQs on Homeostasis Question 38. If excess water passes out from the tissues without being restored by the kidneys, the cells would :

1. Extract water from the plasma
2. Shrivel and die
3. Would not be affected
4. Burst open and die.

Answer: 2 . Shrivel and die

Question 39. The main excretory structure in houseflies is the.

1. Malpighian tubules
2. Flame cell
3. Nephron
4. Nephridium.

Answer: 1. Malpighian tubules

Question 40. Salmon have gills that are more permeable to water than to salts. Salmon hatch in freshwater streams, and then migrate to the ocean. Once they reach the ocean you would expect the rate of uptake of water into their body through the gills to :

1. Increase
2. Decrease
3. Remain the same
4. First increases then decreases.

Answer: 2. Decrease

Question 41. Urine leaves the kidney via :

1. The renal vein
2. The urethra
3. The ureter
4. The collecting duct.

Answer: 3. The ureter

MCQs on Homeostasis Question 42. The loop of Henle is most highly developed in :

1. Freshwater fishes
2. Mammals
3. Desert lizards
4. Salamanders.

Answer: 2. Mammals

Question 43. All the following tests are used to know the abnormality in the kidney:

1. Pyelography
2. Polarography
3. Cystoscope
4. X-ray photography.

Answer: 2. Polarography

Question 44. In birds, the nitrogenous wastes are conveyed to the exterior directly through the :

1. Urinary aperture
2. Urinogenital aperture
3. Cloacal aperture
4. Oral aperture.

Answer: 3. Cloacal aperture

Question 45. Urea is formed by the combination of ammonia with and in :

1. Oxygen, liver
2. Carbon dioxide, liver
3. Carbon monoxide, kidney
4. Calcium carbonate, liver.

Answer: 2. Carbon dioxide, liver

MCQs on Homeostasis Question 46. Angiotensin stimulates the adrenal cortex to produce aldosterone which influences in the blood the level of:

1. Sodium
2. Potassium
3. Iron
4. Calcium.

Answer: 1. Sodium

Question 47. Reabsorption is controlled partly by ADH which is secreted by :

1. Kidney
2. Liver
3. Pituitary
4. Pancreas.

Answer: 3. Pituitary

Question 48. The amino acids are excreted as such from the body in any one of the following:

1. cockroach
2. series
3. Pila
4. echinoderms.

Answer: 4. echinoderms.

Question 49.  Deamination occurs during the :

1. catabolism of amino acid
2. anabolism of amino acid
3. formation of urea
4. Krebs’ cycle.

Answer: 1. catabolism of amino acid

Question 50. Ammonia is the end product of:

1. glucose breakdown
2. fatly acid metabolism
3. protein metabolism
4. breakdown of biogenic amines.

Answer: 3. protein metabolism

MCQs on Homeostasis Question 51. Ornithine cycle is concerned with the production of:

1. urine
2. deamination
3. transamination
4. biosynthesis of urea.

Answer: 4. biosynthesis of urea

Question 52. Which one of the following substances is completely reabsorbed from the filtrate in the renal tubule under normal conditions?

1. Uric acid
2. Salts and water
3. Glucose
4. Urea.

Answer: 3. Urea.

Question 53. A terrestrial animal must be able to :

1. pump salts out actively through the skin
2. excrete large amounts of salts in its urine
3. excrete large amounts of water in its urine
4. conserve water.

Answer: 4. conserve water

Homeostasis MCQ Question 54. In a functional kidney which of the following processes does not occur?

1. Deamination
2. Reabsorption
3. Pressure filtration
4. Tubular reabsorption.

Answer: 1. Deamination

Question 55. Which one part of the uriniferous tubule is associated with the active transport of Na+?

1. Bowman’s capsule
2. Convoluted part
3. Collecting tubule
4. Neck.

Answer: 2. Convoluted part

Question 56. The elimination of the insoluble calcium phosphate takes place by :

1. kidney
2. liver
3. lungs
4. large intestine.

Answer: 4. large intestine

Question 57. The polypeptide which plays a key role in the renal pressure system is :

1. oxytocin
2. angiotensin
3. vasopressin
4. bradykinin.

Answer: 2. angiotensin

Homeostasis MCQ Question 58. The chief nitrogenous waste material in the urine of frogs is:

1. Ammonia
2. Uric acid
3. Allantoin
4. Urea.

Answer: 4. Urea.

Question 59. Physiologically urea is produced by the action of an enzyme :

1. uricase
2. urease
3. arginase
4. None of these.

Answer: 3. arginase

Question 60. Reabsorption of chloride ions (Cl-) from the glomerular filtrate in the kidney tubule of mammals is carried out by :

1. osmosis
2. diffusion
3. active transport
4. Brownian movement.

Answer: 2. diffusion

Question 61. The system which restores impaired renal circulation

1. Renal pressure system
2. Renal failure
3. uricotelic
4. ordinal.

Answer: 1. Renal pressure system

Homeostasis MCQ Question 62. The human kidney is differentiated into :

1. cortex and medulla
2. proximal and distal
3. outer and inner
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. cortex and medulla

Question 63. Malpighian body refers to :

1. Malpighian tubule present in the kidney
2. Bowman’s capsule
3. Bowman’s capsule and network of capillaries inside
4. Excretory organs of cockroach.

Answer: 3. Bowman’s capsule and network of capillaries inside

Question 64. The diameter of the afferent arteriole entering the Bowman’s capsule is:

1. less than that of efferent arteriole
2. more than that of efferent arteriole
3. same as that of efferent arteriole
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. more than that of efferent arteriole

Question 65. Opening into the tubules of the kidney of the frog from the coelom are a number of ciliated funnel-like structures called :

1. Ostia
2. nephrostomy
3. coelomostome
4. renostome.

Answer: 2. nephrostomy

Question 66. The high threshold substances are :

1. glucose, sodium, protein
2. glucose, sodium and fats
3. urea, uric acid and protein
4. glucose, sodium and calcium.

Answer: 4. glucose, sodium and calcium

Question 67. The process by which marine animals make adjustments in high salt concentration is :

1. excretion
2. respiration
3. phosphorylation
4. amination.

Answer: 4. amination.

Homeostasis MCQ Question 68. Carbon dioxide is an excretory product because it is formed during :

1. anabolism
2. metabolism
3. deamination
4. amino acid metabolism.

Answer: 2. metabolism

Question 69. The disease diabetes mellitus is diagnosed by the occurrence in the urine of:

1. maltose
2. insulin
3. glucose
4. lactose.

Answer: 3. glucose

Question 70. Which of the following is not functionally analogous with others in its group?

1. Green gland
2. Laurer’s canal
3. Malpighian tubule
4. Nephridium.

Answer: 2. Laurer’s canal

Question 71. In insects, the uric acid is temporarily stored in the :

1. Cloaca
2. Fat bodies
3. Liver
4. Anal cerci.

Answer: 2. Fat bodies

Question 72. The urinary bladder is not found in :

1. snakes
2. crocodiles
3. alligators
4. All of these.

Answer: 4. All of these

MCQs on Osmoregulation For NEET Question 73. The important function of perspiration is to :

1. lubricate the epithelial tissue
2. regulate water supply
3. regulate body temperature
4. All of the above.

Answer: 3. regulate body temperature

Question 74. Which of the following is not an excretory activity?

1. Removal of C0₂,
2. Elimination of digestive wastes
3. Removal of extra salts
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Elimination of digestive wastes

Question 75. Proximal and distal convoluted tubules are parts of a :

1. oviduct
2. caecum
3. vas deferens
4. nephron.

Answer: 4. nephron.

Question 76. A person feels a fullness sensation of urine if the volume of urine increases up to :

1. 1000 c.c.
2. 200 c.c.
3. 300 c.c.
4. 600 c.c.

Answer: 1. 1000 c.c.

MCQs on Osmoregulation For NEET Question 77. All the following are related to the disease of kidney except:

1. pyelitis
2. oedema
3. ptosis
4. Bright’s disease.

Answer: 2. oedema

Question 78. Which of the following is not directly connected with cell metabolism?

1. Excretion
2. Secretion
3. Defecation
4. Perspiration.

Answer: 3. Defecation

Question 79. The urination becomes voluntary when the urine reaches the:

1. pelvis
2. urinary bladder
3. ureter
4. urethra.

Answer: 4. urethra.

Question 80. Green glands are organs of excretion. They are seen in :

1. scorpion
2. birds
3. crayfish
4. sharks.

Answer: 3. crayfish

MCQs on Osmoregulation For NEET Question 81. The cells of the proximal tubule develop several microvilli to form a brush border. The number of microvilli per square micron in a human being is :

1. 150
2. 500
3. 3000
4. 3500.

Answer: 1. 150

Question 82. The glomerular membrane has permeability of about:

1. 25 times as great as that of usual capillary
2. 20 times as great as that of usual capillary
3. 10 times as great as that of usual capillary
4. same as usual capillary.

Answer: 1. 25 times as great as that of usual capillary

Question 83. The water reabsorption that takes place under the ADH is called the :

1. obligatory reabsorption
2. facultative reabsorption
3. active reabsorption
4. All of these.

Answer: 2. facultative reabsorption

Question 84. In which group does the toxic substance, the benzoic acid combine with glycine to form a less toxic substance the hippuric acid?

1. Fishes
2. Reptiles
3. Birds
4. Mammals.

Answer: 4. Mammals.

Question 85. Bowman’s capsule functions as a :

1. filter
2. bellow
3. sponge
4. suction pump.

Answer: 1. filter

Question 86. Whenever the amount of urine decreases the stage is called :

1. anuria
2. polyuria
3. oliguria
4. floating kidney.

Answer: 3. oliguria

MCQs on Osmoregulation For NEET Question 87. If a person is suffering from a disease called muscular dystrophy, he will eliminate in urine a great amount of:

1. sulphate
2. glucose
3. creatine
4. water.

Answer: 3.  creatine

Question 88. Ammonia in some aquatic animals is eliminated by :

1. diffusion
2. Ammonification
3. degradation
4. uricotelism.

Answer: 1. diffusion

Question 89. In reptiles, the uric acid is stored in :

1. cloaca
2. fat bodies
3. liver
4. anus.

Answer: 1. cloaca

Question 90. Animals that show hypertonic urine with provision for water reabsorption in the kidney are :

1. Mammals
2. Birds
3. Amphibians
4. None of these.

Answer: 1. mammals

Question 91. In aquatic organisms, the end product of nitrogen exchange is :

1. NO₂
2. Urea
3. Allantoin
4. Ammonia.

Answer: 4. Ammonia.

MCQs on Homeostasis Question 92. In fever, too much sugar may increase. Its elimination in urine is in the form of:

1. Sodium chloride
2. Glucose
3. Uric acid
4. Phosphate.

Answer: 2. Plucose

Question 93. Excretion of bile pigments in urine indicates :

1. Anaemia
2. Diabetes
3. Rickets
4. Jaundice.

Answer: 4. Jaundice.

Question 94. pH of human urine is :

1. 9
2. 6-7.2
3. 3
4. 2.

Answer: 2. 6-7.2

Question 95. Which of the following is not reabsorbed from the filtrate to the blood at the proximal tubule?

1. Water
2. Glucose
3. Plasma proteins
4. Na+.

Answer: 3. Na+.

Question 96. Which of the following is concerned with the formation of urea in rabbits?

1. Blood
2. Kidney
3. Liver
4. Spleen.

Answer: 2. Kidney

MCQs on Homeostasis Question 97. The glomerular filtration rate in the case of a normal person is:

1. 180 mL/min.
2. +140 ml/min.
3. 145 ml/min.
4. 120 ml/min.

Answer: 4. +140 ml/min

Question 98. The average volume of fluid filtered from the plasma into Bowman’s capsule is about:

1. 90 lit/day
2. 170 lit/day
3. 190 lit/day
4. 200 litres/day.

Answer: 2. 170 lit/day

Question 99. The desire to urinate may be suppressed by voluntary control of the external urethral sphincter until the total content is :

1. 200 to 300 c.c.
2. 700 to 800 c.c.
3. 1 to 1.5 litres
4. 1 to 1.25 litres

Answer: 2. 700 to 800 c.c.

Question 100. Negative nitrogen balance means :

1. no nitrogen is utilized
2. nitrogen intake exceeds excretion
3. nitrogen intake is less than nitrogen excretion
4. nitrogen intake equals excretion.

Answer: 3. nitrogen intake is less than nitrogen excretion

Question 101. The regulation of solute and water movement is termed :

1. Osmosis
2. Osmoregulation
3. Excretion
4. Ecocytosis.

Answer: 2. osmoregulation

Question 102. The total solute concentration is expressed as osmolarity or moles of solute per litre of solution. The unit of measurement of osmolarity is :

1. Mosm L^_1
2. Milliosomole A and B
3. Ψ
4. Both A and B.

Answer: 4. Both A and B

MCQs on Homeostasis Question 103. Osmoconformers are the animals which :

1. maintain internal osmolarity
2. do not maintain internal osmolarity
3. do not actively control the osmotic condition of body fluid
4. actively control the osmotic condition of body fluid.

Answer: 4. actively control the osmotic condition of body fluid.

Question 104. Osmoregulatory are the animals that :

1. Maintain internal osmolarity
2. Maintain internal osmolarity
3. Actively control the osmotic condition of their body fluids
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. maintain internal osmolarity

Question 105. Which of the following are osmoconformer animals?

1. All marine invertebrates
2. Hagfish
3. Shark and rats
4. All of these.

Answer: 4. All of these.

Question 106. The osmolarity of fresh water is generally less than 50 mosom L_1. What is the osmolarity of the blood of freshwater vertebrates?

1. 1 bosom L^_1
2. 2-50 mosom L^_1
3. 100 – 200 mosom L^_1
4. 200 – 300 mosom L^_1

Answer: 4. 200 – 300 mosom L^_1

Question 107. Name the cells present in the gill membrane of freshwater fishes which can import Na+ and Cl^_ from the surrounding water containing less than 1 M NaCl.

1. Ionocytes
2. Chloride cells
3. Both 1 and 3
4. Osmoregulator cells.

Answer: 3. Both 1 and 3

Question 108. The osmolarity of human blood is about 300 mosom L^_1. What is the osmolarity of seawater?

1. 200 – 300 mosom L^_1
2. 50 mosom L-1
3. 500 mosom L-1
4. 1000 mosom L-1.

Answer: 4. 1000 mosom L-1.

Question 109. Marine bony fish have the following body fluids :

1. hypertonic to seawater
2. hypotonic to seawater
3. isotonic to seawater
4. hypotonic to fresh water.

Answer: 1. hypertonic to seawater

Question 110. Which of the following drinks excrete excess salts through the gill membrane?

1. Hilsa
2. Salmon
3. Fishes that migrate between fresh water and seawater
4. Both 1 and 2.

Answer: 4. Both 1 and 2.

MCQs on Homeostasis Question 111. The elasmobranch and coelacanths, osmolarity of fluids is raised by accumulating osmolytes in the body. The best examples of osmolytes are :

1. Urea
2. TMAO
3. Uric acid
4. Both 1 and 2.

Answer: 4. Both 1 and 2.

Question 112. When water is not available the camels do not produce urine but store urea in the tissues. Water is available, they rehydrate themselves by drinking how much water in 10 minutes?

1. 10 litre
2. 20 litre
3. 40 litre
4. 80 litre.

Answer: 4. 80 litre

Question 113. Which of the following is incorrect?

A. Micturition is carried out by a reflex

B. ADH helps in water elimination, making the urine hypotonic

C. Protein-free fluid is filtered from blood plasma into the Bowman’s capsule

D. Henle’s loop plays an important role in concentrating the urine

E. Glucose is actively reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule.

Choose The Correct Answer

1. A, B and C
2. A and C
3. B and D
4. B, D and E.

Answer: 3. B and D

Question 114. Match the items of Column 1 with those of Column 2. Match the items of Column 1 with these of Column IIMatch the items of Column 1 with these of Column 2

1. A – 4, B – 7, C – 2, D – 1,  E- 3,  F – 8, G – 2. H – 6
2. A – 4, B – 7, C – 2, D – 1, E – 8, F – 2, G – 6, H – 5
3. A -4,  B – 3, C – 2, D – 1, E – 5, F – 6, G – 7, H – 8
4. A – 4, B – 7, C – 1, D – 2, E – 3, F – 8, G – 6, H – 5.

Answer: 1. A – 4, B – 7, C – 2, D – 1,  E- 3,  F – 8, G – 2. H – 6

Homeostasis MCQ  Question 115. Which of the following is correct?

1. During micturition, the urinary bladder contracts and the urethral sphincters open.
2. Flame cells and malpighian tubules are found in flatworms and insects respectively.
3. Two counter-current systems are formed in the kidney by the loop of Henle and the Vasa
   recta.
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 116. Which of the following is incorrect?

1. Skin functions as an accessory excretory organ
2. Mammals can eliminate hypotonic and hypertonic urine according to the body’s needs
3. Mammals are ureotelic, but birds are uricotelic.
4. None of these.

Answer: 4. None of these.

Homeostasis MCQ  Question 117. In which of the following protonephridia act as excretory organs?

1. Rotifers
2. Branchiostoma
3. Some annelids
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 118. What is the value of X, Y and Z?

1. 300, 300, 1400
2. 1400,200,200
3. 1400, 500, 500
4. 1400, 300, 300

Answer: 2. 1400,200,200

Question 119. The two kidneys in the human body are located one on each side against the dorsal inner surface of the lower back at the level of

1. 10 and 11 thoracic vertebra
2. 12th thoracic and 1st and 2nd lumbar vertebrae
3. 1st and 2nd lumbar vertebrae
4. 5th lumbar and 1st sacral vertebrae.

Answer: 2. 12th thoracic and 1st and 2nd lumbar vertebrae

Question 120.  Cortical nephron have their glomeruli

1. in inter cortex
2. In inner cortex
3. close to the inner margin of the cortex
4. outer medulla.

Answer: 4. outer medulla.

Question 121. Which of the following is involved in the regulation of kidney function?

1. ADH
2. JGA
3. HAAS and ANF
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 122. Glomerular filtrate does not contain :

1. proteins
2. glucose
3. salts
4. water.

Answer: 1. proteins

Homeostasis MCQ  Question 123. The presence of blood in urine due to a lesion of the kidney or urinary tract is called :

1. Haematuria
2. Haemoglobinuria
3. Glucosuria
4. Albuminuria.

Answer: 1. Haematuria

Question 124. The specific gravity of urine is :

1. 1.003 to 1.040
2. 1.0 to 1.5
3. 0.001 to 0.002
4. 1.03 to 1.4.

Answer: 1. 1.003 to 1.040

Question 125. Ammonia is the chief nitrogenous waste in :

1. Mosquito
2. Bony fishes
3. Cartilaginous fishes
4. Desert mammal.

Answer: 2. bony fishes

Question 126. Blood urea level is an index of function.

1. Liver
2. Liver and kidney
3. Kidney
4. Pancreatic.

Answer: 3. Kidney

Question 127. Most of the terrestrial insects get rid of the bulk of their nitrogenous wastes as :

1. urea
2. uric acid
3. ammonia
4. purines.

Answer: 2. uric acid

Question 128. The artificial kidney is based upon the mechanism of:

1. osmosis
2. dialysis
3. plasmolysis
4. diffusion.

Answer: 2. dialysis

Question 129. Which of the following is the diluting segment of the uriniferous tubule?

1. Ascending limb
2. Descending limb
3. Dct
4. Pct.

Answer: 1. Ascending limb

Question 130. A marine bony fish must continuously :

1. Acquire water and get rid of salts
2. Get rid of both water and salts
3. Get rid of water and acquire salts
4. Acquire both water and salts.

Answer: 1. Acquire water and get rid of salts

Question 131. In the flame cell system of a planarian, materials are drained directly from the :

1. Blood
2. Lymph
3. Interstitial fluid
4. Coelom.

Answer: 3. Interstitial fluid

Question 132. The flame cell system functions mostly to :

1. Remove ammonium ions
2. Remove urea
3. Regulate ph
4. Osmoregulate.

Answer: 4. Osmoregulate.

Question 133. The kidney regulates acid-base balance by each of the following mechanisms:

1. Reabsorbing filtered bicarbonate
2. Acidifying the urine by h+ secretion
3. Excreting ammonium salts
4. Active reabsorption of h+.

Answer: 4. Active reabsorption of h+

Question 134. In insects, malpighian tubules drain materials directly from the :

1. Gut
2. Haemocoel
3. Blood
4. Lymph.

Answer: 3. Blood

Question 135. A malpighian tubule empties urine into the :

1. Gut
2. Coelom
3. Ureters
4. Lymph.

Answer: 1. Gut

Question 136. A nephridium of an earthworm drains materials directly from the:

1. Gut
2. Blood
3. Coelom
4. Lymph.

Answer: 2. Blood

Question 137. Which of the following sentiments? Is the kidney correct?

1. The macula densa is a region of the distal tubule that is closely associated with an afferent glomerular arteriole
2. Collecting tubules are located in both the medulla and cortex
3. Proximal convoluted tubules have an extensive microvillus (brush) border
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 138. At normal room temperature, most body heat loss is by:

1. Convection
2. Direct conduction
3. Radiation
4. Sweating.

Answer: 3. Radiation

Question 139. The force that moves fluid from the blood through the walls of a capillary and bowman’s capsule of a nephron is:

1. The beating of cilia
2. Peristalsis of the capsule.
3. Gravity
4. Blood pressure.

Answer: 4. Blood pressure.

Question 140. When the temperature of the surroundings is greater than the body temperature, heat loss is possible only through which of the following?

1. Radiation
2. Convection
3. Conduction
4. Evaporation.

Answer: 4. Evaporation.

Homeostasis MCQ  Question 141. Osmoregulation is control over the :

1. Removal of nitrogen from the body
2. The pH of the blood
3. Concentration of salt and water in the body
4. Osmotic properties of cell membranes.

Answer: 3. Concentration of salt and water in the body

Question 142. For which of the following substances would you expect the renal clearance to be the lowest, under normal conditions?

1. Urea
2. Creatinine
3. Sodium
4. Glucose.

Answer: 4. Glucose.

Question 143. In which of these animals, the antennal gland functions as an excretory organ?

1. Human being
2. Cockroach
3. Planana
4. Prawn
5. Earthworm

Answer: 1. Human being

Question 144. A freshwater fish must continuously :

1. Acquire water and get rid of salt
2. Get rid of both water and salt
3. Get rid of water and acquire salt
4. Acquire both water and salt.

Answer: 3. Get rid of water and acquire salt

Question 145. In the kidney :

1. As much as 80% of the amino acids and glucose of the ultrafiltrate are reabsorbed by the thin portion of the loop of Henle.
2. Renin, produced by the juxtaglomerular apparatus, acts directly on arterial smooth muscle to cause vasodilation.
3. The antidiuretic hormone causes the collecting tubules to become more permeable to water, thus concentrating the urine.
4. Interlobular arteries arise from arcuate arteries and pass into the cortex via the medullary rays.

Answer: 3. Antidiuretic hormone causes the collecting tubules to become more permeable to water, thus concentrating the urine.

Question 146. The kidneys not only remove the waste products from the blood but also play a very important role in maintaining :

1. Equilibrium of the body
2. Temperature of the body
3. Blood pressure constant
4. Constant composition of the blood irrespective of the nature of the food or fluid intake.

Answer: 4. Constant composition of the blood irrespective of the nature of the food or fluid intake.

NEET Biology Respiratory System In Animals

Respiration. It is an oxidising and energy-liberating phenomenon. It involves the intake of O₂ enters the body, and oxidises the nutrients (Glucose) to form CO₂ and H₂O.

• Energy is liberated in steps and stored in high-energy phosphate bonds in ATP. CO₂ thus formed is expelled out.
• Aerobic respiration. It is the common method of respiration. It is carried out in the presence of free molecular O₂ in most plants and animals.
• Anaerobic respiration or anaerobic metabolism. It is mostly carried out by bacteria, and yeasts. RBC and endoparasites.It is a process of energy liberation in the absence of free O₂.

External respiration. All animals require a medium for respiration.

• The gaseous exchange takes place between the external environment and blood through respiratory organs.
• External respiration is the exchange of gases between the air spaces of the lungs and blood in pulmonary capillaries.
• In external respiration, pulmonary capillary blood gains O₂ and loses CO₂.
• The percentage of oxygen in inhaled air is about 2.1 and the oxygen content of the air we expire is about 16.
• The carbon dioxide amount in the atmosphere is 0.033%, and carbon dioxide in the air we expire is about 3.6%.

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Notes

Internal respiration. Internal respiration is an exchange of gases between blood in systemic capillaries and tissue.

• When there is a difference in partial pressures, oxygen diffuses outward from the arterial end of capillaries into surrounding tissues.
• Carbon dioxide diffuses from the tissues into the bloodstream towards the venous end of capillaries.

1. Modes of respiration. Cutaneous respiration. It occurs in the skin, For Example, Frog, or earthworm.
2. Branchial respiration. It is carried out in aquatic animals and respiratory organs are gills For Example Fish, prawns, mussels, and tadpole larvae.
3. Buccopharyngeal respiration. The lining of the buccopharyngeal cavity acts as a respiratory surface For Example Frog, Toad.
4. Pulmonary respiration. It occurs in lungs For Example, amphibians, reptiles, birds, and mammals.

Respiration In Plants NEET Notes

Characteristics of the respiratory surface

1. It should be extensive. Lager the surface area, the greater id the exchange of respiratory gases.
2. It must be thin-walled, moist highly Vascular,
3. It should Iv easily permeable to oxygen mid-carbon dioxide,

NEET Biology Respiratory System In Animals Respiratory Structures

Plasma Membrane. External respiration in (lie protists occurs principally by diffusion of oxygen-dissolved
in water and carbon dioxide in opposite directions through the plasma membrane.

Body Wall. In sponges, cnidarians, platyhelminths, annelids and small aquatic animals, respiratory gas exchange occurs through the diffusion of gases across the general body wall.

1. In Hydra, gases are exchanged by diffusion between individual cells and the surrounding water.
2. Earthworms have no special respiratory organs; they exchange O₂ and CO₂ using their entire Imdy surface.

Gills. Gills are the gas exchange organs of aquatic animals.

• Gill are an outgrowth of the body surface which is highly folded or convoluted to increase the surface area available for gas exchange,
• Aquatic animals like prawns (Crustacea), fishes and tadpoles respire with gills.
• Gases are exchanged between the surrounding aqueous medium and blood in the gill capillaries.
• Gills are best developed and understood in bony fishes.
• Gills consist of several gill arches from which extend two rows of gill filaments.
• Upon each filament are rows of gill lamellae, which is the site of gas exchange.
• Water and blood flow in opposite directions i.e. counter current.
• Water is moved over the gills by the pumping action of the mouth and the opercular cavity. A dual pump operates. endodermal outgrowth from the oesophagus, For Example, protopterus.

Trachea. Tracheal respiration occurs in insects.

• A well-developed system of ectodermal cuticular tubes called trachea open to the outside by 10 pairs of spiracles or stigmata on the dorsolateral margin of the tergum.
• Each spiracle is bounded by a peritreme, the spiracles open behind into the atrium (2 pairs thoracic and 8 pairs abdominal).
• There are 6 main trunks connected through commissures.
• It branches distally into tracheoles (without cuticular rings) within a tissue or the cell known as the transition or stellate cells or tracheoblasts.
• The trafficking of air through spiracles is guided by valves. Most of these (all abdominal) spiracles remain closed during expiration to prevent the loss of water from the body.
• Spiracles can be opened or shut.
• Gas exchange takes place in the walls of tracheoles.
• Insects have blood, but it is not important in gas transport, since the tracheal system spreads throughout the body.