Animal Morphology MCQs For NEET Biology

NEET Biology Morphology Of Animals Multiple Choice Questions And Answers

Question 1. Segmentation is found in:

  1. Annelida
  2. Arthropoda
  3. Vertebrata
  4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 2. Segmentation in Annelids is:

  1. Homonomous
  2. Heteronomous
  3. Both (1) and (2)
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Both (1) and (2)

Question 3. In earthworm brain is located in:

  1. Prostomium
  2. Peristornium
  3. Third segment
  4. Second segment.

Answer: 3. Third segment

Question 4. In earthworms, coelomic fluid oozes out through the:

  1. Nephridiopores
  2. Nephrostome
  3. Dorsal pores
  4. Spermathecal pores.

Answer: 3. Dorsal pores

Question 5. Which of the following does not apply to earthworms?

  1. Indirect development
  2. Protandry
  3. Extracellular digestion
  4. Closed circulatory system.

Answer: 1. Indirect development

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Animal Morphology MCQs Question 6. A coelomic cavity in earthworms is:

  1. Schizocoelic
  2. Enterocoelic
  3. Haemocoelic
  4. Pseudocoelic.

Answer: 1. Schizocoelic

Question 7. The colour of the earthworm is given by:

  1. Porphyrin
  2. Chromatophore
  3. Vitamin D
  4. Haemoglobin.

Answer: 1. Porphyrin

Animal Morphology MCQs For NEET Biology

Question 8. The function of dorsal pores in earthworms is:

  1. Respiration
  2. Elimination of waste
  3. Exudation of body fluids
  4. Excretion.

Answer: 3. Exudation of body fluids

Question 9. An earthworm’s body is devoid of the:

  1. Cuticle
  2. Setae
  3. Appendages
  4. Epidermis.

Answer: 3. Appendages

Question 10. Septa without aperture lies between:

  1. 11/12; 12/13 and 13/14 segments
  2. 12/13; l3/14 and 14/15 segments
  3. 10/11; l1/12 ard 12/13 segments
  4. 9/10; 10/11 and 11/12 segrnents.

Answer: 1. 11/12; 12/13 and 13/14 segments

Question 11. In earthworms, chromophil cells are found in:

  1. Pharyngeal gland
  2. Respiratory cell
  3. Sensory cell
  4. Vascular system.

Answer: 1. Pharyngeal gland

Question 12. The major role of typhlosole in the intestine of earthworms is:

  1. To control the flow of blood
  2. To increase the absorptive surface
  3. To produce digestive enzyme
  4. To kill bacteria.

Answer: 2. To increase absorptive surface

Animal Morphology MCQs Question 13. The presence of coelom and metamerism are important characters in:

  1. Helminthes
  2. Arthropods
  3. Annelids
  4. Coelenterates.

Answer: 3. Annelids

Question 14. The cuticle of annelids is:

  1. Non-chitinous and albuminoid
  2. Chitinous
  3. Chitinous and albuminoid
  4. Non-chitinous.

Answer: 4. Non-chitinous.

Question 15. Earthworm is composed of 120 segments and prostomium refers to:

  1. First segment
  2. 2Nd segment
  3. Not a segment
  4. Part of the reproductive system.

Answer: 3. Not a segment

Question 16. Setae are present in all sections except:

  1. First and last segment
  2. The first segment and the clitellum
  3. Clitellum, first and anal segments
  4. Clitellurn and last segment.

Answer: 3. Clitellum, first and anal segments

Question 17. Clitellum in earthworms includes:

  1. First three segments
  2. 14,15 And 16 segments
  3. Last three segments
  4. 19. 20 and 21 segments.

Answer: 2. 14,15 And 16 segments

Question 18. ln earthworm the clitellar region helps in the process of:

  1. Copulation
  2. Conformation
  3. Digestion
  4. Locomotion.

Answer: 2. Conformation

Question 19. Where would you find calcareous glands in Pheretima?

  1. Oesophagus
  2. Stomach
  3. Rectum
  4. Typhlosole.

Answer: 2. Stomach

Question 20. During locomotion of earthworms:

  1. Longitudinal muscles contract first
  2. Circular muscles contract first
  3. Both muscles contract simultaneously
  4. Both muscles relax simultaneously.

Answer: 2. Circular muscles contract first

Animal Morphology MCQs Question 21. Which of these is secreted by pharyngeal mass?

  1. Albumen
  2. Mucin
  3. Mucin and proteases
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Mucin and proteases

Question 22. The flow of blood in a dorsal blood vessel of Pheretima is:

  1. From in front backwards
  2. From behind forward
  3. In both directions
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. From behind forward

Question 23. Lateral hearts in Pheretima are situated in the following segments:

  1. 12th and 13th
  2. 10th and 11th
  3. 7th and 9th
  4. Both 1st and 3rd.

Answer: 3. 7th and 9th

Question 24. Blood glands in earthworms are situated in 4, 5 and 6 segments. These are associated with:

  1. Excretion
  2. Digestion
  3. Secretion
  4. Formation of blood corpuscles.

Answer: 4. Formation of blood corpuscles.

Question 25. Lateral oesophageal heats in Pheretima are situated in the segments:

  1. 12 and 13
  2. 10 and 11
  3. 9 and 14
  4. 7 and 9th.

Answer: 1. 12 and 13

Animal Morphology MCQ For NEET Biology With Answers Question 26. The blood of earthworms is:

  1. Colourless
  2. Pinkish
  3. Bluish
  4. Red.

Answer: 4. Red.

Question 27. Which of these vessels distribute the blood in the first thirteen segments:

  1. Dorsal
  2. Oesophageal
  3. Subneural
  4. Lateral.

Answer: 1. Dorsal

Question 28. The blood from the seminal vesicle of earthworm is collected by:

  1. Lateral oesophageal
  2. Ventral blood vessel
  3. Ventro tegumentary vessel
  4. Subneural vessel.

Answer: 1. Lateral oesophageal

Question 29. The excretory organs in earthworms are:

  1. Nephridia
  2. Malpighiantubules
  3. Flame cells
  4. Coelomic ducts.

Answer: 1. Nephridia

Animal Morphology MCQ For NEET Biology With Answers Question 30. Pharyngeal nephridia of earthworms are situated in segments:

  1. 4,5 and 6
  2. 5,6,7
  3. 3, 4 and 5
  4. 6, 7, 8.

Answer: 1. 4,5 and 6

Question 31. In earthworm, mesonephric excretion takes place by:

  1. Integumentary nephridia
  2. Septal nephridia
  3. Septal and pharyngeal nephridia
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Integumentary nephridia

Question 32. The Pharyngeal nephridia in earthworms do not open:

  1. Externally
  2. Terminally
  3. Internally
  4. None of the above

Answer: 1. Externally

Question 33. The origin of nephridium is:

  1. Germinal.
  2. Ectodermal
  3. Mesodennal
  4. Endodermal.

Answer: 2. Ectodermal

Question 34. In Pheretima in which segments septal nephridia are found?

  1. In all the segments
  2. From the 15th to the last segment
  3. In the first 15 segments
  4. From the 10th to the last segment.

Answer: 2. From the 15th to the last segment

Animal Morphology MCQ For NEET Biology With Answers Question 35. Where nephrostome is present in Pheretima?

  1. Septal nephridia
  2. Integumentary nephridia
  3. Pharyngeal nephridia
  4. All the above.

Answer: 1. Septal nephridia

Question 36. In earthworms, chloragogen cells perform:

  1. Glycogen synthesis
  2. Synthesis of urea
  3. Removal of silicates
  4. Elimination of surplus Ca++ ions.

Answer: 2. Synthesis of urea

Question 37. How many eyes are found in Pheretirna:

  1. None
  2. One
  3. Two
  4. Many.

Answer: 1. None

Question 38. Enteronephric nephridia throws out the excretory material:

  1. Through alimentary canal
  2. Through cloacal aperture
  3. Directly outside
  4. Through the circulatory system.

Answer: 1. Through alimentary canal

Important MCQs On Animal Kingdom Question 39. In earthworms the ovary is situated in the:

  1. 18th segment
  2. 10th segment
  3. 13th segment
  4. 14th segment

Answer: 3. 13v segment

Question 40. In earthworms, the testes are enclosed in the segments:

  1. 9th and 10th
  2. 8th and 9th
  3. 11th and 10th
  4. 12th and 10th

Answer: 3. 11th and 10th

Question 41. In earthworms, the spermathecae are used for:

  1. Development of ovum
  2. Development of sperms
  3. Storing of spermatozoa
  4. Storing ova.

Answer: 3. Storing of spermatozoa

Question 42. Which statement is not correct for septal nephridia of Pheretima?

  1. These occur in all segments except the first fourteen
  2. They are enteronephric
  3. They have a complicated nephrostome
  4. They are exonephric.

Answer: 4. They are exonephric.

Question 43. Copulation occurs between two earthworms:

  1. Generally at night during the rainy season
  2. Generally at day time during the rainy season
  3. At night during the winter season
  4. At night during the summer season.

Answer: 1. Generally at night during the rainy season

Question 44. The difference between septal and pharyngeal nephridia in earthworms relates to:

  1. Straight lobe
  2. Vesicle
  3. Funnel
  4. Mode of action.

Answer: 3. Funnel

Question 45. The neurons in earthworms are:

  1. Motor
  2. Sensory
  3. Adjustor
  4. Motor, sensory and adjustor.

Answer: 4. Motor, sensory and adjustor.

Question 46. Septal nephridia are:

  1. Largest in size
  2. Double the size of integumentary nephridia
  3. Both (1) and (2)
  4. Smallest in size.

Answer: 3. Double the size of integumentary nephridia

Question 47. The total number of pores in the body wall of Pheretima, which are concerned with reproduction is:

  1. 7
  2. 11
  3. 13
  4. 14.

Answer: 2. 11

NEET Biology Animal Morphology and Anatomy MCQs  Question 48. Which is correct about earthworms?

  1. It has a brain but no head
  2. It has locomotory organs
  3. It secretes a cocoon around the unfertilized egg
  4. It can crawl on a smooth surface easily.

Answer: 1. It has a brain but no head

Question 49. Earthworms are:

  1. Harmlul lo man
  2. Useful to man
  3. Both useful and harmful to man
  4. Found only near banks of river.

Answer: 3. Both useful and harmful to man

Question 50. Which of the following is not an arthropod characteristic?

  1. Jointed appendages
  2. Unsegmented body
  3. Periodic moulting
  4. Articulated exoskeleton.

Answer: 2. Unsegmented body

Question 51. Which of the following arthropods are not mandibulates?

  1. Insects
  2. Crab
  3. Shrimps
  4. Spider.

Answer: 4. Spider.

Question 52. Which of the following is not a characteristic of insects?

  1. Three body divisions
  2. Three pairs of jointed legs
  3. Two pairs of antennae
  4. Excretion by malpighian tubule.

Answer: 3. Two pairs of antennae

Question 53. Earthworms and cockroaches have one thing in common:

  1. Ventral nerve cord
  2. Closed blood vascular system
  3. Nephridia
  4. Trachea.

Answer: 1. Ventral nerve cord

NEET Biology Animal Morphology and Anatomy MCQs  Question 54. In insects compound eyes are formed by:

  1. Ocelli
  2. Ommatidia
  3. Eye spots
  4. Haematochrome

Answer: 2. Ommatidia

Question 55. The first antennal segment is known as:

  1. Frons
  2. Pedicel
  3. Scape
  4. None of the above

Answer: 3. Scape

Animal Morphology MCQs  Question 56. Which of the following two parts in a cockroach are fundamentally similar in structure:

  1. Mandible and antenna
  2. Wings and anal cerci
  3. Anal style and labrum
  4. Maxilla and labium.

Answer: 4. Maxilla and labium.

Question 57. In Periplaneta, the number of spiracles is:

  1. Six pairs
  2. Eight pairs
  3. Ten pairs
  4. Twelve pairs

Answer: 3. Ten pairs

Question 58. In Periplaneta, the sclerites which surround the genital aperture are termed:

  1. Gonophores
  2. Genitals
  3. Gonapophyses
  4. Sterna.

Answer: 3. Gonapophyses

Question 59. In cockroaches the exoskeleton is made of:

  1. Calcium carbonate
  2. Calcium phosphate
  3. Chitinous cuticle
  4. Calcium sulphate.

Answer: 3. Chitinous cuticle

Animal Morphology MCQs  Question 60. The dorsal Plate of the cockroach is:

  1. Pleuron
  2. Plastron
  3. Tergum
  4. Stemum.

Answer: 3. Tergum

Question 61. Glossa and paraglossa are collectively termed as:

  1. Lingua
  2. Ligula
  3. Labium
  4. Labrum.

Answer: 2. Ligula

Question 62. Anal cerci are Present:

  1. Only male Ascaris
  2. Only in male cockroaches
  3. Only in female cockroaches
  4. In both male and female cockroaches

Answer: 4. In both male and female cockroaches

Question 63. The flagellum of the antenna of a cockroach is:

  1. 11 jointed
  2. 13 segmented
  3. Unjointed
  4. Many jointed

Answer: 4. Many joined

Question 64. In cockroach antennae function as:

  1. Thigmoreceptors, sensitive to touch
  2. To help in catching insects
  3. Locomotory structures
  4. Feeding structures.

Answer: 1. Thigmoreceptors, sensitive to touch

Animal Morphology MCQs  Question 65. The chitinous endoskeleton in the head of the cockroach is known as:

  1. Apodeme
  2. Tentorium
  3. Crematorium
  4. Notatum.

Answer: 2. Tentorium

Question 66. Wings of cockroaches are attached to anterolateraL carriers of terga of:

  1. Mesothorax
  2. Metathorax
  3. Prothorax
  4. Mesothorax and metathorax

Answer: 4. Mesothorax and metathorax

Question 67. Which one of the following characters of the forewing of the cockroach is wrong:

  1. Leathery
  2. Without veins
  3. Opaque
  4. Protective.

Answer: 2. Without veins

Question 68. Clypeus is a Part of:

  1. Head
  2. Wing
  3. Abdomen
  4. Leg.

Answer: 1. Head

Question 69. From the feeding habits, cockroaches could be classified as:

  1. Herbivore
  2. Carnivore
  3. Frugivore
  4. Omnivore.

Answer: 4. Omnivore.

Question 70. The mouth parts of cockroach are:

  1. Piercing type
  2. Sponging type
  3. Siphoning type
  4. Cutting and biting type

Answer: 4. Cutting and biting type

Animal Morphology MCQs  Question 71. Hepatic caecal in cockroaches is derived from:

  1. Ileum
  2. Midgut
  3. Oesophagus
  4. Crop.

Answer: 2. Midgut

Question 72. Which part of the digestive system secretes the peritrophic membrane around the food in cockroaches?

  1. Crop
  2. Gizzard
  3. Hepatic camera
  4. Stomodaeal valve

Answer: 4. Stomodaeal valve

Question 73. What will happen if a peritrophic membrane is not formed in cockroaches?

  1. Digestion of food will stop
  2. Absorption of food will stop
  3. Midgut will be injured
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Midgut will be injured

Question 74. In cockroaches, the term regurgitation is associated with the:

  1. Swallowing
  2. Ingestion
  3. Egestion
  4. Absorption.

Answer: 4. Absorption.

Question 75. The body cavity of a cockroach is:

  1. Coelom
  2. Haemocoel
  3. Coelenteron
  4. Pseudocoel

Answer: 2. Haemocoel

Important MCQs On Animal Kingdom Question 76. The blood of cockroaches is white due to:

  1. Absence of haemoglobin
  2. The circulatory system is open
  3. There are no salts in the blood
  4. There is more water in the blood

Answer: 1. Absence of haemoglobin

Question 77. The tubular heart of a cockroach is composed of:

  1. 7 chambers
  2. 9 chambers
  3. 13 chambers
  4. 14 chambers

Answer: 3. 13 chambers

Question 78. What is the name of the blood cells in Periplaneta americana?

  1. Erythrocytes
  2. Leucocytes
  3. Haemocytes
  4. Amoebocytes

Answer: 3. Haemocytes

Question 79. The respiratory passage in cockroaches during inspiration is:

  1. Spiracle and trachea
  2. Longitudinal respiratory tube
  3. Air chamber
  4. Stigmata.

Answer: 1. Spiracle and trachea

Important MCQs On Animal Kingdom Question 80. Oxygen is transported in cockroaches by:

  1. Blood
  2. Lymph
  3. Trachea
  4. SPiracle.

Answer: 3. Trachea

Question 81. The trachea is supported by chitinous rings:

  1. Inside the epithelium
  2. Outside the epithelium
  3. In between two epithelial layers
  4. Both inside and around epithelial

Answer: 1. Inside the epithelium

Question 82. The nervous system of an insect consists of:

  1. Sympathetic
  2. Autonomous
  3. Central, peripheral and sympathetic
  4. Simple nerve cells.

Answer: 3. Central, peripheral and sympathetic

Question 83. The total number of ganglia present in the ventral nerve cord of a cockroach is:

  1. 6
  2. 9
  3. 10
  4. 13.

Answer: 2. 9

Question 84. Ingluvial ganglion in cockroaches is present on the surface of:

  1. Crop
  2. Gizzard
  3. Brain
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Crop

Question 85. During the night, the isolation of ommatidia is incomplete and all act as a single body. What type of image would he form:

  1. Single
  2. Blind
  3. Blurred
  4. Superimposed.

Answer: 3. Blurred

Question 86. Which one of these is formed by collagen cells of an ommatidium?

  1. Cone cell
  2. Crystalline cone
  3. Corneal lens
  4. Rhabdome.

Answer: 3. Corneal lens

NEET Biology Animal Morphology and Anatomy MCQs Question 87. The main excretory product of cockroaches is:

  1. Urea
  2. Ammonia
  3. Uric acid
  4. Urine.

Answer: 3. Uric acid

Question 88. The main excretory organs of insects are:

  1. Kidneys
  2. Nephridia
  3. Malpighian tubules
  4. Fat bodies.

Answer: 3. Malpighian tubules

Question 89. The malpighian tubules open at the junction of:

  1. Gizzard and mid-gut
  2. Mid gut and ileum
  3. Ileum and colon
  4. Colon and rectum.

Answer: 2. Mid gut and ileum

Question 90. Malpighian tubules pour the nitrogenous waste into the gut for the reabsorption of:

  1. Useful salts
  2. Glucose
  3. Water
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Water

Question 91. A pair of rod-like structures situated on the sides of the oesophagus just behind the brain, secrete a growth Iannone, which is the one?

  1. Corpora allata
  2. Corpora cardiaca
  3. Corpus striatum
  4. Corpus callosum.

Answer: 2. Corpora cardiaca

Question 92. Brain hormone secreted by the intercerebral gland cells is responsible for the activation of:

  1. Corpora cardiaca
  2. Cerebral ganglia
  3. Prothoracic gland
  4. Salivary gland.

Answer: 3. Prothoracic gland

NEET Biology Animal Morphology and Anatomy MCQs Question 93. The function of the collateral gland in cockroaches is to:

  1. Store sperms
  2. Secrete the egg case
  3. Keep vagina moist
  4. Store eggs.

Answer: 2. Secrete the egg case

Question 94. The function of the spermatheca in Periplaneta is:

  1. To help in copulation
  2. To store eggs
  3. To secrete musky fluid
  4. To store sperm.

Answer: 4. To store sperms.

Question 95. Testes of cockroach lie in which segment:

  1. 3rd and 4th
  2. 4th and 5th
  3. 5th and 7th
  4. 7th and 8th.

Answer: 2. 4th and 5th

Question 96. Mushroom mushroom-shaped gland name is given to:

  1. Phallic gland
  2. Conglobate gland
  3. Utricular gland
  4. Colletrial gland.

Answer: 3. Utricular gland

Question 97. How many times between hatching and its complete development the young cockroach undergoes ecdysis:

  1. Not less than 7
  2. Not less than 8
  3. Not less than 9
  4. Not less than 10.

Answer: 1. Not less than 7

Question 98. The spermatophore of the cockroach has 3 layered walls. The middle layer is secreted by:

  1. Seminal vesicles
  2. Long tubules
  3. Ejaculatory duct
  4. Phallic gland.

Answer: 3. Ejaculatory duct

NEET Biology Animal Morphology and Anatomy MCQs Question 99. In female cockroaches, the 7th, 8th and 9th sterna enclose a cavity known as:

  1. Egg chamber
  2. Brood pouch
  3. Oothecal chamber
  4. Salivary chamber.

Answer: 2. Brood pouch

Question 100. Egg case of cockroach is known as:

  1. Embryophore
  2. Ootheca
  3. Gonophore
  4. Female gamete.

Answer: 2. Ootheca

Question 101. How many eggs do you find in the egg case of a cockroach?

  1. Eight
  2. Six
  3. Twelve
  4. Sixteen.

Answer: 4. Sixteen.

Question 102. Gradual metamorphosis occurs in:

  1. Crow
  2. Cat
  3. Amoeba
  4. Cockroach.

Answer: 4. Cockroach.

Question 103. The young of some insects resemble the adult in general structure but lack the wings and the mature reproductive organs, such a young one is called:

  1. Nymph
  2. Grub
  3. Caterpillar
  4. Maggot.

Answer: 1. Nymph

Question 104. Pulmonary breathing increases when the frog is:

  1. Hibernating
  2. Underwater
  3. Overwater
  4. Excited.

Answer: 4. Excited.

Question 105. The biggest part of the brain of a frog is known as:

  1. Forebrain
  2. Hindbrain
  3. Midbrain
  4. None of these.

Answer: 1. Fore brain

Important MCQs On Animal Kingdom Question 106. During the hibernation period, the left auricle of the frog heart contains:

  1. Oxygenated blood
  2. Deoxygenated blood
  3. Mixed Blood
  4. No blood.

Answer: 3. Mixed blood

Question 107. How many cranial nerves are present in the body of a frog?

  1. 12 pairs
  2. 8 pairs
  3. 10 pairs
  4. 14 pairs.

Answer: 3. 10 pairs

Question 108. In frogs, several spinal nerves are:

  1. 9 pairs and 10th unpaired
  2. l2 pairs
  3. 31 pairs
  4. 37 pairs.

Answer: 1. 9 pairs and 10th unpaired

Question 109. Which of the following statements apply to the teeth of a frog?

  1. Homodonty
  2. Heterodonty
  3. Pleurodonty
  4. Acrodonty and homodonty.

Answer: 4. Acrodonty and homodonty.

Question 110. Cells in the skin of a frog for change colour according to the environment are known as:

  1. Chromatophores
  2. Melanocytes
  3. Phagocytes
  4. Thrombocytes.

Answer: 1. Chromatophores

Question 111. In frog:

  1. Adult kidney develops from nephridia
  2. The heart has a single ventricular chamber
  3. There is a single portal system
  4. There are seven cervical vertebrae.

Answer: 2. The heart has a single ventricular chamber

Question 112. A frog is an ectothermic or poikilo-thermal animal because:

  1. Its body temperature is constant irrespective of the fluctuation in the temperature of the environment
  2. Its body temperature is higher than that of the surrounding environment
  3. Its body temperature is low and fluctuates with temperature of the environment
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Its body temperature is low and fluctuates with the temperature of the environment

Important MCQs On Animal Kingdom Question 113. The dorsal median line present in the skin of a frog is:

  1. Warming line
  2. Cold adaptation line
  3. Sensory line
  4. Ornamental line.

Answer: 2. Cold adaptation line

Question 114. The opening in the frog cranium in which the spinal cord comes out is called:

  1. Foramen magnum
  2. Occipital condyle
  3. Pterygoid
  4. Obturator foramen.

Answer: 1. Foramen magnum

Question 115. The number of vertebrae in the vertebral column of a frog is:

  1. 9
  2. 9 Vertebrae and urostyle
  3. 8 Vertebrae and urostyle
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. 9 Vertebrae and urostyle

Answer:

  1. Pelvic girdle
  2. Pectoral girdle
  3. Sacrum
  4. Skull.

Answer: 2. Pectoral girdle

Question 117. Acetabulum in frogs is associated with:

  1. Pelvic girdle
  2. Pectoral girdle
  3. Sacrum
  4. Cranium.

Answer: 1. Pelvic girdle

Question 118. The Iliac crest is a feature of Rog’s:

  1. Hyoid apparatus
  2. Sacrum
  3. Pelvic girdle
  4. Pectoral girdle.

Answer: 3. Pelvic girdle

Question 119. The body of the frog is slimy with a mucus covering and the skin is maintained moist because the animal:

  1. Cannot hold food with dry skin
  2. Is unable to move with dry skin
  3. Is unable to swim with dry skin
  4. Has to perform cutaneous respiration.

Answer: 4. Has to perform cutaneous respiration.

Important MCQs On Animal Kingdom Question 120. A well-fed frog’s skin is fully covered with a wax coating. After a day, the animal is found to be lazy and slow. This is because:

  1. Animal gets poisoned by nitrogenous wastes which the skin cannot excrete
  2. The animal is hungry
  3. The animal is oxygen-starved and cutaneous respiration is blocked
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. The animal is oxygen-starved and cutaneous respiration is blocked

Question 121. The excretory product of an adult frog and tadpole in an internal gill stage respectively are:

  1. Urea in both
  2. Urea and uric acid
  3. Urea and ammonia
  4. Ammonia and uric acid.

Answer: 1. Urea in both

Question 122. A frog has no neck, suppose it has one, it would:

  1. Swallow its prey
  2. Unable to leap on land easily
  3. Breathe easily by floating on the water’s surface
  4. Swim easily in water.

Answer: 1. Swallow its prey

Question 123. Nuptial pads occur on frogs:

  1. Inner toes
  2. Outer toes.
  3. Inner fingers
  4. Outer fingers.

Answer: 3. Inner fingers

Question 124. A frog differs from a toad in:

  1. Absence of warts
  2. Absence of pinna
  3. Presence of pigmented skin
  4. Absence of neck.

Answer: 1. Absence of warts

Important MCQs On Animal Kingdom Question 125. In frogs, the nucleus giants are derivatives of:

  1. Stratunr compactum
  2. Stratum spongiosum
  3. Epidermis
  4. Dermis.

Answer: 3. Epidermis

Question 126. In frogs, teeth are present on:

  1. Lower jaw
  2. Upper jaw
  3. Both jaws
  4. None of these.

Answer: 2. Upper jaw

Question 127. In Amphibia the Jacobson organ is also known as:

  1. Alimentary canal
  2. Ear
  3. Nasal chamber
  4. Eye.

Answer: 3. Nasal chamber

Question 128. In frogs false copulation occurs since the penis is absent in the male and fertilisation of the eggs occurs:

  1. Inside the bidder canal of the kidney
  2. Externally in the water
  3. When the egg is in the cloaca
  4. When the egg passes through the uterus.

Answer: 2. Externally in the water

Question 129. In the blood of rats, there are approximately 6-10 thousand/ cubic ml of WBC. What is the approximate number of RBCs in the blood of a rat?

  1. 4 lac/cu ml
  2. 4-5 lac/cubic ml
  3. 6-1 lac/cubic ml
  4. 7-B lac/cubic ml.

Answer: 3. 6-1 lac/cubic ml

Question 130. In rats, respiratory bronchioles are not present at birth, they can be seen from which day onwards:

  1. 8th
  2. 10th
  3. 12th
  4. 14th

Answer: 2. 10th

Question 131. The lungs of rats lie in the thoracic cavity. There are how many lobes in the right lung and left lung?

  1. 3 and 1
  2. 3 and 2
  3. 2 and 3
  4. 1 and 1.

Answer: 1. 3 and 1

Question 132. Which of the following is not an accessory reproductive gland of made rat?

  1. Prostate and preputial
  2. Cowper’s and vesicular
  3. Ampullar gland
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 4. None of the above.

Question 133. In rats fertilization is internal. lt takes place in:

  1. Fallopian funnel
  2. The dilated uppermost part of the oviduct
  3. The uterine part of the oviduct
  4. Uterus.

Answer: 2. Dilated uppermost of the oviduct

Question 134. In rats, there are 12 pairs of cranial nerves. How many pairs of spinal nerves are present?

  1. 31 pairs
  2. 32 pairs
  3. 33 pairs
  4. 36 pairs.

Answer: 3. 33 pairs

Question 135. Cockroaches and rats both are nocturnal. What is the difference in the formation of an image:

  1. Mosaic in cockroaches and two on the retina in rats.
  2. Many images of cockroaches and one image on the retina in a rat
  3. Mosaic images in both
  4. Apoposition images in cockroaches and superposition in rats.

Answer: 2. Many images of cockroaches and one image on retina in a rat

Skin And Its Derivatives MCQs for NEET

NEET Biology Skin And Its Derivatives Multiple Questions And Answers

Question 1. The body of the frog is covered by skin. It is held:

  1. Tightly throughout
  2. Loosely throughout
  3. Tightly and loosely depending on the requirement
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Loosely throughout

Question 2. The outermost layer of the skin of a frog is:

  1. Keratinized and dead
  2. Non-keratinized and living
  3. Keratinized and living
  4. Non-keratinized and dead.

Answer: 1. Keratinized and dead

Question 3. Frog casts off the skin:

  1. During disease condition
  2. Only when the frog is agitated
  3. Sometimes only
  4. Usually throughout life at regular intervals

Answer: 4. Usually throughout life at regular intervals

Question 4. The Epidermis of the skin of a frog is:

  1. Non-vascular and non-nervous
  2. Non-vascular and nervous
  3. Vascular and nervous
  4. Vascular and non-nervous.

Answer: 2. Non-vascular and nervous

Question 5. Which layer of the epidermis is endocrine?

  1. Stratum Malpighi
  2. Stratum corneum
  3. Stratum lucidum
  4. Stratum granulosum.

Answer: 1. Stratum Malpighi

Question 6. The layer of columnar cells in the epidermis is:

  1. Stratum corneum
  2. Stratum Malpighi
  3. Stratum lucidum
  4. Stratum granulosum.

Answer: 2. Stratum Malpighi

Question 7. Chromatophores of frogs contain:

  1. Black and yellow pigments
  2. Yellow and green pigments
  3. Red and green pigments
  4. Black and green pigments.

Answer: 1. Black and yellow pigments

Question 8. The gland cells that secrete the slimy fluid in frogs are seen in:

  1. Stratum compactum
  2. Stratum spongiosum
  3. Stratum corneum
  4. Malpighian layer.

Answer: 1. Stratum compactum

Question 9. The skin functions as an excretory organ by removing waste products by way of secreting:

  1. Sweat
  2. Oil
  3. Water
  4. Salts.

Answer: 1. Sweat

Question 10. Parotid glands that are situated behind the head of Bufo are the modification of:

  1. Poison gland
  2. Ceruminous gland
  3. Salivary gland
  4. Mucous gland.

Answer: 1. Poison gland

Question 11. Glands found in the skin of frogs are:

  1. Sweat and sebaceous
  2. Mucous and sebaceous
  3. Sweat and mucous
  4. Mucous and poison.

Answer: 4. Mucous and poisonous.

Question 12. Stratum Malpighi is composed of cells that are columnar and actively dividing:

  1. During breeding season
  2. Only for a fixed period
  3. Throughout the life
  4. Embryonic stage.

Answer: 3. Throughout the life

Question 13. The integument is usually called “Jack of all trades” because of it:

  1. Performs varied functions
  2. Only regulates the body temperature
  3. Protects the body
  4. Gives shape to various structures of the body.

Answer: 1. Performs varied functions

Question 14. The cells ofstratum corneum in frog:

  1. Are most active cells
  2. Form layer that cornify extremities
  3. Form transparent layer
  4. Are shed periodically.

Answer: 2. Form a layer that cornifies extremities

Question 15. Conjunctiva is formed of:

  1. Dennis
  2. Epiderrnis
  3. Stratum compactum
  4. Stratum lucidurn.

Answer: 2. Epiderrnis

Question 16. Colour of skin in amphibia is due to:

  1. Corium
  2. Keratin
  3. Melanophores
  4. Chromatophores.

Answer: 4. Chromatophores.

Question 17. Chemically keratin is:

  1. Scleroprotein
  2. Mucoprotein
  3. Albuminoid
  4. Bony.

Answer: 1. Scleroprotein

Question 18. A thin membrane cast off by the frog is composed of:

  1. Squamous epithelium
  2. Ciliated epithelium
  3. Columnar epithelium
  4. Cuboidal epithelium.

Answer: 4. Cuboidal epithelium.

Question 19. The skin of the frog is characterized by the absence of:

  1. Scales
  2. Epidermis
  3. Mucous glands
  4. Chromatophores.

Answer: 1. Scales

Question 20. Colouration in frogs is due to:

  1. Iridescence of skin
  2. Presence of melanophores
  3. Growth of algal colonies on the skin
  4. Presence of special chromatophores below the epidermal cells.

Answer: 2. Presence of melanophores

Question 21. Homy substance excreted by the skin is:

  1. Wax
  2. Keratin
  3. Wax
  4. Lignin and mucin.

Answer: 2. Keratin

Question 22. Mucous glands help the frog to get:

  1. Moistened skin
  2. Thick skin
  3. Dark skin
  4. Light skin.

Answer: 1. Moistened skin

Question 23. The function of the integument is:

  1. Protection
  2. To regulate body temperature
  3. To check the entry of microbes
  4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 24. Seburn oil in our skin is secreted by:

  1. Sweat gland
  2. Mucous gland
  3. Sebaceous gland
  4. All of the above.

Answer: 3. sebaceous gland

Question 25. The epidermal layer consisting of dividing cells is:

  1. Stratum lucidum
  2. Stratum granulosum
  3. Stratum germinativum
  4. Stratum corneum.

Answer: 3. Stratum germinativum

Question 26. The glands of the skin develop from:

  1. Dermis
  2. Epidermis
  3. Stratum Malpighi
  4. None of these.

Answer: 2. Epidermis

Question 27. The fibres which make the skin elastic are:

  1. Yellow fibres
  2. Collagen fibres
  3. Smooth muscle fibres
  4. Striated muscle fibres.

Answer: 1. Yellow fibres

Question 28. The skin of a frog receives impure or deoxygenated blood from:

  1. Cutaneous vein
  2. Cutaneous artery
  3. Pulmonary artery
  4. Pulmonary vein.

Answer: 2. Cutaneous artery

Question 29. If the stratum corneum (dead layer) is supposed to be living what will be the effect?

  1. No sweat will ooze out
  2. Bacteria will be killed
  3. Bacteria will propagate
  4. No effect.

Answer: 3. Bacteria will propagate

Question 30. The epidermis of man and frog have in common:

  1. Stratum corneum
  2. Stratum germinativum
  3. Mucous glands
  4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer: 4. Both (1) and (2)

Question 31. The mammalian epidermis in sequence is from the exterior:

  1. Stratum corneum, stratum spinosum, stratum iucidum
  2. Stratum germinativurn, stratum corneum
  3. Stratum germinativum, stratum comeum. Stratum spinosum
  4. Stratum corneum, stratum spinosum, stratum germinativum.

Answer: 1. Stratum corneum, stratum spinosum, stratum lucid

Question 32. The skin of which of these classes of animals shows the least number and types of cutaneous glands?

  1. Mammals
  2. Birds
  3. Amphibians
  4. Reptiles.

Answer: 4. Reptiles.

Question 33. Skin plays an important role in osmoregulation in frogs by:

  1. Active outflow of water
  2. The osmotic inflow of water
  3. Active uptake of salts
  4. Passive inward diffusion of salts.

Answer: 2. Osmotic inflow of water

Question 34. Preen glands in the skin are a unique feature of the class:

  1. Mammals
  2. Pisces
  3. Amphibia
  4. Aves.

Answer: 4. Aves.

Question 35. Vibrissae are associated with the function of:

  1. Thermoregulation
  2. Gustation
  3. Tactile perception
  4. Reproduction.

Answer: 3. Tactile perception

Question 36. Meissner’s corpuscles are found in:

  1. Skin
  2. Tongue
  3. Brain
  4. Nerve cells.

Answer: 1. Skin

Question 37. Skin becomes oily by the secretion of:

  1. Sudoriferous glands
  2. Sebaceous glands
  3. Sweat gland
  4. Ceruminous gland.

Answer: 2. Sebaceous glands

Histology MCQs For NEET Biology

NEET Biology Compound Histology Multiple Choice Questions And Answers

Question 1. The intestinal villi are connected with:

  1. Digestion of fats and carbohydrates
  2. Absorption of proteins and glucose
  3. Absorption of amino acids and glucose
  4. Assimilation of digested food.

Answer: 3. Absorption of amino acids and glucose

Question 2. The outer coat of the stomach wall is:

  1. Mucous membrane
  2. Submucous coat
  3. Muscularis mucosa
  4. Serous coat.

Answer: 4. Serous coat.

Question 3. The pulp in the case of the tooth is covered by:

  1. Dentine
  2. Crown
  3. Enamel
  4. Layer of odontoblasts

Answer: 4. Layer of odontoblasts

Question 4. Islets oflangerhans are found in:

  1. Kidney
  2. Heart
  3. Pancreas
  4. Stomach.

Answer: 3. Pancreas

Histology MCQs For NEET Biology

Question 5. Villi are located in:

  1. Stomach
  2. Gall bladder
  3. Kidney
  4. Intestine.

Answer: 4. Intestine.

Question 6. The cells that produce dilute hydrochloric acid in the stomach are:

  1. Parietal cells
  2. Argentaffin cells
  3. Chief cells
  4. Paneth cells.

Answer: 1. Parietal cells

Question 7. The isolated patches of lymphoid tissue of the intestine are known as:

  1. Hepatic cells
  2. Islets of Langerhans
  3. Peyer’s patches
  4. Kupffer cells.

Answer: 3. Peyer’s patches

Question 8. Collagenous fibres of connective tissue are rich in:

  1. Lysine, valine and proline
  2. Lysine, proline and tryptophan
  3. Proline hydroxy proline and glycine
  4. Tryptophan, methionine and proline.

Answer: 3. Proline hydroxy proline and glycine

Question 9. Peyer’s patches and vermiform appendix are associated with the intestine in mammals. They are:

  1. Digestive
  2. Secretory
  3. Lymphoid
  4. Sensory.

Answer: 3. Lymphoid

Question 10. Muscles in the wall of the stomach responsible for the movement of food are:

  1. Striated
  2. Cardiac
  3. Unstriated
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Unstriated

Question 11. Paneth celis are present in:

  1. Crypts of lieberkuhn
  2. Peyer’s patches
  3. Islets of langerhans
  4. Organ of Corti.

Answer: 1. Crypts of lieberkuhn

Question 12. The lining of the columnar epithelium of the stomach wall is seen in:

  1. Serosa
  2. Muscularis mucosa
  3. Submucosa
  4. Mucosa

Answer: 4. Mucosa

Question 13. Arrange in the correct sequence the pair of tubular glands as seen in a cross-section of the stomach wall:

  1. Neck
  2. Base and
  3. Isthmus
  1. (1), (2) and (3)
  2. (2), (3) and (1)
  3. (3), (1) and (2)
  4. (2), (1) and (3).

Answer: 1. (1), (2) and (3)

Question 14. Brunner’s glands are present in:

  1. Submucosa of the oesophagus of rabbit
  2. Submucosa of duodenum of frog
  3. Submucosa of duodenum and proximal jejunum of rabbit
  4. Mucosa of duodenum and ileum of rabbit.

Answer: 3. Submucosa of the duodenum and proximal jejunum of rabbit

Question 15. A maximum number of villi are present in:

  1. Duodenum
  2. Jejunurn
  3. Ileum
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Ileum

Question 16. The stomach and intestine are lined internally by:

  1. Columnar epithelium
  2. Stratified epithelium
  3. Cuboidal epithelium
  4. Squamous epithelium.

Answer: 1. Columnar epithelium

Question 17. To which of the four major layers do the epithelial lining, lamina propria and muscularis mucosa belong:

  1. Mucous membrane
  2. Muscularis externa
  3. Serosa
  4. Submucosa.

Answer: 1. Mucous membrane

Question 18. In a cross-section of the wall of the stomach, no gland can be seen in the submucosal layer in any part except in:

  1. Fundus
  2. Body
  3. Pyloric part
  4. Pyloric antrum.

Answer: 3. Pyloric part

Question 19. Which features are characteristics of parietal cells?

  1. Their nuclei are dark and centrally placed
  2. Rounded to triangular with relatively clear cytoplasm
  3. They are found mainly in the base of tubular glands
  4. Both (1) and (2).

Answer: 4. Both (1) and (2).

Question 20. In an empty stomach, the mucosa is thrown into folds known as:

  1. Foveolae
  2. Rugae
  3. Incisura angular
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Rugae

Question 21. In which part of the intestine are argent affine cells or enterochromaffin cells found?

  1. Oesophagus
  2. Duodenum
  3. Only in rectum
  4. In all parts of the alimentary canal but more in the small intestine.

Answer: 4. In all parts of the alimentary canal but more in the small intestine.

Question 22. The epithelium in the conducting bronchioles (tertiary bronchi) is:

  1. Stratified epithelium
  2. Only pseudostratified epithelium
  3. Pseudostratified, ciliated and columnar epithelium
  4. Squamous epithelium.

Answer: 3. Pseudostratified, ciliated and columnar epithelium

Question 23. The terminal bronchiole is lined by:

  1. Stratified epithelium
  2. Pseudostratified epithelium
  3. Ciliated columnar or cuboidal epithelium
  4. Columnar or cuboidal epithelium.

Answer: 3. Ciliated columnar or cuboidal epithelium

Question 24. ln the terminal bronchiole which of the following is present?

  1. Mucous cells
  2. Columnar cells
  3. Only elastic fibres
  4. Elastic and reticular fibres.

Answer: 2. Columnar cells

Question 25. Number of alveoli in human lung is about:

  1. One million
  2. More than two million
  3. More than five million
  4. More than seven million.

Answer: 4. More than seven million.

Question 26. The lungs are externally covered by the layer called:

  1. Parietal pleuron
  2. Visceral pleuron
  3. Ependyma
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Visceral pleuron

Question 27. The type of cartilage seen in the tracheal wall is:

  1. Hyaline cartilage
  2. Fibro-cartilage
  3. Elastic cartilage
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Elastic cartilage

Question 28. Which feature or features distinguish bronchioles from bronchi?

  1. Bronchioles are less than 1 mm in diameter
  2. Bronchioles have cartilage in their walls
  3. Larger bronchioles are supported by connective tissue alone which extends from the interlobular septa
  4. Both (1) and (2).

Answer: 3. Larger bronchioles are supported by connective tissue alone which extends from the interlobular septa

Question 29. The lungs of mammals contain an enormous number of alveoli. This is to allow:

  1. More space for increasing the total volume of inspired air
  2. More surface area for diffusion of gases
  3. More spongy texture for keeping the lungs in proper shape
  4. More nerve supply to maintain the effective working of the organ.

Answer: 2. More surface area for diffusion of gases

Question 30. In a section of the pancreas examined under low power, the Islets of Langerhans can be recognized as:

  1. Pale area
  2. Irregular clumps of cells and
  3. Group of cells arranged in rings around the central duct:
  1. (1), (2) and (i3)
  2. (1) and (2)
  3. (3)
  4. (2) and (3).

Answer: 2. (1) and (2)

Question 31. The secretory units of the pancreas are known as:

  1. Acini
  2. Alveoli
  3. Crypts
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Acini

Question 32. A gland which is exocrine as well as endocrine is:

  1. Liver
  2. Pancreas
  3. Kidney
  4. Spleen.

Answer: 2. Pancreas

Question 33. Insulin hormone is secreted by:

  1. Kupffer’s cells
  2. Peyer’s patches
  3. Islets of Langerhans
  4. Paneth cells.

Answer: 3. Islets of langerhans

Question 34. The sinusoids found in the hepatic lacunae inside the liver

  1. The hepatic portal vein, hepatic artery and hepatic vein
  2. Hepatic portal vein to hepatic artery
  3. Hepatic portal vein to bile duct
  4. Hepatic artery to the hepatic vein.

Answer: 1. Hepatic portal vein, hepatic artery and hepatic vein

Question 35. The worn-out RBCs are ingested inside the liver by:

  1. Cells of kupffer
  2. Hepatocytes
  3. Cells of hepatic laminae
  4. Leucocytes.

Answer: 1. Cells of Kupffer

Question 36. Atomic bomb radiations cause ulcers in the mouth and large intestine and serious lung infection due to:

  1. Leukaemia
  2. Mutation
  3. Anaemia
  4. Agranulocytosis.

Answer: 4. Agranulocytosis.

Question 37. The centre of the classic fine lobules of the liver is formed by:

  1. Portal vein
  2. Hepatic artery
  3. Central vein
  4. Bile duct.

b 3. Central vein

Question 38. The sinusoids are lined by:

  1. Reticulo-epithelial cells called kupffer cells
  2. Paneth cells
  3. Argentaffine cells
  4. Columnar cells.

Answer: 1. Reticulo-epithelial cells called kupffer cells

Question 39. Which statement is true regarding the nuclei of the hepatic cells?

  1. Nuclei are ovoid or round
  2. Not uncommonly nucleated
  3. Polyploid nuclei are numerous
  4. Both (1) and (2).

Answer: 1. Nuclei are ovoid or round

Question 40. The portal tract or portal radicle is composed of:

  1. Central vein, portal vein and hepatic artery
  2. Central vein, hepatic artery, bile duct and lymphatics
  3. Portal vein, hepatic artery, bile duct and lymphatics
  4. Central vein and bile canals.

Answer: 3. Portal vein, hepatic artery, bile duct and lymphatics

Question 41. Which one of the following is not a function of the spleen?

  1. Destroying old worn out RBC’s and germs
  2. Withdrawing RBCs from the general circulation and storing them
  3. Producing leucocytes and erythrocytes
  4. It is an endocrine gland.

Answer: 4. It is an endocrine gland.

Question 42. The red pulp found in the spleen is red because:

  1. Capillary network of blood vessels
  2. A large number of red pigments (lipophores) are present
  3. It stores red blood cells
  4. A large amount of free haemoglobin is present in its tissue.

Answer: 3. It stores red blood cells

Question 43. In a cross-section of the spleen, the grey nodules are seen:

  1. Are trabecular which extend inward from the capsule of the spleen
  2. From the red pulp which filters the rbc
  3. From the white pulp which are site of lymphocyte production
  4. Both (1) and (2).

Answer: 3. Form the white pulp which are site of lymphocyte production

Question 44. The refineries in the tissue of the spleen which are surrounded by lymphatic tissue are also known as:

  1. Trabecular arteries
  2. Follicular arteries
  3. Penicillate arteries
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Follicular arteries

Question 45. The genicular arteries formed by the branching of follicular arteries are:

  1. 6-8 in number
  2. 2-6 in number
  3. 8-10 in number
  4. Over 10 in number.

Answer: 2. 2-6 in number

Question 46. The cords of Billroth are situated:

  1. In the white pulp
  2. In the red pulp
  3. Along the trabeculae
  4. Between sinusoids.

Answer: 4. Between sinusoids.

Question 47. The sinusoids in the red pulp are lined by:

  1. Squamous epithelial cells
  2. Columnar cells
  3. Reticuloendothelial cells
  4. Stratified epithelium.

Answer: 3. Reticuloendothelial cells

Question 48. In certain species the capsule of the spleen is muscular and its contraction empties the blood from the spleen. In man:

  1. The capsule is also muscular.
  2. The capsule is not endowed with smooth muscle sufficient for contraction
  3. None of the above
  4. Both (1) and (2).

Answer: 2. Capsule is not endowed with smooth muscle sufficient for contraction

Question 49. The glomeruli of the uriniferous tubules in the kidney are present in the following:

  1. Rnedulla
  2. Cortex
  3. Pyramid
  4. Pelvis.

Answer: 2. Cortex

Question 50. The outer cortex of the kidney in a T.S. appears granular or dotted because of:

  1. Highly coiled uriniferous tubules in this region
  2. Grannual cytoplasm
  3. The presence of a loop of Henle
  4. None of the above

Answer: 1. Highly coiled uriniferous tubules in this region

Question 51. The Medulla of the kidney in T.S. appears striated because of the presence of:

  1. Loop of Henle
  2. Straight contractile fibrils
  3. Unstriped muscle fibres
  4. Striped muscle fibres.

Answer: 1. Loop of Henle

Question 52. Malpighian body is a structure found in:

  1. Uriniferous tubules
  2. Testis
  3. Ovary
  4. Tung.

Answer: 1. Uriniferous tubules

Question 53. The cells lining the ascending and descending limbs of “Loop of Henle” are of:

  1. Squamous type
  2. Ciliated type
  3. Cuboidal type
  4. Columnar type.

Answer: 3. Cuboidal type

Question 54. The structural and functional unit of the kidney is called:

  1. Pyramid
  2. Calyx
  3. Nephron
  4. Medula.

Answer: 3. Nephron

Question 55. The macula densa is that part of the:

  1. Loop of henle where the tube loops
  2. Proximal tubule that comes into contact with the glomerular root
  3. Distal tubule that comes into contact with the glomerular root
  4. Henle’s loop comes into contact with the glomerular root.

Answer: 3. Distal tubule that comes into contact with the glomerular root

Question 56. In 24 hours the glomerular capillaries of all the renal corpuscles of both kidneys filter:

  1. 100 litres of fluid
  2. 50-100 lirres of fluid
  3. 100-150litres of fluid
  4. 170-200 litres of fluid.

Answer: 4. 170-200 litres of fluid.

Question 57. The male sex hormone Testosterone, is secreted by special Leydig’s cells present in:

  1. Kidneys
  2. Seminiferous tubules of testis
  3. The connective tissue surrounding the seminiferous tubules of the testis
  4. Cells lining the epidermis of the testis.

Answer: 3. Connective tissue surrounding the seminiferous tubules of the testis

Question 58. The centre of the primary follicle is occupied by:

  1. Follicular cells
  2. Oogonium
  3. Theca Interna
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Follicular cells

Question 59. The secondary follicle differs from the primary follicle in that:

  1. The primary follicle has only a single layer of flattened cells around the oogonium
  2. The secondary follicle has cuboidal, columnar and stratified epithelium around the oogonium
  3. The oocyte within the secondary follicle is covered by a thick membrane called zona pellucida
  4. All of the above.

Answer: 2. The secondary follicle has cuboidal, columnar and stratified epithelium around the oogonium

Question 60. Cumulus oophorus refers to:

  1. Heap of oocytes found in the secondary follicle
  2. Heap of follicular cells around the ovum in the primary follicle
  3. Hill of follicular cells that act as handles to the ovum in the secondary follicle
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Hill of follicular cells that act as handles to the ovum in the secondary follicle

Question 61. What are the two types of cells seen in the seminiferous tubule?

  1. Gonocytes and cells of Sertoli
  2. Cells of Leydig and Rete cells
  3. Stereociliary cells and cuboidal cells
  4. Gonocytes.

Answer: 1. Gonocytes and cells of Sertoli

Question 62. In a section of the testis, the groups of cells seen scattered between seminiferous tubules are:

  1. Cells of Sertoli
  2. Gonocytes
  3. Interstitial cells
  4. Stereociliary cells

Answer: 3. Interstitial cells

Question 63. Septa which extend inward from the tunica albuginea separate the testis into compartments which contain:

  1. Epididymis
  2. Rete testes
  3. Seminiferous tubules
  4. Cells of Leydig.

Answer: 3. Seminiferous tubules

Question 64. How many layers does the muscle coat of the oviduct have?

  1. One-longitudinal
  2. The two-inner circular and outer longitudinal
  3. Three-oblique fibres in addition to the above
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Two-inner circular and outer longitudinal

Question 65. An atretic follicle is:

  1. Also known as corpus albicans
  2. That follicle which tails to mature and degenerates
  3. That follicle which has released the ovum
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. That follicle which tails to mature and degenerates

Question 66. The single layer of germinal epithelium covering the ovary is composed of:

  1. Squamous cells
  2. Cuboidal cells
  3. Columnar cells
  4. None of the above

Answer: 2. Cuboidal cells

Question 67. The layer immediately interior to the tunica albuginea which forms the page of the cortex has a higher proportion of:

  1. Intercellular substance
  2. Connective tissue cells and fibres
  3. (1) And (2)
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Connective tissue cells and fibres

Question 68. Villi of the ileum are:

  1. Club shaped
  2. Leaf shaped
  3. Rounded
  4. Variable.

Answer: 1. Club shaped

Question 69. Which one of the following is the characteristic feature of jejunum?

  1. Villi which are rounded in shape
  2. Paneth cells are present
  3. Peyer’s patches are present
  4. Crypts of leiberkuhn present.

Answer: 1. Villi which are rounded in shape

Question 70. Which tissue evolved first in the animal kingdom?

  1. Epithelial tissue
  2. Muscular tissue
  3. Skeletal tissue
  4. Connective tissue.

Answer: 1. Epithelial tissue

Question 71. The founder of histology as a separate branch of animal study was:

  1. Leeuwenhoek
  2. Robert Hooke
  3. Marcello Malpighi
  4. Stanley.

Answer: 3. Marcello Malpighi

Question 72. Which statements are correct regarding the nuclei of the hepatic cells:

  1. Nuclei are ovoid to round
  2. Not uncommonly binucleated
  3. Polyploid nuclei are numerous
  1. (1) and (2) are cotrect
  2. (2) only
  3. All the above
  4. (3) only

Answer: 3. All the above

Question 73. The cells lining the periosteum are:

  1. Periosteal cells
  2. Osteogenic cells are capable of differentiating into osteoblasts and osteocytes under appropriate condition
  3. Osteoblasts which are capable of the formation of new osteoblasts
  4. All of the above.

Answer: 2. Osteogenic cells are capable of differentiating into osteoblasts and osteocytes under appropriate conditions

Question 74. A thick membrane rich in glycoproteins and formed around the outer surface of a developing ovum is known as:

  1. Zona vascular
  2. Zona pellucida
  3. Theca follicle
  4. Glassy membrane.

Answer: 2. Zona pellucida

Question 75. Bone is mainly composed of:

  1. Iron and phosphorus
  2. Calcium and phosphor
  3. Sulphur and calcium
  4. Calcium and magnesium

Answer: 2. Calcium and phosphor

Question 76. Which of the following has kidney shaped nucleus?

  1. Neutrophils
  2. Lymphocytes
  3. Eosinophils
  4. Monocytes

Answer: 4. Monocytes

Question 77. In rabbit, the epithelial lining of the oesophagus consists of:

  1. Columnar epithelium
  2. Stratified non-keratinized squamous epithelium
  3. Non-stratified squamous epithelium
  4. Stratified keratinized squamous epithelium

Answer: 2. Stratified non-keratinized squamous epithelium

Question 78. In which of the following organs lamina propria is poorly developed?

  1. Colon
  2. Intestine
  3. Oesophagus
  4. Stomach.

Answer: 3. Oesophagus

Question 79. Muscularis mucosa of which of the following organs has taeniae?

  1. Anus
  2. Colon
  3. Oesophagus
  4. Rectum

Answer: 2. Colon

Question 80. Endometrium refers to the cellular lining of:

  1. Oesophagus
  2. Intestine
  3. Bones
  4. Bloocl vessel.

Answer: 1. Oesophagus

Question 81. All of the examples of gut-associated lymphatic tissue

  1. Oesophagus
  2. Fundic stomach
  3. Tonsils
  4. Duodenum.

Answer: 3. Tonsils

Question 82. Interlobular strands in the mammalian liver do not show:

  1. Branch of hepatic vein
  2. Branch of bile duct
  3. Branch of hepatic artery
  4. Sinusoids.

Answer: 4. Sinusoids.

Question 83. All are found in spongy bones except:

  1. Osteoblasts
  2. Bone marrow
  3. Lacunae and canaliculi
  4. Haversian canals.

Answer: 4. Haversian canals.

Question 84. Bone marrow is mainly composed of:

  1. Periosteum and osteoblasts
  2. Adipose tissue and blood vessels
  3. Yellow and elastic tissue
  4. Cartilage and elastic tissue.

Answer: 2. Adipose tissue and blood vessels

Question 85. Which one of the following is essential for the formation of myelin sheath?

  1. Zinc
  2. Sodium
  3. Iron
  4. Phosphorus.

Answer: 1. Zinc

Question 86. Reticulocytes are:

  1. Immature erythrocytes
  2. WDC
  3. Blood platelets
  4. Lymphocytes.

Answer: 1. Immature erythrocytes

Question 87. Haemopoiesis takes place in the bone mamaw of one of the following:

  1. Radius
  2. Femur
  3. Humerus
  4. Vertebrae.

Answer: 3. Humerus

Question 88. Serotonin in the blood:

  1. Relaxes blood vessels
  2. Prevents clotting of blood
  3. Helps in the clotting of blood
  4. Constricts blood vessels.

Answer: 4. Constricts blood vessels.

Question 89. Glisson’s capsule is present in:

  1. Liver
  2. Stomach
  3. Lung
  4. Kidney.

Answer: 1. Liver

Animal Tissues MCQ for NEET Biology

NEET Biology Animal Tissues Multiple Choice Questions And Answers

Question 1. A cell in blood shows amoeboid movements, a multilobed nucleus, has granules in the cytoplasm and is phagocytic. Which of the following cells it can be?

  1. Lymphocyte
  2. Eosinophil
  3. Neutrophil
  4. Monocyte.

Answer: 3. Neutrophil

Question 2. The term lacunae regarding bones denotes:

  1. Concentric rings in which osteocytes are arranged
  2. The spaces housing osteocytes
  3. Protoplasmic connections joining adjacent osteocytes
  4. Oblique canals joining adjacent Haversian canals.

Answer: 2. The spaces housing osteocytes

Question 3. In which of the following functions bones do not participate?

  1. Erythropoiesis
  2. Erythrolysis
  3. Immunity
  4. Storage of minerals.

Answer: 2. Erythrolysis

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 4. Which of the following is true?

  1. The columnar epithelium has the function of protection
  2. Some columnar epithelium have specialized functions other than secretion
  3. A1l or some have secretory functions
  4. All of the above statements are true.

Answer: 4. All of the above statements are true.

Solved NEET MCQs On Animal Tissues Question 5. The advantage of RBC’s being concave is that:

  1. It increases their surface area
  2. It can be piled over another in a blood vessel
  3. They can fit into capillaries
  4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 6. Which statement is false about immature bone?

  1. It is also termed woven bone or coarsely bundled bone because of the large quantity of collagen fibres
  2. It has more intercellular substance than cells, compared to mature bone
  3. The contents of intercellular substances are relatively less than in mature bone and hence are not as lightly opaque as in mature bone
  4. The immature bone is transformed into mature bone except in certain sites such as tooth sockets near cranial sutures and tendon and ligament attachment.

Answer: 2. It has more intercellular substance than cells, compared to mature bone

Animal Tissues MCQs

Question 7. For the cells to form a tissue, they must:

  1. Have different membrane proteins
  2. Have different membrane potentials
  3. Receive a command from the central nervous system
  4. Recognize one another.

Answer: 4. Recognize one another.

Question 8. The major protein of the connective tissue is:

  1. Keratin
  2. Collagen
  3. Myosin
  4. Melanin

Answer: 2. Collagen

Question 9. Myoepithelial cells found between the bases of secretory cells and their basement membrane:

  1. Aid in the expulsion of the secretion
  2. Support the secretory cells
  3. Support the basement membrane
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Aid in the expulsion of the secretion

Solved NEET MCQs On Animal Tissues Question 10. Proteins of anisotropic bands of muscles mainly consist of:

  1. Actin
  2. Myosin
  3. Tropomyosin
  4. Actin, myosin and tropomyosin.

Answer: 4. Actin, myosin and tropomyosin.

Question 11. Plasma proteins like albumin, globulin and fibrinogen are produced in:

  1. Muscles
  2. Liver
  3. Blood vessels
  4. Spleen

Answer: 2. Liver

Question 12. Smooth muscle fibres are:

  1. Cylindrical, unbranched, striated, multinucleate and voluntary
  2. Spindle-shaped, unbranched, non-striated, uninucleate and involuntary
  3. Spindle-shaped, branched and striated
  4. Spindle-shaped, unbranched, striated, uninucleate and voluntary.

Answer: 2. Spindle-shaped, unbranched, non-striated, uninucleate and involuntary

Question 13. The skull bones are joined in a fashion rendering them immovable due to the occurrence of:

  1. Hyaline cartilage
  2. Tendon
  3. Adipose tissue
  4. White fibrous tissue.

Answer: 4. White fibrous tissue.

Question 14. Regeneration of cartilage is brought about by:

  1. Fibres
  2. Perichondrium
  3. Matrix
  4. Nerves and blood vessels.

Answer: 2. Perichondrium

Solved NEET MCQs On Animal Tissues Question 15. Chondrocytes are typically:

  1. Bluntly angular cells
  2. Oval rigid cells
  3. Spherical cells
  4. Tapering elongated cells.

Answer: 2. Oval rigid cells

Question 16. The normal level of urea, in 100 ml of blood is:

  1. 100 mg
  2. 150 mg
  3. 17 to 30 mg
  4. 2 mg.

Answer: 3. 17 to 30 mg

Question 17. The inner surface of the urinary bladder is lined by:

  1. Cuboidal cells
  2. Pseudostratified epithelium
  3. Transitional epithelium
  4. Squamous epithelium.

Answer: 3. Transitional epithelium

Question 18. Albumins and globulins in plasma help:

  1. To maintain viscosity
  2. To retain water
  3. In oxidation
  4. In energy transfer.

Answer: 2. To retain water

Question 19. The supporting lining of connective tissue of hollow organs is known as:

  1. Basal membrane
  2. Basement membrane
  3. Mucous membrane
  4. Lamina propria.

Answer: 4. Lamina propria.

Question 20. The nucleus in pseudostratified epithelium is arranged:

  1. At different levels
  2. Uniformly
  3. At the periphery
  4. In the centre.

Answer: 1. At different levels

Question 21. Goblet cells constitute:

  1. Unicellular mucous glands
  2. Modified columnar cells
  3. Stratified columnar cells
  4. All the above.

Answer: 1. Unicellular mucous glands

Question 22. The internal lining of the blood vessel is formed by:

  1. Mesothelium
  2. Endothelium
  3. Stratified epithelium
  4. Glandular epithelium.

Answer: 2. Endothelium

Question 23. Gall bladder, bile duct, stomach and intestine are internally lined by:

  1. Simple squamous epithelium
  2. Simple columnar epithelium
  3. Transitional epithelium
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Simple columnar epithelium

Question 24. Tissue is formed by:

  1. Similar cells with the same metabolic activity
  2. Dissimilar cells with the same function
  3. Similar cells with similar origin
  4. Dissimilar cells with the same metabolic activity.

Answer: 3. Similar cells with similar origin

Structural Organisation in Animals NEET Questions Question 25. Which of the following tissues always has ciliated, glandular neurosensory and absorptive structure?

  1. Muscular
  2. Neurons
  3. Epithelial
  4. Connective.

Answer: 3. Epithelial

Question 26. The pseudostratified epithelium is found in the internal lining of:

  1. Oviduct
  2. Wolffian duct
  3. Gall bladder
  4. Trachea.

Answer: 4. Trachea.

Question 27. When the glandular cells of any gland are filled with secretion, the gland is:

  1. Holocrine
  2. Apocrine
  3. Merocrine
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Holocrine

Question 28. The attachment between epithelial cells is due to:

  1. Intercellular cement
  2. Connective tissue
  3. Intercellular fluid
  4. Intracellular fluid and air spaces.

Answer: 1. Intercellular cement

Question 29. Transitional epithelium is found in:

  1. Kidney
  2. Renal pelvis and ureter
  3. Larynx
  4. Vein.

Answer: 2. Renal pelvis and ureter

Question 30. At places where there is much wear and tear, the stratified epithelium becomes flat and codified due to?

  1. Chondrin
  2. Elastin
  3. Keratin
  4. Ossein.

Answer: 3. Keratin

Structural Organisation in Animals NEET Questions Question 31. Epithelial cells are concerned with:

  1. Respiration
  2. Excretion
  3. Protection
  4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 32. Intercellular substances in epithelial tissue are:

  1. Abundant
  2. Negligible or absent
  3. Normally average in quantity
  4. Very little.

Answer: 2. Negligible or absent

Question 33. Which type of tissue forms glands?

  1. Connective
  2. Epithelial
  3. Nervous
  4. Muscular.

Answer: 2. Epithelial

Question 34. The longitudinal channels of bone are called:

  1. Haversian canals
  2. epithelial tissue
  3. connective tissue
  4. cardiac tissue.

Answer: 1. Haversian canals

Question 35. Blood is a:

  1. Muscular tissue
  2. Epithelial tissue
  3. Connective tissue
  4. Cardiac tissue.

Answer: 3. Connective tissue

Question 36. In fibrous connective tissue, the matrix is produced by the:

  1. Wandering cells
  2. Fibrocyte
  3. Plasma cells
  4. Mast cell.

Answer: 4. Mast cell.

Structural Organisation in Animals NEET Questions Question 37. Nissl bodies are found in:

  1. Cartilage cells
  2. Nerve cells
  3. Muscle cells
  4. Epithelial cells.

Answer: 2. Nerve cells

Question 38. A thin membrane cast off by the frog is composed of:

  1. Squamous epithelium
  2. Epitheloid cells
  3. Columnar epithelium
  4. Cuboidal epithelium.

Answer: 1. Squamous epithelium

Question 39. The fibrous tissue which connects the bones is called:

  1. Ligament
  2. Connective tissue
  3. Tendon
  4. Aponeurosis.

Answer: 1. Ligament

Question 40. The efferent process of neurons is known as:

  1. Axon
  2. Dendrite
  3. Cyton
  4. Neurofibrils.

Answer: 1. Axon

Mcq On Animal Tissues Question 41. The epithelium with more than one cell thick layer is known as:

  1. Compound
  2. Columnar
  3. Squamous
  4. Pseudostratified.

Answer: 1. Compound

Question 42. Nails, hoofs and horns are examples of:

  1. Connective tissue
  2. Bony tissue
  3. Epidermal tissue
  4. Cartilage tissue.

Answer: 3. Epidermal tissue

Question 43. Nerve cells originate from:

  1. Mesoderm
  2. Mesenchyme
  3. Endoderm
  4. Ectoderm.

Answer: 4. Ectoderm.

Question 44. Kupffer cells of the liver are:

  1. Mast cells.
  2. Fat cells
  3. Loose connective tissue cells
  4. Phagocytic cells.

Answer: 4. Phagocytic cells.

Question 45. RBCs of frogs are:

  1. Circular and non-nucleated
  2. Oval and non-nucleated
  3. Oval and nucleated
  4. Circular and nucleated.

Answer: 3. Oval and nucleated

Question 46. Blood platelets occur in only:

  1. Mammals
  2. Birds
  3. Reptiles
  4. Pisces.

Answer: 1. Mammals

Mcq On Animal Tissues Question 47. Interstitial fluid closely resembles:

  1. Sea water
  2. Lake water
  3. Pond water
  4. Rainwater.

Answer: 1. Seawater

Question 48. Bone is a:

  1. Cell
  2. Organ
  3. Tissue
  4. System.

Answer: 3. Tissue

Question 49. In the stratified epithelium, the basement membrane is in contact with the:

  1. Upper layer
  2. Second layer
  3. Middle layer
  4. Lowermost layer.

Answer: 4. Lowermost layer.

Question 50. Microvilli are:

  1. Group of tissues
  2. Group of cells
  3. Group of cell inclusions
  4. Filiform processes of the plasma membrane.

Answer: 4. Filiform processes of the plasma membrane.

Question 51. Epithelium differs from connective and supporting tissue by the presence of:

  1. More intercellular substance
  2. More cellular substance
  3. More cytoplasm
  4. Myelin sheath.

Answer: 2. More cellular substance

Mcq On Animal Tissues Question 52. ln a nerve fibre the outermost layer is the:

  1. Schwann’s white substance
  2. Peritoneul layer
  3. Neurilemma
  4. Myelin sheath.

Answer: 3. Neurilemma

Question 53. Different fibres of connective tissue are made of special types of proteins. The white fibres are made of:

  1. Collagen
  2. Elastin
  3. Myosin
  4. Reticulin.

Answer: 1. Collagen

Question 54. Non-medullated nerve fibres are present in the following:

  1. Spinal nerves
  2. Autonomic nervous system
  3. Central nervous system
  4. Peripheral nervous system

Answer: 2. Autonomic nervous system

Animal Tissue Recommended MCQs Question 55. The layer of epidermis which contains the dividing cells is called the:

  1. Stratum corneum
  2. Stratum Malpighi
  3. Stratum lucidum
  4. Stratum granulosum.

Answer: 2. Stratum Malpighi

Question 56. The sensation in the skin is perceived by:

  1. The epidermis
  2. Subcutaneous fatty layer
  3. The dermis
  4. Pigment cells.

Answer: 1. The epidermis

Question 57. Sarooiemma is a membrane that covers:

  1. Muscle fibres
  2. Protein fibres
  3. Nerve fibres
  4. Collagen fibres

Answer: 1. Muscle fibres

Question 58. Labyrinth in the nucleus is seen in:

  1. Neutrophil cells
  2. Bone cells
  3. Salivary gland cells of insects
  4. Nerve fibres.

Answer: 3. Salivary gland cells of insects

Question 59. Where would you look for simple cuboidal epithelium?

  1. Nephron
  2. Trachea
  3. Mouth
  4. Oesophagus.

Answer: 1. Nephron

Animal Tissue Recommended MCQs Question 60. Which one of the following is the largest cell?

  1. Monocyte
  2. Basophil
  3. Neutrophil
  4. Eosinophil.

Answer: 1. Monocyte

Question 61. Ciliated epithelium in our body is found in:

  1. Ureter
  2. Bile duct
  3. Trachea
  4. Oesophagus.

Answer: 3. Trachea

Question 62. The highly contractile cytoplasm of muscle cells is called:

  1. Neuroplasrn
  2. Germplasm
  3. Sarcoplasm
  4. Plasmagel.

Answer: 3. Sarcoplasm

Question 63. The long and spindle-shaped uninucleate muscle fibres without dark and light bands are:

  1. Unstriated
  2. Striated
  3. Voluntary
  4. Cardiac.

Answer: 1. Unstriated

Question 64. Besides binding different organs, connective tissue also serves as:

  1. Excretory organ
  2. Sensory organ.
  3. Defence system against infection
  4. Osmo-regululory organ.

Answer: 3. Defence system against infection

Animal Tissue Recommended MCQs Question 65. The undifferentiated connective tissue cells as seen in areolar tissue are:

  1. Rnesothelium
  2. Mesenchyme
  3. Mesohyal
  4. Mesenteric cells

Answer: 2. Mesenchyme

Question 66. The cells of connective tissue which help in bringing about the formation of libraries and helping in the repair of damaged tissues are:

  1. Fibrocytes
  2. Histiocytes
  3. Lvlechanocytes
  4. Lymphoidal cells.

Answer: 1. Fibrocytes

Question 67. Tire fibres which make the skin elastic are:

  1. Yellow fibres
  2. Striped muscle fibres
  3. White fibres
  4. Collagen fibres

Answer: 1. Yellow fibres

Question 68. The fibres which limit the elasticity of the skin are:

  1. Yellow fibres
  2. Smooth muscle fibres
  3. White or collagen fibres
  4. Striated muscle fibres.

Answer: 3. White or collagen fibres

Question 69. The cartilage with bundles of collagen fibres found in the intervertebral discs is called:

  1. Hyaline cartilage
  2. Fibrous cartilage
  3. Elastic cartilage
  4. Glass-like cartilage.

Answer: 2. Fibrous cartilage

Question 70. The bone cells are called:

  1. Chondrocytes
  2. Osteocytes
  3. Fibrocytes
  4. Histiocytes.

Answer: 2. Osteocytes

Question 71. If a bone is heated at a high temperature animal matter is lost and only mineral matter is left. Such a bone is called:

  1. Replacing bone
  2. Dried bone
  3. Calcified bone
  4. Decalcified bone

Answer: 2. Dried bone

Structural Organisation In Animals MCQ For NEET Biology Question 72. If a bone is kept in HCI for some time, its mineral matter is dissolved and only animal matter is left behind. Such a bone is called:

  1. Decalcified bone
  2. Replacing bone
  3. Calcified bone
  4. None of these.

Answer: 1. Decalcified bone

Question 73. The red blood cells of naturals are produced from:

  1. Haemocytoblasts
  2. Megakaryoblasts
  3. Promyelocyte
  4. Nlyelocyte.

Answer: 1. Haemocytoblasts

Question 74. In humans, red blood cells are flattened, circular, biconcave and:

  1. Nucleated
  2. Non-nucleated
  3. Multirrucleated
  4. Syncytial.

Answer: 2. Non-nucleated

Question 75. Serum differs from plasma in:

  1. Absence of fibrinogen and other clotting factors
  2. Having an excess of fibrinogen and other clotting factors
  3. Absence of haemoglobin
  4. Absence of haemocyanin.

Answer: 1. Absence of fibrinogen and other clotting factors

Question 76. Tendons are composed chiefly of:

  1. Collagen fibres which form a criss-cross pattern
  2. Collagen fibres which run in our direction
  3. Etastin fibres which run in one direction
  4. Fibro-carilage.

Answer: 2. Collagen fibres which run in our direction

Structural Organisation In Animals MCQ For NEET Biology Question 77. The life span of blood platelets is:

  1. 3-5 days
  2. 7-8 days
  3. 100 days
  4. Unlimited.

Answer: 1. 3-5 days

Question 78. The junction of the two neurons is termed:

  1. Synapticula
  2. Synopsis
  3. Synapse
  4. Junction.

Answer: 3. Synapse

Question 79. The process of burning bones, till it become white is called:

  1. Calcination
  2. Decalcification
  3. Ossification
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Calcination

Question 80. Of the total inorganic components bone has calcium phosphate:

  1. 62%
  2. 10%
  3. 85%
  4. 5%

Answer: 3. 85%

Question 81. Muscle fibres are most close to:

  1. Nerve fibre
  2. Connective tissue
  3. Skeletal tissue
  4. Epithelial tissue.

Answer: 1. Nerve fibre

Question 82. The cells in blood that are most affected by changes in oxygen tension in the blood are:

  1. Basophils
  2. Monocytes
  3. Neutrophils
  4. Oxyphils.

Answer: 4. Oxyphils.

Structural Organisation In Animals MCQ For NEET Biology Question 83. For clotting of blood which of the following is necessary:

  1. Na+ and thromboplastin
  2. Ca++ and thromboplastin
  3. Na+ and k+
  4. Na+ and prothrombin.

Answer: 2. Ca++ and thromboplastin

Question 84. Goblet cells constitute:

  1. Stratified columnar and unicellular mucous glands
  2. Stratified columnar, unicellular mucous glands and modified columnar cells
  3. Stratified squamous epithelial cells
  4. All the above.

Answer: 2. Stratified columnar, unicellular mucous glands and modified columnar cells

Question 85. Due to the presence of Krause’s membranes, striated muscle is divided into many:

  1. Chromocentres
  2. Sarcomeres
  3. Micromeres
  4. Chromomeres.

Answer: 2. Sarcomeres

Question 86. Polycythemia refers to:

  1. Abnormal rise in total RBC count
  2. Different types of RBCs
  3. Fall in total RBC count
  4. Changes in the RBC cell count.

Answer: 1. Abnormal rise in total RBC count

Question 87. Extracellulartissue material in connective tissue is made of:

  1. Fat
  2. Carbohydrates
  3. Insoluble proteins
  4. Soluble proteins.

Answer: 3. Insoluble proteins

Question 88. Fibre-free extracellular materiai is seen predominantly in:

  1. Pia mater
  2. Dura mater
  3. Blood
  4. Matrix.

Answer: 3. Blood

Question 89. Megakaryocytes are normally formed in:

  1. Erythrocytes
  2. Chondrocytes
  3. Leucocytes
  4. Bone marrow.

Answer: 4. Bone marrow.

Question 90. Great tensile strength is characteristic of:

  1. White fibrocartilage tissue
  2. Tendon
  3. Bone
  4. Areolar tissue.

Answer: 3. Bone

Solved NEET MCQs On Animal Tissues Question 91. The nasal septum has:

  1. White fibrocartilage
  2. Cartilage
  3. Hyaline cartilage
  4. Elastic cartilage.

Answer: 4. Elastic cartilage.

Question 92. The Dermis of the skin of a mammal is a structure produced by:

  1. The regeneration cells of the skin
  2. The malpighian layer
  3. The dermal cell
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 4. None of the above.

Question 93. Hair in mammals is:

  1. Epidermal structures
  2. Mesodermal structures
  3. Dermal structures
  4. Endodermal derivatives.

Answer: 1. Epidermal structures

Question 94. Mammary glands in nature are:

  1. Apocrine
  2. Merocrine
  3. Holocrine
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Apocrine

Question 95. Large sweat glands are found on:

  1. External ears
  2. Tip of nose
  3. Areola mammary
  4. Back side of the body.

Answer: 3. Areola mammary

Question 96. The modification of the skin at the terminal part of the dorsal surface of phalanges results in the foundation of:

  1. Wrinkles
  2. Nails
  3. Hair
  4. Feathers.

Answer: 2. Nails

Solved NEET MCQs On Animal Tissues Question 97. It red blood corpuscles are placed in distilled Water, they will:

  1. Shrink and collapse
  2. Increase in volume and burst
  3. Stick together
  4. Remain normal.

Answer: 2. Increase in volume and burst

Question 98. Bacteria and other pathogens are removed from bio-oil by:

  1. Killing them with toxins
  2. Phagocytosis by RBC’s
  3. Phagocytosis by WBS’s
  4. Blood coagulation around them.

Answer: 3. Phagocytosis by WBS’s

Question 99. Nerve cells originate from embryonic:

  1. Ectoderm
  2. Mesoderm
  3. Endoderm
  4. Both (1) and (2).

Answer: 1. Ectoderm

Question 100. Dark A-bands and light l-bands occur in:

  1. Cardiac muscles only
  2. Striated muscles
  3. Involuntary muscles
  4. Unstriped muscles.

Answer: 2. Striated muscles

Question 101. Cardiac muscles are striated with fibres being:

  1. Syncytial and voluntary
  2. Multinucleated
  3. Nucleated and voluntary
  4. Nucleated and involuntary.

Answer: 4. Nucleated and involuntary.

Question 102. If a clean dry bone (For Example. the femur of a frog) is kept in dil. HCl for about 3 days, it:

  1. Breaks into pieces
  2. Becomes soft and elastic
  3. Dissolves
  4. Remains unchanged.

Answer: 2. Becomes soft and elastic

Solved NEET MCQs On Animal Tissues Question 103. The collection of nerve cells inside the central nervous system is known as:

  1. Ganglia
  2. Nucleus
  3. Association neurons
  4. Adjustor neuron.

Answer: 1. Ganglia

Question 104. In which of the following organs squamous epithelium is likely to be found as a lining?

  1. Uterus
  2. Gall bladder
  3. Intestine
  4. Blood vessels.

Answer: 4. Blood vessels.

Question 105. The cells secreting heparin and serotonin are:

  1. Lymphoid cells
  2. Mast cells
  3. Fibroblasts
  4. Macrophages.

Answer: 2. Mast cells

Mcq On Animal Tissues Question 106. Bone marrow is largely composed of:

  1. Periosteum and osteoblasts
  2. Adipose tissue and blood vessels
  3. Yellow and elastic tissue
  4. Cartilage and elastic tissue.

Answer: 1. Periosteum and osteoblasts

Question 107. Serotonin in the blood:

  1. Relaxes blood vessels
  2. Helps in clotting of blood vessels
  3. Constricts blood vessels
  4. Prevents clotting of blood.

Answer: 3. Constricts blood vessels

Question 108. The marrow cavity present at the end of a long bone is internally lined by:

  1. Periosteum
  2. Endosteum
  3. Epiosteum
  4. Sarcolemma.

Answer: 1. Periosteum

Question 109. Which of the following damaged cells cannot be repaired?

  1. Dermal cells
  2. Bone cells
  3. Brain cells
  4. Liver cells.

Answer: 3. Brain cells

Question 110. Which of the following is responsible for the regeneration of cartilage?

  1. Collagenous fibres
  2. Blood vessels
  3. Perichondrium
  4. Matrix.

Answer: 3. Perichondrium

Mcq On Animal Tissues Question 111. The chief regulators of mammalian blood composition are:

  1. Heart and arteries
  2. Liver and kidneys
  3. Lungs and pancreas
  4. Thyroid and parathyroid glands.

Answer: 2. Liver and kidneys

Question 112. Polymorphonuclear leucocytes are:

  1. Granulocytes
  2. Agranulocytes
  3. Lymphocytes
  4. Monocytes.

Answer: 1. Granulocytes

Question 113. The covering of the heart muscles is known as:

  1. Pericardium
  2. Pia mater
  3. Peritoneum
  4. Pleural membrane.

Answer: 1. Pericardium

Question 114. The ends of the thrones are covered with elastic rubber-like things called:

  1. Cartilage
  2. Muscles
  3. Tendons
  4. Ligaments.

Answer: 4. Ligaments.

Question 115. The type of cartilage seen in the epiglottis is:

  1. Fibrous cartilage
  2. Elastic cartilage
  3. Hyaline cartilage
  4. Calcified cartilage.

Answer: 2. Elastic cartilage

Question 116. Brush border is a peculiarity of:

  1. Secretory cells
  2. Absorptive cells
  3. Trone cells
  4. Nerve cells.

Answer: 2. Absorptive cells

Animal Tissue Recommended MCQs  Question 117. The stratified epithelium in which the outermost layer becomes keratinized is found in:

  1. Skin
  2. Vagina
  3. Nasal chamber
  4. Lips.

Answer: 1. Skin

Question 118. Histiocytes found in connective tissue are helpful in:

  1. Forming the blood cells after division
  2. Collecting at the place of bacterial infection
  3. Phagocytizing the sand particles
  4. All the above.

Answer: 3. Phagocytizing the sand particles

Question 119. Which of the following secretes the bulk of the antibodies in the body?

  1. Macrophages
  2. Plasma cells
  3. Fibroblasts
  4. Mast cells.

Answer: 2. Fibroblasts

Question 120. The cartilage found in the external ear and epiglottis is:

  1. Fibrous cartilage
  2. Elastic cartilage
  3. Hyaline cartilage
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Elastic cartilage

Question 121. The neck of the tubular gland of the stomach consists of mainly:

  1. Chief cells
  2. Mucous cells
  3. Parietal cells
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Mucous cells

Animal Tissue Recommended MCQs  Question 122. Although the heart is an involuntary organ the fibres are different from the smooth muscle fibres in possessing:

  1. Tendons
  2. Sarcosryles
  3. Sarcoplasm
  4. Stratification.

Answer: 4. Stratification.

Question 123. The similarity between voluntary muscle fibres and cardiac muscle fibres is that they are both:

  1. Syncytic
  2. Branched
  3. Unbranched
  4. Non-nuclear.

Answer: 1. Syncytic

Question 124. Blood is formed of:

  1. Plasma and cells formed in bone marrow
  2. Plasma and R.B.C.
  3. Plasma and blood platelets
  4. Plasma and W.B.C.

Answer: 1. Plasma and cells formed in bone marrow

Question 125. Which type of tissue changes the diameter of blood vessels?

  1. Epithelial
  2. Connective
  3. Nenous
  4. Muscular.
  5. Answer: 4. Muscular.

126. The camel’s hump is composed of a tissue which provides water when oxidized; it is:

  1. Skeletal
  2. Muscular
  3. Adipose
  4. Areolar.

Answer: 3. Adipose

Question 127. The umbilical cord is:

  1. A mucous connective tissue
  2. A fibrous tissue
  3. An embryonic connective tissue
  4. An adult connective tissue.

Answer: 3. An embryonic connective tissue

Question 128. The adipose tissue is composed of a mixture of:

  1. Stearin and olein
  2. Olein and palmitin
  3. Stearin, palmatine and olein
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Stearin, palmatine and olein

Animal Tissue Recommended MCQs  Question 129. The Myofibrils of a muscle fibre contain:

  1. Myosin
  2. Actin
  3. ATPase
  4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 130. In the axon of a motor nerve fibre, the nerve impulse travels:

  1. Towards the cell body
  2. Away from the cell body
  3. Away from the synapse
  4. In both directions.

Answer: 2. Away from the cell body

Question 131. What type of dense connective tissue is tunica albuginea?

  1. Loose
  2. Tough fibrous
  3. Vascular
  4. Mucous connective tissue

Answer: 2. Tough fibrous

Structural Organisation In Animals MCQ For NEET Biology Question 132. The Matrix of a bone is composed of:

  1. Chondrin
  2. Ostein
  3. Auxin
  4. Ossein.

Answer: 4. Ossein.

Question 133. Unstriped muscle fibres are found in:

  1. Thigh
  2. Iris
  3. Tongue
  4. Eye muscles.

Answer: 2. Iris

Question 134. Scheiderian epithelium is found in:

  1. Trachea
  2. Nasal passage
  3. Bowman’s capsule
  4. Loop of Henle.

Answer: 2. Nasal passage

Question 135. A sprain is caused by excessive pulling of:

  1. Muscles
  2. Ligaments
  3. Tendons
  4. Nerves.

Answer: 2. Ligaments

Question 136. Which of the following cells are found to be constant inhabitants of loose connective tissue?

  1. Fibroblasts, histiocytes, mast cells, plasma cells and wandering haemocytes
  2. Fibres and haemocytes
  3. Fibroblasts and histiocytes
  4. Mast cells and amoebocytes.

Answer: 3. Fibroblasts and histiocytes

Question 137. Which type of tissue forms the thin surface for gas exchange in the lungs?

  1. Connective
  2. Nervous
  3. Epithelial
  4. Muscular.

Answer: 3. Epithelial

Structural Organisation In Animals MCQ For NEET Biology Question 138. The component of blood responsible for producing antibodies is:

  1. Thrombocytes
  2. Monocytes
  3. Lymphocytes
  4. Erythrocytes.

Answer: 3. Lymphocytes

Question 139. The thick sheath of connective tissue enclosing the entire peripheral nerve is known as:

  1. Epineurium
  2. Perineurium
  3. Endoneurium
  4. Amphicyte.

Answer: 1. Epineurium

Question 140. Possible function of Nissl bodies is:

  1. Protein synthesis
  2. RNA synthesis
  3. RNA storage
  4. Impulse conduction.

Answer: 1. Protein synthesis

Question 141. Cells which secrete histamine occur in:

  1. Liver
  2. Lungs
  3. Connective tissue
  4. Stomach.

Answer: 3. Connective tissue

Question 142. Which of the tissues is most widely distributed in the body forming major Parts?

  1. Nervous tissue
  2. Muscular tissue
  3. Epithelial tissue
  4. Connective tissue.

Answer: 4. Connective tissue.

Question 143. The pinna is made up of:

  1. Bone
  2. Tendon
  3. Ligament
  4. Cartilage.

Answer: 4. Cartilage.

Question 144. Neurosecretory cells secrete:

  1. Releasing factors
  2. Enzymes
  3. Sweat
  4. Mucus.

Answer: 1. Releasing factors

Structural Organisation In Animals MCQ For NEET Biology Question 145. Cartilage receives its nutrition through:

  1. Diffusion
  2. Lymphatic channels
  3. Hlnod vessels
  4. Diffusion and imbibation.

Answer: 1. Diffusion

Question 146. Which one of the following cartilages helps in the easy birth of young ones without damage to the pelvic girdle?

  1. Hyaline Cartilage
  2. Fibrous Cartilage
  3. Elastic Cartilage
  4. None Of The Above.

Answer: 2. Fibrous Cartilage

Question 147. The fibrous membrane surrounding the several bundles of nerve fibres is:

  1. Myelin sheath
  2. Perineurium
  3. Epineurium
  4. Neurilemma.

Answer: 3. Epineurium

Question 148. Redbone marrow is Present in:

  1. Tips of long bones
  2. Tips for Short Bones
  3. Bones of skull
  4. Shafts of longlines

Answer: 1. Tips for long bones

Question 149. In the elastic cartilage, the arrangement of elastic fibres in the ground substance is:

  1. Parallel
  2. Diagonal
  3. Random
  4. In branched anastomoses.

Answer: 4. In branched anastomoses.

Question 150. The goblet cells of intestinal epithelium are examples of:

  1. Unicellular glands
  2. Multicellular glands
  3. Squamous epithelium
  4. Striated epithelium.

Answer: 1. Unicellular glands

Question 151. Haversian canals are found in:

  1. Bone
  2. Cartilage
  3. Liver
  4. Spleen

Answer: 1. Bone

Question 152. Cartilage is made up of cells called:

  1. Chondrocytes
  2. Lymphocytes
  3. Monocytes
  4. Phagocytes

Answer: 1. Chondrocytes

Question 153. The process of formation of various types of blood cells is known as:

  1. Hemagglutination
  2. Hemolysis
  3. Haemophilia
  4. Haemopoiesis.

Answer: 4. Haemopoiesis.

Question 154. Which of the following statements is false?

  1. RBCs are called leucocytes
  2. Platelets are also called thrombocytes.
  3. In blood, O2 is mainly carried in combination with haemoglobin
  4. WBCs form a part of the body’s defence mechanism

Answer: 1. RBCs are called leucocytes

Question 155. Skeletal muscles develop from:

  1. The ectoderm
  2. The mesoderm
  3. The endoderm
  4. Al1 of above.

Answer: 2. The mesoderm

Question 156. Stratified squamous epithelium is found in:

  1. Trachea
  2. Epidermis
  3. Mouth cavity
  4. The lining of blood vessels.

Answer: 2. Epidermis

Question 157. Decrease in number of leucocytes is:

  1. Leukaemia
  2. Leucopenia
  3. Polyerythermia
  4. Hemolysis.

Answer: 2. Leucopenia

Structural Organisation In Animals MCQ For NEET Biology Question 158. Bones are connected by:

  1. Tendons
  2. Ligament
  3. Muscles
  4. Cartilage.

Answer: 2. Ligament

Question 159. Haversian canals are present in:

  1. Frog’s bones
  2. Mammalian bone
  3. Bird’s bone
  4. All of the above.

Answer: 2. Mammalian bone

Question 160. The internal lining ofblood vessel is called:

  1. Mesothelium
  2. Stratified epithelium
  3. Endothelium
  4. Ciliated epithelium.

Answer: 3. Endothelium

Question 161. Normal connective tissues are absent in:

  1. Heart
  2. CNS
  3. Kidney
  4. Liver.

Answer: 2. CNS

Question 162. Longitudinal channels of bone are called:

  1. Lacunae
  2. Marrow cavity
  3. Haversian canal
  4. Volkman’s canal.

Answer: 3. Haversian canal

Question 163. The different processes of neurons are:

  1. Dendron
  2. Cyton
  3. Axon
  4. Neurofibrils.

Answer: 3. Axon

Question 164. Abnormal rise in the total count of RBC is called:

  1. Leukaemia
  2. Leucopenia
  3. Thrombocytosis
  4. Polycythemia.

Answer: 4. Polycythemia.

Question 165. Hirudin, a biological substance found in leech, helps in:

  1. Coagulation of blood
  2. Digestion of blood
  3. Hydrolyzing fibrinogen to fibrin
  4. Prevents clotting of blood.

Answer: 4. Prevents clotting of blood.

Question 166. Sarcosome is the term given to:

  1. ER of muscles
  2. The functional unit of muscle fibre
  3. Mitochondria of muscles
  4. The sheath around muscle fibre.

Answer: 3. Mitochondria of muscles

Question 167. Erythropoiesis is:

  1. Lysis of erythrocytes
  2. Formation of erythrocytes
  3. Agglutination of RBC
  4. Clumping of RBC.

Answer: 2. Formation of erythrocytes

Structural Organisation In Animals MCQ For NEET Biology Question 168. Histogenesis is:

  1. Differentiation of tissues from one another
  2. Disintegration of tissue
  3. Study of tissues
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Differentiation of tissues from one another

Question 169. Which of the following is correct?

  1. Neuron, neuroglia, medullary sheath, myosin
  2. Prothrombin, heparin, fibrinogen thromboplastin
  3. Cyton, axon, dendron, nice granules
  4. Neurilemma, z-band, myelin, neurofibril.

Answer: 3. Cyton, axon, dendron, nice granules

Question 170. Histamine is released by:

  1. Fibroblasts
  2. Mast cells
  3. Histiocytes
  4. Plasma cells.

Answer: 2. Mast cells

NEET Biology Animal Tissue Notes

NEET Biology Animal Tissue

A group of structurally similar or dissimilar cells along with intercellular material, of common embryonic origin and performing a definite function is called tissue. Cells of tissue can recognise each other.

  • The term tissue was introduced in Biology by Bichct (French surgeon).
  • Although Marcello Malpighi (Italian scientist) founded a separate branch of Histology for the study of tissues, the name histology was given by Meyer (1819) and it is synonymous with “microanatomy”.

The usefulness of Histology.

  1. To understand the formation or construction of organs.
  2. To investigate the correlation between structures and functions of an organ.
  3. To be quite familiar with the normal cells and tissues and to distinguish them from abnormal or diseased ones. It helps in the diagnosis of many diseases.

Animal Tissues NEET Notes

Kinds of tissues

They are of four major, primary or basic types.

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Notes

  1. Epithelial tissue (covering and glandular tissue).
  2. Connective tissue (supporting tissue).
  3. Muscular tissue (contractile tissue).
  4. Nervous tissue

Animal Tissue Notes for NEET Biology

NEET Biology Epithelial Tissue

(Gr., ep. = upon; + thelia = grows). These occur as one or more layers of cells upon all external and internal exposed surfaces of the body and various organs forming a protective covering. The term epithelium was introduced by Dutch anatomist Ruysch.

  • Epithelial tissue consists of variously shaped cells closely placed with very little cementing material formed of glycoprotein secreted by cells.
  • Cells may be held together by modification of plasma membranes such as interdigitations, tight junctions (zonula occludens), desmosomes (macula adherens), gap junctions and terminal bars (zonula adherens).
  • These cells rest on a permeable basement membrane or basal lamina composed of protein-bound mucopolysaccharides and glycoproteins. Both are secreted by epithelial cells and layers of reticular fibres of the underlying connective tissue.

Epithelial cells which line cavities may bear microvilli (simple minute protoplasmic processes) stereocilia (long cytoplasmic processes) or cilia/flagella (contractile and motile, 9+2 arrangement, arising from basal granules).

  • Epithelia serve a variety of functions such as protection, formation of exoskeleton, secretion, absorption, respiration, sensation, conduction, excretion, reproduction and pigmentation.
  • Cavities and ducts which communicate to the outside (alimentary canal, respiratory tract, urinogenital tract) are internally lined by epithelium containing mucus-secreting cells (=goblet cells) and along with lamina propria (underlying connective tissue) constitute mucous membrane.
  • The cells lining the closed body cavities (coelom, pleural cavity, parietal cavity) secrete watery fluid and along with underlying connective tissues constitute a serous membrane.

Origin of various epithelial tissues

  • From ectoderm. Epidermis of skin, epithelial lining of mouth, nose and anus, hair, nail, oil, mammary glands, sweat and salivary glands, taste buds, enamel of tooth, adrenal medulla etc.
  • From mesoderm. Endothelium, mesothelium and mesenchymal epithelium, adrenal cortex, certain parts of urinogenital tract etc.
  • From endoderni. Epithelium of the digestive tract from the pharynx downward, the epithelium of the respiratory tract from the larynx downward, the inner lining of the urinary bladder, the inner lining of the deep vagina, cells of the thyroid and parathyroid glands etc.

Classification Of Epithelial Tissue

Animal Tissues Classification OF Epithelial Tissue

NEET Biology Glandular Tissues

  • Gland. A cell or group of cells or an organ which secretes a useful secretion is called a gland (Chalice—gland cell).
  • Exocrine gland. A structure whose secretion is passed directly or by ducts to its exterior surface or other parts is called an exocrine gland.
  • Endocrine gland. A ductless structure whose secretion (hormone) is passed into the bloodstream is called an endocrine gland.
  • Holocrine gland. A structure whose cells undergo dissolution and are entirely extended, together with the secretory product, is called the holocrine gland For Example. sebaceous glands of mammals.
  • Heterocrine gland. An exocrine gland as well as an endocrine gland is termed a heterocrine gland For Example., Pancreas.

Animal Tissues NEET Notes

Types Of Exocrine Glands

Animal Tissues Types Of Exocrine Glands

NEET Biology Muscular Tissue

All muscles originate from the mesoderm. The muscle cells (fibres) are highly specialized elongated, slender and cylindrical or spindle-shaped. They are highly contractile (contracting to 1/3 rd or 1/2 of the resting length).

  • Muscle cells lose the capacity to divide, multiply and regenerate to a great extent. The study of muscle is called mycology.
  • In each muscle fibre myofibrils or sarcostyle are present. Myofibrils are formed of proteins actin, myosin and tropomyosin.

The endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria present in muscle fibres are called sarcoplasmic reticulum and sarcosomes respectively.

They are of three kinds :

  1. Striated muscle fibres
  2. Smooth muscle fibres, and
  3. Cardiac muscle fibres.

Differences between three types of muscle fibres

Animal Tissues Differences Between Three Types Of Muscle Fibres

  • Striated (somatic) muscles are also called phasic type of muscles because they
    produce rapid, but brief movement of concerned organs.
  • Striated muscles are of two kinds, white (fast) fibres and red (slow) fibres.
  • Three soluble proteins albumin, myoglobin and myogen, some enzymes, glycogen granules and lipid droplets are found in sarcoplasm.
  • Striated muscle fibres are syncytial because each fibre is formed by the fusion of several embryonic stem cells called myoblasts.
  • A-band and I-band are formed of proteins actin and myosin.
  • A-band (Anisotropic) contains about 100 Å thick and 1.5 μm long myosin filaments.
  • I-band (Isotropic) contains 50 Å thick and 1.0 μm long actin filaments which are twice as many as myosin filaments.
  • The sarcomere is the functional unit of contraction. It is the part between two adjacent Z-bands or Krause’s membrane.
  • Slender transverse line the M-or-Hansen’s line is present in the middle of the H band.
  • Smooth muscles may be multi-unit smooth muscles (ciliary muscles and muscles of iris, arrector pili, muscles of large blood vessels) or single units (arranged in sheets).

NEET Biology Connective Tissue

They are mesodermal in origin and form about 30% of body mass. Hertwig (1883) introduced the term mesenchyma for connective tissue.

Types Of Animal Tissues NEET Biology

Special features.

  • It comprises cells, fibers, and a matrix.
  • Cells consist of many sorts, and fibers are categorized into three types: collagen (white), elastin (yellow), and reticular.
  • The matrix is an amorphous, gelatinous, colloidal medium.
  • It occupies and fills interstitial areas surrounding organs.
  • It links multiple organs.
  • It provides a framework of skeletal bones, cartilages, and other components.
  • It substitutes damaged tissues through processes such as scar tissue development.
  • It provides immunity by the production of antibodies or by the phagocytosis of foreign entities.
  • It comprises a limited number of cells and a substantial amount of cementing material.
  • In comparison to epithelium, the proliferative potential of cells is significantly diminished.
  • Connective tissue cells typically secrete the extracellular matrix.

Connective tissue is categorized into three types based on its structure:

1. Proper connective tissue (matrix is a resilient, gelatinous substance)

2. Skeletal Connective Tissue (Matrix infused with salts)

3. Fluid Connective Tissue, also known as Vascular Tissue The matrix is in a dynamic condition.

4. Connective Tissue

Animal Tissues Connective Tissue

Four basic constituents of connective tissue are:

  • Cellular components—fixed and wandering cells;
  • Fibrous components—collagen and elastic fibres;
  • Supporting matrix;
  • Fluid (in fluid tissue only).
  • Dust cells-Muemphugcs of connective tissues of septa of lung
  • Tropocollagen—Collagen fibres.
  • Reticular fibres: Delicate, freely branching and inelastic fibres of reticulin protein found interwoven, Abundant in embryos of new babies and healing and regenerative wounds.
  • In the areolar tissue of adults, they are replaced by collagen but in blood-forming cells are abundant.
  • Due to the presence of abundant collagen fibre, the skin dermis of large mammals yields leather after a chemical treatment called tanning.
  • Subcutaneous tissue (Panniculus adiposis or blubber) hump of a camel, Thick tail of marine sheep skin.

Ground substance of cartilage, firm gel-like and transparent. Chondro niucoprolcin is formed of chondroitin sulphur and mucoprotein. It provides rigidity, elasticity and resilience.

  • Functions of white fibrous tissue at the joint between skull bones: formation of immovable joints.
  • Bone marrow is first affected by nuclear radiation.
  • Bone marrow is a special kind of tissue called myelogenous tissue.
  • Haversian canals are fine canaliculi which extend from bone marrow to the surface of the mammalian bone.
  • The canals which connect Haversian canals are called Volkman’s canals.

Harversian systems are absent in the spongy bones of mammals.

  • Necrosis. Area of dead tissue surrounded by a healthy area.
  • The recticulo-endothelial system was given by Aschoff.
  • Brown Fat. Present between neck and shoulders in hibernating mammals (bats, squirrels); produces a large amount of heat; highly vascularised; each adipocyte has many small fat globules (multilocular). centrally placed nucleus. The cytochrome oxidase of mitochondria gives the fat its brown colour. Heat is released by very rapid metabolism and is quickly distributed by ample blood circulation.
  • Brown fat is found in those mammals which have an oxidation power of 20 times more than that of yellow fat because brown fat cells are loaded with a large number of
    mitochondria.

In the white (yellow) fat, each adipocyte has a single large fat globule that squeezes the cytoplasm to a peripheral layer containing the nucleus.

  • Gelatinous marrow: In old age marrow of cranial bones undergoes degeneration and is called gelatinous marrow.
  • Ancient mummies still have their arteries intact due to elastic fibres.
  • Collagen fibres are firm and most abundant fibres.
  • Collagen. The most abundant protein (about 40% of total protein content) of the body.
  • On boiling, the collagen protein of the white fibres changes into gelatin protein.
  • Wrinkling in old age is due to collagen fibres with diminishing rigidity.

Types Of Animal Tissues NEET Biology

Tegument is the name given to the body covering in flatworms.

  • The horns of a rhinoceros are formed of keratin protein.
  • Keratin is also a pigment of hair giving black colour. If skin fails to synthesize it, premature greying of hair takes place.
  • Bone-dissolving cells are called osteoclasts.
  • Bone is the hardest tissue of the body.

The thick fibrous connective tissue layer periosteum surrounds the bones.

  • Mucous tissue. It is mostly an embryonic connective tissue. It consists of a gelatinous matrix with scattered cells bearing fine branching processes. Example: Wharton’s jelly in the umbilical cord.
  • Excessive stretching of ligaments is called sprain.
  • As the matrix of cartilage is non-vascular, so an injured cartilage takes a long period to heal.

Astronauts pass calcium in their urine due to the faster breaking down of bones due to the absence of gravitational pull.

  • Mummies: Preservation of elastic fibres of the body by chemical treatment.
  • Aponeurosis: Bands of white fibrous connective tissue in which fibres are interwoven and thinner.
  • Kupffer’s cells: are modified reticulocytes of the liver and act as phagocytes.
  • Pigmented connective tissue is characterized by the presence of chromatophores (pigment cells) in the matrix and is found in the iris and choroid of the eye.
  • Notochord: Skeletal connective tissue rod of the embryonic stage of all chordates.
  • Pneumatic bones: These contain air cavities and are found in birds.
  • Os-penis: A bone found in the penis of rodents.
  • Os-codis: Bone in the heart of some ungulate (ruminants)
  • Os-palpebrae: Bone in the eyelids of crocodiles.

Blood

An individual weighing approximately 70 kg possesses around 5 to 5.5 liters of blood. Adult individuals possess 6.8 liters of blood.

  • Each red blood cell undergoes around 50,000 circulations in the body prior to hemolysis.
  • The lifespan of red blood cells is 50-70 days in rabbits, 100 days in frogs, and 115-120 days in humans.
  • Excess red blood cells are retained in the spleen.
  • Red blood cells are lysed at a rate of 2.5 million per second, equating to approximately 1.1% of the total red blood cells every day.
  • The hemoglobin count for males ranges from 14.5 to 15.5 grams per 100 milliliters of blood, whereas for females it ranges from 13.5 to 14.5 grams per 100 milliliters.
  • The fetus weighs 23 grams per 100 milliliters of blood.
  • Heme C3O32H74816 O872 N780 S8 Fe4
  • In fish, amphibians, reptiles, and birds, erythrocytes are typically nucleated, oval, and biconvex.
  • A lack of vitamin B12 (cyanocobalamin) and folic acid in the blood results in leukopenia. Amphibian red blood cells are the largest among vertebrates.
  • Amphimna and Proteusarc are the largest amphibians, measuring 0.25mm. Mammals possess the smallest red blood cells among vertebrates.

The musk deer possess the smallest size among mammals, but the hill people exhibit a higher concentration of red blood cells. The concave morphology of mammalian red blood cells enhances their surface area.

NEET Biology Nervous tissue

Special features

  • It is a highly specialized tissue for generating and conducting impulses.
  • The human nervous system has about 100 billion neurons.
  • Nervous tissue is ectodermal in origin.
  • Each neuron arises in the embryo from a single cell called a neuroblast.
  • Due to a high degree of specialization, the cells (neurons) lose their ability to divide. Hence, a neuron is lost forever.
  • The cells may be very long
  • some neurons are up to 1 metre long.
  • The neurons typically show a cyton with many branches neurites i.e., small dendrites, and a long branch—the axon.

Cytyn shows Nissl’s granules—which arc chromophilic bodies formed of rough ER having ribosomes.

The axon (axis cylinder) may be covered with a covering of white sheath (the myelin sheath). Such a nerve fibre is called nicdullaled or myelinated nerve fibre. If the sheath is absent the fibre is called Non-incdullatcd or Non- myelinated nerve fibre.

  • Myelin sheath shows constrictions at regular intervals, called Nodes of Ranvier.
  • The myelin sheath insulates nerve fibres and increases the speed of conduction.
  • Functionally the nerve fibres are divided into two categories—afferent fibres (carrying impulses from receptor organ to CNS) and efferent fibres (carrying impulses from CNS to effector organs like muscles or glands). In other words, neurons exhibit polarity in the conduction of impulses. There is unidirectional conduction of impulse.
  • The axon of one neuron lies in close contact with the dendrites of another neuron. The neurilemma of both these processes arc intact, hence there is no cytoplasmic continuity in two neurons, such a place of contact between two neurons is called the synapse. It has been discovered that the ends of axons release minute quantities of neurohumoral substances e.g. Acetylcholine in cholinergic nerve fibres and nor-adrenaline in adrenergic fibres.
  • Neuron. Largest cell in the body. Its long process (axon) is its integral part. It lacks centrioles.
  • Name and Functions:
    1. Schwann Cells-Synthesises myelin sheath
    2. Nodes of Ranvier
      1. Ionic changes and consequent depolarization take place here in myelinated nerve fibres,
      2. Helps in saltatory conduction.
    3. Myelin Sheath—acts as an electrical insulator and thus prevents depolarization.
    4. Dendrite-receives impulses and passes them from one nerve cell to another.
    5. Nissl’s granules—help in protein synthesis (they are made up of ribosomes).

Types Of Animal Tissues NEET Biology

Nervous Tissue

Animal Tissues Nervous Tissue

NEET Biology Compound Histology

V.S. of Skin of Frog

The skin of a frog is thin, moist, smooth, loosely fitting, slimy, naked (without scales), darker on the dorsal and paler on the ventral side.

It is formed of two layers:

  1. Epidermis,
  2. Dermis

1. Epidermis. The epidermis, ectodermal in origin, is 5-6 layers in thickness. Stratum germinativum (or Stratum Malpighi) continuously produces cells which are pushed upwards and communication takes place.

  • The stratum corneum is the upper layer of flattened often dead cells. Just beneath the epidermis chromatophores (pigment cells) are present, which impart colour to the skin.
  • The outer, upper layer of the epidermis is the stratum corneum which consists of flat dead, keratinised cells.

2. Dennis. The dermis, mesodermal in origin and thicker than the epidermis, consists of two layers—stratum compactum and stratum spongiosum. Stratum spongiosum contains round bodies of mucus and poison glands. It also contains loose fibrous connective tissue and blood vessels.

  • The underlying stratum compactum has many collagen fibres making it a dense and tough layer. The skin colour of vertebrates is almost entirely due to pigment-containing cells called chromatophores, located in the outer part of the dermis.
  • Chromatophores are star-like in shape. According to their contents, they are divided into three types: Melanophores, containing melanin, Lipophores, containing red or yellow carotenoid pigments, and Guanophores with crystals of an organic substance, Guanine.

By concentrating the colour pigment granules in the centre of the cell or by spreading them throughout the cells, colour changes in skin are brought about. Chromatophores are capable of amoeboid movement and movement of a specific type of chromatophore also helps to change skin colour.

Animal Tissues Vertical Section Of The Skin Of Frog

Glands in the skin of Frog :

Animal Tissues Glands In The Skin Of Frog

V.S. Mammalian Skin

Animal Tissues V.S. Of Mammalian Skin

Epithelial Tissue Functions NEET Study Material

T.S. of Mammalian stomach shows the following regions (from periphery to inward) :

  1. The serous coat or visceral peritoneum or serosa is the outermost layer, continuous with the mesentery formed of flattened squamous epithelial cells. Inner to it lies a layer of connective tissue called sub-serosa which connects it with the muscular coat.
  2. Muscular coat or Tunica muscularis (Muscularis externa). It is a thicker layer formed of unstriped muscle fibres arranged in three layers, namely outer longitudinal, middle circular and inner oblique. The sympathetic mesenteric plexus or plexus of Auerbach lies between circular and longitudinal muscles.
  3. Sub-mucosa. It is a layer of loose connective tissue containing lymphocytes. leucocytes, mast cells, blood vessels and lymph vessels. It provides elasticity and stretching. A plexus of Meissner lies between the oblique muscles and the submucosa.
  4. The mucosa forms the innermost coat and is separated from the submucosa by muscularis mucosae. The middle layer is called lamina propria formed of connective tissue. Internally it is lined by simple columnar epithelial cells.
    • The mucosa is folded into grooves and divided by grooves into gastric areas or gastric pits. In the columnar epithelium, three types of gastric glands are present, namely gastric or fundic, pyloric and cardiac glands.
    • They are supported by a layer of connective tissue called lamina propria.

All these glands have three types of cells, i.e. chief cells or zymogen cells producing digestive enzymes, parietal or oxyntic cells producing HC1 and mucous cells producing mucus.

Animal Tissues T.S. Of Mammalian Stomach (Part Only)

Animal Tissues T.S. Of Intestine

Histological differences between Stomach and Intestine

Animal Tissues Histology Difference Between Stomach And Intestine

T.S. of Spleen

The spleen is a soft dark brown organ present on the left side of the abdominal cavity.

  • It is highly vascular and covered by a visceral layer of peritoneum. A fibrous capsule formed of fibrous connective tissue surrounds it from all sides.
  • From the capsule arise cylindrical or flattened projections into the substance of the spleen called trabeculae.

In the spaces surrounding the trabeculae, two lymphatic tissues are distinguished called red and white pulp.

Animal Tissues T.S. Of Spleen

The red pulp consists of erythrocytes, blood capillaries and blood sinuses; while the white pulp consists of reticular fibres. The amount of red pulp is more than the white pulp.

The spleen removes die-disintegrated RBCs from the blood that pass into it and also acts as a storehouse of blood cells, even producing RBCs during the embryonic stage. The plasma cells of the spleen produce antibodies.

T.S. of Kidney

  • An excretory organ covered by a fibrous sheath called a capsule shows the outer granular cortex region and inner striated medulla region in a vertical section. Three main types of tissues are found in the kidney i.e., blood capillaries, connective tissue and Kidney tubules or nephrons.
  • Each kidney is made up of many tiny microscopic filters called nephrons or uriniferous tubules. Each nephron consists of a small cup-shaped structure called Bowman’s capsule lined by squamous epithelium, which along with a network of capillaries, and glomerulus, forms a malpighian body lying in the cortex.
  • A tiny winding tubule lined by cuboidal epithelium with ciliated cells at places comes from each capsule differentiated into the proximal convoluted part, Loop of Henle and the distal convoluted part which opens into collecting tubules.

T.S. of Testis

A male gonad is composed of a large number of seminiferous tubules surrounded by connective tissue in which occur numerous cells called Interstitial cells or Leydig’s cells.

  • The testis is covered by a layer of dense connective tissue called tunica albuginea. The seminiferous tubules are coiled structures lined by a layer of germinal epithelial cells.
  • In between the germinal cells, certain large cells called Sertoli (nurse) cells are present. The germinal epithelial cells give rise to sperms.

They are in various stages of development like spermatogonia, primary spermatocytes, secondary spermatocytes and spermatids by a process known as spermatogenesis.

Epithelial Tissue Functions NEET Study Material

Animal Tissues T.S. Of Testis

T.S. of Ovary

Animal Tissues T.S. Of Mammalian Ovary

Its central part is called the stroma. It contains blood capillaries and nerve fibres. The outer part is called the cortex. A large number of Graafian follicles are embedded in the cortical layer.

  • Each follicle is sac-shaped and contains a female germ cell. It develops from the germinal epithelial layer.
  • In a sexually mature female the follicles are all at different stages of development and of different sizes giving rise to one ovum by the process known as oogenesis.

In the connective tissue is present corpus luteum formed at the site of ruptured Graafian follicle, which secretes a hormone called progesterone.

Histology of liver 

The largest gland in the body is a dark red, spongy structure that is located under the dome of the diaphragm. It partially covers the stomach and duodenum, which is what maintains it in its proper position. The complete liver is enveloped by a fold of peritoneum.

  • Inner to its connective tissue layer is a structure known as Glisson’s capsule. The liver is composed of numerous hepatic lobules in a histological sense.
  • The liver cells, known as hepatocytes, are polyhedral and are arranged in cords or rows, which are in direct contact with blood capillaries and blood spaces or sinusoids.
  • The Kupffer cells are phagocytic. The endothelium of the sinusoid is incomplete, and they are anchored to the wall. In the center of each hepatic lobule, there is an intra-tubular vein, and at its angles, there are portal canals.

The latter is enclosed in a capsule of loose connective tissue forming a perivascular fibrous capsule which is continuous with Glisson’s capsule. Each portal canal encloses branches of the hepatic artery, hepatic portal vein, lymph vessels and bile ducts.

  • Henson’s line (H-zone). Light line or zone of dark band (A-band).
  • Z-line (Membrane of Krause). The dark line is present in the centre of the I-band.
  • Intercalated discs. The modified plasma membrane presents transversely as thick striation in cardiac muscle fibres and acts as a booster of a wave during cardiac muscle contraction.
  • Schwann’s Sheath (Neurilemma). The thin tubular sheath around the neuraxis.
  • Myelin or Medullarysheath. The thick sheath of white fatty tissue around the neuraxis is called myelin sheath and is broken at places to form Nodes of Ranvier.

Macrophages (Histiocyte or clasmocytes) These are phagocytic cells which feed upon bacteria, extracellular material and remains of the cell organelles.

  • Mesenchymal cells. These cells retain the development potentialities of embryonic mesenchyme cells in the connective tissue of adults.
  • Lymphocytes. These are the agranular leucocytes having a round nucleus and little cytoplasm. Their function is the protection of the body against diseases by ingesting the germs.
  • Haemopoiesis. The formation of red blood cells in the bone marrow.
  • Lymphopoiesis. The formation of lymphocytes.
  • Ligament. Tough, somewhat elastic, yellow fibrous bands which connect bone with bone.
  • Tendon. A cord-like structure consisting of parallel white fibres ensheathed by connective tissue which connects muscles with bone.
  • Pseudounipolar neurons are found in the dorsal root ganglion of spinal nerves.

Ependyma is a single-layered epithelium that lines the central canal and ventricles of the spinal cord and brain respectively.

  • Fibro-cartilage is found in pubic symphysis and intervertebral discs.
  • Mast cells are present in the areolar tissue.
  • Transitional epithelium lines the urinary bladder.
  • Platelets are found in the mammalian blood.
  • The endothelium is a layer of flat tesselated epithelial cells forming the lining of blood vessels.
  • Volkman’s canals are present in the mammalian long bones.
  • The perichondrium is an outer covering of cartilage formed of white fibrous connective tissue.
  • Synaptic knobs. The ends of terminal arborization of the axon may be swollen to form synaptic knobs.
  • Bone Marrow. Adipose tissue along with blood capillaries present in the marrow cavity of bone is called bone marrow and is a haemopoietic tissue.

Epithelial Tissue Functions NEET Study Material

Tunica adventin. A layer of loose yellow fibrous connective tissue present as sheets forming the outer coat of blood vessels is termed tunica adventin.

  • Glisson’s capsule. It is the outer covering of the liver formed of connective tissue.
  • Corpus luteum. Yellowish, glandular body formed in an empty Graafian follicle after the release of an egg and functions as a temporary endocrine gland during pregnancy.
  • Sertoli cells. In the germinal epithelial layer of seminiferous tubules are present large pyramidal cells called Sertoli cells which nourish developing sperms.
  • Kupffer cells. Large star-like phagocytic cells present in the lining of sinusoids of the liver and ingest worn-out thrombocytes.
  • Glomerulus. A bunch of blood capillaries present in the cup-like cavity of Bowman’s capsule Is called glomerulus.

Malpighian corpuscle. Bowman’s capsule and glomerulus present at one end of the uriniferous tubule is called the malpighian corpuscle.

  • Rugae are longitudinal folds of gastric mucosa visible in an empty stomach and allow expansion of the stomach.
  • Kinocilia. Motile cilia (about 12- 15).tm long) arise from basal granules and are present on the cells lining the respiratory and genital tract. They undergo rhythmic contraction.
  • Stereodlia. Non-motile elongated having a broad base and tapering tip and do not arise from basal granule. They form the lining of epididymis and vasa deferentia in the human body.
  • Microvilli are very fine protoplasmic evaginations, visible with an electron microscope from the free surface of absorptive cells of the intestinal mucosa.
  • Villi are finger-like projections of the intestinal mucosa and increase the absorptive surface area.

NEET Biology Animal Tissues Quanta To Memory

  • The lining of neuronal is ciliated and known as ependyma.
  • Scheneiderian membrane = Olfactory epithelium.
  • In primates, lipochrome pigment gives a yellow colour to fat.
  • Extremities of long bones have hyaline cartilage which acts as shock absorbers.
  • Phosphogens are energy-rich compounds phosphocreatine which under rest conditions have 14-16 times more energy than ATP.

Bone Marrow Transplant (BMT). Christian. Medical College, Vellore, is India’s first BMT centre. The first BMT was done here in 1991 to treat thalassemia, a hereditary blood disorder.

  • Osteoclasts. These are derived from osteoblasts and osteocytes, rich in acid phosphatase, and contain slightly basophilic cytoplasm. Osteoclasts destroy the bone.
  • O. Hertwig introduced the term mesenchyme for the connective tissue.
  • Cells vary in diameter from 7.5 m (RBC of man) to 85 mm. (ostrich egg).
  • Bernard (1859) demonstrated the formation of glycogen by the liver.
  • Nerve fibres are covered by special cells called Schwann cells.
  • Chylomicrons: Minute fat globules which occur in blood after a meal rich in fat.
  • Hacmoconia: Minute bits of disintegrated blood cells.
  • Least regeneration power: nervous tissue
  • Hacmoglobi nanometer: Instrument for recording the haemoglobin content of the blood.
  • Haemocytometer: Instrument for counting erythrocytes,
  • Chondroclasts: Cartilage-destroying cells.
  • Marcello Mnlpighii: Father of microscopic anatomy.
  • Jean Fresnel: Introduced the term Physiology.

Blood clotting in a test tube can be prevented by adding a little sodium oxalate or sodium nitrate.

Certain neutrophils in female mammals possess small spherical lobes attached to their nuclei by a stalk. This lobe is called a drumstick.

  • The cells obtained by a smear from the oral mucous membrane of a normal female have been found to possess a small mass of deeply staining chromatin lying against the nuclear membrane. It is called Hnrr body (Barr-name of scientist). The Drumstick of Barr’s body represents an inactivated X-chromosome and is called sex chromatin.
  • Elic Mctchnikoff. discovered phagocytosis in 1882, got the 1908 Nobel Prize for medicine and physiology, A Russian physiologist,
  • Immature RBCs are called reticulocytes.
  • Poikilocytosis: Multiplicity in distortion of the shape of RBCs due to a decrease in both the number and size of RBCs. It leads to microcytic anaemia.
  • Normovolemia: Normal blood volume, while decreased blood volume is called hypovolemia and increased blood volume is called hypervolemia.
  • Platelets. It occurs only in the mammalian blood.

The normal cholesterol level of human blood is 50-180 mg per 100 ml. of blood. High levels of cholesterol may lead to heart attack.

  • Fibroblasts produce fibrous connective tissue. Volkman’s canals are canals through which blood vessels connect the periosteal vessels to the vessels of the Haversian canals.
  • Ca+2 -ions are essential during blood coagulation for the activation of thrombin.

Epithelial Tissue Functions NEET Study Material

NEET Biology Animal Tissues Questions From Competitive Examinations

Question 1. Kupffer’s cells are:

  1. Hormone secreting
  2. Fat cells
  3. Mast cells
  4. Phagocytic.

Answer: 4. Phagocytic.

Question 2. Sebaceous glands secrete:

  1. Sweat
  2. Wax
  3. Water
  4. Mucus.

Answer: 2. Wax

Question 3. Mammalian skin is without:

  1. Sweat glands
  2. Sebaceous glands
  3. Mucous glands
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Mucous glands

Question 4. Used-up erythrocytes are broken down into:

  1. Liver
  2. Spleen
  3. Pancreas
  4. Thyroid.

Answer: 2. Spleen

Question 5. Bring out the matching pair:

  1. Saliva-Friction
  2. Sebum-Shock absorber
  3. Sweat-Thermoregulation
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Sweat-Thermoregulation

Connective Tissue Types And Functions NEET

Question 6. Match the types of animal tissues listed under column 1 with the location given under column 2; Choose the answer which gives the correct combination of the alphabets of the two columns.

Animal Tissues Match The Following Column Question 6

  1. 1-C, 2-A, 3-E, 4-D
  2. 1-A, 2-C, 3-D, 4-E
  3. 1-C, 2-E, 3-B, 4-D
  4. 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B

Answer: 4. 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B

Question 7. Match the term listed under column-1 with the structures when they occur given under column-2; Choose the answer which gives the correct combination of the alphabets of the two columns.

Animal Tissues Match The Following Column Question 7

  1. 1-D, 2-E, 3-B, 4-C
  2. 1-E, 2-D, 3-C, 4-B
  3. 1-A, 2-C, 3-D, 4-E
  4. 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-E.

Answer: 2. 1-E, 2-D, 3-C, 4-B

Question 8. Which cells do not form layers and remain structurally separate:

  1. Epithelial cells
  2. Muscle cells
  3. Nerve cells
  4. Gland cells.

Answer: 3. Nerve cells

Question 9. During an injury, the Nasal septum gets damaged and for its recovery which cartilage is preferred:

  1. Elastic cartilage
  2. Hyaline cartilage
  3. Calcified cartilage
  4. Fibrous cartilage age.

Answer: 2. Hyaline cartilage

Question 10. Term Tissue was given by:

  1. Bichat
  2. Milliken
  3. Maxwell
  4. Diroe.

Answer: 1. Bichat

Question 11. Tendons and ligaments are specialized types of:

  1. Nervous tissue
  2. Muscular tissue
  3. Epithelial tissue
  4. Fibrous connective tissue.

Answer: 4. Fibrous connective tissue.

Question 12. Adult R.B.C. is produced by:

  1. Thymus
  2. Yellow bone marrow
  3. Red bone marrow
  4. Heart.

Answer: 3. Red bone marrow

Connective Tissue Types And Functions NEET

Question 13. Stratum corneum is absent in:

  1. Fish
  2. Frog
  3. Birds
  4. Reptiles.

Answer: 1. Fish

Question 14. Match the correct pair:

Animal Tissues Match The Following Column Question 14

  1. D-B-A-C
  2. B-A-C-D
  3. B-D-C-A
  4. B-C-A-D

Answer: 4. B-C-A-D

Question 15. Epithelial cells arise from:

  1. Endoderm
  2. Ectoderm
  3. Mesoderm
  4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 16. The outer covering of non-myelinated neurons in the brain is:

  1. Neurilemma
  2. Axolemma
  3. Sacrolemma
  4. Oolema.

Answer: 1. Neurilemma

Question 17. Collagen is:

  1. Libros protein
  2. Fat
  3. Epithelial tissue
  4. Tight junction.

Answer: 1. Librous protein

Question 18. In mammals, melanocytes give protection from:

  1. Visible light
  2. Infrared rays
  3. X-rays
  4. Uv rays.

Answer: 4. Uv rays.

Question 19. In a neuron, Schwann cells occur in association with:

  1. Axon
  2. Soma
  3. Dendrite
  4. Axon hillock.

Answer: 1. Axon

Connective Tissue Types And Functions NEET

Question 20. Which one acts as a shock absorber when the tibia and femur come together:

  1. Ligament
  2. Cartilage
  3. Tendon
  4. Disc.

Answer: 2. Cartilage

Question 21. The lining layer of fallopian tubes, bronchi and bronchioles consists of:

  1. Squamous epithelium
  2. Ciliated epithelium
  3. Columnar epithelium
  4. Cubical epithelium.

Answer: 2. Ciliated epithelium

Question 22. Which is not the property of yellow fibres:

  1. Contain elastin
  2. Fewer in number
  3. Straight and branched
  4. Provide toughness and strength.

Answer: 4. Provide toughness and strength.

Question 23. Which one has abundant white fibres:

  1. Tendon
  2. Ligament
  3. Cartilage
  4. Bone.

Answer: 1. Tendon

Question 24. Volkman’s canals occur in:

  1. Cartilage
  2. Liver
  3. Bone
  4. Internal ear.

Answer: 3. Bone

Question 25. Epithelial cells of the intestine involved in food absorption have on their surface:

  1. Pinocytic vesicles
  2. Phagocytic vesicles
  3. Zymogen granules
  4. Microvilli.

Answer: 4. Microvilli.

Question 26. Abnormal fall in the total count of WBCs in the human blood is called:

  1. Anaemia
  2. Polycythemia
  3. Leucopenia
  4. Leukaemia.

Answer: 3. Leucopenia

Connective Tissue Types And Functions NEET

Question 27. Leucopenia is the condition where:

  1. Leucocyte decrease below 5000 per cubic mm of blood
  2. Bone marrow is destroyed
  3. The total number of lymphocytes decreases from 2% to 0.5%
  4. Leucocytes increase by about 6000.

Answer: 1. Leucocyte decrease below 5000 per cubic mm of blood

Question 28. Choose the odd pair out in the following:

  1. Areolar connective tissue-collagen
  2. Epithelium-keratin
  3. Neuron-melanin
  4. Muscle fibre-actin.

Answer: 3. Neuron-melanin

Question 29. Which of the following tissues originates exclusively from the ectoderm of the embryo?

  1. Muscular tissue
  2. Epithelial tissue
  3. Nervous tissue
  4. Connective tissue.

Answer: 3. Nervous tissue

Question 30. Which of the following structures are derivatives of the endoderm?

  1. Alimentary canal and respiratory structures
  2. Muscles and blood
  3. Excretory and reproductive structures
  4. Skin and nerve cord.

Answer: 1. Alimentary canal and respiratory structures

Question 31. Match the items in column 1 with column 2 and choose the correct answer given below:

Animal Tissues Match The Following Column Question 31

  1. 1-D, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A
  2. l-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B
  3. 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C
  4. 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C.

Answer: 4. 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C.

Question 32. Which of the following statements is wrong?

  1. Leucocytes disintegrate in the spleen and liver.
  2. RBC, WBC and blood platelets are produced by bone marrow.
  3. Neutrophils bring about the destruction and detoxification of toxins of protein origin.
  4. The important function of lymphocytes is to produce antibodies.
  1. (l) and (2) only
  2. (l) and (4) only
  3. (1) and (2) only
  4. (2) and (3) only.

Answer: 3. (1) and (2) only

Question 33. The progenitors that are formed in bone marrow and differentiate elsewhere are:

  1. Pre-nk cell
  2. Pre-erythroblast
  3. Pre-t cell
  4. Myeloblast.

Answer: 3. Pre-t cell

Muscular Tissue Structure NEET Exam

Question 34. The hump of a camel is made up of which of the following tissues?

  1. Areolar tissue
  2. Adipose tissue
  3. Epithelial tissue
  4. Muscular tissue.

Answer: 2. Adipose tissue

Question 35. The erythrocyte maturing factor is:

  1. Folic acid
  2. Cyanocobalamin
  3. Vitamin B2
  4. Vitamin c.

Answer: 1. Folic acid

Question 36. Fat is present in which part of a neuron:

  1. Cyton
  2. Node of Ranvier
  3. Dendron
  4. Axon.

Answer: 4. Axon.

Question 37. Heparin is synthesised in:

  1. Liver
  2. Kidney
  3. Saliva
  4. Pancreas.

Answer: 1. Liver

Question 38. Thousand of year-old mummies are still in their condition as they were before due to the non-destruction of:

  1. Yellow elastin fibres
  2. White elastin fibres
  3. Collagen fibres
  4. Veins.

Answer: 1. Yellow elastin fibres

Question 39. Nerve cells do not divide because they do not have:

  1. Nucleus
  2. Centrosome
  3. Golgi body
  4. Mitochondria.

Answer: 2. Centrosome

Question 40. Which of the following is phagocytic?

  1. Monocyte
  2. R.B.C
  3. Eosinophil
  4. Basophil.

Answer: 1. Monocyte

Question 41. Areolar connective tissue joins:

  1. Integument with muscles
  2. Bones with muscles
  3. Bones with bones
  4. Fat body with muscles.

Answer: 1. Integument with muscles

Muscular Tissue Structure NEET Exam

Question 42. Mast cells secrete:

  1. Myoglobin
  2. Histamine
  3. Haemoglobin
  4. Hippurin.

Answer: 2. Histamine

Question 43. People living at sea level have around 5 million RBC per cubic millimetre of their blood whereas those living at an altitude of 5400 metres have around 8 million. This is because at high altitudes:

  1. Atmospheric O2 level is less and hence more RBCs are needed to absorb the required amount of O2 to survive
  2. There is more UV radiation which enhances RBC production
  3. People eat more nutritive food, therefore more RBCs are formed
  4. People get pollution-free air to breathe and more oxygen is available.

Answer: 1. Atmospheric O2 level is less and hence more RBCs are needed to absorb the required amount of O2 to survive

Question 44. Bowman’s glands are found in:

  1. Cortical nephrons only
  2. Juxtamedullary nephrons
  3. Olfactory epithelium
  4. External auditory canal.

Answer: 3. Olfactory epithelium

Question 45. The type of epithelial cells which line the inner surface of the fallopian tube, bronchioles and small bronchi are known as:

  1. Squamous epithelium
  2. Columnar epithelium
  3. Ciliated epithelium
  4. Cubical epithelium.

Answer: 3. Ciliated epithelium

Question 46. Match the following simple epithelial tissues in column 1 with their occurrence in column 2 and choose the correct combination from the options given.

Animal Tissues Match The Following Column Question 46

  1. 1-A, 2-B, 3-D, 4-C, 5-E
  2. 1-E, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A, 5-C
  3. 1-D, 2-E, 3-A, 4-B, 5-C
  4. 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B, 5-E
  5. 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-E, 5-B.

Answer: 5. 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-E, 5-B.

Question 47. In which one of the following preparations are you likely to come across cell junctions most frequently?

  1. Thrombocytes
  2. Tendon
  3. Hyaline cartilage
  4. Ciliated epithelium.

Answer: 4. Ciliated epithelium.

Question 48. Which one of the following pairs of structures distinguishes a nerve cell from other types of cells?

  1. Vacuoles and fibres
  2. Flagellum and medullary sheath
  3. Nucleus and mitochondria
  4. Perikaryon and dendrites.

Answer: 4. Perikaryon and dendrites.

Question 49. A drop of each of the following is placed separately on four slides. Which of them will not coagulate?

  1. Blood serum
  2. Blood plasma
  3. Whole blood from the pulmonary vein
  4. Sample from the thoracic duct of the lymphatic system.

Answer: 1. Blood serum

Animal Tissues NEET Notes

Question 50. What is the correct sequence of thickness of muscle layers in the stomach of human beings?

  1. Circular → oblique → longitudinal
  2. Oblique → longitudinal → circular
  3. Longitudinal → circular → oblique
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Longitudinal → circular → oblique

Question 51. The dendrite carries impulses:

  1. Across the body
  2. Towards the cyton
  3. Away from the cyton
  4. From one neuron to another.

Answer: 2. Towards the cyton

Question 52. Adipocytes are mainly found in:

  1. Bonos
  2. Nerves
  3. Cartilages
  4. Connective tissues.

Answer: 4. Connective tissues.

Question 53. The main difference between white and yellow fibre is of:

  1. Protein
  2. Colour of fibres
  3. Both (1) and (2)
  4. None of these.

Answer: 3. Both (1) and (2)

Question 54. In a myelinated neuron, two adjacent myelin sheaths are separated by gaps called:

  1. Nodes of Ranvier
  2. Synaptic cleft
  3. Schwann cells
  4. Synaptic know
  5. Neural plate

Answer: 1. Nodes of Ranvier

Question 55. Histamine and heparin are secreted by

  1. Monocytes
  2. Neutrophils
  3. Eosinophils
  4. Lymphocytes
  5. Basophils

Answer: 5. Basophils

Question 56. Which type of white blood cells are concerned with the release of histamine and the natural anticoagulant heparin?

  1. Basophils
  2. Monocyte
  3. Neutrophils
  4. Eosinophils.

Answer: 1. Basophils

Question 57. The most active phagocytic white blood cells are:

  1. Neutrophils and monocytes
  2. Neutrophils and eosinophils
  3. Eosinophils and lymphocytes
  4. Lymphocytes and macrophages

Answer: 1. Neutrophils and monocytes

Question 58. The haemoglobin of a human foetus:

  1. Has only two protein subunits instead of four
  2. Has a lower affinity for oxygen than that of an adult
  3. Its affinity for oxygen is the same as that of an adult
  4. Has a higher affinity for oxygen than that of an adult.

Answer: 4. Has a higher affinity for oxygen than that of an adult.

Question 59. The ciliated columnar epithelial cells in humans are known to occur in:

  1. Eustachian tube and stomach lining
  2. Bronchioles and fallopian tubes
  3. Bile duct and oesophagus
  4. Fallopian tubes and urethra.

Answer: 2. Bronchioles and fallopian tubes

Animal Tissues NEET Notes

Question 60. Compared to those of humans the erythrocytes in frogs are:

  1. Nucleated and with haemoglobin
  2. Very much smaller and fewer
  3. Nucleated and without haemoglobin
  4. Without a nucleus but with haemoglobin.

Answer: 1. Nucleated and with haemoglobin

Question 61. What external changes are visible after the last moult of a cockroach nymph?

  1. Anal cerci develop
  2. Both forewings and hindwings develop
  3. Labium develops
  4. Mandibles become harder

Answer: 2. Both forewings and hind wings develop

Question 62. Rearrange the following zones as seen in the root in the vertical section and choose the correct option.

  1. Root hair zone
  2. Zone of meristems
  3. Rootcap zone
  4. Zone of maturation
  5. Zone of elongation.
  1. 3, 2, 5, 1, 4
  2. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
  3. 4, 5, 1, 3, 2
  4. 5, 4, 3, 2, 1.

Answer: 1. 3, 2, 5, 1, 4

Question 63. In an inflorescence where flowers are borne laterally in an acropetal succession, the position of the youngest floral bud shall be:

  1. Proximal
  2. Distal
  3. Intercalary
  4. Anywhere.

Answer: 2. Distal

Question 64. The mature seeds of plants such as gram and peas possess no endosperm, because:

  1. These plants are not angiosperms
  2. There is no double fertilization in them
  3. Endosperm is not located in them
  4. Endosperm gets used up by the developing embryo during seed development.

Answer: 4. Endosperm gets used up by the developing embryo during seed development.

Question 65. Roots developed from parts of the plant other than radicle are called:

  1. Taproots
  2. Fibrous roots
  3. Adventitious roots
  4. Nodular roots.

Answer: 3. Adventitious roots

Question 66. Venation is a term used to describe the pattern of arrangement of:

  1. Floral organs
  2. Flower in inflorescence
  3. Veins and veinlets in a lamina
  4. All of them.

Answer: 3. Veins and veinlets in a lamina

Question 67. Endosperm, a product of double fertilization in angiosperms is absent in the seeds of:

  1. Gram
  2. Orchids
  3. Maize
  4. Castor.

Answer: 2. Orchids

Question 68. Many pulses of daily use belong to one of the families below:

  1. Solanaceae
  2. Fabaceae
  3. Liliaceae
  4. Poaceae.

Answer: 2. Fabaceae

Types Of Animal Tissues NEET Biology

Question 69. The placenta is attached to the developing seed near the:

  1. Testa
  2. Hilum
  3. Micropyle
  4. Chalaza.

Answer: 4. Chalaza.

Question 70. Which of the following plants is used to extract the blue dye?

  1. Trifulium
  2. Indigofera
  3. Lupin
  4. Cassia.

Answer 2. Indigofera

Question 71. Match the following and choose the correct option:

Animal Tissues Match The Following Column Question 71

  1. 1-(A), 2-(B), 3-(C), 4-(D)
  2. 1-(B), 2-(A), 3-(D), 4-(C)
  3. 1-(D), 2-(B), 3-(A), 4-(C)
  4. 1-(B), 2-(D), 3-(A), 4-(C).

Answer: 2. 1-(B), 2-(A), 3-(D), 4-(C)

Question 72. A transverse section of stem is stained first with safranin and then with fast green following the usual schedule of double staining for the preparation of a permanent slide. What would be the colour of the stained xylem and phloem?

  1. Red and green
  2. Green and red
  3. Orange and yellow
  4. Purple and orange.

Answer: 1. Red and green

Question 73. Match the following and choose the correct option from below:

Animal Tissues Match The Following Column Question 73

  1. 1-A, 2-C, 3-E 4-B, 5-D
  2. 1-C, 2-A, 3-B 4-E, 5-D
  3. 1-B, 2-D, 3-E 4-A, 5-C
  4. 1-E, 2-D, 3-C 4-B, 5-A.

Answer: 2. 1-C, 2-A, 3-B 4-E, 5-D

Question 74. Match the following and choose the correct option from below:

Animal Tissues Match The Following Column Question 74

  1. 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B,
  2. 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D,
  3. 1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A,
  4. 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D.

Answer: 1. 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B,

Question 75. Identify the tissue system from among the following:

  1. Parenchyma
  2. Xylem
  3. Epidermis
  4. Phloem.

Answer: 1. Parenchyma

Types Of Animal Tissues NEET Biology

Question 76. Cells of this tissue are living and show angular wall thickening. They also provide mechanical support. The tissue is:

  1. Xylem
  2. Sclerenchyma
  3. Collenchyma
  4. Epidermis

Answer: 3. Collenchyma

Question 77. Epiblema of roots is equivalent to:

  1. Pericycle
  2. Endodermis
  3. Epidermis
  4. Stele.

Answer: 3. Epidermis

Question 78. A conjoint and open vascular bundle will be observed in the transverse section of:

  1. Monocot root
  2. Monocot stem
  3. Dicot root
  4. Dicot stems.

Answer: 4. Dicot stem.

Question 79. Interfascicular cambium and cork cambium are formed due to:

  1. Cell division
  2. Cell differentiation
  3. Cell dedifferentiation
  4. Differentiation.

Answer: 1. Cell division

Question 80. Phellogen and phellem respectively denote:

  1. Cork and cork cambium
  2. Cork cambium and cork
  3. Secondary eofiex and cork
  4. Cork and secondary cortex.

Answer: 2. Cork cambium and cork

Question 81. In which of the following pairs of parts of a flowering plant is the epidermis absent?

  1. Root tip and shoot tip
  2. Shoot bud and floral bud
  3. Ovule and seed
  4. Petiole and pedicel.

Answer: 1. Root tip and shoot tip

Question 82. How many shoot apical meristems are likely to be present in a twig of a plant possessing 4 branches and 26 leaves?

  1. 26
  2. 1
  3. 5
  4. 30
  5. 4.

Answer: 3. 5

Question 83. A piece of wood having no vessels (trachea) must belong to:

  1. Teak
  2. Mango
  3. Pine
  4. Palm.

Answer: 3. Pine

Epithelial Tissue Functions NEET Study Material

Question 84. A plant tissue, when stained, showed the presence of hemicellulose and pectin in the cell wall of its cells. The tissue represents.

  1. Collenchyma
  2. Sclerenchyma
  3. Xylem
  4. Meristem.

Answer: 1. Collenchyma

Question 85. Fibres are likely to be absent in:

  1. Secondary phloem
  2. Secondary xylem
  3. Primary phloem
  4. Leaves

Answer: 4. Leaves

Question 86. When we peel the skin of a potato tuber, we remove:

  1. Periderm
  2. Epidermis
  3. Cuticle
  4. Sapwood.

Answer: 1. Periderm

Question 87. A vessel-less piece of stem possessing prominent sieve tubes would belong to the:

  1. Pinus
  2. Eucalyptus
  3. Crass
  4. Trochodendron

Answer: 4. Trochodendron

Question 88. Which one of the following cell types always divides by anticlinal cell division?

  1. Fusiform initial cells
  2. Root cap
  3. Protoderm
  4. Phellogen

Answer: 4. Phellogen

Question 89. What is the fate of the primary xylem in a dicot root showing extensive secondary growth?

  1. It is retained in the centre of the axis
  2. It gets crushed
  3. May or may not get crushed
  4. It gets surrounded by primary phloem.

Answer: 1. It is retained in the centre of the axis

Question 90. Which one of the following types of cells is involved in making the inner walls of large blood vessels?

  1. Columnar epithelium
  2. Ciliated
  3. Squamous epithelium
  4. Stratified epithelium.

Answer: 3. Squamous epithelium

Question 91. To which one of the following categories does adipose tissue belong?

  1. Epithelial
  2. Connective
  3. Neural
  4. Muscular.

Answer: 2. Connective

Question 92. Which one of the following is not a connective tissue?

  1. Bone
  2. Ligament
  3. Blood
  4. Muscles.

Answer: 4. Muscles.

Question 93. The clitellum is a distinct part of the body of an earthworm, it is found in?

  1. Segments 13 – 14 – 15
  2. Segments 14 -15 – 16
  3. Segments 15 – 16 – 11
  4. Segments 72 – 13 – 14.

Answer: 2. Segments 14 -15 – 16

Question 94. Setae help in locomotion in the earthworm but are not uniformly present in all the segments. Select among the following that represents setae.

  1. Peristomium
  2. Anal segment
  3. Clitellar segment
  4. 20th – 22nd segment

Answer: 4. 20th – 22nd segment

Epithelial Tissue Functions NEET Study Material

Question 95. Which one of the following statements is true for cockroaches?

  1. The number of ovarioles in each ovary is ten
  2. The larval stage is called the caterpillar
  3. Anal styles are absent in females
  4. They are ammonotelic

Answer: 3. Anal styles are absent in females

Question 96. Match the following and choose the correct option:

Animal Tissues Match The Following Column Question 96

  1. 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
  2. 1-D,, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B
  3. 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B
  4. 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C.

Answer: 2. 1-D,, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B

Question 97. Match the following and choose the correct answer:

Animal Tissues Match The Following Column Question 97

  1. 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A
  2. 1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A
  3. 1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
  4. 1-B, 2-D, 3-C, 4-A.

Answer: 1. 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A

Question 98. Match the following concerning Cockroach and choose the correct option:

Animal Tissues Match The Following Column Question 98

  1. 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A
  2. 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
  3. 1-D, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A
  4. 1-B, 2-D, 3-C, 4-A.

Answer: 2. 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A

Question 99. Match the following and choose the correct answer:

Animal Tissues Match The Following Column Question 99

  1. 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D
  2. 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
  3. 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A
  4. 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B.

Answer: 4. 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B.

Question 100. The swollen root of the Radish is made of two parts:

  1. Stem and epicotyl
  2. Primary root and hypocotyl
  3. Primary root and epicotyl
  4. Secondary root and primary root.

Answer: 2. Primary root and hypocotyl

Question 101. Adventitious storage roots are found in:

  1. Canot and radish
  2. Potato and asparagus
  3. Asparagus and sweet potato
  4. Dahlia and sugarbeet.

Answer: 3. Asparagus and sweet potato

Connective Tissue Types And Functions NEET

Question 102. Vegetative propagation in ginger takes place by:

  1. Sucker
  2. Buds
  3. Rhizome
  4. Stem.

Answer: 3. Rhizome

Question 103. In groundnut. the root is:

  1. Nodulated
  2. Napiform
  3. Epiphytic
  4. Photosynthetic.

Answer: 1. Nodulated

Question 104. The underground storage structure in Gladiolus is:

  1. Corm
  2. Bulb
  3. Rhizome
  4. Stem tuber.

Answer: 1. Corm

Question 105. Extra-axillary bud is present in:

  1. Duranta
  2. Dentaria
  3. Zizyphus
  4. Cucurbita.

Answer: 4. Cucurbita.

Question 106. Buds typically are found:

  1. At the tips of branches and roots
  2. At the tips of branches and the bases of leaves
  3. Along roots and at the bases of leaves
  4. Only based on leaves.

Answer: 2. At the tips of branches and the bases of leaves

Question 107. Banana possesses:

  1. Unbranched stem
  2. Pseudobulb
  3. Pseudostem
  4. Largest bud.

Answer: 3. Pseudostem

Question 108. Branched rootstock rhizome occurs in:

  1. Saccharum
  2. Canna
  3. Tunneric
  4. Banana.

Answer: 4. Banana.

Question 109. The primary function of the stern is:

  1. To bear and hold out the leaves
  2. To anchor the plant in the soil
  3. To absorb water and mineral salts from the soil
  4. To help the vegetative reproduction.

Answer: 1. To bear and hold out the leaves

Question 110. In autumn. leaf fall occurs because:

  1. Leaves do not remain green
  2. Leaves become very heavy
  3. An abscission layer formed at the base of the petiole
  4. Of low temperature.

Answer: 3. Of an abscission layer formed at the base of the petiole

Question 111. The stipules are modified into tendrils in:

  1. Smilax
  2. Cucurbita
  3. Gloriosa
  4. Clematis.

Answer: 1. Smilax

Question 112. The Medulla part of the adrenal gland is made of:

  1. Ectoderm
  2. Endoderm
  3. Mesoderm
  4. Both ectoderm and mesoderm.

Answer: 1. Ectoderm

Question 113. Match the types of the animal tissues under colour 1 with the parts or organs in which they occur, given under column 2; choose the answer which gives the correct combination of the alphabets of the two columns:

Animal Tissues Match The Following Column Question 113

  1. (1) = E, (2) = D, (3) = A, (4) = C
  2. (1) = E, (2) = A, (3) = D, (4) = B
  3. (1) = B, (2) = D, (3) = A, (4) = C
  4. (1) = B, (2) = A, (3) = D, (4) = C

Answer: 3. (1) = B, (2) = D, (3) = A, (4) = C

Question 114. Cardiac muscles are of the type:

  1. Myofibrils are large and distinct
  2. Striped, skeletal muscles
  3. Elongated, spindle shape with tapering ends
  4. Long, cylindrical and branched to form a network.

Answer: 4. Long, cylindrical and branched to form a network.

Question 115. Tracheal rings are made of which type of cartilage:

  1. Elastic cartilage
  2. Hyaline cartilage
  3. Fibrous cartilage
  4. Calcified cartilage.

Answer: 2. Hyaline cartilage

Question 116. During muscular contraction:

  1. ATP is formed
  2. GTP is broken down
  3. ATP is broken down
  4. None of the above

Answer: 3. ATP is broken down

Question 117. Patella is associated with:

  1. Knee
  2. Neck
  3. Wrist
  4. Elbow.

Answer: 1. Knee

Question 118. Ligaments and tendons are correct for:

  1. Muscular tissue
  2. Connective tissue
  3. Epithelial tissue
  4. Skeletal tissue

Answer: 2. Connective tissue

Question 119. Where would you find mast cells:

  1. Yellow fibrous tissue
  2. White librous tisstre
  3. Areolar tissue
  4. Adipose tissue.

Answer: 3. Areolar tissue

Question 120. In the embryonic stage R.B.C. der, rips in:

  1. Liver and pancreas
  2. Spleen and kidney
  3. Liver and spleen
  4. Liver and kidney.

Answer: 3. Liver and spleen

Question 121. Squamous epithelial cells are found in:

  1. Bone
  2. Stronach
  3. Blood vessels
  4. Testis.

Answer: 3. Blood vessels

NEET Biology Multiple Choice Questions

NEET Biology Multiple Choice Questions

NEET Biology Notes

NEET Biology Notes

NEET Biology Endocrine System Notes

NEET Biology Endocrine System

Hormone (Gk: Hormoein = to excite) is the secretion of the endocrine (Gk. yendon = inside, Krinein = to separate) gland.

Endocrine System Examples Of Signalling Molecules And Their Source

  • Endocrine Glands. (The Greek word Rendon means inside, and kinesin means to separate) These are endogenously located glands that lack the ducts (so also called ductless glands) and generally secrete their secretions into the blood (so-called glands of internal secretion) for their transportation to target organs (sites of action). Exocrine glands. Secretions of these glands are transported by duct or ductules or directly.
  • Heterocrine glands are composed of exocrine and endocrine tissues. The former sends its secretion or product through a duct and the latter discharges its secretion directly into the blood For example. pancreas, gonads.
  • The blood contains all the hormones but target organs pick up the required hormones only and ignore all others because target cells have a specific protein called a receptor which has a specific affinity for a particular hormone.
  • In man, there are the following endocrine glands: Thyroid, Parathyroid, Thymus, Pituitary, Adrenal, Pineal body, and (pancreas, stomach, intestine, skin, kidney, and gonads mixed glands).

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Notes

NEET Biology Notes on Endocrine System

NEET Biology Endocrine System Types Of Hormones With Their Function Intracellular Receptors

  • The steroid and thyroid hormones enter the cell directly and bind to the intracellular receptor proteins in the cytoplasm, this complex enters the nucleus and binds to the specific regulatory sites on the chromosome. This alters the pattern of gene expression initiating its transcription, formation of specific mRNA, and then protein (enzyme).
  • Synergic hormone. A pair of hormones work together for a particular function. For example. LH and FSH work together for the maturation of Graafian follicles.
  • Antagonistic hormone. A pair of hormones each with opposite function. For example. Insulin and glucagon. Insulin acts as a hypoglycemic factor but glucagon acts as a hyperglycemic factor,
  • Tropic hormone. A hormone of one gland activates the secretion of the hormone of another gland. For example.TSH of the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland activates the thyroid gland to secrete thyroxine.
  • Chalones. These substances inhibit the secretion of other glands. For example, enterogasterone from duodenal mucosa inhibits the secretion of HCI in the gastric juice of the stomach.

Endocrine System NEET Notes

Endocrine System Main Categories Of Hormones

NEET Biology Endocrine System Mechanism Of Hormone Action

Hormones are transported by the bloodstream to the entire body, but they influence only specific cells.

  • Cells that respond to a certain hormone possess receptor sites for that hormone. This resembles a lock and key mechanism.
  • Should the key be compatible with the lock, the door will unlock. If a hormone binds to the receptor location, an effect will ensue.
  • All cells possessing receptor sites for a specific hormone constitute the target tissue for that hormone. In certain instances, the target tissue is confined to a specific gland or organ.
  • In other instances, the target tissue is dispersed and disseminated throughout the body, resulting in many locations being impacted. Hormones exert their distinctive impacts on target cells by altering cellular functions.

Proteins, peptides, and modified amino acids

  1. These hydrophilic (and mostly large) hormone molecules bind to receptors on the sur¬face of ‘ ‘target’ ’ cells: that is, cells able to the presence of the hormone. The receptors are transmembrane proteins. Binding of the hormone to its receptor initiates a sequence of intracellular signals that may :
  2. alter the behavior of the cell (such as by opening or closing membrane channels) or stimulate (or repress) gene expression in the nucleus by turning on (or off) the promoters and enhancing the action of the genes.
  3. The hormone binds to a site on the extracellular portion of the receptor.
  4. The receptors are transmembrane proteins.
  5. Many (but not all) pass through the plasma membrane 7 times, with their N-terminal exposed at the exterior of the cell and their C-terminal projecting into the cytoplasm.
  6. Binding of the hormone to the receptor
  7. Activates a G protein associated with the cytoplasmic C-terminal
  8. This initiates the production of a “second messenger”. The most common of these are
  9. cyclic AMP, (cAMP) which is produced by adenyl cyclase from ATP and
  10. inositol 1,4, 5-triphosphate (IP3)
  11. The second messenger, in turn, initiates a series of intracellular events such as
  12. phosphorylation and activation of enzymes
  13. release of Ca2+ stores within the cytoplasm
  14. In the case of cAMP, these enzymatic changes activate the transcription factor CREB (cAMP response element binding protein)
  15. Bound to its response element 5′ TGACGTCA 3′ in the promoter of genes that can respond to the hormone, activated CREB turns on gene transcription.
  16. The cell begins to produce the appropriate gene products in response to the hormonal signal it has received at its surface.

NEET Biology Endocrine System Steroid Hormones

  1. Steroid hormones, being hydrophobic molecules, diffuse freely into all cells. However, their “target” cells contain cytoplasmic and/or nuclear proteins that serve as receptors of the hormone.
  2. The hormone binds to the receptor and the complex binds to hormone response elements – stretches of DNA within the promoters of genes responsive to the hormone. The hormone/receptor complex acts as a transcription factor turning the target gene “on” (or “off”). mRNA is formed and with translation, protein is synthesized. This protein formed is responsible for the biological action of that steroid.

Endocrine System Mode Of Action Of Steroid Hormone

NEET Biology Endocrine System Thyroid Gland

  1. Discovered by Wharton (1908) it is the largest endocrine gland (3 – 7 cm in diameter and 15-20 gm in weight).
  2. Situated below the thyroid cartilage of the larynx it is a bilobed structure, connected by an isthmus.
  3. The only endodermal gland homologous to the endostyle of protochordate develops as a venial outgrowth from the pharyngeal wall.
  4. Consists of many follicles formed by follicular cells as epithelial parts and interfollicular stroma of areolar connective tissue with parafollicular cells.

Endocrine System Thyroid Gland And Follicles Suspended In Stroma Of A Lobule

Hormones And Their Functions NEET Biology

NEET Biology Endocrine System Parathyroid Gland

Follicular cells are of two types.

  1. Chief cells. The main secretory cells and Oxyntic cells with eosinophilic granules.
  2. It secretes Parathormone (PTH or Collip’s hormone), a polypeptide with 84 amino acids which regulate the metabolism of calcium and phosphate;
  3. Increase plasma Ca++ level by increasing bone dissolution (osteoclastic activity) and enhancing reabsorption through renal tubules and by increasing Ca++ absorption in the gut.
  4. Thus, the maintenance of proper Ca++ levels in the body is the synergistic effect of calcitonin, PTH, and Vit. D.
  5. Increases phosphate elimination in urine and consequently lower phosphate concentration in plasma.

NEET Biology Endocrine System Adrenal Gland (OR Suprarenal body)

  1. A small, yellowish-brown, paired gland situated at the anterior end of each kidney like a cap, is a semicircular structure weighing 3.5 – 4.5 gm (in adults).
  2. Covered by a fibrous connective tissue capsule. The structure is internally differentiated as the outer mesodermal cortex and inner ectodermal medulla of nervous origin.
  3. Cortex. The thick layer constitutes 70 – 75% part of the gland distinct into the following three zones of cells :
  4. Zona glomerulosa. The outermost layer below the capsule, is made of five layers of small cuboidal basophilic cells densely set along an axis parallel to the surface.
  5. Zona fasciculata. The thickest and middle parts have large polyhedral cells arranged in radiating columns perpendicular to the surface.
  6. Zona reticularis. The innermost part has cells arranged in a layer to form a network.
  7. Medulla. Consists of groups of round granulated cells which are modified postganglionic cells of the sympathetic nervous system having an exclusively secretory function. These are chromaffin cells, distinct in two layers :
  8. Zona compactum. Densely packed rounded cells with thick plasma membrane, without any intercellular spaces, the average size of cells is 190 – 210 pm (diameter).
  9. Zona spongiosum. The innermost layer of irregular cells in 5 – 12 layers with large intermolecular spaces with matrix and blood vessels, the average size of cells is 260 pm- 360 pm.

NEET Biology Endocrine System Cortical hormones

About 50 types of steroids have been isolated from the adrenal cortex hence called corticosteroids. But, only a few are biologically active, of the following 3 types.

NEET Biology Endocrine System Mineralocorticoid (Aldosterone)

  • A 21-carbon steroid molecule is secreted by zona glomerulosa.
  • Increases the reabsorption of Na+ and Cl by uriniferous tubules, also controls the level of other salts, and thus plays a role in osmoregulation.
  • Increase the removal of K+ in urine.

NEET Biology Endocrine System Glucocorticoid (Cortisol or hydrocortisone and Corticosterone)

  1. A steroid of 20 carbons it is secreted from zona fasciculata and zona reticularis.
  2. It controls the metabolism of fat and amino acids into carbohydrates, protein, and fat, and stimulates gastric secretions.
  3. Stimulates the conversion of fat and amino acids into carbohydrates (gluconeogenesis).
  4. Reduces amino acid levels in tissues, and increases ketone formation in the blood.
  5. Anti-inflammatory in nature suppresses the WBC movement but increases RBC count.
  6. Immunosuppressive in nature, hence used for treatment of allergy and in transplantation surgery.
  7. Dexotes synthesis of collagen, hence cortisole is used for treatment of arthritis or rheumatism.

NEET Biology Endocrine System Sex Corticoid

  1. Secreted by zona fasciculata and zona reticularis is a 12 carbon steroid.
  2. Influences sex-related changes in muscles on bone, maintains the normal growth of external sex organs, hair growth, etc., in the pre-puberty stage, and also influences sexual behavior.
  3. Hypersecretion of this hormone causes gynecomastia in males with female-like characteristics like overgrowth of the mammary gland.
  4. Hirsutism (Adrenal Virilism) in females: growth of facial hairs, temporal baldness, enlargement of the clitoris, atrophy of breast, hoarse voice, etc.
  5. Control of Secretion. ACTH from the pituitary maintains its growth and secretion which in turn is controlled by corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) from the hypothalamus. Secretion of aldosterone is mainly controlled by the renin-angiotensin system.

Endocrine System A Magnified Portion Of Adrenal Gland Showing Cortex And Medulla

NEET Biology Endocrine System Hormones Of Adrenal Medulla

  1. Medullary hormones are formed from the amino acid tyrosine.
  2. Chromaffin cells take up tyrosine which is first hydroxylated and then decarboxylated to form dopamine which is further hydroxylated to form noradrenaline, this is then methylated to form adrenaline.
  3. All these, dopamine, noradrenaline, and adrenaline together are called catecholamines which means “catch-all” Adrenaline (or Epinephrine)
  4. Its secretion (from zona compactum) is stimulated by emergency conditions like fear, anger, accident, injury, stress, etc. hence is also called an emergency hormone. Its effect is like a sympathetic nervous system.
  5. Norepinephrine (or Noradrenaline).
  6. Secreted from zona spongiosus it is a polypeptide.
  7. It is a vasoconstrictor that increases blood pressure (both systolic and diastolic) and controls the normal circulation of blood.
  8. Control of Adrenal Medulla.
  9. Its secretion is controlled by the sympathetic (autonomic) nervous system and feedback system through the level of adrenaline and nor-adrenaline in the blood.

Pituitary Gland Hormones NEET Study Material

NEET Biology Endocrine System Thymus Gland

  1. It is a single, bilobed, flattened, pyramidal gland, situated in the mediastinal space just in front of the heart.
  2. Grows at an early age and becomes fully developed at 16 years but starts degenerating after 18 years and atrophies after the age of 25 years.
  3. It is partly endocrine and partly lymphoid, covered by a connective tissue capsule, and consists of two zones: (i) Outer cortex with lymphocyte-like cells; and
  4. Inner medulla comprising reticular cells. Thymosin is the only hormone secreted from this gland with the following functions :
  5. Stimulates T-lymphocytes to counter the attack of pathogens and antigens.
  6. Helps in the development of sex glands.
  7. Controls the heartbeat through the S.A. node.

NEET Biology Endocrine System Pineal Body

  1. Situated on the roof of 3rd ventricle (diencephalon), covered by a capsule from which many septa (or trabeculae extend inside dividing it into many lobules; contain 2 types of cells :
  2. Parenchymal pinealocytes with minute processes; neuroglia with the darkly stained nucleus.
  3. A few acervuli or brain sand are present within the capsule.

NEET Biology Endocrine System Hypothalamus

  1. It is the floor of the diencephalon (forebrain) with many neurosecretory cells that secrete a variety of hormones to control the secretion of the pituitary gland.
  2. It also contains several such nerve cells whose axons terminate into the posterior pituitary and secrete hormones.
  3. The ability of endocrine secretion in the hypothalamus is to monitor metabolite and hormone levels in the body as per the information gathered by the brain. Hypothalamic hormones released in the blood come to the pituitary through hypothalamo-hypophyseal portal circulation.
  4. These include various releasing and inhibiting hormones as follows :
  5. Hypothalamic hormones Influence hormones of the pituitary

Endocrine System Various Releasing And inhibiting Hormones

NEET Biology Endocrine System Pituitary Gland (Hypophysis)

  • Located on the ventral aspect of the hypothalamus, this single pea-sized gland was historically regarded as the master gland (Vesalius) because to its regulatory influence over all endocrine glands. However, Webster (1967) rejected this notion.
  • It is now referred to as the conductor of an endocrine orchestra.
  • Situated in a cavity known as the sella turcica, at the base of the sphenoid bone, it is linked via a stalk termed the infundibulum to the hypothalamus.
  • This stalk is lacking in mammals.

Endocrine System Divisi9on And Origin Of The Parts Of Pituitary Glands

Endocrine System Hormones Of Anterior And Middle Lobe Of Pituitary Gland

Pituitary Gland Hormones NEET Study Material

NEET Biology Endocrine System Hormones Of the Posterior Lobe Of the Pituitary Gland

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH or Vasopressin or Pitressin)

  1. The osmoregulation hormone controls the volume of urine by increasing water reabsorption in nephric tubules.
  2. Brings back the normalcy in the autonomic nervous system during periods of stress, pain, anger, and excitement.
  3. Deficiency of its level causes ‘diabetes insipidus’ (drinking disease), an abnormal amount of water is lost in the urine and to compensate for it the patients keep taking equally high amounts of water.

Oxytocin (or Pitocin or labor hormone or birth hormone)

  1. Secreted from median eminence of pars nervosa hence is the direct secretion of hypothalamus stored in the pituitary.
  2. Facilitates childbirth by loosening pubic symphysis before the birth of the child causing contraction and relaxation of muscles of the uterus, relaxing vaginal muscles and vestibular sphincter of the vulva
  3. The release of milk from the mammary gland is made by relaxing the muscles of the nipple.

NEET Biology Endocrine System Islets Of Langerhans (Pancreas)

  1. The pancreas acts as both an exocrine and endocrine gland and hence is referred to as a heterochrony gland
  2. The endocrine component of the pancreas Islets of Langerhans was discovered by Langerhans (1950).

NEET Biology Endocrine System Hormones Of Islets Of Langerhans

NEET Biology Endocrine System Insulin

  • Isolated by Banting and Best and its primary structure was determined by Sanger(1950).
  • Hypersecretion causes hypoglycemia(extreme case insulin shock)

Endocrine System Hormones Of Islets Of Langerhans In Insulin

NEET Biology Endocrine System Glucagon

  1. Discovered by Kimbell and Murlin (1935) a polypeptide with a molecular weight of 2495; comprises 29 amino acids in a single chain.
  2. Hyperglycemic, by enhancing glycogenolysis in the liver.
  3. Promotes gluconeogenesis, uptake of amino acids, and its deamination in the liver.
  4. Lowers blood calcium level by increasing its renal elimination.
  5. It does not affect muscle glycogen.
  6. Its hypersecretion causes diabetes mellitus.

NEET Biology Endocrine System Somatostatin

  • Secreted from 8 cells, also called a GHH balances the level of glucagon and insulin as per requirement of the body.

NEET Biology Endocrine System GONADS

  • Gonads also secrete a variety of hormones.

NEET Biology Endocrine System Testes

  1. The interstitial cells (or cells of Leydig) in the stroma secrete androgen (steroid) from which the male sex hormone testosterone is synthesized.
  2. Induces the production of male gametes (sperms) and their morphogenesis.
  3. Promotes growth and virility of skeleton muscle, external genitalia (accessory sex organs) secondary sex characters in puberty.
  4. Its hyposecretion causes eunuchoidism, with the following symptoms.
  5. Less growth of secondary sex organs (prostate, seminal vesicle, penis)
  6. Improper spermatogenesis (infertility) and loss of secondary sexual characters.
  7. Extreme hyposecretion causes complete sterility.
  8. Sertoli cells secrete inhibin hormone that inhibits sperm formation.

Pituitary Gland Hormones NEET Study Material

NEET Biology Endocrine System Ovaries

  1. Follicular cells and theca of maturing follicles secrete estrogen (17 (J-estradiol), a steroid.
  2. Stimulates production, growth, and maturation of ovum and functions of secondary sex organs (uterus, fallopian tube, and ducts of mammary glands).
  3. Maintains external or secondary sexual characters.
  4. FSH from the anterior pituitary controls the level and functions of estrogen.
  5. The corpus luteum formed from a ruptured follicle after ovulation secretes another hormone progesterone (a steroid) the pregnancy hormone.
  6. Helps in the thickening of the uterus wall (endometrium) increasing blood supply to restore normalcy after menstruation.
  7. Implantation of zygote on uterus wall, and formation of placenta.
  8. Maintains the level of dissolved 02 in the embryonic fluid.
  9. It also secretes inhibin hormone that stops follicular maturation.

Endocrine System Hormones Secreted By Wall Of Alimentary Canal

NEET Biology Endocrine System Memory Points

  1. Thyroidectomy – removal of thyroid gland.
  2. Hypophysectomy- removal of the entire pituitary gland.
  3. Pheromones (Ectohormones). These are intraspecific chemical messengers released by an animal into the air to initiate specific responses in another animal of the same species. These may be signals of food, mate, etc. The term pheromone was coined by Karlson and Butenandt (1959). The first known pheromone is bombycol.
  4. Synthetic oxytocin is administered to induce uterine contraction in a woman who is exhausted during delivery. It is also administered in female cattle to induce lactation.
  5. Feedback inhibition. In this type of inhibition, when the end product is at the required level then it gives certain inhibitory signals (called negative feedback) which inhibit the formation of the end product.
  6. G-proteins are related to the hormonal action of those hormones requiring a second messenger, C-AMP. They link hormone receptors on the outer surface of the cell and the interior of the cell.
  7. Prostaglandins. These are lipid compounds secreted into the tissue fluid by cell membranes of the glandular cells. These control either contraction/relaxation of smooth muscles or dilation/ contraction of blood capillaries. These were first reported in the semen of men and are produced by the prostate gland.
  8. Enzyme adenyl cyclase is secreted by the plasma membrane and changes ATP into C-AMP which helps in hormonal action.
  9. Sutherland first described the role of C-AMP in hormone action and called it the “Second Messenger”
  10. Origin of endocrine glands. Most endocrine glands are endodermal in origin  For example. Thyroid, Parathyroid, Islets of Langerhans, and Gastric glands.
  11. Intestinal glands, Thymus, etc. while some are ectodermal in origin For example. Pituitary gland, Hypo-thalamus; Pineal body etc. Gonads are mesodermal in origin while the Adrenal gland is ecto-mesodermal in origin.
  12. The sub-neural gland of Herdmania is homologous to the pituitary of vertebrates. Herring bodies. Structures present in the pituitary and store neurosecretory substances of the hypothalamus.
  13. The H-shaped endocrine gland is the thyroid.
  14. The endostyle of lower chordates like Herdmania, Amphioxus, etc. is homologous to the thyroid gland.
  15. When under stress, adrenaline is secreted directly into the blood.
  16. Many other organs such as the digestive tract secrete hormones, and erythropoietin from the kidney stimulates RBC production. An atrial natriuretic hormone secreted by the heart helps to regulate salt and water balance and blood pressure.
  17. The iodine content of thyroxine is 65% and is called iodized hormone. Thyroxine contains 80% tetra do thyronine (T4) and 20% triiodo thyroxines (T3) is more active than T4
  18. Renin. A hormone secreted by the kidney. It helps in erythropoiesis in bone marrow and osmoregulation through the renin-angiotensinogen system. Adiposogenital syndrome of Hypothalamic eunuchoidism. Hypogonadism in males is caused by the genetic inability of the hypothalamus to secrete gonadotrophin-releasing hormones.
  19. Contraceptive pills. These contain estrogens and progesterone.
  20. Diseases Due To Deficiency/Excess Of Hormones
  21. Grave’s disease. (Exophthalmic Goitre)
  22. Cause: Hypersecretion of thyroxine due to enlargement of the thyroid gland.
  23. Cretinism. Cause: Hyposecretion of thyroxine in children.
  24. Myxoedema. Cause. Deficiency of thyroxine in adults
  • Symptoms: a. puffy appearance due to accumulation of fats.
  • Lack of alertness, and intelligence.
  • Slow heartbeat, low BP, decreased body temperature.
  1. Iodine Def. Goitre: Deficiency of iodine in diet.
  • Symptoms: Enlargement of thyroid gland.
  1. Parathyroid tetany : Cause: Deficiency of Parathormone.
  • Symptoms: Sustained contraction of muscles of face, pharynx, hands and feet.
  1. Addison’s Disease: Cause: Deficiency of mineralocorticoids and glucocorticoids.
  • Symptoms: a. low blood sugar, low Na+ ion, high K+ ion concentration in blood.
  • Bronze-like pigmentation of skin.
  • Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea.
  • Conn’s syndrome (Aldosteronism) Caused due to excessive secretion of aldosterone.

Cushing’s Syndrome. Cause. Excess of cortisol.

  • Symptoms, a. High blood sugar, b. Sugar in urine, c. Obesity, d. Wasting of limb muscles
  • Adrenal virilism. Excess of sex corticoids in (females) a tendency to develop male characteristics by the female due to imbalances in the secretion of adrenal hormones.
  • Dwarfism. Deficiency of GH from early age. It may be Lorrain type, Frohlich type, or Progeria.
  • Gigantism. Excess of GH from childhood.
  • Acromegaly. Excess of GH after adolescence. The stage is called Acromicria.
  • Diabetes Insipidus. Deficiency of ADH.
  • Diabetes Mellitus. Deficiency of insulin.
  • Eunuchoidism. Failure of testosterone.
  • Infantilism. Characteristics of childhood continue beyond the years of puberty. Generally caused due to imbalances in the hormone of the anterior pituitary.
    1. Diabetes is a disease caused by a deficiency of insulin secreted by the pancreas.
    2. Hyperglycemia is an increased blood glucose level than the optimum level.
    3. Hypoglycemia is a lower blood glucose level than the optimum level.
    4. Osteoporosis is a disease caused by hypersecretion of parathormone.
  1. Hashimoto’s Disease: Due to a fall in the secretion of thyroxine antibodies start forming against the gland, so the thyroid gets destroyed. It is also known as the suicide of the thyroid.
  2. Ridding Henson disorder: It is caused by to deficiency of collip’s hormone as a result of which phosphate level in the blood decreases and Ca2+ level increases.

Acidosis. Excessive loss of Na+ is known as acidosis. It may occur due to the hyposecretion of Aldosterone.

Thyroid Gland Disorders NEET Exam Preparation

  1. Contributors related to Endocrinology
  2. The first hormone was discovered by William M. Bayliss and Earnest H. Starling (1903).
  3. The term hormone was introduced by Starling (1905).
  4. Selye (1948) defined hormone as a functional chemically complex organic compound.
  5. Berthold laid the foundation for the study of the functions of hormones.
  6. Scharrer and Scharrer (1936) stated that hormones generally control or regulate reproductive activities, growth, maturation, regeneration, metabolism, and homeostasis. , Huxley called hormones as chemical messengers.
  7. Thomas Addison is regarded as the father of endocrinology.
  8. Claude Bernard (1955) established that the nervous system controls the function of endocrine glands.
  9. The action of insulin hormone was demonstrated by Banting and later by Best. Shaefer (1912) gave the name insulin.
  10. F. Sanger (1954) worked out the molecular structure of insulin. He established that it is polypeptide and was awarded the Nobel Prize (1958). i
  11. Human insulin was synthesized by Tsan in 1965.
  12. Kimball and Murlin discovered glucagon.
  13. Karlson and Burtenandt coined the term pheromones.
  14. Kochar (1916) isolated thyroxine (pure form).
  15. Kendall (1919) obtained a crystallized form of thyroxine.
  16. Harrington and Barges (1927) worked out the molecular structures of thyroxine.
  17. Gudernatch (1912) discovered that metamorphosis in a frog’s tadpole begins only when an adequate amount of thyroxine is secreted by the thyroid of the tadpole.
  18. Aldrich (1901) worked out the molecular structures of adrenaline and noradrenaline.
  19. Stolz (1904) and Dakin (1905) synthesized adrenaline.
  20. Enterocrinin. This hormone was isolated by Nasset from both small and large intestinal mucosa

 

  • The nervous system and endocrine system together regulate the working of the body.
  • Hormones affect all the cells of a target organ whereas a neuron will affect only a single muscle or fraction of it.
  • A hormone is a chemical messenger secreted by the endocrine gland and carried to the target organ by blood.
  • The pituitary gland is pea-shaped, 1.3 cm in diameter, and weighs only 0.5 gm.
  • The pituitary is attached to the hypothalamus of the brain by a stalk-like structure called the infundibulum.
  • Region of pituitary
  • Anterior lobe (Adenohypophysis)
  • Posterior lobe (Neurohypophysis)
  • A third region is termed the intermediate lobe or pars intermedia.
  • Neurons of the autonomic system stimulate hormone release from some glands. For instance, adrenaline and noradrenaline are released from the adrenal medulla on the arrival of nerve impulses during anxiety, stress, and danger. Thus endocrine system is considered a chemical extension of the nervous system.
  • Corticotropes. about 20 % and secrete ACTH.
  • Gonadotropes. secrete FSH and LH in female ; and FSH and ICSF1 in male.
  • The gastrointestinal lining also secretes several hormones that regulate the secretion of digestive juices.
  • Thymosin secreted by the thymus stimulates the maturation of immune system cells. Melatonin controls skin shade in some animals and appears to control annual reproductive cycles. Some hormones, such as steroid hormones, act by binding to DNA and altering gene expression.
  • Other hormones bind to membrane receptors, where they either open ion channels (usually Ca2+) or trigger the production of other chemical messengers inside the cell. Typically the receptor activates an enzyme via a G protein intermediate, which generates c AMP, which in turn activates the first step in an enzyme cascade.
  • Cellular reactions are faster and more accurate when activity is determined by the ratio of two antagonistic hormones rather than the absolute level of a single hormone.

Endocrine System Regulation Of Secretion Of Pituitary Body

NEET Biology Endocrine System Quanta To Memory

  1. Hormonology. Study of hormones.
  2. Hormonotherapy. Treatment by hormones.
  3. Largest Endocrine Gland. The thyroid (25 to 40 gms) is the largest endocrine gland in the human body.
  4. Trophins (Tropins). The hormones which stimulate an endocrine gland to secrete its hormone (s,), For example.,  thyrotrophic hormone that stimulates the thyroid gland to secrete thyroxine.
  5. All the pituitary hormones are molecules made chiefly of monomers of amino acids
  6. The anterior pituitary has been called the master gland, because of the tropic hormones it releases. The real master “gland,” however, is the hypothalamus because its hormones regulate the secretory activity of the anterior pituitary.
  7. Anterior and intermediate lobes of pituitary form adenohypophysis derived from Rathke’s pouch are ectodermal in origin.
  8. The posterior lobe or neurohypophysis arises from the floor of the hypothalamus.
  9. Rathke’s pouch: an embryonic outgrowth of the pharynx which forms adenohypophysis of the pituitary gland. Median eminence is a part of the posterior pituitary
  10. Adenohypophysis gets its blood supply through the circle of Willis
  11. In comparison with the nervous system, hormones are distributed by blood but slowly.
  12. Hormonal action is generally less specific in comparison with nervous regulation.
  13. Kyphosis. Hunched back in the person suffering from acromegaly.
  14. Lag period. The period between secretion of hormone from the endocrine gland and biological response from the target organ.
  15. Baldness. It is related to the sex hormones. Male sex hormone promotes baldness, female sex hormones inhibit it.
  16. Melatonin is a hormone secreted by the pineal body and controls skin pigmentation.
  17. Sella turcica is the pituitary fossa (a depression in the skull in which the pituitary gland lies).
  18. Somatotropes are cells of the pituitary gland that secrete growth hormone (also called STH).
  19. Thymosin is a hormone secreted by the thymus gland and increases the activity of T-lymphocytes.
  20. Islets of Langerhans. These are approximately 1 to 2 million small clusters of endocrine cells which are named after the name of their discoverer (1869). Prostaglandins and leukotrienes are important eicosanoids.
  21. These are local hormones and are derived from a 20-carbon fatty acid called arachidonic acid. Contraceptive pills contain the hormones estrogen and progesterone.
  22. Melanocyte-stimulating hormone is secreted by the middle lobe of the pituitary. It darkens the skin of many animals including fishes and amphibians. It results from the stimulation of the synthesis of melanin in the skin.
  23. Gravidex test is for detecting the presence of HCG hormone in the urine in case of pregnancy
  24. Parathormone is a protein hormone consisting of 84 amino acids.
  25. The British biologist V.B. Wigglesworth discovered, in the 1930s, two hormones that regulate development in insects. One is ecdysone, which promotes growth, molting, and the development of adult traits.
  26. It is produced by the prothoracic glands in the head or thorax. The other hormone is juvenile hormone which promotes retention of larval characteristics. It is produced by the corpora allata glands in the head.
  27. Of the two insect hormones discovered by Wiggles Worth, ecdysone has no role in the adult insect, whereas juvenile hormone promotes the development of eggs and sperm.
  28. Prolactin and oxytocin are being used for increasing milk yield among dairy cattle. Recently genetically engineered Bovine growth hormone (BGH) was also used to boost milk yield in cows but was banned in March 1995.
  29. The melanocyte-stimulating hormone was previously known as intermedin.
  30. The adrenal gland is also known as the 3F gland (Fear, Flight, Fright)
  31. Oral insulin is given as IZS [Insulin zinc suspension] or PZS (Protamine zinc suspension)
  32. Hassels’ corpuscles are found in the thymus and are known as Thymic cells.
  33. a-and (3-chains of insulin are connected through disulfide bonds.
  34. The thymus is associated with our immune system. It acts as a lymphatic gland.
  35. Humulin is a human insulin, produced by DNA recombinant technology.
  36. Allaxonic diabetes is due to allaxon which destroys beta cells of the pancreas.
  37. The adrenal gland is also known as the 3-F gland and the 4-S gland.
  38. Oral contraceptive pills with a synthetic form of estrogen and progesterone hormones prevent ovulation in the female. Milk secreting hormone is prolactin and milk ejecting hormone is oxytocin.
  39. The pregnancy hormone is progesterone and the birth hormone is oxytocin.

NEET Biology Endocrine System Multiple-Choice Questions

Question 1. Hormones Chemically Are :

  1. Proteins
  2. Fatty Acid Derivatives
  3. Steroids
  4. All The Above.

Answer: 4. All The Above

Question 2. Hormonal Diseases May Be Called :

  1. Functional Diseases
  2. Deficiency Diseases
  3. Infectious Diseases
  4. All The Above.

Answer: 1. Functional Diseases

Question 3. Which Of The Following Is A Hormonal Disease?

  1. Measles
  2. Rabies
  3. Tuberculosis
  4. Osteitis Fibrosa Cystica.

Answer: 4. Osteitis Fibrosa Cystica.

Question 4. A Hormone Is A Molecule That:

  1. Moves Through The Blood Stream And Ducts
  2. Influences Development
  3. Has The Same Chemical Activity In A Variety Of Organisms
  4. Alters The Activity Of Certain Non-Adjacent Cells.

Answer: 4. Alters The Activity Of Certain Non-Adjacent Cells

Adrenal Gland Hormones NEET Biology

Question 5. Adrenaline Is Secreted By :

  1. Pituitary Gland
  2. Pineal Gland
  3. Adrenal Gland
  4. Thymus Gland.

Answer: 3. Adrenal Gland

Question 6. Corticoids Are Secreted By :

  1. Thymus
  2. Adrenals
  3. Pancreas
  4. Kidney.

Answer: 2. Adrenals

Question 7. Islets Of Langerhans Secrete :

  1. Adrenaline
  2. Acth
  3. Fsh
  4. Insulin.

Answer: 4. Insulin.

Question 8. Based on the Chemical Nature Of Hormones, They Are Divided Into :

  1. Two Categories
  2. Three Categories
  3. Five Categories
  4. Six Categories.

Answer: 4. Six Categories.

Question 9. α-Cells Of Adenohypophysis Secrete Which Hormone?

  1. ACTH And LH
  2. GH And LTH
  3. FSH And LH
  4. TSH And FSH.

Answer: 2. GH And LTH

Question 10. The Trophic Factors Are Made Up Of Proteins Containing :

  1. 1 To 4 Amino Acids
  2. 4 To 10 Amino Acids
  3. 3 To 15 Amino Acids
  4. 3 To 20 Amino Acids.

Answer: 4. 3 To 20 Amino Acids.

Question 11. Which One Of The Following Is Not Synthesized In the Pituitary?

  1. Lactotrophic
  2. TSH
  3. ICSH
  4. ADH

Answer: 1. Lactotrophic

Question 12. Acth Is Secreted By :

  1. Pineal Body
  2. Anterior Lobe Of Pituitary Gland
  3. Posterior Lobe Of Pituitary Gland
  4. Thymus.

Answer: 2. Anterior Lobe Of Pituitary Gland

Question 13. Adh Is Produced By :

  1. Pineal Body
  2. Anterior Lobe Of Pituitary Body
  3. Thymus
  4. Posterior Lobe Of Pituitary Body.

Answer: 4. Posterior Lobe Of Pituitary Body.

Question 14. Which Of The Following Substances Is Released In Excess Quantity During Excitement?

  1. Cortisone
  2. Serotonin
  3. Adrenaline
  4. Nor-Epinephrine.

Answer: 3. Adrenaline

Adrenal Gland Hormones NEET Biology

Question 15. Which Of The Following Structures Act As Temporary Ductless Gland?

  1. Pancreas
  2. Pineal
  3. Parathyroid
  4. Placenta.

Answer: 4. Placenta

Question 16. Which Of The Following Secretory Glands Acts Both As Endocrine And Exocrine?

  1. Adrenal
  2. Parathyroid
  3. Pancreas
  4. Pineal.

Answer: 3. Pancreas

Question 17. Like Muscles, Hormones Are Antagonistic In Their Functioning. Mark The Wrong One :

  1. Calcitonin And Parathormone
  2. Insulin And Glucagon
  3. Tsh And Thyroxine
  4. Somatostatin And Growth Hormone.

Answer: 3. Tsh And Thyroxine

Question 18. The Hormone Released From the Intermediate Lobe Of the Pituitary Is:

  1. FSH
  2. LH
  3. MSH
  4. ACTH.

Answer: 3. ACTH

Question 19. Secretion Of The Following Hormones Results In Cretinism :

  1. Thyroxine
  2. Testosterone
  3. Calcitonin
  4. ADH.

Answer: 1. Thyroxine

Question 20. Vasopressin Is Related With :

  1. Concentration Of Urine
  2. Dilution Of Urine
  3. Quick Digestion
  4. Slow Heart Beat.

Answer: 1. Concentration Of Urine

Question 21. Which Of The Following Statements Is False?

  1. Hormones Produced In Ovary Affects The Uterine Cycle
  2. Hormones Produced In Small Intestine Stimulate Heart
  3. Hormones Produced In Adrenal Medulla Stimulate HeartBeat
  4. Hormones Produced In Thyroid Stimulate Metabolism.

Answer: 2. Hormones Produced In the Small Intestine Stimulate the Heart

Adrenal Gland Hormones NEET Biology

Question 22. The Target Cells Of A Hormone Always Have :

  1. Special Receptors To Which The Hormones Bind
  2. Special Channels Through Which The Hormones Move
  3. Large Amounts Of Hormones Stored Within Vesicles.
  4. Undifferentiated Cytoplasm.

Answer: 1. Special Receptors To Which The Hormones Bind

Question 23. The Cells That Produce Glucagon In Pancreas Are :

  1. α Cells
  2. β Cell
  3. ϒ Cells
  4. Acinar Cells.

Answer: 1. α Cells

Question 24. Calcium Ions Are Important In The Body Because They :

  1. Are Involved As Co-Factors
  2. Regulate Many Intercellular Metabolism
  3. Influence Membrane Permeability
  4. All The Above.

Answer: 4. All The Above.

Question 25. Fsh Is Produced By :

  1. Posterior Lobe Of Pituitary Body
  2. Middle Lobe Of Pituitary Body
  3. Anterior Lobe Of Pituitary Body
  4. Adrenal Cortex.

Answer: 3. Anterior Lobe Of Pituitary Body

Question 26. A Short Individual, Fairly Well Proportioned Body, Who Is Mentally And Physically Normal, Developed Due To The Undersecretion Of Growth Hormones, This Stage Is :

  1. Lorrain’S Type
  2. Frohlich’S Type
  3. Acromegaly
  4. Acromicria.

Answer: 1. Lorrain’s Type

Question 27. Adrenal Medullary Hormones Are Produced When :

  1. Neurohypophysis Is Stimulated
  2. Adenohypophysis Is Stimulated To Produce Oxytocin
  3. Under Stress
  4. Breeding Phase Starts.

Answer: 3. Under Stress

Question 28. Estrogen Is Necessary For :

  1. Development And Maintenance Of Uterus
  2. Proper Functioning Of Fallopian Tube
  3. Normal Functioning Of The Cervix And Vagina
  4. Development Of Secondary Sexual Characters In Females.

Answer: 4. Development Of Secondary Sexual Characters In Females.

Question 29. Vasopressin And Oxytocin Are Secreted By :

  1. Hypothalamic Neurosecretory Cells
  2. Neurohypophysis
  3. Medulla
  4. Pancreas.

Answer: 1. Hypothalamic Neurosecretory Cells

Question 30. Adrenal Cortical Cells Are Stimulated By :

  1. Corticotropins From The Hypothalamus
  2. Adreno Corticotropic Hormones
  3. Corticoids
  4. Changes In Blood Glucose Level.

Answer: 2. Adreno Corticotropic Hormones

Question 31. Many Hormones Are Initially Synthesised As Biologically Inactive Precursor Molecules Called :

  1. Ectohormones
  2. Pheromones
  3. Endorphins
  4. Prohormones.

Answer: 4. Prohormones.

Question 32. Rate Of Hormones Synthesis And Secretion Depend Upon :

  1. Functional Efficiency Of The Feedback
  2. Amount Of Excitation In Target Tissue
  3. Degree Of Inhibition Causes
  4. Functional State Of Tissue.

Answer: 1. Functional Efficiency Of The Feedback

Pancreatic Hormones And Blood Sugar Regulation NEET

Question 33. Thyrotrophic Releasing Hormone Is :

  1. A Neurosecretion From The Hypothalamus Which Stimulates Anterior Lobe Of Pituitary
  2. A Secretion Of Pars Distalis
  3. Elaboration Of Neurohypophysis
  4. From Thyroid Gland.

Answer: 1. A Neurosecretion From The Hypothalamus that stimulates the Anterior Lobe Of the Pituitary

Question 34. Involvement Of Any Hormone In The Control Of Cellular Function Depends On A Series Of Reactions Involving :

  1. Synthesis Of Hormone In The Endocrine Cells
  2. Feedback Control
  3. Beginning With Hormone Synthesis And Finishing With Feedback Control
  4. None Of The Above.

Answer: 3. Beginning With Hormone Synthesis And Finishing With Feedback Control

Question 35. Hormones Regulating The Morphogenetic Effects Are :

  1. Growth Hormone
  2. Testosterone
  3. Androgens
  4. All Of The Above.

Answer: 4. All Of Above.

Question 36. If the Ovaries Of A Lady Are Removed In The Fourth Month Of Pregnancy, The Result Will Be :

  1. Embryo Will Develop Normally Till Birth
  2. Abortion Will Occur After Some Time
  3. Development Of Embryo Become Improper
  4. None Of The Above.

Answer: 1. Embryo Will Develop Normally Till Birth

Question 37. A Substance Called ADH Is:

  1. A Hormone That Promotes Glycogenesis In Liver Cell
  2. An Enzyme Secreted By Cells Of Intestinal Wall; Hydrolyses Dipeptides Into Amino Acids
  3. A High Energy Compound Involved In Muscle Contraction
  4. A Pituitary Secretion Which Promotes Reabsorption Of Water From Glomerular Filtrate.

Answer: 4. A Pituitary Secretion that promotes Reabsorption Of Water From Glomerular Filtrate.

Question 38. The Pancreas Is A Mixed Gland In Which :

  1. All Cells Secrete Enzymes And Hormones
  2. Most Cells Secrete Hormones
  3. A Few Cells Secrete Enzymes
  4. Enzymes And Hormones Are Secreted By Separate Cells.

Answer: 4. Enzymes And Hormones Are Secreted By Separate Cells.

Question 39. Treatment With Alloxan Destroys :

  1. STH Cells
  2. β- cells of Islets Of Langerhans
  3. Cells Of Sertoli
  4. Cells Of Leydig.

Answer: 2. Islets Of Langerhans

Question 40. Select The Correct Answers To The Followings. Which Of The Following Techniques Should Be Least Likely To Help Elucidate The Function Of A Hormone Produced By An Endocrine Gland?

  1. Removal Of The Gland And Subsequent Analysis Of What Functions Are Lost
  2. Transplantation Of The Gland Into An Animal That Lacks The Gland
  3. Transfusion Of Blood From An Animal Lacking The Gland Into An Animal That Has The Gland And Observation Of Its Effects
  4. Observing Effects Of Gland Extract On Various Tissues Grown In Culture.

Answer: 3. Transfusion Of Blood From An Animal Lacking The Gland Into An Animal That Has The Gland And Observation Of Its Effects

Question 41. All The Following Commonly Serve As Signals Stimulating Hormone Secretion Except:

  1. Conditions Outside The Body
  2. Rising Levels Of Another Hormone
  3. Rising Levels Of The Hormone In Question
  4. Falling Levels Of The Hormone In Question.

Answer: 3. Rising Levels Of The Hormone In Question

Pancreatic Hormones And Blood Sugar Regulation NEET

Question 42. Hormones Are Known To Cause All The Following Changes In Target Cells Except:

  1. Changes In Genetic Make-Up
  2. Change In Permeability
  3. Change In Metabolic Rate
  4. Increase In Cyclic Amp Concentration.

Answer: 1. Changes In Genetic Make-Up

Question 43. An Advantage Of Having The Endocrine System As Well As The Nervous System Involved In The “Fight Or Flight” Response:

  1. The Endocrine System Responds Faster
  2. The Endocrine Response Usually Lasts Longer
  3. The Endocrine System Is Turned More Precisely To The Degree Of Need
  4. The Endocrine System Affects Only The Target Organ Whose Response Is Needed To Meet The Emergency.

Answer: 4. The Endocrine System Affects Only The Target Organ Whose Response Is Needed To Meet The Emergency.

Question 44. In Case Of Hypersecretion Of A Parathormone, Some Cells Of the Body Become Overactive. These Cells Are :

  1. Ependymal Cells
  2. Sarcoplasmic Reticulum
  3. Osteoclasts
  4. Osteocytes.

Answer: 3. Osteoclasts

Question 45. Hormones Controlling Expression Of Secondary Sexual Characters Are Secreted By Which Of These Cells In The Testis?

  1. Sertoli Cells
  2. Spermatogonia
  3. Leydig’S Cells
  4. Primary Spermatocytes.

Answer: 3. Leydig’s Cells

Question 46. Hormones Which Helps In The Implantation Of Embryo In Uterus Is :

  1. Estrogen
  2. Thyroxine
  3. Relaxin
  4. Progesterone.

Answer: 4. Progesterone

Question 47. In The Areas Of Destruction In The Bones, Fibrous Cysts Develop However The Parathyroid Becomes Overactive. This Is The :

  1. Osteitis Fibrosa Cystica
  2. Polydipsia
  3. Osteomalacia
  4. None.

Answer: 1. Osteitis Fibrosa Cystica

Question 48. Anti-Allergic Hormone Is :

  1. Epinephrine
  2. Non-Epinephrine
  3. Gluco-Corticoid
  4. Mineralo-Corticoid.

Answer: 3. Gluco-Corticoid

Question 49. Cretinism Is Due To :

  1. Hypothyroidism In Children
  2. Hypothyroidism In Adults
  3. Hyperthyroidism In Children
  4. Hyperthyroidism In Adults.

Answer: 1. Hypothyroidism In Children

Pancreatic Hormones And Blood Sugar Regulation NEET

Question 50. Which Of The Following Is Not Necessarily Property Of All Hormones?

  1. Carrying Information
  2. Secreted In Small Amounts
  3. Short Half-Life
  4. Proteinic Nature.

Answer: 4. Proteinic Nature.

Question 51. One Of The Following Hormones Is Not Produced By Alimentary Canal. Select?

  1. Insulin
  2. Cholecystokinin
  3. Secretin
  4. Gastrin.

Answer: 1. Insulin

Question 52. The True Proteinaceous Hormones Are Secreted By :

  1. Pancreas
  2. Anterior Lobe Of Pituitary
  3. Posterior Lobe Of Pituitary
  4. Thyroid.

Answer: 2. Anterior Lobe Of Pituitary

Question 53. What Does The Growth Hormone Do When the Growth Period Is Over:

  1. Regulates Metabolism
  2. Promotes Reproductive Activities
  3. Stimulates Growth Of Secondary Sexual Characters
  4. Stimulates Gametogenesis.

Answer: 1. Regulates Metabolism

Question 54. Strong Emotional Attachment To The Young Ones Is Due To:

  1. Emotional Hormones Like Epinephrine And Gluco-Corticoids
  2. Luteotropic Hormone (Lth)
  3. Lh
  4. All.

Answer: 2. Luteotropic Hormone (Lth)

Question 65. Secretion Of Vasopressin Is :

  1. Acyclic And Not Affected By Seasonal Changes
  2. Cyclic Phenomenon With Seasonal Changes
  3. Effect Of Exercise
  4. A Regular And Constant Feature.

Answer: 1. Acyclic And Not Affected By Seasonal Changes

Question 66. Precursor Chemical For Steroid Hormones Are:

  1. Cholesterol
  2. Nucleic Acid
  3. Amino Acid
  4. Mucoprotein.

Answer: 1. Cholesterol

Question 67. Function Of Progesterone Is :

  1. Preparation Of Uterus For Pregnancy
  2. To Maintain The Pregnancy
  3. To Complete The Formation Of Milk In The Mammary Glands
  4. Both  1 And 2.

Answer: 2. To Maintain The Pregnancy

Endocrine System NEET Notes

Question 68. A New Menstrual Cycle Starts When :

  1. Pituitary Resumes Lh Production In The Absence Of Fsh And Progesterone
  2. Ovary Resumes Progesterone Production In the Presence Of Lh
  3. Ovary Resumes Estrogen Production In The Presence Of Fsh
  4. Pituitary Resumes Lh Production In The Presence Of Fsh And Progesterone.

Answer: 3. Ovary Resumes Estrogen Production In The Presence Of Fsh

Question 69. Diabetes Mellitus Is Caused By Deficiency Of:

  1. Secretin
  2. Adrenaline
  3. Insulin
  4. Prolactin.

Answer: 3. Insulin

Question 70. The Growth Of Facial And Body Hair In Male Is Stimulated By :

  1. Pituitary Hormones
  2. Thyroxine
  3. Parathyroid
  4. Androgenic Hormones.

Answer: 4. Androgenic Hormones.

Question 71. The Phenomenon Of ‘Heat’ Or Oestrus In Females Is Due To The Hormones Secreted By :

  1. Pituitary
  2. Thyroid
  3. Interstitial Cells Of Testes
  4. Ovarian Follicles.

Answer: 4. Ovarian Follicles.

Question 72. Hyperadrenalism Is Called :

  1. Cushing’S Disease
  2. Addison’S Disease
  3. Simmond’S Disease
  4. None.

Answer: 1. Cushing’s Disease

Question 73. Which Of The Pituitary Hormones Is Responsible For The Secretion Of Milk By The Mammary Glands In Females?

  1. ACTH-RH
  2. LH And Prolactin
  3. LTH-RH
  4. TH.

Answer: 2. LH And Prolactin

Question 174. Which One Of The Endocrine Glands Shrinks After The Start Of Adolescence?

  1. Pituitary Body
  2. Pineal Glands
  3. Hypothalamus
  4. Thymus Glands.

Answer: 4. Thymus Glands.

Question 75. The Hormone That Regulates The Growth Of The Skeleton And The Body As A Whole Is :

  1. Thyroxine
  2. Parathormone
  3. Thyroid Stimulating Hormone
  4. Human Growth Hormone.

Answer: 4. Human Growth Hormone.

Question 76. Which One Of The Following Has an Anti-Insulin Effect?

  1. Calcitonin
  2. Cortisol
  3. Oxytocin
  4. Aldosterone.

Answer: 2. Cortisol

Question 77. Which Of The Following Hormones Is Proteinic In Nature But May Be Secreted By An Organ Which Normally Secretes Steroids Under Special Conditions Is :

  1. Relaxin
  2. LH
  3. Estrogen
  4. Oxytocin.

Answer: 1. Relaxin

Question 78. The Addison’s Disease Is Caused By The :

  1. Hyposecretion Of Cortical Hormones
  2. Hypersecretion Of Cortical Hormones
  3. Hypersecretion Of Pituitary Hormones
  4. Enlargement Of Thyroids.

Answer: 1. Hyposecretion Of Cortical Hormones

Question 79. The Determination And Masculinisation Of Female May Be Done By :

  1. Ovary
  2. Medulla Of Adrenals
  3. Cortex Of Adrenals
  4. Parathyroids.

Answer: 3. Cortex Of Adrenals

Question 80. Select The Odd One :

  1. Insulin
  2. Oxytocin
  3. Thyroxine
  4. Ecdysone.

Answer: 4. Ecdysone.

Question 81. Progesterone Is A / An :

  1. Enzyme
  2. Protein
  3. Hormone That Relaxes Uterus During Birth
  4. Hormone Responsible For Growth And Maintenance Of Foetus.

Answer: 4. Hormone Responsible For Growth And Maintenance Of Foetus.

Question 82. Which Hormone Of The Following Endocrine Glands Lacks Peptide, Amines And Sulphur?

  1. Hormones Of the Anterior Lobe Of the Pituitary
  2. Hormones Of the Posterior Lobe Of the Pituitary
  3. Hormones Of Thyroids And Adrenal Gland
  4. Hormones Of Gonads.

Answer: 4. Hormones Of Gonads.

Endocrine System NEET Notes

Question 83. Which Endocrine Gland Stores Its Secretion In The Extracellular Space Before Discharging It Into The Blood?

  1. Adrenal
  2. Pancreas
  3. Testis
  4. Thyroid.

Answer: 4. Thyroid.

Question 84. According To The Accepted Concept Of Hormone Action, If Receptor Molecules Are Removed From Target Organs :

  1. The Target Organ Will Continue To Respond To The Hormone Without Any Difference
  2. The Target Organ Will Continue To Respond To The Hormone But Will Require Higher Concentration
  3. The Target Organ Will Not Respond To The Hormone
  4. The Target Organ Will Continue To Respond To The Hormone But In The Opposite Way.

Answer: 3. The Target Organ Will Not Respond To The Hormone

Question 85. Oxytocin Is A :

  1. Parathormone
  2. Small Peptide
  3. Fatty Acid Residue
  4. Sugar Molecule.

Answer: 2. Small Peptide

Question 86. The Hormone that elevates Blood Calcium And Phosphorus levels is:

  1. Parathormone
  2. Calcitonin
  3. Thyroxine
  4. Triiodothyronine.

Answer: 1. Parathormone

Question 87. The Hormone Which Stimulates Milk Production In Mammals Is Known As:

  1. Glucagon
  2. Prolactin
  3. Progesterone
  4. Oestrogen.

Answer: 2. Prolactin

Question 88. Which Of The Following Is Not a Steroid?

  1. Testosterone
  2. Oestradiol-17b
  3. Progesterone
  4. Prolactin.

Answer: 4. Prolactin.

Question 89. Which Of The Following Hormones Stimulate the Conversion Of Proteins Into Amino Acids Particular During Fasting Or Hibernation?

  1. Glucocorticoids
  2. Secretin
  3. Adrenaline
  4. Enterogastrone.

Answer: 1. Glucocorticoids

Question 90. Growth Hormone Is Secreted By :

  1. Hypothalamus
  2. Thyroid Glands
  3. Pituitary Gland
  4. Pineal Body.

Answer: 3. Pituitary Gland

Question 91. The Hormone In the Pineal Gland Is Called :

  1. Melatonin
  2. Melatonin
  3. Serotonin
  4. Pincolin.

Answer: 1. Melatonin

Question 92. The Pineal Gland :

  1. Is A Photoreceptor
  2. Responds To Smell
  3. Responds To Sound
  4. Is Sensitive To Light Stimulus.

Answer: 4. Is Sensitive To Light Stimulus.

Endocrine System NEET Notes

Question 93. Endocrinology Term Was Proposed By :

  1. Pande
  2. Hardy
  3. Sutherland
  4. All Of These.

Answer: 1. Pande

Question 94. Hormones Are Needed In :

  1. Gms.
  2. Milligrams
  3. Nanograms
  4. Kilograms.

Answer: 3. Nanograms

Question 95. Pheromones Are :

  1. Hormones Of Insects
  2. Peripheral Hormones
  3. Both 1 And 2
  4. None.

Answer: 3. Both 1 And 2

Question 96. The Total No. Of Hormones Produced By Adrenal Cortex Is 20 But They Are Grouped Under :

  1. One
  2. Two
  3. Three
  4. Four.

Answer: 3. Three

Question 97. Calcitonin, Which Reduces The Excessive Amount Of Calcium Of The Blood, Is Secreted By The :

  1. Hypothalamus
  2. Parathyroid
  3. Thyroid
  4. Adrenal.

Answer: 3. Thyroid

Question 98. The Vesicles Of The Thyroid Gland Are Lined By :

  1. Epithelium Which Is Single Layered
  2. A Double Layer Of Epithelium
  3. A Single Layer Of Endothelium
  4. A Double Layer Of Endothelium.

Answer: 1. Epithelium Which Is Single Layered

Question 99. The Moulting In Insects Is Triggered Off By :

  1. Thyroxine
  2. Ecdysone
  3. Juvenile Hormone
  4. Pheromone.

Answer: 2. Ecdysone

Question 100. The Hormones Secreted By Hypothalamus Are Carried To The Pituitary Gland By :

  1. Hypophyseal Stalk
  2. Hypophyseal Portal System
  3. Neural Complex
  4. Neuro-Hypophyseal Portal System.

Answer: 2. Hypophyseal Portal System

Question 101. Cretinism In Children Is Caused By :

  1. Hypothyroidism
  2. Hypopituitarism
  3. Hypoparathyroidism
  4. Hypo-Insulin-Secretion.

Answer: 1. Hypothyroidism

Hormones And Their Functions NEET Biology

Question 102. Mammalian Thymus Is Mainly Concerned With :

  1. Regulation Of Body Growth
  2. Regulation Of Body Temperature
  3. Immunological Functions
  4. Secretion Of Thyrotropins.

Answer: 3. Immunological Functions

Question 103. Insulin Was Extracted First By :

  1. Flemming
  2. Khorana
  3. Watson And Crick
  4. Banting And Best.

Answer: 4. Banting And Best.

Question 104. The Effect Of Different Hormones On The Body Can Be Best Said To Bring About:

  1. Stimulation Of Organs
  2. Release Of Inherent Capacities
  3. Proper Growth
  4. Coordination Of Functions.

Answer: 4. Coordination Of Functions.

Question 105. Which Hormone Has The Anti-Insulin Effect?

  1. Calcitonin
  2. Cortisol
  3. Oxytocin
  4. Glucagon.

Answer: 2. Cortisol

Question 106. Hypoparathyroidism Results Due To :

  1. Upset In Metabolism
  2. Improper Gonadial Function
  3. Convulsions And Tetany
  4. Nervousness And Wasting.

Answer: 3. Convulsions And Tetany

Question 107. The Secretion From Which Of The Following Controls Wall Balance In The Body?

  1. Cerebellum
  2. Cerebrum
  3. Pineal Body
  4. Pituitary.

Answer: 4. Pituitary.

Question 108. Hypothyroidism In Adult Causes :

  1. Cretinism
  2. Exophthalmic Goitre
  3. Myxoedema
  4. Graves’s Disease

Answer: 3. Myxoedema

Question 109. Insulin Promotes :

  1. Glycogenesis
  2. Glycolysis
  3. Glyconeogenesis
  4. Glycogenolysis.

Answer: 1. Glycogenesis

Question 110. Mark The Gland In Whose Presence Sex Glands Fail To Develop :

  1. Adrenal
  2. Pituitary
  3. Pineal
  4. Thyroid.

Answer: 3. Pineal

Question 111. The Anterior Lobe Of Pituitary Affects :

  1. Protein Metabolism
  2. Fat Metabolism
  3. Carbohydrate Metabolism
  4. All Of The Above.

Answer: 4. All Of The Above.

Question 112. Survival Time Can Be Minimized If We Remove:

  1. Adrenal
  2. Pituitary
  3. Thymus
  4. Thyroid.

Answer: 1. Adrenal

Question 113. Testis Secretes Androgen, It Is :

  1. Testosterone
  2. Androsterone
  3. Progesterone
  4. Aldosterone.

Answer: 1. Testosterone

Question 114. Which Of The Following Causes Ageing?

  1. Islets Of Langerhans
  2. Parathyroid
  3. Thyroid
  4. Thymus.

Answer: 4. Thymus.

Hormones And Their Functions NEET Biology

Question 115. Breast Development During Pregnancy Is Induced By :

  1. Estradiol
  2. Progesterone
  3. Relaxin
  4. None Of These.

Answer: 2. Progesterone

Question 116. Which Of The Following Is Helpful For An Asthma Patient In Exhaling The Air?

  1. Adrenaline
  2. Insulin
  3. Oxytocin
  4. Thyroxine.

Answer: 1. Adrenaline

Question 117. Which Of The Following Controls Thirst?

  1. Adrenal
  2. Pituitary
  3. Parathyroid
  4. Thyroid.

Answer: 2. Pituitary

Question 118. Complete Failure Of Adenohypophysis Of Pituitary In Adult Women Causes :

  1. Addison’S Disease
  2. Cushing’S Disease
  3. Dwarfism
  4. Simmond’s Disease.

Answer: 3. Dwarfism

Question 119. Oxytocin Is Secreted By :

  1. Adenohypophysis
  2. Neurohypophysis
  3. Hypophyseal Stalk
  4. Only Pregnant Women.

Answer: 2. Neurohypophysis

Question 120. Fsh Is Produced By :

  1. Adrenal
  2. Thyroid
  3. Anterior Lobe Of Pituitary
  4. Posterior Lobe Of Pituitary.

Answer: 3. Anterior Lobe Of Pituitary

Question 121. Which Of The Following Hormones Is From the Parathyroid Gland?

  1. Epinephrine
  2. Gastrin
  3. Noradrenaline
  4. Parathormone.

Answer: 4. Parathormone.

Question 122. Thyroxine Is Produced Through :

  1. Chlorination Of Serine
  2. Iodination Of Isoleucine
  3. Iodination Of Tyrosine
  4. Phosphorylation Of Amino Acids.

Answer: 3. Iodination Of Tyrosine

Question 123. Which Of The Following Is Related To The Production Of Lymphocytes And Antibodies?

  1. Thymus
  2. Hypothalamus
  3. Thyroid
  4. Leydig Cells.

Answer: 1. Thymus

Question 124. Addison’s Disease Is Due To the Malfunctioning Of the:

  1. Adrenal Cortex
  2. Parathyroid
  3. Pineal Gland
  4. Pancreas.

Answer: 1. Adrenal Cortex

Question 125. The Recently Reported Hormone, Angiotensin Is Secreted By :

  1. Liver
  2. Kidney
  3. Pancreas
  4. Placenta.

Answer: 1. Liver

Question 126. Thyroxine Plays Significant Effect On :

  1. Carbohydrate Metabolism
  2. Protein Metabolism
  3. Vitamin Metabolism And Central Nervous System
  4. All Of The Above.

Answer: 3. Vitamin Metabolism And Central Nervous System

Question 127. Continued Secretion Of Milk Is Maintained By :

  1. Prolactin
  2. Progesterone
  3. Oestrogen
  4. Relaxin.

Answer: 1. Prolactin

Question 128. The Over-Secretion Of Which Of The Following Pituitary Hormones Causes Acromegaly (Irregularly Development Of Bones)?

  1. ACTH
  2. LH
  3. GTH
  4. STH Or GH.

Answer: 4. STH Or GH.

Question 129. Hormone Responsible For The Implantation Of Embryo In Uterus And Formation Of Placenta Is :

  1. Adrenaline
  2. Progesterone
  3. Estradiol
  4. FSH.

Answer: 2. Progesterone

Question 130. The Pituitary Gland’s Posterior Lobe Produces Two Hormones Called :

  1. Cortisone And Corticosterone
  2. Progesterone And Estradiol
  3. Testosterone And Androsterone
  4. Vasopressin And Oxytocin.

Answer: 4. Vasopressin And Oxytocin.

Question 131. According To Recent Knowledge, The Pineal Body Is Considered As :

  1. An Organ Of Intelligence
  2. An Endocrine Gland
  3. A Vestigial Organ
  4. An Organ Of Involuntary Action.

Answer: 2. An Endocrine Gland

Pituitary Gland Hormones NEET Study Material

Question 132. Which Hormone Is Responsible For The Relaxation Of The Ligaments Of The Pelvic Girdles In Females At The Time Of Birth?

  1. Corpus Luteum
  2. Gastrin
  3. Estradiol
  4. Relaxin.

Answer: 4. Relaxin.

Question 133. Who Studied The Effect Of Thyroxine On Metamorphosis :

  1. Huxley
  2. Starling
  3. Kendall
  4. Gudernatsch.

Answer: 4. Gudernatsch.

Question 134. Correct Hormonal Sequence In The Increase Of Menstruation Is:

  1. Estrogen, Fsh And Progesterone
  2. Estrogen, Progesterone And Fsh
  3. Fsh, Progesterone And Estrogen
  4. Fsh, Estrogen And Progesterone.

Answer: 4. Fsh, Estrogen And Progesterone.

Question 135. Hormone Secreted By Posterior Lobe Of Pituitary Is Concerned With :

  1. Metabolism Of Carbohydrates
  2. Stimulation Of Thyroid
  3. Secondary Sexual Characters
  4. Contraction Of Uterus.

Answer: 4. Contraction Of Uterus.

Question 136. Hormone-secreting cells, Called Neurosecretory Cells, Are Abundant In The following:

  1. Hypothalamus
  2. Amygdala
  3. Cerebral Cortex
  4. Medulla Oblongata.

Answer: 1. Hypothalamus

Question 137. Oxytocin And Antidiuretic Hormone Reach The Posterior Pituitary By Way Of :

  1. The Anterior Pituitary Gland
  2. Lymphatic Vessels
  3. Blood Vessels
  4. Axons.

Answer: 4. Axons.

Question 138. Oxytocin And Antidiuretic Hormone Reach Their Target Cells By Way Of :

  1. The Anterior Pituitary Gland
  2. Lymphatic Vessels
  3. Blood Vessels
  4. Axons

Answer: 3. Blood Vessels

Question 139. The Luteinising Hormone Is Secreted By :

  1. Lactotrophs
  2. Gonadotrophs
  3. Thyrotrophs
  4. Neurohypophysis.

Answer: 2. Gonadotrophs

Question 140. Hypothalamic Releasing Hormones Reach The Anterior Pituitary Gland By Way Of:

  1. The Posterior Pituitary Gland
  2. Lymphatic Vessels
  3. Blood Vessels
  4. Axons.

Answer: 3. Blood Vessels

Question 141. Excessive Production Of Growth Hormone During Adulthood Can Lead To :

  1. A Pituitary Giant
  2. A Pituitary Dwarf
  3. Disproportionately Large Hands, Feet And Jaw
  4. Deterioration Of The Bones.

Answer: 3. Disproportionately Large Hands, Feet And Jaw

Question 142. In Mammals, Prolactin Stimulates The Production Of :

  1. Progesterone
  2. Mucus In The Digestive Tract
  3. Digestive Enzymes In The Small Intestine
  4. Milk.

Answer: 4. Milk.

Question 143. Cushing’s Syndrome Is Associated With the:

  1. Glucocorticosteroids
  2. Mineralo Corticosteroids
  3. Sex Corticosteroids
  4. Gene Mutation.

Answer: 1. Glucocorticosteroids

Question 144. If A Person Is Subjected To Stress (Like Heat, Cold, Loud Noise, etc.) Continuously, Which Organ Will Undergo Hypertrophy :

  1. Adrenal
  2. Liver
  3. Pancreas
  4. Salivary Glands.

Answer: 1. Adrenal

Question 145. Addison’s Disease Is Caused By the:

  1. Hyposecretion Of Corticosteroid
  2. Oversecretion Of Corticosteroid
  3. Hyposecretion Of Lh
  4. Oversecretion Of Lh.

Answer: 1. Hyposecretion Of Corticosteroid

Pituitary Gland Hormones NEET Study Material

Question 146. The Adrenal Glands Are Located Adjacent To The :

  1. Larynx
  2. Urinary Bladder
  3. Kidneys
  4. Gonads.

Answer: 3. Kidneys

Question 147. The Fight-Or-Flight Response Is Developed By Hormones Of The :

  1. Hypothalamus
  2. Adrenal Medulla
  3. Adrenal Cortex
  4. Adreno-Pancreatic Complex.

Answer: 2. Adrenal Medulla

Question 148. The Main Function Of Norepinephrine Is To Increase :

  1. Blood Pressure
  2. Urine Production
  3. Cellular Respiration
  4. The Release Of Epinephrine.

Answer: 1. Blood Pressure

Question 149. Epinephrine And Norepinephrine Function As Both Hormones And :

  1. Fuel For Cellular Respiration
  2. Neurotransmitters
  3. Ions To Promote Action Potentials
  4. Solutes To Promote Osmotic Flow.

Answer: 2. Neurotransmitters

Question 150. All The Hormones Of The Adrenal Cortex Are Synthesized From:

  1. Tyrosine
  2. Glycoproteins
  3. Cholesterol
  4. Fats.

Answer: 3. Cholesterol

Question 151. Disease Osteitis Fibrosa Cystica Is Related With :

  1. Hyposecretion Of Parathyroid Hormone
  2. Hypersecretion Of Parathyroid Hormone
  3. Hypersecretion Of Mineralocorticosteroids
  4. Hyposecretion Of Glucocorticosteroids.

Answer: 2. Hypersecretion Of Parathyroid Hormone

Question 152. The Part Of The Brain With the Greatest Influence Over The Endocrine System Is The :

  1. Hypothalamus
  2. Amygdala
  3. Cerebral Cortex
  4. Medulla Oblongata.

Answer: 1. Hypothalamus

Question 153. Which Of The Following Groups Of Arthropoda Has a Well-Developed Endocrine System?

  1. Arachnida
  2. Crustacea
  3. Insecta
  4. All Classes Of Arthropoda.

Answer: 4. All Classes Of Arthropoda.

Question 154. If Adenohypophysectomy Is Done In Adults, Then Which Of The Following Is The Correct Statement:

  1. Acromegaly
  2. It Will Affect the Function Of the Testis And Ovary
  3. Gigantism
  4. B.M.R. Will Be Affected.

Answer: 2. It Will Affect the Function Of the Testis And Ovary

Question 155. The Moult Of An Insect Is Triggered By :

  1. Thyroxine
  2. Ecdysone
  3. Juvenile Hormone
  4. A Pheromone.

Answer: 2. Ecdysone

Question 156. The Development Of Adult Characteristics In A Moulting Insect Is Promoted By :

  1. Thyroxine
  2. Ecdysone
  3. Juvenile Hormone
  4. A Pheromone.

Answer: 2. Ecdysone

Question 157. The Retention Of Larval Characteristics In A Moulting Insect Is Promoted By :

  1. Thyroxine
  2. Ecdysone
  3. Juvenile Hormone
  4. A Pheromone.

Answer: 3. Juvenile Hormone

Question 158. A Male Moth Finds A Mate Using:

  1. Thyroxine
  2. Ecdysone
  3. Brain Hormone
  4. Pheromone.

Answer: 4. Pheromone.

Question 159. Diabetes Mellitus Develops Only When :

  1. α Cells Of the Pancreas Are In Excess
  2. α Cells Of the Pancreas Are Not Functioning
  3. β Cells Of Pancreas Are In Excess
  4. β Cells Of the Pancreas Are Not Functioning.

Answer: 4. 3 Cells Of Pancreas Are Not Functioning

Question 160. The Target Cells Of A Hormone Always Have :

  1. Special Receptors To Which The Hormone Binds
  2. Special Channels Through Which The Hormone Moves
  3. Large Amounts Of The Hormone Stored Within Vesicles
  4. Undifferentiated Cytoplasm.

Answer: 1. Special Receptors To Which The Hormone Binds

Question 161. The Hormone Which Is Related To The Urine Concentration In Mammals :

  1. Antidiuretic Hormone Only
  2. Antidiuretic Hormone And Oxytocin
  3. Antidiuretic Hormone And Aldosterone
  4. Testosterone Only.

Answer: 3. Antidiuretic Hormone And Aldosterone

Pituitary Gland Hormones NEET Study Material

Question 162. Which Of The Following Hormones Is A Steroid?

  1. Prostaglandin
  2. Estrogen
  3. Epinephrine
  4. Thyroxine.

Answer: 2. Estrogen

Question 163. In A Male Heavy Voice And Growth Of Beard And Moustaches Is Due To Oversecretion Of :

  1. Androgen
  2. Estrogen
  3. Adrenaline
  4. Estrogen And Progesterone.

Answer: 1. Androgen

Question 164. A Steroid Hormone Typically Alters The Activity Of Its Target Cells By :

  1. Digesting Holes In The Cell’s Plasma Membrane
  2. Entering The Cell And Altering Gene Expression
  3. Passing Its Message To An Intracellular Messenger
  4. Digesting Holes In The Cell’s Lysosomes.

Answer: 2. Entering The Cell And Altering Gene Expression

Question 165. Which Of The Following Hormones Is A Modified Amino Acid?

  1. Prostaglandin
  2. Estrogen
  3. Epinephrine
  4. Progesterone.

Answer: 3. Epinephrine

Question 166. A Peptide Hormone Typically Alters The Activity Of Its Target Cells By :

  1. Digesting Holes In The Cell’s Plasma Membrane
  2. Entering The Cell And Altering Gene Expression
  3. Passing Its Message To An Intracellular Messenger
  4. Digesting Holes In The Cell’s Lysosomes.

Answer:  3. Passing Its Message To An Intracellular Messenger

Question 167. Animal Tissues That Synthesize Hormones Are Closely Associated With, And Sometimes Resemble, Cells Of The :

  1. Immune System
  2. Embryonic Mesoderm
  3. Circulatory System
  4. Nervous System.

Answer: 4. Nervous System.

Question 168. Which One Of The following is Not Under Direct Control Of Pituitary Gland?

  1. Adrenal Cortex
  2. Adrenal Medulla
  3. Thyroid
  4. Testis.

Answer: 2. Adrenal Medulla

Question 169. If Thyroidectomy Of Tadpole Is Performed, Moulting Will Take Place :

  1. Potassium Iodide Treatment
  2. Fed On Adult Sheep Thyroid
  3. Moulting Will Never Take Place
  4. Normal Moulting Will Take Place.

Answer: 2. Fed On Adult Sheep Thyroid

Question 170. Spermatogenesis In the Mammalian Testis Is Controlled By :

  1. FSH
  2. LH
  3. Progesterone
  4. ICSH.

Answer: 1. FSH

Question 171. Vasopressin Is Related With :

  1. Dilution Of Urine
  2. Increased Heart Beat
  3. Concentration Of Urine
  4. Decreased Heart Beat.

Answer: 3. Concentration Of Urine

Question 172. The Part Of The Brain With The Greatest Influence Over The Endocrine System Is The :

  1. Hypothalamus
  2. Cerebellum
  3. Cerebral Cortex
  4. Medulla Oblongata.

Answer: 1. Hypothalamus

Question 173. Metabolic Rate In Mammals Is Controlled By :

  1. Pancreas
  2. Liver
  3. Pituitary
  4. Thyroid.

Answer: 4. Thyroid.

Question 174. Hypothalamo-Hypophyseal System Is Derived From :

  1. Rathke’S Pouch
  2. Neuroectoderm
  3. Rathke’s Pouch And Neuroectoderm
  4. None Of The Above.

Answer: 3. Rathke’s Pouch And Neuroectoderm

Question 175. The Cells Of the Pancreas That Produce Glucagon Are :

  1. Alpha Cells
  2. Gamma Cells
  3. Acinar Cells
  4. Beta Cells.

Answer: 1. Alpha Cells

Question 176. The First Hormone To Be Isolated (In 1902) Was :

  1. Thyroxine
  2. Testosterone
  3. Epinephrine
  4. Secretin.

Answer: 4. Secretin

Question 177. The Mammalian Thyroid Gland Is Located Adjacent To The

  1. Adenoids
  2. Trachea
  3. Kidneys
  4. Pancreas.

Answer: 2. Trachea

Question 178. Thyroxine And Triiodothyronine, Produced By The Thyroid Are Synthesized From Iodine And :

  1. Phenylalanine
  2. Cholesterol
  3. Glycoproteins
  4. Tyrosine.

Answer: 4. Tyrosine.

Pituitary Gland Hormones NEET Study Material

Question 179. The Parathyroid Glands Are Located Adjacent To The :

  1. Adenoids
  2. Thyroid Gland
  3. Adrenal Glands
  4. Pancreas.

Answer: 2. Thyroid Gland

Question 180. Progesterone Is Secreted By :

  1. Corpora Allata
  2. Corpus Albicans
  3. Corpus Luteum
  4. None Of These.

Answer: 3. Corpus Luteum

Question 181. Which Of The Following Statements is correct?

A. Endocrine Control Is Integrated With Neural Control At The Level Of The Hypothalamus.

B. Thyroid Hormones Are Required For Normal Prenatal Brain Development.

C. Glucocorticoids Are Anabolic Steroids.

D. Adrenal Medulla Releases Adrenaline And Noradrenaline In A Ratio Of Approximately 10:1:

Choose The Correct Answer

  1. A And D
  2. A And C
  3. A And B
  4. B And C

Answer: 3. A And B

Question 182. Which Of The Following Statement Is Correct?

  1. Testosterone Is Not Water-Soluble And Acts Via Receptors On The Plasma Membrane Of The Target Cells.
  2. Hypoglycemia Occurs Most Commonly In Diabetic Patients.
  3. Oxytocin Is Released In Response To Mechanical Stimulation Of The Breast Nipple
  4. Cellular Reactions Are Slow And More Accurate When Activity Is Determined By Two Antagonistic Hormones.

Answer: 2. Hypoglycemia Occurs Most Commonly In Diabetic Patients.

Question 183. The Posterior Pituitary :

  1. Produces Oxytocin
  2. Is Under The Control Of the Hypothalamic Releasing Neurohormone
  3. Secretes Trophic Hormones
  4. Secretes Neurohormones.

Answer: 1. Produces Oxytocin

Question 184. Parathyroid Hormone :

  1. Is Produced By The Thyroid Gland
  2. Is Released When Blood Calcium Levels Fall
  3. Stimulates Osteoblasts To Lay Down New Bone
  4. Stimulates Calcitonin Release.

Answer: 2. Is Released When Blood Calcium Levels Fall

Question 185. Steroid Hormones :

  1. Have Only Cell Surface Receptors
  2. Are Lipophobic
  3. Act Through Altering The Activity Of Proteins In The Target Cell
  4. Are Produced By The Adrenal Cortex.

Answer: 3. Act Through Altering The Activity Of Proteins In The Target Cell

Question 186. Match The Definitions Of Column 1 With the Appropriate Term Of Column 2

Endocrine System Match The Definition Question 186.

  • A B C D E
  1. 1 2 4 3 5
  2. 5 1 2 3 4
  3. 5 1 3 4 2
  4. 5 1 2 4 3.

Answer: 2.  5 1 2 3 4

Question 187. Both Adrenaline And Cortisol Are Secreted In Response To Stress; Which Of The Following Statement Is Also True For Both Of These Hormones?

  1. They Act To Increase Blood Glucose
  2. They Are Secreted By The Adrenal Cortex
  3. Their Secretion Is Stimulated By Adrenocorticotropin
  4. They Are Secreted Into The Blood Within Seconds Of The Onset Of Stress.

Answer: 1. They Act To Increase Blood Glucose

Question 188. Which Of The Following Is Not Inhibitory Hormone?

  1. PIH
  2. GHIH
  3. MIH
  4. GI.

Answer: 4. GI.

Question 189. Melanocyte Stimulating Hormone Is Secreted By Which Cell Type Of Pituitary Gland?

  1. Somatotroph
  2. Thyrotroph
  3. Corticotroph
  4. Gonadotroph.

Answer: 3. Corticotroph

Question 190. Which Of The Following Can Cause the Release Of Oxytocin Hormone In A Lactating Mother?

  1. Sight Of Baby
  2. Sound Of Baby
  3. Both 1 And 2
  4. None Of Above.

Answer: 3. Both 1 And 2

Question 191. Which Of The Following Hormone Is Not Present In Both Sexes?

  1. Oxytocin
  2. ADH
  3. FSH
  4. ICSH.

Answer: 4. ICSH.

Question 192. About A Million Islets Of Langerhans Each With Approximately 3000 Cells Comprise What Percentage Of Pancreas?

  1. 1
  2. 1-5
  3. 2
  4. 2-5.

Answer: 2. 1-5

Question 193. Which Of The Following Statement Is Incorrect?

  1. Somatostatin Inhibit The Secretion Of Insulin And Glucagon
  2. Cortisol Hormone Has No Role During And After Danger
  3. Hypoglycemic Results From Hypersecretion Of Insulin
  4. Human Placental Lactogen Stimulate Mammary Growth.

Answer: 2. Cortisol Hormone Has No Role During And After Danger

Thyroid Gland Disorders NEET Exam Preparation

Question 194. Which Of The Following Is A Function Of Calcitonin?

  1. Regulation Of Metabolic Rate
  2. Maintenance Of Body Temperature
  3. Regulate The Development Of Mental Faculties
  4. All Of The Above.

Answer: 4. All Of Above.

Question 195. Hypophysectomy Results In Diminution Of All Except One Of The Following Hormones.

  1. Acth (Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone)
  2. Growth Hormone
  3. Prolactin
  4. Tsh (Thyroid Stimulating Hormone).

Answer: 3. Tsh (Thyroid Stimulating Hormone).

Question 196. The Glucocorticoids Are Mainly Responsible For :

  1. Enhancement Of Glucose Formation
  2. Diminution Of Glucose Formation
  3. Excretion Of Sodium By Kidney
  4. Retention Of Sodium By Kidney.

Answer: 1. Enhancement Of Glucose Formation

Question 197. Insulin Deficiency Produces :

  1. Increased Entry Of Glucose Into Cells
  2. Reduced Entry Of Glucose Into Cells
  3. Decreased Release Of Glucose From Liver
  4. No Effect On Carbohydrate Metabolism.

Answer: 2. Reduced Entry Of Glucose Into Cells

Question 198. Hormones Based On Fatty Acids Are :

  1. Small In Size And Variable In Structure
  2. Small In Size And Constant In Structure
  3. Large In Size And Variable In Structure
  4. Large In Size And Constant In Structure.

Answer: 2. Small In Size And Constant In Structure

Question 199. A Disease Which Is Caused By The Under-Secretion Of Adrenal Cortex Is :

  1. Grave’s Disease
  2. Addison’s Disease
  3. Cushing’s Syndrome
  4. Acromegaly.

Answer: 2. Addison’s Disease

Question 200. A Hormone Which Helps In The Implantation Of Embryo In Uterus Is :

  1. Oestrogen
  2. Relaxin
  3. Progesterone
  4. Thymosin.

Answer: 3. Progesterone

NEET Biology Endocrine System Questions From Competitive Examination

Question 1. Myxoedema Is Due To :

  1. Decreased Production Of Thyroxine
  2. Increased Production Of Thyroxine
  3. Excess Gh
  4. Decreased Insulin.

Answer: 1. Decreased Production Of Thyroxine

Question 2. Injection Of Glucagon Will :

  1. Cause Hypoglycemia
  2. Cause Galactosemia
  3. Increase Blood Sugar
  4. Cause Goitre.

Answer: 3. Increase Blood Sugar

Question 3. Goitre Influences :

  1. Speech
  2. Excretion
  3. Metabolism
  4. Vision.

Answer: 3. Metabolism

Question 4. Pheromones Are :

  1. Produced By Endocrine Glands
  2. Mrnas
  3. Chemicals Used In Animal Communication
  4. Proteins.

Answer: 3. Chemicals Used In Animal Communication

Question 5. Which Is Not Involved In Endocrine Secretion?

  1. Ley Dig Cell
  2. Lutein Cell
  3. Para-Follicular Cells Of Thyroid
  4. Kupffer Cells.

Answer: 4. Kupffer Cells

Thyroid Gland Disorders NEET Exam Preparation

Question 6. Gh Affects Growth By Controlling Production Of:

  1. mRNA
  2. tRNA
  3. rRNA
  4. None Of The Above.

Answer: 1. mRNA

Question 7. If the Receptor Molecule Is Removed From the Target Organ For Hormone Action, The Target Organ Will:

  1. Continue To Respond But Requires Higher Concentration Of Hormone
  2. Continue To Respond But In Opposite Way
  3. Continue To Respond Without Any Difference
  4. Not Respond To Hormone.

Answer: 4. Not Respond To Hormone.

Question 8. Melatonin Is Produced By :

  1. Thymus
  2. Skin
  3. Pituitary
  4. Pineal Gland.

Answer: 2. Skin

Question 9. On Seeing A Tiger, The Heart Beat And Blood Pressure Increase Due To Release Of Hormone :

  1. Adrenaline
  2. Thyroxine
  3. Parathormone
  4. Corticoids.

Answer: 2. Thyroxine

Question 10. A Person Has Protruding Eyes, Tachycardia, And Higher Body Temperature. He Is Suffering From :

  1. Cretinism
  2. Hyperthyroidism
  3. Diabetes
  4. Acromegaly.

Answer: 2. Hyperthyroidism

Question 11. Match The Endocrine Gland, Given Under Column 1 With Their Respective Position In The Body, Given Under Column 2. Choose The Answer Which Gives The Correct Combination Of Alphabets Of Two Columns :

Endocrine System Match The Endocrine Glands Combination Question11

  1. A – S, B = T, C = P, D= Q
  2. A = Q, B = S, C = T, D= P
  3. A = T, B = R, C = P, D= Q
  4. A = P, B = Q, C = R, D= T.

Answer: 3. A = T, B = R, C = P, D= Q

Question 12. Match The Hormone Listed Under Column 1 With The Roles  Given Under Column 2. Choose The Choice In Which The Alphabets Of The Two Columns Are Correctly Matched :

Endocrine System Match The Hormone Question 12

  1. A = Q, B = S, C = P, D- R
  2. A – T, B = P, C = S, D= Q
  3. A = R, B = T, C = S, D= Q
  4. A = T, B – S, C = P, D= Q.

Answer: 4. A = T, B – S, C = P, D= Q.

Question 13. Autoimmune Hypothyroidism Is :

  1. Hashimoto Disease
  2. Cushing Syndrome
  3. Myxoedema
  4. Addison’s Disease.

Answer: 1. Hashimoto Disease

Question 14. Steroids Are Precursors Of:

  1. Progesterone
  2. Oestrogen
  3. Testosterone
  4. All Of the Above.

Answer: 4. All Of Above

Thyroid Gland Disorders NEET Exam Preparation

Question 15. Thyrotropin – Releasing Factor (Trf) Is Produced By :

  1. Cerebrum
  2. Optic Lobe
  3. Cerebellum
  4. Hypothalamus.

Answer: 4. Hypothalamus.

Question 16. Tetany Is Caused By :

  1. Hypothyroidism
  2. Hyperthyroidism
  3. Hypoparathyroidism
  4. Hyperparathyroidism.

Answer: 3. Hypoparathyroidism

Question 17. Mainly Which Type Of Hormones Control The Menstrual Cycle In Human Beings :

  1. FSH
  2. Progesterone
  3. FSH, LH, Estrogen
  4. LH.

Answer: 3. FSH, LH, Estrogen

Question 18. When Both Ovaries Are Removed From the Rat Then Which Hormone Is Decreased In Blood?

  1. Oxytocin
  2. Gonadotrophic Releasing Factor
  3. Estrogen
  4. Prolactin.

Answer: 3. Estrogen

Question 19. Which One Of The Following Pairs Correctly Matches A Hormone With A Disease Resulting From Its Deficiency?

  1. Insulin -Diabetes Insipidus
  2. Relaxin -Gigantism
  3. Prolactin -Cretinism
  4. Parathyroid Hormone -Tetany.

Answer: 4. Parathyroid Hormone -Tetany

Question 20. Synthesis Of Testosterone By Leydig Cells Is Stimulated By :

  1. FSH
  2. ICSH
  3. LTH
  4. TSH

Answer: 2. ICSH

Question 21. Which One Of The Following Hormones Is A Modified Amino Acid?

  1. Prostaglandin
  2. Estrogens
  3. Epinephrine
  4. Progesterone.

Answer: 3. Epinephrine

Question 22. Which One Of The Following Pairs Correctly Matches A Hormone With A Disease Resulting From Its Deficiency?

  1. Thyroxine-Tetany
  2. Parathyroid Hormone-Diabetes Mellitus
  3. Luteinizing Hormone-Failure Of Ovulation
  4. Insuhn-Diabetes Insipidus.

Answer: 3. Luteinizing Hormone-Failure Of Ovulation

Question 23. Chemically The Hormones Are :

  1. Proteins Only
  2. Steroids Only
  3. Biogenic Amines Only
  4. Proteins, Steroids And Biogenic Amines.

Answer: 3. Biogenic Amines Only

Question 24. Which Of The Following Hormones Is Not A Secretion Product Of the Human Placenta?

  1. Estrogens
  2. Progesterone
  3. Hcg
  4. Prolactin.

Answer: 4. Prolactin.

Question 25. Damage To the Thymus In A Child May Lead To :

  1. A Reduction In Haemoglobin Content Of Blood
  2. A Reduction In Stem Cell Production
  3. Loss Of Antibody-Mediated Immunity
  4. Loss Of Cell-Mediated Immunity.

Answer: 4. Loss Of Cell-Mediated Immunity.

Question 26. Parkinson’s Disease (Characterized By Tremors And Progressive Rigidity Of Limbs) Is Caused By Degeneration Of Brain Neurons That Are Involved In Movement Control And Make Use Of Neurotransmitters:

  1. Acetylcholine
  2. Norepinephrine
  3. Dopamine
  4. Gaba.

Answer: 3. Dopamine

Question 27. Fsh Is Secreted By :

  1. Anterior Lobe Of Pituitary
  2. Hypothalamus
  3. Gonads
  4. Posterior Lobe Of Pituitary

Answer: 1. Anterior Lobe Of Pituitary

Question 28. Which One Of The Following Four Glands Is Correctly Matched With The Accompanying Description?

  1. Thyroid – Hyperactivity In Young Children Causes Cretinism
  2. Thymus – Starts Undergoing Atrophy After Puberty
  3. Parathyroid – Secrete Parathormone Which Promotes the Movement Of Calcium Ions From Blood Into Bones During Calcification
  4. Pancreas – Delta Cells Of The Islets Of Langerhans Secrete A Hormone That Stimulates Glycolysis In the Liver.

Answer: 2. Thymus – Starts Undergoing Atrophy After Puberty

Thyroid Gland Disorders NEET Exam Preparation

Question 29. The Hormone That Controls The Level Of Calcium And Phosphorus In The Blood Is Secreted By :

  1. Thyroid
  2. Parathyroid
  3. Pituitary
  4. Thymus.

Answer: 2. Parathyroid

Question 30. Which Of The Following diseases is Not Related To Thyroid Gland?

  1. Myxoedema
  2. Cretinism
  3. Acromegaly
  4. Goitre.

Answer: 3. Acromegaly

Question 31. Grave’s Disease Is Due To :

  1. Hyperactivity Of the Thyroid Gland
  2. Hypoactivity Of Adrenal Cortex
  3. Hyperactivity Of the Adrenal Medulla
  4. Hypoactivity Of Islets Of Langerhans.

Answer: 1. Hyperactivity Of Thyroid Gland

Question 32. Hassal’s Bodies/Corpuscles Are Found In :

  1. Liver
  2. Thymus
  3. Thyroid
  4. Adrenal.

Answer: 2. Thymus

Question 33. Choose The Correct Combination Of Labelling In The Hormonal Control Of the Female Reproductive System

Endocrine System Choose The Correct Combination Question 33

  1. A-GnRH, B-Tsh, C- Lth, D-Uterus
  2. A-Gnrh, B-Fsh/Lh, C – Estrogen Of Progesterone, D- Utrerus
  3. A-Gnrh, B-Sth, C-Lh, D-Uterus
  4. A-Gnrh, B-Acth, C-Lh, D-Uterus.

Answer: 2. A-Gnrh, B-Fsh/Lh, C – Estrogen Of Progesterone, D- Utrerus

Question 34. Which Of The Following Is Not Paired Correctly?

  1. Myxoedema – Swollen Facial Tissues
  2. Cretinism – Mentally Retarded
  3. Grave’s Disease – Exophthalmos
  4. Insulin – Raise Blood Glucose.

Answer: 4. Insulin – Raise Blood Glucose.

Question 35. Match Item In Column 1 With Those Given In Column 2.

Endocrine System Match The Item Column 1 With Column 2 Question 35

  1. 1 – A, 2 – D, 3 – B,  4 – C, 5 – E
  2. 1 – D, 2 – B, 3 – A,  4 – C,  5 – E
  3. 1 – D, 2 – A, 3 – B,  4 – C,  5 – E
  4. 1 – D, 2 – A, 3 – C,  4 – B,  5 – E.

Answer: 3. 1 – D, 2 – A, 3 – B,  4 – C,  5 – E

Question 36. If the Receptor Molecule Is Removed From the Target Organ For Hormone Action, The Target Organ Will:

  1. Continue To Respond But Require Higher Concentration Of Hormone
  2. Continue To Respond But In Opposite Away
  3. Continue To Respond Without Any Difference
  4. Not Respond To Hormone.

Answer: 4. Not Respond To Hormone.

Question 37. Match The List 1 Wish List 2

Endocrine System Match The List 1 And List 2 Question 37

  1. A : 3, B:1, C: 4, D: 2
  2. A: 1, B: 2, C : 3, D: 4
  3. A: 2, B: 1, C: 4, D : 3
  4. A: 4, B : 3, C: 2, D: 1.

Answer: 3. A:2, B: 1, C: 4, D: 3

Question 38. A Patient Of Diabetes Mellitus excretes glucose In Urine Even When He Is Kept on a carbohydrate-free diet. It Is Because :

  1. Fats Are Catabolised To Form Glucose
  2. Amino Acids Are Catabolised In Liver
  3. Amino Acids Are Discharged In Blood Stream From Liver
  4. Glycogen From Muscles Are Released In The Blood  Stream.

Answer: 1. Fats Are Catabolised To Form Glucose

Question 39. Sertoli Cells Are Regulated By The Pituitary Known As:

  1. Prolactin
  2. LH
  3. FSH
  4. GH.

Answer: 3. FSH

Question 40. A Steroid Hormone Which Regulates Glucose Metabolism Is :

  1. 11-Deoxycorticosterone
  2. Cortisone
  3. Cortisol
  4. Corticosterone.

Answer: 3. Cortisol

Question 41. Which One Of The Following Is Not A Second Messenger In Hormone Action?

  1. Sodium
  2. Camp
  3. Cgmp
  4. Calcium.

Answer: 1. Sodium

Question 42. Which One Of The Following Statements Is Correct?

  1. Neurons Regulate Endocrine Activity, But Not Vice Versa
  2. Endocrine Glands Regulate Neural Activity, But Not Vice Versa
  3. Neither Hormones Control Neural Activity Nor The Neurons Control Endocrine Activity
  4. Endocrine Glands Regulate Neural Activity, And Nervous System Regulates Endocrine Glands.

Answer: 4. Endocrine Glands Regulate Neural Activity, And Nervous System Regulates Endocrine Glands.

Question 43. Which Hormone Causes Dilation Of Blood Vessels, Increased Oxygen Consumption And Glucogenesis?

  1. Adrenalin
  2. ACTH
  3. Glucagon
  4. Insulin.

Answer: 1. Adrenalin

Question 44. Withdrawal Of Which Of The Following Hormones Is The Immediate Cause Of Menstruation?

  1. FSH
  2. Progesterone
  3. Estrogen
  4. FSH-RH.

Answer: 2. Progesterone

Question 45. Which Is Not A Symptom Of Hypothyroidism?

  1. Lethargy
  2. Mental Retardation
  3. Oedema
  4. Rise In Blood Urea.

Answer: 4. Rise In Blood Urea

Question 46. Flyposecretion Of Which Of The Following Can Cause Diabetes Insipidus?

  1. Insulin
  2. Thyroxine
  3. Glucagon
  4. ADH.

Answer: 1. Insulin

Question 47. The Hormones That Initiate Ejection Of Milk, Stimulate Milk Production And Growth Of Ovarian Follicles Are Respectively Known As

  1. PRL, OT, And LH
  2. OT, PRL And FSH
  3. LH, PRL, And FSH
  4. PRH, OT, And LH
  5. PRH, OT, And FSH

Answer: 2. OT, PRL And FSH

Question 48. Hypothyroidism In Adults And Hyperparathyroidism Will Respectively Lead To :

  1. Myxoedema And Cretinism
  2. Grave’s Disease And Hashimoto’s Disease
  3. Myxoedema And Osteitis Fibrosa Cystica
  4. Addison’s Disease And Cretinism
  5. Cretinism And Osteitis Fibrosa Cystica.

Answer: 3. Myxoedema And Osteitis Fibrosa Cystica

Question 49. Which One Of The Following Endocrine glands functions As A Biological Clock And A Neurosecretory Transducer?

  1. Adrenal Gland
  2. Thyroid Gland
  3. Pineal Gland
  4. Thymus Gland
  5. Pituitary Gland.

Answer: 3. Pineal Gland

Question 50. Match The Hormone In Column 1 With Their Function In Column 2.

 

  1. A-5, B-4, C-L, D-2
  2. A-4, B-5, C-2, D-1
  3. A-4, B-3, C-2, D-5
  4. A-5, B-1, C-2, D-4
  5. A-4, B-2, C-3, D-5.

Answer: 1. A-5, B-4, C-1, D-2

Question 51. In The Homeostatic Control Of Blood Sugar Level, Which Organs Function Respectively As Modulator And Effector?

  1. Liver And Islets Of Langerhans
  2. Hypothalamus And Liver
  3. Hypothalamus And Islets Of Langerhans
  4. Islets Of Langerhans And Hypothalamus.

Answer: 3. Hypothalamus And Islets Of Langerhans

Question 52. Column 1 Lists The Endocrine Structure And Column 2 Lists The Corresponding Hormones. Match The Two Columns. Identify The Correct Option From Those Given.

Endocrine System Column 1 List The Endocrine Structure And Column 2 Lists The Corresponding Hormones Question 52

  1. P = t,  Q = r,  R = s,  S = q
  2. P = t,  Q = r,  R = q,  S = s
  3. P = p, Q = q, R = s,  S = r
  4. P = r,  Q,= t,  R = s,  S = q.

Answer: 1. P = t, Q = r, R = s, S = q

Question 53. Which Of The Following Hormones Are Produced In The Hypothalamus And Stored In The Posterior Pituitary?

  1. FSH And LH
  2. ADH And Oxytocin
  3. TSH And STH
  4. ACTH and MSH.

Answer: 2. ADH And Oxytocin

Question 54. Parathyroid :

  1. Increases Blood Ca Level
  2. Decreases Blood Ca Level
  3. Promotes Collagen Synthesis By Osteoblasts
  4. All Of The Above.

Answer: 1. Increases Blood Ca Level

Question 55. Which Part Of the Ovary In Mammals Acts As An Endocrine Gland After Ovulation?

  1. Stroma
  2. Germinal Epithelium
  3. Vitelline Membrane
  4. Graffian Follicle.

Answer: 4. Graffian Follicle.

Question 56. A Person Is Having Problems With Calcium And Phosphorus Metabolism In His Body. Which One Of The Following Glands May Not Be Functioning Properly?

  1. Parotid
  2. Pancreas
  3. Thyroid
  4. Parathyroid.

Answer: 4. Parathyroid.

Question 57. Feeling The Tremors Of An Earthquake A Scared Resident Of the Seventh Floor Of A Multistoryed Building Starts Climbing Down The Stairs Rapidly. Which Hormone Initiated This Action?

  1. Adrenaline
  2. Glucagon
  3. Gastrin
  4. Thyroxine.

Answer: 1. Adrenaline

Question 58. Match List With List Ii And Select The Correct Option.

Endocrine System Match The List 1 With List 2 Question 58

  1. A – 2, B – 5, C – 4, D – 1, E – 3
  2. A – 3, B – 4, C – 5, D -3,  E – 2 ‘
  3. A – 5, B – 3, C – 2, D – 4, E – 1
  4. A – 2, B -3,  C – 4, D – 5, E – 1
  5. A – 5, B – 3, C – 4, D – 2, E – 1.

Answer: 1. A – 2, B – 5, C – 4, D – 1, E – 3

Question 59. Which One Of The Following Pairs Of Organs Includes Only The Endocrine Glands?

  1. Thymus And Testes
  2. Adrenal And Ovary
  3. Parathyroid And Adrenal
  4. Pancreas And Parathyroid.

Answer: 3. Parathyroid And Adrenal

Question 60. Which One Of The Following Is An Amine Hormone?

  1. Insulin
  2. Oxypurin
  3. Thyroxine
  4. Progesterone.

Answer: 3. Thyroxine

Question 61. The Blood Calcium Level Is Lowered By The Deficiency Of :

  1. Thyroxine
  2. Calcitonin
  3. Parathormone
  4. Both Calcitonin And Parathormone.

Answer: 3. Parathormone

Question 62. In Human Adult Females Oxytocin :

  1. Is Secreted By the Anterior Pituitary
  2. Stimulates Growth Of Mammary Glands
  3. Stimulates Pituitary To Secrete Vasopressin
  4. Causes Strong Uterine Contractions During Parturition.

Answer: 4. Causes Strong Uterine Contractions During Parturition.

Question 63. Match The Source Gland With Its Respective Hormone As Well As The Function.

Endocrine System Match The Source Gland Question 63

Answer: 2. Posterior- Vasopressin- Stimulates resorption Of Water In the Distal tubules in the nephron

Question 64.  Given Below Is An Incomplete Table About Certain Hormones, Their Source Glands, And One Major Effect Of Each On The Body In Humans. Identify The Correct Option For The Three Blanks A, B, And C.

Endocrine System Given Is An Incomplete Table Question 64

Endocrine System Question 64 Options

Answer: 1. A- Ovary, B- Glucagon, C- Growth Hormone

Question 65. Which One Of The Following Statements Is Incorrect?

  1. Glucagon Is Secreted By Pancreas.
  2. Androgen Is Produced By Ovary.
  3. Thyroxine Is Secreted By Thyroid.
  4. Oxytocin Is Secreted By the Pituitary.

Answer: 2. Androgen Is Produced By Ovary.

Question 66. Which Of The Following Statements Is Correct To The Endocrine System?

  1. Organs In The Body Like the Gastrointestinal Tract, Heart, Kidney, And Liver Do Not Produce Any Hormones.
  2. Non-Nutrient Chemicals Produced By The Body In Trace Amount That Act As Intercellular Messenger Are Known As Hormones.
  3. Releasing And Inhibitory Hormones Are Produced By The Pituitary Gland.
  4. Adenohypophysis Is Under Direct Neural Regulation Of The Hypothalamus.

Answer: 2. Non-Nutrient Chemicals Produced By The Body In Trace amounts that Act As Intercellular Messengers Are Known As Hormones.

Question 67. A Pregnant Female Delivers A Baby Who Suffers From Stunted Growth, Mental Retardation/Low Intelligence Quotient And Abnormal Skin. This Is The Result Of :

  1. Low Secretion Of Growth Hormone
  2. Cancer Of The Thyroid Gland
  3. Oversecretion Of Pars Distalis
  4. Deficiency Of Iodine In Diet.

Answer: 4. Deficiency Of Iodine In Diet.

68. Select The Answer Which Correctly Matches The Endocrine Gland With The Hormone It Secrets And Its Function/Deficiency Symptom :

Endocrine System Select The Answer Question 68

Answer: 2.

NEET Biology Ecosystem Notes

NEET Biology Ecosystem

Ecosystem. The relationship between a living community (biotic) and its non-living environment (abiotic) is expressed by the term ecosystem. The term was introduced by Tansley (1937).

  • Ecosystems are also called biocoenosis, geobiocoenosis, phytocoenosis, biosystem, exosome, and Holocene.
  • Microecosystem. Very small-sized ecosystem.
  • The Ecosystem is maintained by the flow of energy through it. This flow is unidirectional.
  • Amount Of Energy Trapped. 2% of solar radiation by aquatic ecosystems.
  • 1% of solar radiations by terrestrial ecosystems

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Notes

Ecosystem Flowchart

Ecosystem NEET Notes

Bioenergetics. The flow of energy into ecosystems and its transformations in living organisms.

  • Sun utilizes about 4 million tonnes of H2 per second.
  • Solar energy travels in space in the form of electromagnetic waves. Only 47% of solar radiation reaches the surface of the earth.
  • Biomass. The amount of living matter present in an organism is biomass.
  • The amount of biomass can be calculated in terms of energy.

NEET Biology Notes Covering Ecosystem Dynamics

NEET Biology Ecosystem

Components Of Ecosystem

Food Chains. A food chain consists of a connected group of producers, consumers, and decomposers. It starts with energy from the sun and nutrients from the soil. They pass through plants and one or several consumers to a final consumer that is not fed upon by any other.

Producers. They use the radiant energy of the sun during photosynthesis whereby CO2 is assimilated and the light energy is converted into chemical energy. Green plants are called producers transducers or converters.

Autotrophs. They are green plants that have the capacity to synthesize food in sunlight. They are also called primary producers because solar energy is locked up only in these plants.

Heterotrophs. These are those organisms that are non-green and hence can’t manufacture their own food. Hence they have to depend upon other plants and animals for their food requirement. Hence they are consumers.

Primary Consumers. These are herbivorous animals and depend upon green plants i.e. on producers for their food, for example, Cows and goats.

Secondary Consumers. These are carnivorous animals and eat the flesh of herbivorous animals, for example, dogs, and cats.

Tertiary Consumers are the carnivorous animals that eat other carnivores for example, snakes eat frogs, birds, eat fish.

Top Consumers are carnivores of an ecosystem that are not killed and eaten by other animals, for example, Lions, Vultures, bears, etc.

Microconsumer. Decomposers are termed microconsumers.

Grazing Food Chain: The grazing food chain is also known as the predator food chain.

Ecosystem Grazing Food Chain

  • In grazing food chains, the size of an individual gradually increases in successive trophic levels.
  • Ecosystems with grazing food chains are directly dependent on solar radiation.
  • Most of the ecosystems in nature follow the grazing food chain.

Detritus Food Chain: It starts from dead organic matter into microbes and then to detritus-feeding organisms (detritivores) and their predators. A good example of a detritus food chain is given by Heald and Odum.

Ecosystem Detritus Food Chain

The chain is based on mangrove (Rhizophore wangle) leaves, which fall into shallow estuarine waters of south Florida, leaf fragments acted on by saprotrophs and colonized by algae are eaten and re-eaten by a group of small detritus consumers which in turn, provide the main food for game fish and fish (small carnivore) eaten by birds (top carnivores).

  • Dead plant parts and animal remains are called detritus.
  • Dried plant parts such as leaves, bark, flowers, etc., and dead remains of animals including fecal matter dropped over the soil constitute the above-ground detritus or litter fall while dead roots (root detritus) constitute the below-ground detritus.
  • In the detritus food chain source of energy is detritus (dead organic matter) and not the Sun.
  • The detritus food chain is composed of a long chain of detritus-eating organisms (detritivores).
  • In some ecosystems such as tropical rain forests, more energy flows in the detritus food chain than the grazing food chain.

Decomposers. These include bacteria, fungi, and other organisms that break down the complex compounds present in dead producers and consumers into simpler compounds. These simple organic matters are again decomposed by bacteria into inorganic forms.

Ecosystem NEET Notes

Processes Of Decomposition

  1. Fragmentation of detritus.
  2. Leaching
  3. Catabolism
  1. Fragmentation. Due to fragmentation, the surface area of detritus particles is greatly increased.
  2. Leaching. Water percolating through soil removes soluble substances (for example sugars, several nutrients) from the fragmented detritus due to leaching action.
  3. Catabolism. The extracellular enzymes released by bacteria and fungi carry out catabolism i.e. enzymatic conversion of the decomposing detritus to simpler compounds and inorganic substances. It is important to know that all three decomposition processes operate simultaneously on the detritus.

Humification And Mineralization occur during decomposition in the soil. Humification leads to the accumulation of a dark-colored amorphous substance called humus. Humus is highly resistant to microbial action and undergoes extremely slow decomposition. It serves as a reservoir of nutrients. Mineralization results in the release of inorganic substances (for example CO2, H2O) and available nutrients (NH+4, Ca++, Mg++, K+, etc.) in the soil.

Factors Affecting The Rate Of Decomposition

  1. The upper layer of soil is the main site of decomposition processes in the ecosystem.
  2. The rate of decomposition of detritus is affected by climatic factors and the chemical quality of detritus.
  3. Temperature and soil moisture affect the activities of root microbes.
  4. The chemical quality of detritus is determined by the relative proportion of water-soluble substances, polyphenols, lignin, and nitrogen.

The amounts of energy and materials transferred from one trophic level to the next higher level become less and less and can be represented graphically as pyramids of energy and pyramids of biomass.

Abiotic Components. Abiotic components are non-living factors. It includes water, minerals, salts, humidity, light, temperature, pH, wind, topography, and background.

NEET Biology Ecosystem Food Web

Many food chains operate in a community. They are not independent but are interconnected to such an extent that disturbance in any food chain disturbs the whole community. The interrelationship among the various food chains of a community is called the food web.

When food chains are interconnected with each other forming a network of food transfer of energy flow. This network is called a food web.

Ecosystem Food Web

The arrows in the figure indicate – the flow of energy which is always transferred but never exchanged.

Ecosystem Kinds Of Ecosystem

Kinds Of Ecosystem

E. P. Odum classified ecosystem on the basis of photosynthesis-respiration ratio as under (P/R Ratio):

  1. Stabilized Ecosystem: The P/R ratio is one.
  2. Autotrophic Ecosystem: P/R is more than one.
  3. Heterotrophic Ecosystem: The P/R ratio is less than one

NEET Biology Ecosystem General Pattern Of Energy Flow

Under favorable environmental conditions, only about 1-5% of the energy of incident radiation or 2-10% of PAR is actually captured by the photosynthetic process (gross primary productivity) and the remaining portion is dissipated.

Ecosystem General Pattern Of Energy Flow

Since the simultaneously occurring respiratory processes are energy-consuming and use up part of the photosynthetic gain, the net capture of energy (net primary productivity) is reduced to only 0-8—4% of the incident total radiation or 1-6-8% of PAR. Only the energy captured in the net productivity of producers can be used by other trophic levels.

NEET Biology Ecosystem Ecological Pyramids

Ecological Pyramids can be of three types:

  1. Pyramid Of Number. It can be upright, inverted, or spindle-shaped.
    • Upright Pyramid. Grassland, Pond ecosystem
    • Spindle Pyramid. Forest ecosystem.
    • Inverted Pyramid. Parasitic ecosystem
  2. Pyramid Of Biomass: It is upright for terrestrial habitats.
    • It is inverted or spindle-shaped for aquatic habitats where the biomass of a trophic level depends upon the reproductive potential and longevity of its members.
    • If the total biomass produced per unit of time is calculated, the pyramid of biomass shall always be upright.
    • Maximum biomass occurs in producers. About 10-20% of the biomass is transferred from one trophic level to another.
    • Upright-Pyramid. Grassland, Forest, and Parasitic ecosystems,
    • Inverted Pyramid. Pond ecosystem.
  3. Pyramid Of Energy. Always upright, more accurate than the pyramid of biomass or the pyramid of numbers.

The energy content is expressed in kcal/ m²/ yr or kJ/ m²/yr.

Components Of Ecosystem NEET Biology

Energy Conserving Efficiency

  • Grasslands: 1.15%
  • Savannah: 0.9%
  • Mixed Forests: 0.8%
  • Modem Crops: 5%
  • Sugarcane Field: 10-12%
  1. Community Productivity. Rate of net synthesis of organic matter by a community per unit time and area.
  2. Gross Primary Productivity. The total amount of food synthesized or biomass added by the organisms is called gross primary productivity.
  3. Net Primary Productivity. The organism loses a part of this biomass during its metabolic activities. The net or balanced dry matter accumulated in the organism, after it has consumed a part of it in metabolism or respiration, is called Net Primary Productivity. It is also called assimilative photosynthesis.
    • Net primary productivity = Gross primary productivity – Biomass consumed in respiration.
  4. Primary Productivity. The amount of energy accumulated through photosynthesis by producers is termed primary productivity.
  5. Secondary Productivity. The rate of synthesis of organic matter by consumers is termed secondary productivity.
    • In one year one hectare of forest shall consume 30 tonnes of CO2 and evolve 10 tonnes of O2
    • The amount of carbon dioxide fixed annually through photosynthesis is 7 x 1013  kg.

NEET Biology Ecosystem NEET Biology EcosystemEcological Efficiency

It is the effectiveness with which it maintains its dynamic nature. It is expressed as the energy ratio, expressing the efficiency with which organisms exploit their food resources and convert the food into biomass.

  • Such ratios are calculated by relating output to the input of energy, at various points along the pathway of energy flow.
  • These ratios are multiplied by 100 to express in percentage

Photosynthetic Efficiency = Gross primary productivity/Total incident solar radiation x 100

Net Production Efficiency (NPE). The efficiency with which assimilated energy is incorporated into reproduction, growth, and storage, is called the net production efficiency. It may be shown as:

∴ NEP = Production (reproduction and growth)/Assimilation x 100

In plants, NPE is defined as the ratio of net to gross production. This varies, between 3085% depending on the habitat and growth pattern.

Gross Production Efficiency. The GPE is the product of the assimilation efficiency and net production efficiency.

∴ GPR = Assimilation efficiency x NPE = Production}/Ingestion

This represents the overall efficiency of biomass production within a trophic level.

Assimilation Efficiency. The entire food energy that is consumed is not assimilated. The assimilation efficiency is defined as the percentage expressing the proportion of ingested or consumed energy that is assimilated. It may be shown as:

∴ Assimilation Efficiency = \(\frac{\text{Assimilation}{Ingestion}}\) x 100

Herbivores assimilate about 60 to 70% of the energy in young vegetation and 80% of that in seeds.

Exploitation Efficiency. It is defined as the efficiency with which the biological production of an entire tropic level is consumed.

Components Of Ecosystem NEET Biology

∴ Exploitation efficiency = Ingestion of food/Prey production x 100,

Ecological Efficiency. The % of energy converted into biomass by a higher trophic level over the energy of food resources available at the lower trophic level is called ecological efficiency.

Ecological Efficiency = Energy converted into biomass at tropic level/Energy present in biomass at lower trophic level x 100

Significance Of Ecological Efficiency:

The ratio is used to express the efficiency with which organisms exploit their food resources and convert the food into biomass. The ability of herbivores and carnivores to use the food energy ingested varies from one species to another.

NEET Biology Ecosystem Biomes

Biomes are large biogeographic areas characterized by the presence of distinct groups of climax vegetation, unique animals, and other forms of life.

Typical Climatic Conditions In Major Forest Types In India

Ecosystem Typical Climatic Conditions In Major Forest Types In India

  • Temperate Deciduous Forests. The areas have warm summers and moderately cool winters. Rainfall is 75-150 cm. Dominant trees are Oak, Elm, Birch, Maple Ash, Chestnut, and chickory. Beech, Poplar, and Magnolia. Conifers occur at places. Shrubs, herbs, ferns, mosses, lichens, grasses, vines, and epiphytes are abundant.
    • Most trees shed their leaves during autumn or fall making the soil brown. A mixed coniferous broad-leaved forest occurs in Indian hills between 1500-3500 m. Tree height can reach 30-40 m. Fauna consists of Deer, Fox, and Beaver. Wild Cat. Racoon, Opossum, Squirrel, Rabbit, Hare, Snakes, Lizards, Salamanders. Thrushes, Owls, Sparrows, and songbirds.
  • Taiga is the northern coniferous forest biome with long, severe winter and growing seasons limited largely to the few months of summer. Hardy conifers, Spruce in particular are the most representative of the flora and wolves and bears of the fauna.
  • Grasslands Distribution. The temperate grasslands are present in North America (Canada and the USA), South America, Eastern Europe, Central Asia, South Africa, and Australia. These are called prairies in North America, pampas in South America, steppes in Europe and Asia, veldts in Africa, and tussocks in Australia.
    • Economic Importance. The grasslands are of tremendous economic importance, for they are the prime farming (grain-growing and cattle-raising). Overfarming and loss of topsoil are serious ecological problems that threaten food production.
    • Physical Conditions. The land is plain or gently rolling. The annual rainfall ranges between 25 to 75 cm and it rains intermittently. Moisture is not enough to support forest or woodland. The climate is cold in winter and hot in summer. Dry periods are long. The sunlight is bright and evaporation high.
  • Life. Life is rich in the temperate grasslands.
    • Flora. The short and tall grasses, legumes, and composites form the dominant vegetation. Shrubs and trees may occur as scattered individuals.
    • Fauna. The animals of grasslands are grazing and burrowing mammals.
      • The grazing forms include bison, elk, prong-homed antelope, zebra, bighorn sheep, and deer. The burrowing forms are represented by rodents, such as jackrabbits, prairie dogs, gophers, and ground squirrels.
      • Carnivores, such as wolves, badger, coyotes, and many birds, such as lark, burrowing owl; and insects are also common. Some reptiles (lizards and snakes) also occur.

Characteristics Of Different Terrestrial Biome

Ecosystem Characterstics Of Different Terrestrial Biome

Desert: It is a dry sandy or rocky area with sparse vegetation due to the occurrence of little rain. Rainfall is low less than 120 mm or extreme deserts less than 70 mm per year because the area lies in rain shadow.

This is due to being present either far away from cloud-seeding areas, adjacent to cold ocean currents, beyond a mountain range, or without cloud intercepting mountains. Common deserts are Tibet, Gobi (Mongolia), Thar (India, Pakistan), Arabia, and Sahara, Deserts may be cold deserts or hot deserts.

Hot Deserts: Fewer plants grow in deserts. They are of different ecological categories, ephemeral annuals, rain perennials, succulents, and non-succulent perennials. Succulent include Cacti and Euphorbias. In cold deserts, Sedum, Draba, and Saxifraga occur.

Non-succulent hot desert plants are Aerua, Alhagi, Capparis, Calotropis, Cyperus, Calligonum, Eragrostis, Acacia, Tamarix, Prosopis, and Phoenix. Desert animals live in burrows during the hot periods. Common animals are ants, wasps, locusts, scorpions, spiders, lizards, snakes, desert rats, rabbits, hares, foxes, jackals, cats, etc.

Components Of Ecosystem NEET Biology

NEET Biology Ecosystem Aquatic Biomes

Oceanic, Lakes And Ponds, Marshes, Streams And Rivers.

Oceanic Biome– 2/3 of earth’s surface, 3.5%-concentration of salts, productivity is 1000 kcal/m² yr (less than the most terrestrial biomes). Temperature of ocean surface-28°C in equatorial regions and 0°C near the poles.

Divided Into (Depending Upon The Availability Of Light):

  1. Photic Or Euphotic Zone-upper 200 m layer of ocean.
  2. Apliotic Zone-200-2000 m.
  3. Abyssal Zone-dark zone, below 2000 m.
  4. Oceanic Basin Is Differentiated Into Three Parts:
    • Continental– Shelf. Gradually sloping area of the seashore. Slope- 0.1° from coastline to 160 km in the sea.
    • Continental Slope. A slanting area connects the continental shelf to the oceanic floor. Slope 3-6°.
    • Ocean Floor. Horizontal bottom area of open sea. Normal depth-6000m to 10,000m.

Three Main Types Of Environmental Zones Of Oceanic Basin:

  1. Littoral Zone-sea floor of continental shelf.
  2. Benthonic Zone– sea floor along continental slope, aphotic and abyssal zone, further differentiated into
  3. The Pelagic Zone, the water of the ocean, is further differentiated into Epipelagic, Mesopelagic, Bathypelagic, and Abyssopelagic.

Marine Organisms Are Classified According To The Region Of Their Activity.

  1. Plankton. Passively drifted organisms in surface layers of water bodies (some workers restrict the term plankton for micro-organisms, they refer to other large-size planktons as Neuston)
  2. Nekton, actively swim in surface and deep waters, phagotrophic.
  3. Benthos. Organisms of the bottom.

The Oceanic Biome Is Divided Into Three Major Ecosystems:

  1. Open Sea. the area beyond the continental shelf, divisible into photic, aphotic, and abyssal zones. Otherwise has 2 parts pelagic and benthoic.
  2. Coastal Region. The area of the continental shelf is divisible into 3 parts-intertidal, littoral, and neritic. The intertidal region is exposed, neritic zone comprises the main water body of the area. Beaches belong to the intertidal zone. A highly productive part of the coastal region is the Coral Reef, formed by foraminiferans, calcareous algae, and calcareous skeletons of coelenterates (especially corals).
  3. Estuary. The name of the coastal bay is formed by the tidal mouth of the river due to the mixing of fresh and seawater, there is a wide fluctuation of salinity 0.5-3.5%. Fluctuations of temperature also occur.

Lakes And Ponds. Stationary freshwater bodies that occur on land. Ponds are small, hollow size than one hectare, depth of less than 2 in. Lakes are larger and deeper. Actually, ponds arc natural or man-made depressions which get filled with rain or runoff water. Lakes develop due to:

  1. As a result of glaciation,
  2. Natural or man-made depressions get filled with H2O.
  3. Develop from main stream or river (oxbow lakes).
  • Oligotrophic Lakes– deep, rocky sides, little circulation of nutrients, little biota, for example, Sambhar Lake of Rajasthan.
  • Eutrophic Lakes are rich in biota, quick circulation of nutrients, and shallower, for example, Dal Lake of Kashmir.
  • Marshes -wetlands possessing turbid water bodies of a few cm in depth. Water received from rains and drains. Typical flora consists of amphibians and emerged hydrophytes named heliophytes. Snails, mosquitoes, larvae, insects, frogs etc occur.
  • Streams And Rivers – Lotic Ecosystems – flowing fresh water which differs in physical and climatic conditions, O2 content, temperature, speed, and volume of H2O.
  • Agroecology-Study of interrelationships between agricultural crops and their surrounding animate as well as inanimate environments.

Ecosystems do not occur in isolation, are in contact with adjacent ecosystems, and a part of their area overlaps (the overlapping area is called a Transition zone). Polar bear shows hibernation during winter in caves.

  • Microscopic Phytoplanktons-diatoms, Chlamydomonas, chlorella, spirogyra.
  • Freely Floating Plants – Lemna, Azolla, Pistia, Eichhomia.
  • Suspended Macrophytes – Utricularia, Hydrilla.
  • Anchored Submerged Plants – Vallisneria.
  • Floating Leaned Anchored Plants – Nelumbo, Nymphaea.
  • Emerged Plants – rooted at the bottom but part of them comes out of water. Sagittaria, Typha, Sciipus, Phragmites.

[All of the above varieties of plants are present in ponds and lakes]

Energy Flow In Ecosystem NEET Study Material

Aquatic Biomes Memory Points

  • The word “Biocoenosis” was introduced by Carl Mobius.
  • The Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro focused on the conservation of genetic resources of flora and fauna.
  • The flora of Delhi is predominantly xerophytic.
  • Resurrection plants – examples of drought evasion Selaginella lepidophylla.
  • Fecundity refers to the potential ability of an organism to generate reproductive units, including eggs, sperm, or asexual structures.
  • Association. A collection of species within a trophic level use a shared resource base in a comparable manner, such as nectar-feeding birds or grazing and browsing mammals.
  • Herbivores are sometimes referred to as Key Industry Animals. (Elton, 1927) due to their ability to transform plant materials into animal matter.
  • Chaparral vegetation comprises resilient, dense, broad-leaved evergreen plants, such as sage and oak, that exhibit fire resistance.
  • Illumination is severely deficient in the tundra, with winter temperatures ranging from -30°C to -40°C. Summer lasts around 60 days at a temperature of 10°C.

NEET Biology Ecosystem Vegetation Of India

In India, there are two most common types of plant formations.

Forests. Indian forests are classified into four major types based on temperature such as tropical, mountain subtropical, temperate, and alpine.

  1. Tropical forests. They are of two types moist and dry. Moist tropical forests. On the basis of the degree of wetness, they may be
    • Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests. Annual rainfall is over 250 cm. as in the West Coast, Assam, Bengal, and Andaman islands. The dominant trees arc Dipterocarpus, Hopea, Artocarpus, Emblica, Man gif era, Iscora, and some climbers (Lianas) and epiphytes.
    • Tropical Moist Semi-Evergreen Forests. They are found in North Assam, Bengal, parts of Orissa receiving heavy rainfall. Trees shed their leaves for a brief period. They include trees such as Terminalia; and Shorca.
    • Tropical Moist Deciduous Forests. They are common in moist areas of Kerala, Karnataka, South Madhya Pradesh, Northern Uttar Pradesh, and Bihar. Bengal and North Orissa. They include teak and Sal trees.
    • Dry Tropical Deciduous Forests. Trees remain leafless for several weeks in the dry season. Trees are moderate in size with sparse canopy. Thorny shrubs, grasses, and some bamboos are also present in some regions. In the north, such forests are found in Punjab, U.P. Bihar, and Orissa in regions that are neither wet nor too dry.
  2. Temperate Forests. They occur above 5,300 ft altitude, chiefly in the mountains of the Himalayas and Nilgiri. In the Himalayas, Oaks and conifers are abundant.
  3. Alpine Vegetation. They are extensive throughout the Himalayas above 11,000 ft. The tree’s height becomes lesser with increasing altitude. Alpine vegetation is characterized by Rhododendrons. It includes small plants like Sedum, Primula, Saxifraga, and lichens.
  4. Grasslands. In India, natural grasslands are not found. Most Indian grasslands are being maintained in their present serai stage due to biotic interference.

NEET Biology Ecosystem Biosphere

Biosphere. The inhabited part of the earth and its atmosphere form the biosphere. It extends to about 22.5 km in thickness from the ocean bottom to the mountain tops.

  • Maximum Density Of Organisms is found in coral reefs and tropical rain forests.
  • Pedosphere. Consists of soil.
  • The lithosphere is the dry crust of the earth (rocks and soil) 20 km in thickness.
  • Hydrosphere. Oceans and sea (70% of the total earth’s surface).
  • The atmosphere consists of 78% N2, 20.9% 02, 0.94% Ar, and 0.03% CO2.

Ecosystem Fundamental regions Of The Environment

The atmosphere is differentiated into the troposphere, stratosphere, ozonosphere, and ionosphere.

NEET Biology Ecosystem Ecological Succession

Biotic Succession. A biologically controlled modification in the composition of a community of a particular area is called biotic succession or ecological succession. Biotic succession is also known as the successive development of different communities in a particular area till a climax community is formed.

It was first studied by King (1685). The term succession was coined by Hult(1885). Clements defined it as a natural process by which the same locality becomes successively colonized by different groups of plants. Odum further described it.

Energy Flow In Ecosystem NEET Study Material

Kinds Of Succession

  1. Primary Succession (Prisere). In any of the basic environments, primary succession starts from the primitive substratum, where there was no previously any sort of living matter. The first group of plants established there are known as pioneers, primary community, or primary colonizers and the last group is of climax community formed of tall trees.
    • The time taken for the development of forest climax or sand-dune or barren land is about 1000 yrs. Time taken is about 50-100 yrs in the case of grassland and more than 200 yrs for a forest
  2. Autotrophic Succession. This type of succession is dominated by autotrophs which represent the first serial stage. lt occurs on a substratum having excess mineral matter but little organic matter.
  3. Heterotrophic Succession. It occurs on a substratum having an excess of organic matter. This type of succession is always dominated by detrivores i.e., fungi and bacteria.
  4. Induced Succession. It occurs due to extensive external interference. Here the initial community has high productivity which gradually decreases. The agriculture can be deemed as an example of induced succession.
    • Here a steady state is maintained for an ultimate good harvest. Elimination of weeds can be deemed as a step towards retrogression as it inhibits the arrival of a stable state.
  5. Autogenic Succession. When the plants themselves gradually modify the environment to the extent that the habitat itself becomes unfavorable for the existing vegetation, a new type of succession starts. The old communities disappear and new ones come up for whom the environment is more suitable. This has been described as autogenic succession.
  6. Allogenic Succession. The habitat may change due to external thrust i.e. of the environment. The succession taking place on account of this is called as allogenic.
  7. Retrogressive Succession. Due to environmental thrust and human interference the climax vegetation may retrograde into shrubland or savannah. This is referred to as retrogressive succession.
  8. Deflated Succession. When the succession doesn’t proceed through its normal course and sidetracks the advancement line, it is called as deflated succession. If the normal stages are 1 → 2 → 3 → 4 and the succession occurs as 1 → 2 → 3A → 3B → 4 is deflated.
  9. Cyclic Succession. It occurs within the normal discourse of succession. If at a certain stage, the normal succession line is substituted by repetition of a previous stage due to external thrust, the succession is called cyclic for example 1 → 2 ⇔ 3 → 4.

Causes Of Succession

  1. Initiation.
    • Physiographic factors include erosion, deposition, submergence, and emergence.
    • Climatic Factors produce secondary, barren areas including wind, water, snow, hail, re, and draught.
    • Biotic Factors produce secondary barren areas including animals, mankind, and microorganisms.
  2. Continuation. Once started succession continues
  3. Stabilization

Process Of Succession: The various stages are

  1. Nudation
  2. Migration
  3. Ecesis
  4. Aggregation
  5. Competition
  6. Co-action
  7. Reaction and
  8. Stabilization.

Secondary Succession Subsere. It occurs when an early community has been damaged leaving a few organisms and considerable organic matter.

  • Ecological Succession in dry habitats, bare rock, sandy soil, and aquatic habitats are respectively called Xerosere, lithosere, psammosere, and hydrosere.
  • In hydrosere (or hydrarch), pioneers in an ecological succession are submerged hydrophytes.
  • In lithosere, the pioneers in an ecological succession are crustose (Saxicaulous lichens, Graphis, Rhijocaibon).
  • The dominant species are different for each succession stage in the series.
  • The last succession in a series is called the climatic climax or climax.

Energy Flow In Ecosystem NEET Study Material

NEET Biology Ecosystem Different Stages In Hydrosere With Component Plants

Phytoplankton Stage: (blue-green and green algae pioneer, Diatoms, bacteria.)

Rooted submerged Stage: Hydrilla, Vallisnaria Utricularia, Potamogeton Elodea, Najas, Ceratophyllum, certain got volume crunch as choro ano Nitalla

Floating Stage: Nelumbo, Nymphala, Zolle hemna, Trapa

Reed Swamp Stage: (Typha, Sagittaria Phragmites, Sagittaria, Siripus (Amphibious stage)

Sedge Meadow Stage: (Cyperus, Juncus, Eleocharis, Carix)

Wood Land Stage: (Salix, Populus, Alnus) (Climax community) Forest stage (Temperate mixed tropical rain and tropical deciduous)

NEET Biology Ecosystem Different Stages In Xerosere With Component Plants

Ecosystem Different Stages In Xerosere With Component Plants

NEET Biology Ecosystem Differences Between Terrestrial And Aquatic Succession

Ecosystem Differences Between Terrestrial And Aquatic Succession

NEET Biology Ecosystem Differences Between The Seral And Climax Community During Succession

Dominance of a species:

Any one or more species is present in a majority during succession in every stage, and that species is the dominant species in the community. For instance, a location may be classified according to the species that predominate the region, such as a teak forest or pine forest.

Ecosystem Difference Between The Serial Stage And Climax Community Being Succession

The dominant species significantly influences the community and the surrounding environment. At any stage, it is not requisite for a single species to dominate; multiple species may coexist in dominance. For example, in the rainforests of tropical regions, 10 to 12 species dominate.

NEET Biology Ecosystem Biogeochemical Cycle

The circular paths of the chemical elements between organisms and the environment are known as biochemical cycles.

Cycles of material are classified into gaseous and sedimentary cycles,

  1. For Gaseous cycles, the reservoir of materials is the atmosphere or water. The four major elements in living organisms: carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen, are predominantly gaseous;
  2. In the Sedimentary cycle involving minerals, like phosphorus, sulfur, and calcium, the reservoir is the lithosphere.

Energy Flow In Ecosystem NEET Study Material

Oxygen Cycle: The oxides can be reduced both chemically as well as biologically to produce oxygen. Microbial oxidation can also occur. O2 content of the atmosphere has remained constant for the last several million years.

Most of the O2 lost is replenished by photosynthesis.

Ecosystem Oxygen Cycle In Nature

Greenhouse gases tire (CO2 CH4, dust, HO2, NO2, SO2) are transparent to incoming solar radiations but are strong absorbers of long wave or infrared radiations emitted by the earth’s surface.

Carbon Cycle: The three main sources of carbon in the non-living world are:

  1. CO2 of air as well as dissolved in water
  2. Carbonates of rocks in the earth’s crust
  3. Coal and petroleum of fossil fuels.

Ecosystem Carbon Cycle

Most CO2 enters the living world through photosynthesis.

  • The amount of carbon fixed by photosynthesis is 7 x 1013 kg per year.
  • One hectare of healthy forest produces about 10 tonnes of O2 and absorbs 30 tonnes of CO2 every year.

Nitrogen Cycle: N2 forms 4/5 part of the atmosphere; picked up as inorganic compounds by plants and some prokaryotes (NO3 and NH4) and converted into organic N2.

N2 Fixation Is Of Three Types

1. Atmospheric-electrochemical and photochemical reactions (35 mg/ m²/ yr).

2. Biological by free-living bacteria (Azotobacter, Clostridium), symbiotic bacteria (Rhizobium), and cyanobacteria (Anabaena, Nostoc) [140-700 mg/m²/yr].

Proteins (Nitrogenous Compounds)

Ecosystem Nitrogenous Compounds

Ammonifying bacteria are Bacillus vulgaris and Bacillus remosa.

Ecosystem Nitrogen Cycle In Nature

Dead bodies of plants and animals also contain nitrogenous compounds, for example, Bacillus, actinomycetes, and fungi.

3. Industrial – Haber’s process

Ecosystem A Generalised Nitrogen Cycling Model Of A Terrestrial Ecosystem

Water Cycle: 60-90% of the body weight of an organism is made up of water.

  • The water or hydrological cycle is actually made up of two overlapping cycles: Larger ‘global’ and smaller ‘local’
  • Precipitation is of three main types. Rain, Snow, and Hail.
  • The total world precipitation amounts to 4.46 x 1020 G per year. (1G = 1020 gm).
  • Biogeochemical Cycle. The cycling of materials between living and non-living components of the biosphere is called the biogeochemical cycle.

Phosphorus Cycle: The atmospheric or gaseous cycle for phosphorus is absent. Guano (excreta of marine birds) is a good source of phosphorus.

Sulfur Cycle: In the sulfur cycle, the gaseous phase is reduced. In nature, sulfur occurs in the elemental form (as metal sulfides and sulfates) and some amount as SO2 gas.

  • Sulfur is available to plants as sulfate
  • Sulfur is available to plants as sulfate. (SO42-) ions which are produced by the oxidation of exposed acid eroded rock surfaces. Most of this oxidation is biological and is carried out by specialized bacteria which derive energy from the process.
  • In plants, absorbed SO42- ions are incorporated into the thiol (-SH) groups of amino acids and proteins. In this form, the sulfur passes through the various trophic levels being released from living organisms only as a constituent of feces.
  • Decomposing bacteria break down the protein of dead organisms, reducing the -SH groups to H2S (hydrogen sulfide). It is the presence of this gas that sometimes gives the characteristic odor of rotten eggs to decomposing matter. The H2S produced may be oxidized to SO42- by certain bacteria but this is only possible under aerobic conditions.
  • Specialized photosynthetic bacteria living in sulfur springs use H2S instead of H2O as a raw material in the manufacture of carbohydrates and this sulfur returns to earth’s sediments.

Calcium, Magnesium, And Other Minerals: They are also cycled like other materials. These elements are slowly released from the rocks by the action of water and wind. These are either blown into the air as dust or are absorbed by plants through their roots.

Ecosystem Calcium Cycle

Some organisms, such as mollusks and corals, deposit a substantial quantity of calcium in their shells and skeletons that are not available for quick cycling.

Ecosystem Ecosystem Flowchart

  • The vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels is called stratification
  • Components of the ecosystem are seen to function as a unit with the following consideration

Energy Flow In Ecosystem NEET Study Material

Productivity

  • Gross Primary Productivity (GPP)
  • Net Primary Productivity (GDP)
  • Secondary Productivity

Primary Productivity Depends Upon:

  • Plant species Environmental factors
  • Availability of nutrients
  • Photosynthetic capacity

Decomposition. Steps: Fragmentation, Leaching, Catabolism, Humification, Mineralization (Temperature, Soil moisture, Oxygen and detritus composition regulate decomposition,

Energy Flow: Producers → Primary → Secondary

  • Detritus Food Chain (DFC)
  • Grazing Food Chain (GFC)

Food Web. The natural interaction of food chains makes the food web.

  • The number of trophic levels is restricted as the transfer of energy follows 10 percent law Ecological pyramids
  • The pyramid of energy is always upright
  • The pyramid of number and biomass is generally upright
  • The pyramid of biomass in the sea is generally inverted
  • The pyramid of biomass of a small standing crop of phytoplankton supports a large standing crop of zooplankton thus it is inverted.

NEET Biology Ecosystem Ecosystem Synopsis

The deep sea constitutes an incomplete ecosystem due to the absence of producers. Koala bears are monophagous and will perish in the absence of eucalyptus leaves.

  • The pH of oceans exhibits minimal variation.
  • Snails and earthworms are absent in acidic soils.
  • Euglena and other flagellates are prevalent in acidic aquatic environments.
  • Organisms with calcareous shells inhabit environments with neutral or alkaline pH levels.
  • Snails inhabit soils abundant in calcium.
  • Animals counteract seawater salinity via salt-secreting glands.
  • Terrestrial animals are unaffected by alterations in pH levels. Nonetheless, it dictates the distribution of terrestrial flora and edaphic creatures.
  • Sloths are exclusively arboreal in their environment.
  • Some creatures function as both producers and consumers, such as insectivorous plants like Nepenthes (pitcher plant) and Drosera (Sundew plant).
  • Omnivores such as humans and bears occupy multiple trophic levels.

Ecological equivalents. Animals occupying similar ecological niches (similar food) in different geographical areas for example both owls and cats feed upon shrews and rats in woodland areas and near human habitations respectively.

  • There is the highest species diversity in the Tropical rainforest ecosystem.
  • Gujarat has the largest number of salt lakes in India.
  • Brine is water that has a high concentration of salt.
  • Herbs other than grass are called forb.
  • The number of biomes on a mountain range decreases with the increase in the latitude of the mountain.
  • Brackish lakes are always oligotrophic for example Sambhar Lake of Rajasthan.
  • Detritus trophic level – The last trophic level is constituted by decomposers.
  • Detritivores are decomposers as well as scavengers.

The detritus food chain is the shortest. Dystrophic lakes are rich in bogs (undecomposed organic matter), poor in CaCO2 and other inorganic matter, and poor in oxygen for example marshy lakes.

  • With increasing dependence on animal diets, the human population will need more farm produce.
  • Britain receives 2500 cal/cm²/yr of solar radiation while the amount at Varanasi in India is 75000 cal/ cm²/yr.
  • The fish ‘Hilsa’ is found in both fresh and marine waters.
  • Gauses hypothesis or Principle of competitive exclusion.
  • No two species can occupy the same ecological niche. In case it happens, only one survives while the other is excluded.
  • Tropical region occurs between 23°N and 23°S.
  • Secchi disc is used in measuring turbidity.

Plagiosere. It is a deflected sere where plant succession deviates from its natural course due to human activity and other forms of external intervention.

  • The climax of plagiosere is known as plagioclimax or disclimax.
  • The daily tidal cycle recurs after every 12.4 hours.
  • Characteristic vegetation beyond the timberline is Elfin scrub and Alpine meadows.
  • The water cycle is made up of two overlapping cycles — larger global and smaller local.
  • Matter occupies a space. It can be seen, smelled, tasted, and touched while energy does not occupy space and it can be felt through specific receptors for example heat, sound, light.
  • Earth is a closed system as far as materials are concerned.
  • Beijerinck (1888) isolated Bacillus radicicola and showed its ability to produce root nodules.
  • Winogradsky (1891) discovered nitrogen fixation.
  • Sea birds excrete uric acid, which is deposited to form guano in littoral islands. It is rich in uric acid and phosphorus and used as fertilizer.

Ozone-depleting gases are on NO2 (6%) chloroform carbons (25%) halocarbon/halons, and CO2 (57%)

Ecological Pyramids NEET Exam Preparation

Differences Between Grazing And Detritus Food Chains

Ecosystem Differences Between Grazing And Detritus Food Chains

Differences Between Wet Deposition And Dry Deposition

Ecosystem Differences Between Wet Deposition And Dry Deposition

The Ecosystem Receives Nutrients By

  1. Wet deposition
  2. Dry deposition

NEET Biology Ecosystem Multiple Choice Questions And Answers

Question 1. The term ecosystem was coined by:

  1. Sukachey
  2. Vernadsky
  3. Haeckel
  4. Tansley.

Answer: 4. Tansley.

Question 2. Biotic components of an ecosystem include:

  1. Producers
  2. Consumers
  3. Decomposers
  4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 3. Which is the most stable ecosystem?

  1. Mountain
  2. Desert
  3. Forest
  4. Ocean.

Answer: 4. Ocean.

Question 4. In a biotic community, primary consumers are:

  1. Omnivores
  2. Carnivores
  3. Detritivores
  4. Herbivores.

Answer: 4. Herbivores.

Question 5. If we completely remove the decomposers from an ecosystem, the ecosystem functioning will be adversely affected because:

  1. Mineral movement will be blocked
  2. Herbivores will not receive solar energy
  3. Energy flow will be blocked
  4. The rate of decomposition of another component will be very high.

Answer: 1. Mineral movement will be blocked

Question 6. The food chain will end with:

  1. Carnivores
  2. Herbivores
  3. Decomposers
  4. Secondary carnivores.

Answer: 4. Secondary carnivores.

Question 7. Which of the following is a way flow rather than a two-way or cyclic flow?

  1. Carbon
  2. Nitrogen
  3. Potassium
  4. Free energy.

Answer: 4. Free energy.

Ecological Pyramids NEET Exam Preparation

Question 8. The importance of the ecosystem lies in:

  1. Flow of energy
  2. Cycling of materials
  3. Both (1) and (2)
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Both (1) and (2)

Question 9. The driving force for an ecosystem is:

  1. Biomass
  2. Producers
  3. Food
  4. Solar Energy.

Answer: 4. Solar Energy.

Question 10. About how much of solar energy that falls on the leaves of a plant is converted to chemical energy by photosynthesis?

  1. 1%
  2. 10%
  3. 30%
  4. 50%.

Answer: 1. 1%

Question 11. Energy and nutrients enter a community by way of:

  1. Producers
  2. Consumers
  3. Scavengers
  4. Detritivores.

Answer: 1. Producers

Question 12. A consumer whose carbon atoms have already passed through three species is a:

  1. Scavenger
  2. Tertiary Producers
  3. Tertiary Consumers
  4. Secondary Consumers.

Answer: 3. Tertiary Consumers

Question 13. The average annual precipitation in a desert biome is:

  1. 15-25 cm
  2. 25-30 cm
  3. 50-75 cm
  4. 75-100 cm.

Answer: 1. 15-25 cm

Question 14. A sequence of species through which the organic molecules in a community pass is called:

  1. Pyramid of energy
  2. Food chain
  3. Food web
  4. Nutrient cycle.

Answer: 2. Food chain

Question 15. Savannahs are:

  1. Tropical rain forest
  2. Desert scrubs
  3. Grassland with scattered trees
  4. Dense forests.

Answer: 3. Grassland with scattered trees

Ecological Pyramids NEET Exam Preparation

Question 16. Most food chains are composed of:

  1. 1 or 2 species
  2. 3 or 4 species
  3. 9 or 10 species
  4. More than 16 species.

Answer: 2. 3 or 4 species

Question 17. A micro-climate is controlled mostly by factors associated with:

  1. The flatness of the terrain
  2. Vegetation
  3. Latitude
  4. Longitude.

Answer: 3. Latitude

Question 18. In which of the following habitats does the diurnal temperature of soil surface vary most?

  1. Desert
  2. Grassland
  3. Shrubland
  4. Forest.

Answer: 1. Desert

Question 19. A biome with high temperature, high rainfall no seasonal change, and soil rich in minerals and humus is:

  1. Shrub land
  2. Coral reef
  3. Tropical rain forest
  4. Temperate evergreen forest.

Answer: 3. Tropical rainforest

Question 20. A plant eaten by herbivorous animals which in turn is eaten by a carnivorous animal, it forms a:

  1. Food chain
  2. Food web
  3. Food pyramid
  4. Biotic potential.

Answer: 1. Food chain

Question 21. A pond is a:

  1. Biome
  2. Agro-ecosystem
  3. Natural ecosystem
  4. Community.

Answer: 3. Natural ecosystem

Question 22. Which of the following communities would have trees?

  1. Taiga
  2. Littoral zone
  3. Shrub land
  4. Tundra.

Answer: 1. Taiga

Question 23. Which of the following has a vegetation structure with only one level?

  1. Tropical rain forest
  2. Taiga
  3. Grassland
  4. Shrub land.

Answer: 3. Grassland

Question 24. What type of pyramids are commonly referred to in ecological studies?

  1. Lateral
  2. Compound
  3. Upright
  4. Inverted.

Answer: 3. Upright

Question 25. Which type of system does the earth along with its atmosphere constitute?

  1. Open
  2. Closed system
  3. Cut off system
  4. Biogeochemical system.

Answer: 2. Closed system

Question 26. Enrichment of habitat (say pond) with nutrients is called:

  1. BOD
  2. Biological magnification
  3. Eutrophication
  4. Autopurification.

Answer: 3. Eutrophication

Question 27. Wolves and lions may be said to occupy the same trophic level because:

  1. They both eat primary consumers
  2. They both utilize their food with about 10% efficiency
  3. They both live in a pond
  4. Both are large mammals.

Answer: 1. They both eat primary consumers

Question 28. About how much of the chemical energy within the producer’s tissue becomes chemical energy within herbivore tissue.

  1. 1%
  2. 10%
  3. 30%
  4. 50%.

Answer: 2. 10%

Question 29. The most diverse oceanic communities are in the:

  1. Abyssal zone
  2. Littoral zone
  3. Neritic zone
  4. Oceanic zone.

Answer: 2. Littoral zone

Nutrient Cycling In Ecosystems NEET

Question 30. Which of the following aquatic ecosystems has very little primary productivity?

  1. River
  2. Estuary
  3. Lake
  4. Marsh.

Answer: 1. River

Question 31. Which of the following statements is true about ecological relationships?

  1. Competition with members of other species is more severe than that with one’s own species
  2. Competition with members of other species is less severe than with one’s own species
  3. Competition with members of other species is as severe as that with one’s own species
  4. Competition does not exist between members of different species.

Answer: 2. Competition with members of other species is less severe than with one’s own species

Question 32. The above represents:

Ecosystem Food Web Cahin

  1. Food chain
  2. Food web
  3. A population
  4. Ecosystem.

Answer: 2. Food web

Question 33. Light compensation zone refers to the zone:

  1. Where all light energy is used efficiently
  2. Where light is available
  3. Beyond which light does not penetrate
  4. Where light is maximum.

Answer: 3. Beyond which light does not penetrate

Question 34. Aquatic ecosystem covers how much of the earth’s surface?

  1. 87%
  2. 23%
  3. 72%
  4. 49%.

Answer: 3. 72%

Question 35. A biome with high temperature, and high rainfall is:

  1. Shrub land
  2. Coral reef
  3. Semi-desert scrub
  4. Tropical rain forest.

Answer: 4. Tropical rainforest.

Question 36. The importance of the ecosystem lies in:

  1. Cycling of materials
  2. Flow of materials
  3. Both of the above
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Both of the above

Question 37. What are biotic components?

  1. The living components
  2. The non-living components
  3. Both living and non-living
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. The living components

Question 38. The flora and fauna in lakes and ponds are;

  1. Lentic biota
  2. Lotic biota
  3. Abiotic
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Lentic biota

Question 39. The source of energy in an ecosystem is:

  1. The heat from the soil
  2. Heat reflected by leaves
  3. Burning of sugar
  4. Sunlight is received by leaves.

Answer: 4. Sunlight received by leaves.

Nutrient Cycling In Ecosystems NEET

Question 40. The energy storage at the consumer level is called:

  1. Gross primary productivity
  2. Secondary productivity
  3. Net primary productivity
  4. Net productivity.

Answer: 2. Secondary productivity

Question 41. The hardest competition for food, light, and space is seen in:

  1. Closely related species growing in the same niche
  2. Closely related species growing in different habitats
  3. Distantly related species growing in the same niche
  4. Distantly related species growing in different habitats.

Answer: 1. Closely related species growing in the same niche

Question 42. Given below is an imaginary pyramid of numbers. What could be one of the possibilities about certain organisms at some of the different levels?

Ecosystem Imaginary Phyramid Of Numbers

  1. Level PC is “insects” and level SC is “small insectivorous birds”
  2. Level PP is “phytoplanktons” in sea and “Whale” on top-level TC
  3. Level one PP is “pipal trees” and the level SC is “sheep”
  4. Level PC is “rats” and level SC is “cats”.

Answer: 1. Level PC is “insects” and level SC is “small insectivorous birds”

Question 43. Which of the following relations is correct regarding the GPP and NPP of an ecosystem?

  1. NPP = GPP – Animal consumption
  2. NPP = GPP + Plant respiration
  3. NPP = GPP – Plant respiration
  4. NPP = GPP + Animal consumption.

Answer: 3. NPP = GPP – Plant respiration

Question 44. An ecosystem resists change because it is in a state of:

  1. Imbalance
  2. Shortage of components
  3. Homeostasis
  4. Deficiency of light

Answer: 3. Homeostasis

Question 45. The ecosystem has two components:

  1. Plants and animals
  2. Weeds and trees
  3. Biotic and abiotic
  4. Frogs and men.

Answer: 3. Biotic and abiotic

Question 46. The number of producers within a specified area would be maximum in:

  1. Pond ecosystem
  2. Grassland
  3. Desert
  4. Forest ecosystem.

Answer: 1. Pond ecosystem

Question 47. In an ecosystem, a big fish eats small fishes which eat water fleas supported by phytoplanktons. The water fleas in this ecosystem are:

  1. Producers
  2. Primary consumers
  3. Secondary consumer
  4. Top consumers.

Answer: 2. Primary consumers

Question 48. Which one of the following represents the largest population in an ecosystem?

  1. Consumers
  2. Top consumers
  3. Decomposers
  4. Producers.

Answer: 4. Producers.

Question 49. With regard to the ecological food chain, man is a:

  1. Consumer
  2. Producer
  3. Producer and consumer
  4. Producer and decomposer.

Answer: 1. Consumer

Nutrient Cycling In Ecosystems NEET

Question 50. The first link in a food chain is always a green plant because:

  1. It has the capacity to synthesize organic food
  2. Plants are fixed to a place
  3. Plants are present everywhere
  4. There are more herbivorous animals than carnivorous animals.

Answer: 1. It has the capacity to synthesize organic food

Question 51. A food chain is represented by :

  1. Producers
  2. Decomposers in succession
  3. Primary consumers
  4. Producers—consumers—decomposers.

Answer: 4. Producers—consumers—decomposers.

Question 52. Organisms linked in a food chain represent:

  1. Food web
  2. Trophic levels
  3. Ecosystem
  4. Community.

Answer: 2. Trophic levels

Question 53. Free-floating organisms are termed:

  1. Planktons
  2. Benthos
  3. Nekton
  4. All algae.

Answer: 1. Planktons

Question 54. The bottom-dwelling organisms are:

  1. Nektons
  2. Phytoplankton
  3. Benthos
  4. Zooplanktons.

Answer: 3. Benthos

Question 55. The first trophic level is represented by :

  1. Herbivores
  2. Carnivores
  3. Insectivores
  4. Autotrophs.

Answer: 4. Autotrophs

Question 56. In a grassland, top consumers are:

  1. Herbivores
  2. Carnivores
  3. Bacteria
  4. Tall pine tree.

Answer: 2. Carnivores

Question 57. The food chain in which micro-organisms absorb and break the energy-rich compounds synthesized by the producers is

  1. Predator food chain
  2. Parasitic food chain
  3. Detritus food chain
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Detritus food chain

Question 58. Lichens do not normally grow in cities :

  1. Because of the absence of the right type of algae and fungi
  2. Because of the lack of moisture
  3. Because of air pollution
  4. Because natural habitat is missing.

Answer: 3. Because of air pollution

Question 59. Primary productivity of the ecosystem refers to:

  1. Increase in primary consumers
  2. Net production of primary producers
  3. CO2 fixation of organic carbon
  4. Increase in mortality of primary producers.

Answer: 3. CO2 fixation of organic carbon

Question 60. The individuals in the uppermost ring of the pyramid represent the one with:

  1. Maximum number
  2. Maximum biomass
  3. The ultimate consumer in the chain
  4. Minimum biomass.

Answer: 3. The ultimate consumer in the chain

Ecosystem NEET Notes

Question 61. The pyramid of a number of individuals per unit area in a grassland ecosystem will be:

  1. Linear
  2. Upright
  3. Irregular
  4. Inverted.

Answer: 2. Upright

Question 62. The ecological niche is:

  1. Place of dwelling
  2. Place of origin
  3. Competitive ability
  4. Function with habitat.

Answer: 4. Function with habitat.

Question 63. Which of the following food chains is correct?

  1. Fallen leaves-bacteria-insect larvae
  2. Phytoplankton -zooplankton-fish
  3. Grasses-fox-rabbit
  4. Grasses-chameleon -insect-bird.

Answer: 2. Phytoplankton -zooplankton-fish

Question 64. ‘Greenhouse effect’ is:

  1. Growing maximum green plants in home gardens
  2. Reduction of the green part of sunlight reaching the earth
  3. Growing vegetables in green-coloured houses
  4. Retention of heat radiation from the earth by CO2

Answer: 4. Retention of heat radiation from the earth by CO2

Question 65. For recycling of materials which one is necessary?

  1. Producers
  2. Consumer
  3. Man
  4. Decomposers.

Answer: 4. Decomposers

Question 66. Energy flow in an ecosystem is:

  1. Multidirectional
  2. Bidirectional
  3. Unidirectional
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Unidirectional

Question 67. The pyramid of energy in a terrestrial ecosystem may be:

  1. Inverted
  2. Upright
  3. Upright and inverted
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Upright

Ecosystem NEET Notes

Question 68. Green plants are:

  1. Complete food chain
  2. First trophic level
  3. Second trophic level
  4. Third trophic level.

Answer: 2. First trophic level

Question 69. Solar energy can be trapped to the maximum capacity by:

  1. Planting trees
  2. Crops
  3. Grasses
  4. Xerophytic plants.

Answer: 3. Grasses

Question 70. The equilibrium of species is disturbed by

  1. Overgrazing
  2. Selective grazing
  3. Fanning
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Overgrazing

Question 71. A food chain starts with:

  1. Decay
  2. Photosynthesis
  3. Respiration
  4. Nitrogen fixation.

Answer: 2. Photosynthesis

Question 72. Biological equilibrium is an equilibrium among the:

  1. Producers
  2. Producers and consumers
  3. Decomposers
  4. Producers, consumers, and decomposers.

Answer: 4. Producers, consumers, and decomposers.

Question 73. When the number of organisms at successive levels are plotted, they assume the shape of a pyramid. This is called:

  1. Pyramid of Numbers
  2. Pyramid of Energy
  3. Pyramid of Biomass
  4. None of these.

Answer: 1. Pyramid of Numbers

Question 74. The salt concentration in the open sea is about:

  1. 35 per cent
  2. 3.5 per cent
  3. 85 per cent
  4. 0.8 per cent.

Answer: 2. 3.5 per cent

Question 75. The upper vertical zone up to the depth of 200 meters is known as:

  1. Photic zone
  2. Aphotic zone
  3. Abyssal zone
  4. None of these.

Answer: 1. Photic zone

Question 76. In a food chain, the largest number is of:

  1. Decomposers
  2. Consumers
  3. Predators
  4. Producers.

Answer: 4. Producers.

Question 77. The ecosystem is a self-sustaining unit because it consists of:

  1. Plants and animals only
  2. Physical environment only
  3. Microbes only
  4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 78. A component of the physical environment of an ecosystem is:

  1. Sunlight
  2. Decomposers
  3. Water
  4. Temperature.

Answer: 1. Sunlight

Question 79. In a food chain animals constitute the:

  1. First trophic level
  2. Second trophic level
  3. Intermediate trophic level
  4. Ultimate trophic level.

Answer: 3. Intermediate trophic level

Ecosystem NEET Notes

Question 80. Second-order consumers are:

  1. All heterotrophs
  2. Animals feeding on plants
  3. Animals preying on herbivorous animals
  4. Larger animals.

Answer: 3. Animals preying on herbivorous animals

Question 81. Active swimmers are:

  1. Phytoplankton
  2. Nektons
  3. Benthos
  4. Zooplankton.

Answer: 2. Nektons

Question 82. A food web is constituted by:

  1. Various interlinked food chains in a community
  2. Relationship between organisms and their environment
  3. Relationship between plants and animals
  4. Relationship between plants, animals and microbes.

Answer: 1. Various interlinked food chains in a community

Question 83. Vegetation found around the Mediterranean coast is called:

  1. Savannah
  2. Prairie
  3. Chaparral
  4. Melee.

Answer: 3. Chaparral

Question 84. An ecosystem is a complex interacting system of:

  1. Individuals
  2. Population
  3. Communities and their physical environment
  4. Communities and their soil condition.

Answer: 3. Communities and their physical environment

Question 85. Which of the following is truly a biome?

  1. Wheat crop field
  2. Pond ecosystem
  3. Greenfield
  4. Deciduous forest.

Answer: 4. Deciduous forest.

Question 86. The ecological niche of an organism is its:

  1. Way of life
  2. Habitat
  3. Habitat as well as climate
  4. Defended territory.

Answer: 1. Way of life

Question 87. Which of the following forests is more diverse?

  1. Coniferous evergreen
  2. Deciduous evergreen
  3. Tropical rain forest
  4. Sub-tropical rain forest.

Answer: 3. Tropical rainforest

Question 88. The solar energy is trapped to the maximum by:

  1. Wheat
  2. Rice
  3. Sugarcane
  4. Grams.

Answer: 1. Wheat

Question 89. Agroecosystem is a:

  1. Natural ecosystem
  2. Man-made ecosystem
  3. Balanced ecosystem
  4. Peripheral ecosystem.

Answer: 2. Man-made ecosystem

Question 90. Mangrove vegetation is found in:

  1. Dehradun valley
  2. Kulu valley
  3. Western ghats
  4. Sunderbans.

Answer: 4. Sunderbans.

Question 91. In a grassland ecosystem, the pyramid of energy is as:

  1. Inverted
  2. Upright
  3. Inverted or upright
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Upright

Question 92. Which of the following is one-way flow rather than two directions or cyclic?

  1. Nitrogen
  2. Potassium
  3. Free energy
  4. Both (2) and (3).

Answer: 4. Both (2) and (3).

Question 93. The photic zone is spread up to a depth of:

  1. 10 m
  2. 10-100m
  3. 100-300 m
  4. 200 m.

Answer: 4. 200 m.

Question 94. Chaparral occurs in the Mediterranean area and rainfall occurs during:

  1. Throughout the year
  2. Summer
  3. Winter
  4. Spring.

Answer: 3. Winter

Components Of Ecosystem NEET Biology

Question 95. The most diverse oceanic communities are in the:

  1. Abyssal zone
  2. Littoral zone
  3. Neritic zone
  4. Oceanic zone.

Answer: 2. Littoral zone

Question 96. Daily tidal cycle recurs after:

  1. 8 hrs
  2. 12.4 hrs
  3. 10.4 hrs
  4. 12 hrs

Answer: 2. 12.4 hrs

Question 97. The pyramid of numbers is based on

  1. Unit per area
  2. Food per individual
  3. Individuals with trophic levels
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Individuals in trophic levels

Question 98. Bach couple should produce only two children which will help in

  1. Checking pollution
  2. Stabilizing the ecosystem
  3. Fertility of soil
  4. Improving food web.

Answer: 2. Stabilising the ecosystem

Question 99. The trophic level of Woji in a forest ecosystem is:

  1. T3
  2. T4
  3. T2
  4. T1

Answer: 2. T4

Question 100. About how much of the net primary productivity of a terrestrial ecosystem is eaten and digested by herbivores?

  1. 10%
  2. 1%
  3. 30%
  4. 50%.

Answer: 1. 10%

Question 101. About how much of the net primary productivity of an aquatic ecosystem is eaten and digested by herbivores?

  1. 1%
  2. 10%
  3. 40%
  4. 90%.

Answer: 4. 90%

Question 102. Life without air is:

  1. Free from oxidative damage
  2. Impossible
  3. Anaerobic
  4. Reduction in life spam

Answer: 3. Anaerobic

Question 103. Tropical dense forest is due to:

  1. High temp, and excess rain
  2. Low temp, and excess rain
  3. High temp, and less rain
  4. Wild animals like tigers, lions, bears.

Answer: 1. High temp, and excess rain

Question 104. The pyramid of energy is always:

  1. Inverted
  2. Upright
  3. Both upright and inverted
  4. Inverted in the forest ecosystem.

Answer: 2. Upright

Question 105. A kite eats mice, mice live on grains, Hence the kite is a:

  1. Primary producer
  2. Secondary consumer
  3. Primary consumer
  4. Secondary producer.

Answer: 2. Secondary consumer

Question 106. The composition of soil air is affected by:

  1. Pore size
  2. Soil organisms
  3. Type of roots
  4. All of these.

Answer: 4. All of these

Components Of Ecosystem NEET Biology

Question 107. Plants growing in alpine zone are short due to:

  1. Low temperature
  2. High wind velocity
  3. High light intensity
  4. None of these.

Answer: 2. High wind velocity

Question 108. Plants growing in the seashore are generally resistant to:

  1. Lodging
  2. Erosion
  3. Salt spray
  4. Injuries.

Answer: 3. Salt spray

Question 109. An anatomical feature that exclusively develops to counter the high velocity of wind:

  1. Reaction wood formation
  2. Absence of secondary growth
  3. Absence of leaves
  4. Absence of more branches.

Answer: 1. Reaction wood formation

Question 110. The classification of plant groups on the basis of temperature differentiating four zones such as mega therms was proposed by:

  1. Clements
  2. Raunkiaer
  3. Odum
  4. Warming.

Answer: 2. Raunkiaer

Question 111. Flowering is induced if germinating seeds are exposed

  1. Low temperature
  2. High temperature
  3. Temperature below freezing
  4. Temperature above 45°C.

Answer: 1. Low temperature

Question 112. The percentage of light from total solar input utilized by plants:

  1. About 1 %
  2. 3-5%
  3. 7-8%
  4. 14%.

Answer: 1. About 1 %

Question 113. Albido value refers to:

  1. Turbidity of solar radiations
  2. Percentage of solar absorption
  3. Percentage of reflected light by a surface
  4. Amount of light absorbed by forests.

Answer: 3. Percentage of reflected light by a surface

Question 114. According to Geiger, the percentage of light reflected by the clouds is

  1. 9%
  2. 10%
  3. 48%
  4. 33%.

Answer: 4. 33%.

Question 115. The albedo value of a forest is around:

  1. 1-2%
  2. 3-5%
  3. 5-10%
  4. 20-30%.

Answer: 3. 5-10%

Question 116. The aquatic thermal strata where no temperature gradients are observed is called as:

  1. Hypolimnion
  2. Metalimnion
  3. Epilimnion
  4. Thermocline.

Answer: 1. Hypolimnion

Components Of Ecosystem NEET Biology

Question 117. The alpine forests are classed under the plant group called:

  1. Mesotherms
  2. Hekistotherms
  3. Microtherms
  4. Megatherms.

Answer: 2. Hekistotherms

Question 118. The optimum temperature for seedling growth in the upper Gangetic plains is around:

  1. 10°-15°C
  2. 5°-10°C
  3. 0°-25°C
  4. 30°—40°C.

Answer: 3. 0°-25°C

Question 119. When a plant of ho^ climate is transferred to colder regions, it gets an injury called:

  1. Chilling
  2. Thermal death
  3. Desiccation
  4. Freezing.

Answer: 1. Chilling

Question 120. In the western Himalayas, the Betula trees usually occur in:

  1. Tropical zone
  2. Sub-tropical zone
  3. Alpine zone
  4. Temperate zone.

Answer: 3. Alpine zone

Question 121. Annual carbon fixation by photosynthesis is:

  1. 7 x 1013
  2. 7×1010
  3. 7 x 1012
  4. 7 x 1020

Answer: 1. 7 x 1013

Question 122. Annual world precipitation is:

  1. 7 x 1010 g
  2. 7 x 1010 g
  3. 4.46 x 1010 g
  4. 4.46 x 1020 g.

Answer: 4. 4.46 x 1020 g.

Question 123. Maximum oxygen comes from:

  1. Phytoplankton
  2. Grasslands
  3. Forests
  4. Herbs and shrubs.

Answer: 1. Phytoplankton

Question 124. The main nitrogen reservoir in the biosphere is:

  1. Atmosphere
  2. Ocean
  3. Organisms
  4. Rocks.

Answer: 1. Atmosphere

Energy Flow In Ecosystem NEET Study Material

Question 125. Which one of the following pairs is a sedimentary type of biogeochemical cycle?

  1. Phosphorus and CO2
  2. Oxygen and Nitrogen
  3. Phosphorus and Nitrogen
  4. Phosphorus and Sulphur.

Answer: 4. Phosphorus and Sulphur

Question 126. The largest reservoir of phosphorus in the biosphere is the

  1. Atmosphere
  2. Ocean
  3. Organisms
  4. Rocks.

Answer: 4. Rocks

Question 127. Which one of the following pairs is a sedimentary type of biogeochemical cycle?

  1. Phosphorus and CO2
  2. Oxygen and Nitrogen
  3. Phosphorus and Nitrogen
  4. Phosphorus and Sulphur.

Answer: 4. Phosphorus and Sulphur

Question 128. Sedge is:

  1. Polygonum
  2. Potamogeton
  3. Carex
  4. Typha.

Answer: 3. Carex

Question 129. The perennial grass stage is represented by:

  1. Aristida
  2. Heteropogon
  3. Poa
  4. Tortula.

Answer: 2. Heteropogon

Question 130. The series of changes on the previously barren area is:

  1. Sere
  2. Climax community
  3. Primary succession
  4. Secondary succession.

Answer: 3. Primary succession

Question 131. Crustose lichen is:

  1. Rhizocarpon
  2. Pannelia
  3. Dermatocarpon
  4. Cladonia.

Answer: 3. Dermatocarpon

Energy Flow In Ecosystem NEET Study Material

Question 132. Secondary succession will not be completed if the bare area is invaded by:

  1. Sphagnum
  2. Lantana
  3. Eichhomia
  4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above

Question 133. Plant succession occurring in a sandy area is:

  1. Psammosere
  2. Halosere
  3. Xerosere
  4. Hydrosere.

Answer: 1. Psammosere

Question 134. A plant growing on rock is:

  1. Psammophyte
  2. Eremophyte
  3. Lithophyte
  4. Chersophyte.

Answer: 3. Lithophyte

NEET Biology Ecosystem Questions From Competitive Examinations

Question 1. Green plants constitute:

  1. First trophic level
  2. Second trophic level
  3. Third trophic level
  4. Fourth trophic level.

Answer: 1. First trophic level

Question 2. Tip of an ecological pyramid is occupied by:

  1. Producers
  2. Herbivores
  3. Carnivores
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Carnivores

Question 3. Zooplanktonic forms are:

  1. Primary producers
  2. Carnivores
  3. Primary consumers
  4. Secondary consumers.

Answer: 3. Primary consumers

Question 4. Which of the following occurs in the abiotic component of the ecosystem?

  1. Flow of energy
  2. Cycling of materials
  3. Consumers
  4. Flow of energy and cycling of materials.

Answer: 2. Cycling of materials

Question 5. A treeless biome is:

  1. Tundra
  2. Grassland
  3. Desert
  4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above

Question 6. A man-made micro-ecosystem is:

  1. Plants grown in a pond
  2. Crop field
  3. Tank formed naturally in your courtyard
  4. Lake in a forest.

Answer: 2. Crop field

Energy Flow In Ecosystem NEET Study Material

Question 7. Which one has always a steeper vertical gradient?

  1. Pyramid of mass
  2. Pyramid of energy
  3. Pyramid of numbers
  4. Pyramid of energy in aquatic ecosystem.

Answer: 2. Pyramid of energy

Question 8. Which one is exclusive of xerophytic adaptation?

  1. Absence of stomata
  2. Long tap root system
  3. Stipular leaves
  4. Spines.

Answer: 4. Spines.

Question 9. Which one has evergreen vegetation and drought-adapted animals?

  1. Chaparral
  2. Savannah
  3. Tundra
  4. Deciduous forest.

Answer: 1. Chaparral

Question 10. Which part of the world has a high density of organisms?

  1. Grasslands
  2. Savannahs
  3. Deciduous forests
  4. Tropical rain forests.

Answer: 4. Tropical rainforests

Question 11. Viviparity and pneumatophores are features of:

  1. Hydrophytes
  2. Halophytes
  3. Mesophytes
  4. Xerophytes.

Answer: 2. Halophytes

Question 12. The flora and fauna in lakes or ponds are:

  1. Lefitic biota
  2. Lotic biota
  3. Abiotic biota
  4. Field layer.

Answer: 1. Lefitic biota

Components Of Ecosystem NEET Biology

Question 13. Trophic levels are formed by:

  1. Only plants
  2. Only animals
  3. Only carnivores
  4. Organisms linked in food chains.

Answer: 4. Organisms linked in food chains.

Question 14. An ecosystem has which of the following two components?

  1. Frogs and men
  2. Weeds and trees
  3. Biotic and abiotic
  4. Plants and animals.

Answer: 3. Biotic and abiotic

Question 15. The atmospheric/humidity is measured by

  1. Potometer
  2. Photometer
  3. Hygrometer
  4. Auxanometer.

Answer: 3. Hygrometer

Question 16. The concept of ecological pyramids was developed by

  1. Elton
  2. Darwin
  3. Odum
  4. Reiter.

Answer: 1. Elton

Question 17. Feeding on herbivorous insects is:

  1. Primary consumer
  2. Secondary consumer
  3. Tertiary consumer
  4. Top carnivore.

Answer: 2. Secondary consumer

Question 18. Maximum biomass of autotrophs in oceans is made of:

  1. Benthic brown algae, coastal red algae, and daphnids
  2. Benthic diatoms and marine viruses
  3. Seagrasses and slime molds
  4. Free-floating microalgae, cyanobacteria, and nanoplankton.

Answer: 4. Free-floating microalgae, cyanobacteria, and nanoplankton.

Question 19. Terai forest is:

  1. Tropical
  2. Coniferous
  3. Deciduous
  4. Temperate deciduous.

Answer: 1. Tropical

Components Of Ecosystem NEET Biology

Question 20. Savannah is found commonly in :

  1. U.S.A.
  2. U.S.S.R.
  3. Australia
  4. India.

Answer: 3. Australia

Question 21. A recently discovered ecosystem is:

  1. Crater
  2. Tundra
  3. Floating Iceberg
  4. Vent.

Answer: 1. Crater

Question 22. Controlling factors in the ecosystem is:

  1. Soil moisture
  2. Food
  3. Trepidation
  4. Temperature.

Answer: 3. Trepidation

Question 23. The transition zone between the two vegetational types is:

  1. Ecotone
  2. Ecotype
  3. Ecocline
  4. Ecosystem.

Answer: 1. Ecotone

Question 24. Plant decomposers are:

  1. Monera and fungi
  2. Fungi and plants
  3. Protista and Animalia
  4. Animalia and Monga.

Answer: 1. Monera and fungi

Question 25. The ecosystem consists of:

  1. Producers
  2. Consumers
  3. Decomposers
  4. All of these.

Answer: 4. All of these.

Question 26. Desert can be converted into green land by planting:

  1. Oxylophytes
  2. Psammophytes
  3. Halophytes
  4. Tropical trees.

Answer: 2. Psammophytes

Question 27. In the food chain, the lion is a:

  1. Primary consumer
  2. Secondary producer
  3. Tertiary consumer
  4. Secondary consumer.

Answer: 3. Tertiary consumer

Question 28. Which ecosystem shows maximum genetic diversity?

  1. Tropical rain forests
  2. Temperate forests
  3. Coniferous forests
  4. Subtropical forests.

Answer: 1. Tropical rainforests

Question 29. Which of the following is correctly matched?

  1. Butterfly camouflage
  2. Garden lizard mimicry
  3. House lizard autotomy
  4. None of these.

Answer: 3. House lizard autotomy

Nutrient Cycling In Ecosystems NEET

Question 30. Organisms found at the bottom of the sea are:

  1. Planktons
  2. Benthos
  3. Nektons
  4. Phytons.

Answer: 2. Benthos

Question 31. X is eating curd/yogurt. For this food intake in a food chain, he should be considered as occupying:

  1. First trophic level
  2. Second trophic level
  3. Third trophic level
  4. Fourth trophic level.

Answer: 3. Third trophic level

Question 32. These belong to the category of primary consumers:

  1. Eagle and snake
  2. Insects and cattle
  3. Snake and Frog
  4. Water insects.

Answer: 2. Insects and cattle

Question 33. If the high-altitude birds become rare or extinct, the plants that may disappear along with them are:

  1. Pine
  2. Oak
  3. Orchids
  4. Rhododendrons.

Answer: 2. Oak

Question 34. An ecosystem that can be easily damaged but can recover after some time if the damaging effect stops will have the following:

  1. Low stability and low resilience
  2. High stability and high resilience
  3. Low stability and high resilience
  4. High stability and low resilience.

Answer: 3. Low stability and high resilience

Question 35. Which of the following is expected to have the highest value (gm/m²/year) in a grassland ecosystem?

  1. Gross production (GP)
  2. Net production (NP)
  3. Secondary production
  4. Tertiary production.

Answer: 1. Gross production (GP)

Question 36. If by radiation all nitrogenase enzymes are inactivated, then there will be no:

  1. Conversion from nitrate to nitrite in the legumes
  2. Conversion from ammonium to nitrate in soil
  3. Fixation of nitrogen in the legumes
  4. Fixation of atmospheric nitrogen.

Answer: 4. Fixation of atmospheric nitrogen.

Question 37. The Great Barrier Reef along the east coast of Australia can be categorized as:

  1. Population
  2. Community
  3. Ecosystem
  4. Biome.

Answer: 4. Biome.

Question 38. Which one of the following pairs is mismatched?

  1. Savannah – acacia trees
  2. Prairie – epiphytes
  3. Tundra – permafrost
  4. Coniferous forest – evergreen trees.

Answer: 2. Prairie – epiphytes

Question 39. Which one of the following is the correct matching of the plant, its habitat, and the forest type where it normally occurs?

  1. Prosopis, tree, scrub
  2. Saccharum, grass, forest
  3. Shorea robusta, herb, tropical rainforest
  4. Acacia catechu, tree, coniferous forest.

Answer: 2. Saccharum, grass, forest

Question 40. Given below is one of the types of ecological pyramids. This type represents:

Ecosystem Ecological Phyramids

  1. Pyramid of numbers in a grassland
  2. Pyramid of biomass in a fallow land
  3. Pyramid of biomass in a lake
  4. Energy pyramid in a spring.

Answer: 3. Pyramid of biomass in a lake

Question 41. Energy transferred from one trophic level to another is:

  1. 5%
  2. 10%
  3. 15%
  4. 20%.

Answer: 2. 10%

Question 42. Maximum absorption of rainfall water is done by:

  1. Tropical deciduous forest
  2. Tropical evergreen forest
  3. Tropical savannah
  4. Scrub forest.

Answer: 2. Tropical evergreen forest

Question 43. The pyramid of energy is always upright for any ecosystem. This situation indicates the fact that

  1. Producers have the lowest energy conversion efficiency
  2. Carnivores have a better energy conversion efficiency
  3. Energy conversion efficiency is the same in all trophic levels
  4. Herbivores have a better energy conversion efficiency than carnivores.

Answer: 4. Herbivores have a better energy conversion efficiency than carnivores.

Question 44. Which of the following is called as a detritivore?

  1. An animal feeding on decaying organic matter
  2. An animal feeding on a plant
  3. A plant feeding on an animal
  4. An animal feeding on another animal.

Answer: 1. An animal feeding on decaying organic matter

Question 45. Which one of the following is not used for the construction of ecological pyramids?

  1. Dry weight
  2. Fresh weight
  3. Rate of energy flow
  4. Number of individuals.

Answer: 2. Fresh weight

Nutrient Cycling In Ecosystems NEET

Question 46. In the given formula, what does “a” represent?

Formula: Assimilatory efficiency = \(\frac{\text{Use of energy in food}{“a”}}\) x 100.

  1. Energy obtained through primary producer
  2. Biomass at own level
  3. Biomass at lower trophic level
  4. Energy is obtained through food.

Answer: 4. Energy obtained through food.

Question 47. Increased asthmatic attacks in certain seasons are related to:

  1. Eating fruits preserved in tin containers
  2. Inhalation of seasonal pollen
  3. Low temperature
  4. Hot and humid environment.

Answer: 2. Inhalation of seasonal pollen

Question 48. Which one of the following ecosystem types has the highest annual net primary productivity?

  1. Tropical deciduous forest
  2. Temperate evergreen forest
  3. Temperate deciduous forest
  4. Tropical rain forest.

Answer: 4. Tropical rainforest.

Question 49. Identify which one of the following is an example of an incomplete ecosystem.

  1. Cave
  2. Grassland
  3. River
  4. Wetland.

Answer: 1. Cave

Question 50. Consider the following statements concerning food chains.

  1. Removal of 80% of tigers from an area resulted in greatly increased growth of vegetation
  2. Removal of most of the carnivores resulted in an increased population of deer
  3. The length of food chains is generally limited to 3-4 trophic levels due to energy loss
  4. The length of food chains may vary from 2 to 8 trophic levels.

Answer: 3. The length of food chains is generally limited to 3-4 trophic levels due to energy loss

Question 51. Large Woody Vines are more commonly found in:

  1. Temperate forests
  2. Mangroves
  3. Tropical rainforests
  4. Alpine forests.

Answer: 3. Tropical rainforests

Question 52. Which one of the following statements for the pyramid of energy is incorrect, whereas the remaining three are correct?

  1. Its base is broad
  2. It shows the energy content of different trophic-level organisms
  3. It is inverted in shape
  4. It is upright in shape.

Answer: 3. It is inverted in shape

Question 53. The mass of living matter at a trophic level in an area at any time is called:

  1. Standing crop
  2. Detritus
  3. Humus
  4. Standing state.

Answer: 4. Standing state.

Question 54. Of the total incident solar radiation, the proportion of PAR is:

  1. About 70%
  2. About 60%
  3. Less than 50%
  4. More than 50%.

Answer: 4. More than 50%.

Question 55. Identify the possible link, “A” in the following food chain:

Plan—insect—frog—‘ ‘A” —Eagle

  1. Wolf
  2. Cobra
  3. Parrot
  4. Rabbit.

Answer: 2. Wolf

Question 56. The upright pyramid of numbers is absent in:

  1. Forest
  2. Lake
  3. Grassland
  4. Rabbit.

Answer: 2. Lake

Question 57. An inverted pyramid of numbers and an inverted pyram of biomass are respectively seen in

  1. Grassland and tree ecosystem
  2. Sea and tree ecosystem
  3. Tree and sea ecosystem
  4. Sea and grassland ecosystem.
  5. Tree and grassland ecosystem.

Answer: 3. Sea and grassland ecosystem

Question 58. Which of the following is a pioneer in xerarch success?

  1. Phytoplanktons
  2. Lichens
  3. Bryophytes
  4. Rooted hydrophytes
  5. Sedges

Answer: 2. Lichens

Question 59. The natural reservoir of phosphorus is

  1. Animal bones
  2. Rock
  3. Fossils
  4. Sea water.

Answer: 2. Rock

Question 60. Which one of the following processes during decomposition is correctly described?

  1. Humification leads to the accumulation of a dark coloured substance humus which undergoes microbial action at a very fast rate.
  2. Catabolism-Last step decomposition under fully anaerobic condition
  3. Leaching-Water soluble inorganic nutrients rise to the top layers of soil
  4. Fragmentation- carried out by organisms such as earthworms.

Answer: 4. Fragmentation- carried out by organisms such as earthworms.

Question 61. Secondary productivity is the rate of formation of new organic matter by:

  1. Parasite
  2. Consumer
  3. Decomposer
  4. Producer.

Answer: 2. Consumer

 

NEET Biology Multiple Choice Questions – Gymnosperms 

NEET Biology Gymnosperms Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Which one of the features is true for Pinus

  1. Pivsenee of antheridia
  2. Double fertilization
  3. Biciliated sperms
  4. Haploid endosperm.

Answer: 4. Haploid endosperm.

Question 2. Needles of finns possess meristem at:

  1. Apical portion
  2. Intercalary portion
  3. Basal portion
  4. Lateral portion.

Answer: 3. Basal portion

Question 3. Pinewood consists almost entirely of:

  1. Tracheids with bordered pits
  2. Vessels
  3. Tracheids and vessels both in equal amount
  4. More vessels than tracheids.

Answer: 1. Tracheids with bordered pits

Question 4. In the embryo of pinus, rosette cells lie :

  1. Above suspensor cells
  2. Between suspensor and embryonal cells
  3. Between primary and secondary suspensor cells
  4. Between embryonal cells and apical cells.

Answer: 1. Above suspensor cells

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

NEET Gymnosperm MCQ Question 5. The resin duct of a gymnospermous stem is an example of:

  1. Intercellular space
  2. Schizogenous cavity
  3. Lysigenous cavity
  4. Big vacuole.

Answer: 2. Schizogenous cavity

Question 6. The time required between formation in pinus is :

  1. Three months
  2. Six months
  3. nine months
  4. Twelve months.

Answer: 4. Twelve months.

Question 7. The gametophytes of pinus are protected from desiccation by living in

  1. Moist soil
  2. Moist tissue of sporophyte in the cone
  3. Bogs and marshes
  4. The rainy season only.

Answer: 2. Moist tissue of sporophyte in the cone

Question 8. Which statement out of the following is correct regarding pinus?

  1. Pinus forms deciduous trees in temperate regions
  2. Pinus grows in deserts and exhibits xerophytic characters
  3. Pinus is cosmopolitan in distribution
  4. Pinus is of great economic value.

Answer: 4. Pinus is of great economic value.

Question 9. Which is the smallest gymnosperm among the following?

  1. Cerberus
  2. Dalbergia
  3. Pinus
  4. Guest

Answer: 3. Pinus

Question 10. In gymnosperms, archegonia lack :

  1. Neck canal cells
  2. Venter cells
  3. Both
  4. None of these.

Answer: 4. None of these.

NEET Gymnosperm MCQ Question 11. The megasporangium is also known as:

  1. Fruit
  2. Endosperm
  3. Micropyle
  4. Ovule.

Answer: 3. Micropyle

Question 12. Which one is common between funaria and pinus?

  1. No fruits are produced
  2. No seeds are produced
  3. Anthcridia and archegonia are present
  4. A pollen tube is formed.

Answer: 1. No fruits are produced

Question 13. In pinus, the terminal portion of the ovuliferous scale is called :

  1. Embryo sac
  2. Bract scale
  3. Ovule
  4. Apophysis.

Answer: 4. Apophysis.

Question 14. Which of the following sets of structures in pinus belong entirely to the gametophytic generation?

  1. Ovuliferous scale, embryo, bract scale
  2. Bract scale, urothelial cells in pollen, integument
  3. Embryo, endosperm, pollen
  4. Endosperm, sperm, megaspore.

Answer: 4. Endosperm, sperm, megaspore.

Question 15. The edible part of the seed of the pinus :

  1. Epispore
  2. Endosperm
  3. Perisperm
  4. Pericarp.

Answer: 4. Pericarp.

Question 16. The group of phanerogams which have naked seeds or which produce ovules and seeds exposed on open sporophytes are called:

  1. Phanerogams
  2. Angiosperms
  3. Gymnosperms
  4. Spermatophyta.

Answer: 2. Angiosperms

Gymnosperms Recommended MCQs NEET Questions Question 17. The roots of gymnosperm are:

  1. Taproot
  2. Adventitious roots
  3. Rhizoid
  4. Rhizophores.

Answer: 3. Rhizoid

Question 18. In which of the following manners do gymnosperms differ from angiosperms?

  1. Formation of endosperm before fertilization
  2. Formation of pollen tube
  3. Production of ovules
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Formation of endosperm before fertilization

Question 19. Angiosperms and gymnosperms resemble in having:

  1. Vessels in wood
  2. Mode of fertilization
  3. Siphonogamy
  4. Nature of endosperm.

Answer: 1. Vessels in wood

Question 20. The nucellus in a gymnosperm has 24 chromosomes, the number of chromosomes in its endosperm cells will be:

  1. 48
  2. 36
  3. 24
  4. 12.

Answer: 3. 24

Question 21. Microsporophyll of pinus is equivalent to :

  1. Pollen grain of angiosperms
  2. Stamen
  3. Male gamelophyte
  4. Inflorescence.

Answer: 4. Inflorescence.

Gymnosperms Recommended MCQs NEET Questions Question 22. Transfusion tissue replaces the veins in:

  1. Cycas
  2. Ferns
  3. Pinus and years
  4. Selaginella.

Answer: 2. Ferns

Question 24. The giant tree among the pines belongs to the genus:

  1. Cedrus
  2. Pinus
  3. Calbcrgia
  4. Sequoia.

Answer: 4. Sequoia.

Question 25. Canada balsam is an oleoresin obtained from:

  1. Abies balsamea
  2. Impatiens balsamic
  3. Finns
  4. Helianthus

Answer: 1. Abies balsamea

Question 26. Plant of pine is:

  1. Annual herb
  2. Biennial herb
  3. Evergreen tree
  4. Deciduous tree.

Answer: 3. Evergreen tree

Question 27. The megasporophyll of pinus consists of :

  1. Both bract and ovuliferous scales
  2. Only bract scales
  3. Only ovuliferous scales
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Both bract and ovuliferous scales

Question 28. The neck of the archegonium in pinus:

  1. Five tiers of cells
  2. Six to eight tiers of 4 cells
  3. Two tiers of 4 cells
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Two tiers of 4 cells

Question 29. The seed of pinus is:

  1. A monocotyledonous
  2. Dicotyledonous
  3. Polycotyledonous
  4. Tetracotyledonous.

Answer: 3. Polycotyledonous

Gymnosperms Recommended MCQs NEET Questions Question 30. The wing of the seed of pinus develops from ;

  1. The outer layer of the integument and basal part of the ovuliferous scale
  2. The inner layer of the integument and basal part of the ovuliferous scale
  3. Only from the outer layer of the integument
  4. From ovuliferous scale.

Answer: 4. Frorn ovuliferous scale.

Question 31. In pinus, female gametophyte develops only from :

  1. Uppermost haploid megaspore
  2. The lowermost haploid megaspore
  3. Penultimate megaspore
  4. The megaspore.

Answer: 2. The lowermost haploid megaspore

Question 32. The foliage leaves or needles irc pinus are borne by:

  1. Branches of unlimited growth
  2. Branches of limited growth
  3. Branches of limited and unlimited growth
  4. Female cones.

Answer: 2. Branches of limited growth

Question 33. What nature does, the acicular nature of the pinus needle depict?

  1. Mesophytic
  2. Xerophytic
  3. Xerophytic
  4. Sporophytic.

Answer: 2. Xerophytic

Question 34. Female gametophyte (endosperm) in pinus is formed :

  1. Before fertilization
  2. After pollination
  3. After fertilization
  4. None of the above,

Answer: 1. Before fertilization

Question 36. Gymnosperms originated in:

  1. Cenozoic
  2. Palaeozoic
  3. Precambrian
  4. Mesozoic.

Answer: 2. Palaeozoic

Gymnosperms Recommended MCQs NEET Questions Question 37. Gymnosperms differ from angiosperms in :

  1. Having seeds
  2. Having naked ovules
  3. Showing heterospory
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Having naked ovules

Question 38. Turpentine is obtained from:

  1. Curcuma longa
  2. Bryophyte
  3. Pinus australis
  4. Ophioglossum.

Answer: 3. Pinus australis

Question 39. In pinus only the lower part of the oospore is concerned with the development of the embryo, such development is :

  1. Periblastic
  2. Holoblastic
  3. Meroblastic
  4. None of these.

Answer: 3. Meroblastic

Question 40. The mature embryo of the pinus consists of :

  1. Radicle and plumule
  2. 1 + 10 Cotyledons
  3. Radicle, plumule and many cotyledons
  4. 3 + Endosperm.

Answer: 3. Radicle, plumule and many cotyledons

Question 41. The wood obtained from the pinus plant is used for:

  1. Furniture
  2. Building purposes
  3. Matchboxes
  4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 42. Winged seeds are found in :

  1. Cycas
  2. Pinus
  3. Papaver species
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Pinus

NEET Biology Plant Kingdom Questions Question 43. Integument in pinus ovule is :

  1. Haploid
  2. Diploid
  3. Triploid
  4. Tetraploid.

Answer: 2. Diploid

Question 44. Sclerenchyma of the hypodermis of the pinus needle helps in:

  1. Photosynthesis
  2. Increasing absorption
  3. Providing support
  4. Checking transpiration,

Answer: 3. Providing support

Question 45. Perisperm is :

  1. Haploid
  2. Diploid
  3. Polyploid
  4. Triploid.

Answer: 2. Diploid

Question 46. The number of archegonia in the pinus ovule is generally

  1. 1 To 4
  2. 2 To 5
  3. 2 To 6
  4. 1 To 8.

Answer: 2. 2 To 5

Question 47. Ovules in the pinus are generally:

  1. Anatropous with three integuments
  2. Anatropous with one integument
  3. Amphitropous with three integuments
  4. Orthotropous with one integument.

Answer: 2. Anatropous with one integument

NEET Biology Plant Kingdom Questions Question 48. In pinus, megaspores on germination forms :

  1. Pollen tube with two motile sperms
  2. Endosperm with archegonia
  3. Endosperm with sperms
  4. Endosperm with embryo core.

Answer: 2. Endosperm with archegonia

Question 49. Among the following which docs do not belong to sporophyte generation in pinus?

  1. Roots
  2. Endosperm
  3. Dwarf shoot
  4. Long shoot.

Answer: 2. Endosperm

Question 50. In pinus sylvestris spur is:

  1. Trifoliar
  2. Bifoliar
  3. Multifoliar
  4. Tetrafoliar.

Answer: 2. Bifoliar

Question 51. Chailgoza is obtained from:

  1. Pinus roxburghii
  2. Pinus gerardiana
  3. Pinus wallichiana
  4. Pinus longifolia

Answer: 2. Pinus gerardiana

Question 52. The girdle loaf traces in Cyrus go to leaves :

  1. After making a semi-circle
  2. After making a complete circle
  3. After making two concentric circles
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. After making a semi-circle

Question 53. The male cone of the pinus is a modification of

  1. Simple polyembryony
  2. Cleavage polyembryony
  3. Both simple and cleavage polyembryony
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Cleavage polyembryony

NEET Biology Plant Kingdom Questions Question 54. The female cone of the pinus is a modification of

  1. Branches
  2. Dwarf shoot
  3. Long shoot
  4. Leaf

Answer: 3. Long shoot

Question 55. In cycas, megasporangia are located on its megasporophyll

  1. Dorsally
  2. Ventrally
  3. Laterally
  4. Apically

Answer: 3. Laterally

Question 57. Seed of finns shows three generations as :

  1. Parent sporophyte, gametophyte and future sporophyte
  2. Parent gametophyte, sporophyte and future gametophyte
  3. Parent sporophyte, sporophyte, future gametophyte
  4. All three sporophytes.

Answer: 1. Parent sporophyte, gametophyte, and future sporophyte

Question 58. Finns seed shows:

  1. Hypogeal germination
  2. Epigeal germination
  3. Dormancy
  4. None of the above

Answer: 2. Epigeal germination

Question 59. Monkey puzzle is common name of:

  1. Araucaria auracana
  2. Finns raxburghii
  3. Taxodium
  4. Cedrus deodora.

Answer: 1. Araucaria auracana

Gymnosperm MCQ Question 60. The female cone of the pinus can be compared to which part of the plant:

  1. Flower
  2. Mcgasporophyll
  3. Inflorescence
  4. Microsporophyll.

Answer: 3. Inflorescence

Question 61. Female cone of finns forms seed in:

  1. One year
  2. Two years
  3. Three years
  4. Four years.

Answer: 3. Three years

Question 62. The male gametophyte of cycas differs from that of an angiosperm in:

  1. Producing two male gametes
  2. Producing a pollen tube with a tube nucleus and two ciliated motile male gametes
  3. Producing a pollen tube and a nucleus
  4. Starting its formation in situ.
  5. Answer: 2. Producing a pollen tube with a tube nucleus and two ciliated motile male gametes

Question 63. In which portion of Cyrus are found diplomatic vascular bundles?

  1. Root
  2. Stem
  3. Leaflet
  4. Racltis and leaflet.

Answer: 4. Racltis and leaflet.

Question 64. In which of the following regions of cyras the algal zone is found?

  1. Stem
  2. Normal roots
  3. Coralloid roots
  4. Leaflet.

Answer: 3. Coralloid roots

Question 65. Male cone of pinus replaces:

  1. Ncedlcs
  2. Scales
  3. Dwarf shoots
  4. Long shoots.

Answer: 3. Dwarf shoots

Question 66. Pollen grains in cycas arc shed at:

  1. 1-Celled stage
  2. 2-Celled stage
  3. 3-Celled stage
  4. 4-Cellcd stage.

Answer: 3. 3-Cellcd stage

Gymnosperm MCQ Question 67. In cycas, the pollen lube is:

  1. Haustorial in nature
  2. Sperm carrier
  3. Carrier of ovule
  4. Carrier of archegonia.

Answer: 2. Sperm carrier

Question 68. Pinus is:

  1. Deciduous
  2. Dioecious
  3. Monoecious
  4. None of these.

Answer: 3. Monoecious

Question 69. Antherozoids of cycas are :

  1. Aflagellate
  2. Dinoflagellate
  3. Triflagellale
  4. Multiflagellate.

Answer: 4. Multiflagellate.

Question 70. In cycas ovules are :

  1. Orthotropous and unitegmic
  2. Anatropous and unitegmic
  3. Orthotropus and tritegniic
  4. Anatropous and tritegmic.

Answer: 1. Orthotropous and unitegmic

Question 71. The largest sperms are found in:

  1. Cycas
  2. Gnetum
  3. Pinus
  4. Welwitschia.

Answer: 1. Cycas

Question 72. Which of the following is a living fossil?

  1. Ginkgo
  2. Abies
  3. Pinus
  4. Cedrus.

Answer: 1. Ginkgo

Gymnosperm MCQ Question 73. Gymnosperms do not form fruits because they lack:

  1. Pollination
  2. Fertilization
  3. Seeds
  4. Ovary.

Answer: 4. Ovary.

Question 74. In gymnosperms, pollination is carried through:

  1. Insects
  2. Birds
  3. Wind
  4. Bats.

Answer: 3. Wind

Question 75. Which of the following is the best explanation for excurrent (pyramidal shape of pinus tree.)?

  1. Effect of auxins on the growth of stem tip
  2. Competition between adjacent trees for sunlight
  3. Efficiency for water transport
  4. Adaptation for wind pollination.

Answer: 4. Adaptation for wind pollination.

Question 76. Turpentine is obtained from:

  1. Ferns
  2. Gymnospemious wood
  3. Angiospermous flowers
  4. Angiospermous wood.

Answer: 2. Gymnospemious wood

Gymnosperm MCQ Question 77. The seeds of cycas are :

  1. Enclosed by fruit wall
  2. Enclosed within flower
  3. Naked and no fruit wall
  4. Absent.

Answer: 3. Naked and no fruit wall

Question 78. Dwarf shoot of pinus is :

  1. Shed every year
  2. Shed after 2—3 years
  3. Shed after five years
  4. Never shed.

Answer: 2. Shed after 2—3 years

Question 79. Cycas occurs commonly in :

  1. South america
  2. North america
  3. Southeast Asia
  4. Europe.

Answer: 3. Southeast Asia

Question 80. Secondary wood in cycas is devoid of or (wood in cycas does not have the following):

  1. Protoxylem
  2. Vessels
  3. Metaxylem
  4. Tracheids.

Answer: 2. Vessels

Question 81. In pinus, the male gametes are :

  1. Non-ciliate
  2. Multiciliate
  3. Biciliate
  4. Uniciliate.

Answer: 1. Non-ciliate

Question 82. Multiciliated antherozoids occur in:

  1. Riccia and funeral
  2. Pteris and cycas
  3. Riccia and pteris
  4. Marchantia and riccia.

Answer: 2. Pteris and cycas

Question 83. Sulphur shower refers to :

  1. Sulphur springs
  2. The yellow colour of pollen grains
  3. Pollen dust of pinus
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Pollen dust of pinus

Question 84. In cycas:

  1. Male strobilus (cone) and megasporophylls occur on separate individuals
  2. Male strobilus and megasporophylls occur on the same individual
  3. The same cone consists of both micro-and mega-sporophylls
  4. The same sporophyll bears micro-sporangia and ovules.

Answer: 1. Male strobilus (cone) and megasporophylls occur on separate individuals

Question 85. Tracheids of cycas are with :

  1. Uniseriate bordered pits
  2. Biseriate bordered pits
  3. Multiseriate bordered pits
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Multiseriate bordered pits