NEET Biology

NEET Biology Gymnosperms

1. Gymnosperms are the ancestral seed-producing plants. The term ‘Gymno’ signifies nude, whereas ‘Sperma’ denotes a seed. The term gymnosperms refers to plants that possess naked seeds.
2. Approximately 900 species of extant gymnosperms exist, with conifers comprising around 500 species of this category.

Features of Gymnosperms

1. J. Gymnosperms are mainly woody plants represented by trees, shrubs etc. They are perennials.
2. They bear tap roots. They may exhibit association with algae to form coralloid roots (Cyras) or with fungus to form mycorrhizal roots (Pinus).
3. Leaves may be of one or two kinds i.e. foliage leaves and scale leaves. Leaves may be reduced (Ephedra), needle-like (Pinus) or large and pinnately compound (Cycas).
4. The ovules arc orthotropus and covered by a single integument which is usually made up of outer fleshy, middle stony and inner fleshy layers.
5. The main plant body is sporophyte which is heterosporous. The gametophytes are reduced. The female gametophyte is never shed. (t. The female gametophyte is constituted by haploid endosperm on which 2-8 archegonia are present. Neck canal cells are absent.
6. Sexual reproduction is of the oogamous type.
7. Male cones bear microsporophylls on which microsporangia are borne.
8. Microspores (pollen grains) are formed in the microsporangia and they lead to the development of male gametophytes.
9. The pollen tube grows through the female gametophyte and reaches near the archegonium.
10. Syngamy occurs and oospore (2n) is fonned.
11. All gymnosperms arc wind-pollinated. They are anemophilous.
12. After fertilization, the oospore forms the embryo. Since they are formed by many oospores, each oospore forms the embryo. So there is the phenomenon of polyembryony.
13. Ovules arc transformed into seed.
14. Seeds contain two to many cotyledons which on germination give rise to diploid plants hence they arc polycotylcdonous.

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Gymnosperms NEET Notes

Classification of Gymnosperms

NEET Biology Gymnosperms Life Cycle Of Pinus

It is an exposed seed-bearing phanerogam. It is found in hills at different altitudes. The main plant body is a sporophyte. It is a large large-sized tree, with roots, stems and leaves.

Stem has long and dwarf shoots, the former shows unlimited growth and the latter shows limited growth. Leaves are scale and foliage (needle-like and green).

Dwarfbranches fall at regular intervals so the tree is evergreen. The plant attains a conical shape due to the excurrent mode of branching.

The stem shows a normal type of secondary growth. The wood is pyroxylin (hard and compact woods and monocyclic has only one ring of xylem. The bordered pits are uniseriate.

The plants are monoecious. The male and female reproductive organs are in the form of well-organized cones. The short male cones or strobila are seen clustered on the tip of the young shoot.

Several microsporophylls arc spirally arranged on an axis or thalamus. The male cone therefore is is aflower and not an inflorescence. On the lower surface of each microsporophyll are two or more microsporangia containing numerous microspore mother cells which divide meiotically to produce microspores or pollen.

At maturity, each microsporangium splits open by a longitudinal slit. Then pollen grains are released and dispersed by wind.

The female cone is a complex structure. The axis beats some spirally arranged bract scales in the axil each of which produces an ovuliferous scale. Each ovuliferous scale bears on its surface two ovules or megaspomngin.

The ovule consists of u muss covered by an integument growing from its base. It is differentiated into three lasers. The integument is often at the top forming a micropylc or oblique pore.

The two oxuliferxnis scales with the ovules are considered to form a separate shoot. The strobilus (connect is a compound one homologous with an inflorescence.

The cone takes about 2b months to reach maturity. Within the nucellus is present a single megaspore mother cell which divides by meiosis to form a linear tetrad of megaspores. The lowermost of the 4 megaspores remains functional. Gamclophvtcs.

Gymnosperms NEET Study Material

The pollen grains and die megaspores are the first cells of the male and female gametophyte respectively. At the time of pollination, pollen grains are shed at the 4-celled stage (2 prothallial cells, a generating cell and tube cell).

During pollination the whole atmosphere becomes yellow. People call it as Showers of Sulphur. The female gametophyte bears 1-5 (usually 3) archegonia. The archegonium consists of a venter and a short neck of 4 cells in two tiers.

The neck canal cell is absent. In the venter, there is a venter canal cell and a large oosphere characterised by a prominent nucleus and dense cytoplasm.

Fertilization is siphonogamous with the help of a pollen tube. The zygote or oospore produces an embryo.

Development is meroblastic. Sometimes more than one embryos are formed from the same zygote. This is called Cleavage polyembryony. Seeds are winged. Germination is epigeal. The seeds are polycotyledonous.

The three generations in the seed are:

1. Testa, tegmen and perisperm represent parental sporophyte
2. Endosperm represents female gametophyte
3. Plumule, radicle, cotyledon represent future sporophyte.

NEET Biology Gymnosperms Some Facts Regarding The Life Cycle Of Cycas

• Cycas. Commonly called ‘sagopalm’ or ‘Cocopalm’ is a Gymnosperm of the order Cycadales and family Cycadaceae.
• Out of a total of 20 spaces. 6 species of Cycas are found in India (C. circinalis, C pcctinala. C. rumpliii, C. beddomei, C. revoluta and C. siamensis).
• Cycas appears like a palm and differentiates itself into roots, stems and leaves.
• Roots are of two types, i.e. normal tools which grow deep into the soil and coralloid roots which are coral-like, dichotomously branched, negatively geotropic and green in colour because of the presence of some blue-green algae(For example Nostoc, Anabaena, etc.).
• Stem is erect, stout and unbranched (rarely branched), and the leaves are of two types foliage leaves and scaly leaves.
• Foliage leaves are large, pinnately compound and reach up to 3 to 5 feet or more in length. Young leaflets are circinately coiled. 80-100 pairs of leaflets may be present in each leaf.
• Cycas is strictly dioecious = unisexual = Imperfect.
• Normal roots are generally radial diarchs.
• Coralloid roots are generally radial and exarch Triarch and always contain an algal zone in the cortex. The algal zone contains species of Anabaena, Nostoc, a few diatoms and some bacteria such as Azotobacter and Pseudomonas.
• Old stems contain 2-22 xylem rings showing polycystic condition. Mucilage canals are also present.
• In the rachis, the vascular bundles are arranged in an omega (Q)-shaped manner. The xylem is diploxylic i.e. consists of a centripetal xylem and a centrifugal xylem.
• Leaflets contain transfusion tissue, sunken stomata, and diplomatic xylem mesophyll differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma. Margins of the wings of the leaflet are straight in C. circinalis while revoluted in C. revoluta.
• Male cones and female megasporophylls or ovuliferous scales are present on different plants. The male cone reaches upto about 50 cm in height and contains several microsporophylls.
• On the abaxial (lower) surface of each microsporophyll are present thousands of microsporangia in groups of 3 to 5. Each group of microsporangia is called a sorus. Several pollen grains or microspores are found in each microsporangium.
• True female cones are absent. Female reproductive organs are present in the form of leaf-like megasporophylls.
• Each megasporophyll contains an upper dissected or pinnate leafy portion and a stalk. Ovules remain arranged in two rows on the stalk of the megasporophyll.
• Megasporophylls remain covered with many brown-coloured hairs.
• Cycas circinalis contains the largest ovule amongst the living gymnosperms of the world. It measures about 6 cm in length.
• Mature ovule is orthotropous and unitegmic. The single integument consists of 3 layers, i.e. outer fleshy layer, middle stony layer and inner fleshy layer.
• A hollow pollen chamber is present in the nucellar beak. In the female gametophyte are present two archegonia near the archegonial chamber.
• Pollination is directed by wind.
• The time between pollination and fertilization is 12-15 months.
• Dependence on water is overcome by siphonogamy.
• After fertilization, the ovule as a whole develops into a seed.
• Cycas show an alternation of generations.

Gymnosperms NEET Question Bank

NEET Biology Gymnosperms Economic Importance Of Gymno Sperms

Gymnosperms are of great use in human welfare.

1. Timber. Conifers provide a valuable limber Example Pinus roxburghii, Pinus longifolia (chir) Cedrus deodara {deodar), Pinus excelsa (kail)
2. Protection from soil erosion. Gymnosperms commonly grow on slopes of hills where they hold the soil particles firmly against running water during the rains.
3. Food. Seeds of Pinus ginardiana (chilgoza) are eaten after roasting. Roasted endosperm ofGinkgo, seed kernels of some Cycas species and Gnetum are edible. Sago grains can be obtained from the stem of Cycas. The latter is. therefore also called Sago Palm. Tender leaves of Cycas are cooked or added to curries.
4. Abies balsamia yields a gum used as Canada balsam in microscopic studies.
5. The resin obtained from the trunks of Finns roxburghii, P. wallichiana and P. insularis is used in the manufacture of turpentine oil and resin.
6. Medicines. Drug ephedrine (obtained from stems of Eplicdra species) is given for asthma and bronchitis. Decoction of the stem is used to treat rheumatism. A gum from Cycast and C. circinalis is known to treat tumours. Taxol is an anticancer drug obtained from Tuuis.
7. Sago. Cycas circinalis yields a starch Sago which is used as food.
8. Sabudana is obtained from Cycas revoluta.
9. Berries of juniper are used for flavouring alcoholic beverages like gin etc.
10. Ornamental. Ginkgo (maidenhair tree), Tlnija, Pinus, Cycas, and Araucaria (monkey’s pu/./.lc) are grown for their ornamental value.
11. Cedarwood oil is obtained from the heartwood of Juniperus Virginia.
12. Young plants ofP. merkusii (merkus pine) are used as raw material in the manufacture of craft paper.
13. Wood of several gymnosperms is used in the preparation of pulp, e.g., Pinus, Abies, Picea, lurex, Tsuga, etc.
14. Iannins. Bark of Tsuga canadensis (Hemlock) is used in tanning.
15. linoleum. Saw dust formed during the preparation of timber is used in the formation of linoleum.
16. Coverages and narcotics. Leaves of Tsuga canadensis are used in the preparation of tea. Wine is fermented from seeds and stems of Cvcas revoluta.

1. Unitcgmic ovules are where the integument is differentiated into outer sarrotesta, middle sclerotesta and inner sarcotcsta.
2. Chilgoza is the fruit of the gymnosperm and cannot be called true because the true fruit scientifically is a ripened ovary which is absent in the gymnosperm.
3. Gymnosperms are naked-seeded plants.
4. In Pinus. pollen grains are winged.
5. Dwarf shoots arise in the axil of bracts on long shoots.
6. The remnant nucellar tissue present within the seed covering of the embryo is called perisperin.
7. Transversely oriented conducting parenchyma tissue of pine leaf is called transfusion tissue.
8. Medicinally most important gymnosperms are Taxus and Ephedra.
9. The only gymnosperm which lacks haploid endosperm is Gnetum.
10. Pinus also exhibits cleavage polyembryony.
11. The largest gametes of the biological kingdom belong to Cycas circinalis.
12. Screw pine is the common name for Pandanus. Gnetum is an advanced gymnosperm. Ginkgo and Cycas arc the living fossils. Pimts is a conifer.
13. The mature ovule of Cycas circinalis may reach upto 6 cm long and 4 cm in diameter and the Sperms arc is visible with the naked eye.
14. Xylcm lacks vessels in gymnosperms (non-porous). Vessels have been reported in Gnetum, Ephedra and Welwitschia.
15. In gymnosperm, endosperm is haploid and develops before fertilization.
16. About two hundred million years ago, the gymnosperms formed the dominant vegetation on the earth.
17. Ginkgo biloba is called a living fossil.

Gymnosperms NEET Previous Year Questions

NEET Biology Gymnosperms Quanta To Memory

• Gnetum exhibits similarities with Angiosperms and is a sophisticated representative of the gymnosperms.
• The red wood of China is Pinus longifera.
• Conifers do not discard their foliage.
• Gymnosperm wood Manoxylic timber. Cambial activity is ephemeral; the cortex and pith are expansive; parenchymatous rays are wide; the wood is fragile and commercially unviable. Illustration: Cycas.
• Pycnoxylic timber. Cambial activity is prolonged; cortex and pith are diminished; parenchymatous rays are scarce; wood is dense and robust; wood is commercially significant and utilized as high-quality lumber. Illustration: Pinus.
• Gymnosperms are perennial plants.
• Gnetales possess vessels in the xylem, such as Ephedra and Gnetum.
• The resin duct is a schizogenous hollow generated by the separation of cells.
• In Gymnosperms, wood vessels are missing, consisting solely of tracheids.
• In gymnosperms, ovules are exposed and lack an ovary.
• Hydrostereone (Transfusion Tissue) Internal tissue in gymnosperm leaves comprises parenchymatous and tracheidial cells that function as lateral veins.
• In Cycas, the plants are dioecious, with male and female cones produced on separate individuals.
• In Bryophytes, Pteridophytes, and Gymnosperms, the female reproductive organs are termed archegonia, so referred to as archegoniate.
• In gymnosperms, the archegonium venter is not encased by sterile vegetative cells of the jacket.
• In gymnosperms, the nucellus secretes a pollen drop that facilitates the collection of pollen grains within the ovule’s pollen chamber.
• Pollen grains are haploid, and the endosperm of gymnosperms is also haploid; hence, their chromosomal numbers are identical.
• Ginkgo is a living fossil due to its flagellated male gametes. The Nucellus apex excretes sugar droplets to entice pollen, hence referred to as pollen drop.
• Essential oils obtained from gymnosperms include Cedar leaf oil from Thuja occidentalis. ‘Oil of Cade’: Juniperus oxycedrus Oil of Hemlock-spruce: Tsuga canadensis
• Cedarwood oil: Juniperus virginiana. Gymnosperms originated during the Upper Carboniferous epoch of the Paleozoic era, approximately 280 million years ago. Xylem exhibits diplomacy when it is centrifugal, as observed in the rachis of Cycas sp.

NEET Biology Gymnosperms Questions From Competitive Examinations

Question 1. Larges ovules, trees and gametes are found in:

1. Monocots
2. Dicots
3. Both a and b
4. Gymnosperms.

Answer: 4. Gymnosperms.

Question 2. The wood of Finns is:

1. Manoxylic and homozygous
2. Manoxylic and heterozygous
3. Pycnoxylic and homozygous
4. Pycnoxylic and heterozygous.

Answer: 3. Pycnoxylic and homozygous

Question 3. Male cone of pinus possesses

1. Magasporophylls
2. Microsporophylls
3. Anthers
4. Ligules.

Answer: 2. Microsporophylls

Question 4. Which one of the following has not changed for the last several thousand years?

1. Dryopteris
2. Gnetum
3. Ginkgo
4. Palms.

Answer: 3. Ginkgo

Question 5. The algal zone is characteristic of:

1. Coralloid root of cycas
2. The normal root of cycas
3. The normal root of pinus
4. Mycorrhizal root of pinus.

Answer: 1. Naked ovules

Gymnosperms NEET Mcqs

Question 6. Cycas have two cotyledons but not included in angiosperms because of:

1. Naked ovules
2. Seems like monocot
3. Circinate praxis
4. Compound leaves.

Answer: 1. Naked ovules

Question 7. Number of ovules present over megasporophyll of cycas is :

1. 1—2
2. 2—12
3. 12—24
4. 24—48.

Answer: 2. 2—12

Question 8. The endosperm of gymnosperms is:

1. Haploid
2. Diploid
3. Triploid
4. Tetraploid.

Answer: 1. Haploid

Question 9. A microsporophyll of pinus has :

1. Two adaxial microsporangia
2. Two abaxial microsporangia
3. One abaxial microsporangium
4. Four abaxial microsporangia.

Answer: 1. Two adaxial microsporangia

Question 10. Top-shaped multiciliale male gametes, and the mature seed which bears only one embryo with two cotyledons, are characteristic features of :

1. Polypetalous angiosperms
2. Gamopetalous angiosperms
3. Conifers
4. Cycads.

Answer: 2. Gamopetalous angiosperms

Question 11. The tallest tree is:

1. Sequoia
2. Eucalyptus
3. Pinus
4. Ranunculus.

Answer: 1. Sequoia

Question 12. Cycas is a gymnosperm because of :

1. Naked sweet without fruit.
2. Living fossils
3. Vessels present in xylem
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Naked seet without fruit.

Question 13. Select one of the following pairs of important features distinguishing gnetum from cycas and pinus and showing affinities with angiosperms:

1. Perianth and two integuments
2. Embryo development and apical meristem
3. Absence of resin duct and leaf venation
4. Presence of vessel elements and absence of archegonia.

Answer: 4. Presence of vessel elements and absence of archegonia.

Question 14. In which one of the following male and female gametophytes do not have free living independent existence?

1. Polytrichum
2. Cedrus
3. Ptcris
4. Funaria.

Answer: 2. Cedrus

Gymnosperms NEET Mcqs

Question 15. The gametophyte is not an independent, free-living generation in:

1. Polytrichum
2. Adiantum
3. Marchantia
4. Pinus.

Answer: 4. Pinus.

Question 16. Cycas and adiantum resemble each other in having :

1. Motile sperms
2. Cambium
3. Vessels
4. Seeds.

Answer: 1. Motile sperms

NEET Biology Phylum Porifera Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Approximately what percentage of existing animal species are invertebrates?

1. 20%
2. 50%
3. 70%
4. 95%

Answer: 4. 50%

Question 2. Which of the following is not a characteristic of organisation in the kingdom Animalia?

1. Storage of carbohydrates as starch
2. Multicellularity
3. Obtaining nutrients by ingestion
4. Having eukaryotic cells without wails.

Answer: 1. Multicellularity

Question 3. Most sponges are :

1. Bilaterally symmetrical
2. Radially symmetrical
3. Vertically symmetrical
4. Asymmetrical.

Answer: 4. Asymmetrical.

Question 4. Water exits from a sponge through the :

1. Osculum
2. Spicule
3. Choanocyte
4. Amoebocyte.

Answer: 1. Osculum

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MCQs on PoriferaQuestion 5. Which of the following is not a function of amoebocytes in a sponge?

1. Secretion of skeletal materials
2. Control of pores by contraction
3. Transport of food to the epidermal cells
4. Participation in reproduction.

Answer: 2. Control of pores by contraction

Question 6. Which of the following is not true of reproduction in sponges?

1. Asexual reproduction by gemmules
2. Asexual reproduction by budding
3. Internal sterilization
4. Gamete production by epidermal cells.

Answer: 4. Gamete production by epidermal cells.

Question 7. Amoebocyte control of water entry

Which of the following sets is correct

1. (A-1), (B-2), (C-3), (D-4) (E-5)
2. (A-1) (B-3) (C-2) (D-4) (E-5)
3. (A-v) (B-2) (C-1) (D-3) (E-5)
4. (A-4) (B-2) (C-1) (D-3) (E-5).

Answer: 3. (A-v) (B-2) (C-1) (D-3) (E-4)

Question 8. The mode of digestion in sponges is :

1. Intracellular
2. Intercellular
3. Both 1 and 2
4. None of the above.

Answer: Intercellular

Question 9. Spongocoel of leucosolenla is lined by :

1. Pinacocytes
2. Amoebocytes
3. Choanocytes
4. Scleroblasts.

Answer: 3. Choanocytes

Question 10. A common chamber for all the canals of a sponge is

1. In current canal
2. Paragastric
3. Excurrent canal
4. Radial canal.

Answer: 2. Paragastric

Question 11. Leucosolenia is :

1. Sessile, colonial and marine
2. Sessile, solitary and marine
3. Sessile, colonial and freshwater
4. Sessile, solitary and marine.

Answer: 1. Sessile, colonial and marine

Question 12. Glass rope sponge is the common name of :

1. Sycon
2. Hyalonema
3. Euspongia
4. Leucosolenia.

Answer: 2. Hyalonema

Question 13. In current canal communicates with radial canals by:

1. Apopyles
2. Prosopyle
3. Dermal Ostia
4. Gastric Ostia.

Answer: 2. Prosopyle

Question 14. Gemmules are endogenous in origin and play a vital role in:

1. Perennation
2. Dispersal
3. Reproduction
4. All of the above.

Answer: 2. Dispersal

Question 15. Mesohyal is largely secreted by :

1. Collencyte
2. Trophocyte
3. Choanocyte
4. Chromocyte.

Answer: 1. Collencyte

Question 16. In sponges, food particles are ingested by :

1. Thesocytes
2. Pinacocytes
3. Collencyte
4. Choanocytes.

Answer: 4. Choanocytes.

Question 17. Which of these cells is not found in sponges?

1. Calcoblasts
2. Myocytes
3. Porocyte
4. Cnidoblasts.

Answer: 4. Cnidoblasts.

Question 18. The power of regeneration in sponges is due to :

1. Thesocytes
2. Amoebocytes
3. Scleroblasts
4. Archaeocytes.

Answer: 4. Archaeocytes.

Question 19. Sponge differs from metazoan in :

1. Cell division
2. Division of labour
3. Cell organization
4. Sponge lacks

Answer: 3. Cell organization

Question 20. Best commercial sponges are found in :

1. Cold shallow water
2. Warm shallow water
3. Deep seawater
4. Warm shallow seawater.

Answer: 4. Warm shallow seawater.

Question 21. The skeleton of the bath sponge is made up of :

1. Calcareous spicules
2. Spongin fibres
3. Collagen fibres
4. Yellow fibres of elastic cartilage.

Answer: 2. Spongin fibres

Question 22. Sponges are not found in :

1. Sea water
2. Brackish water
3. Cold water
4. Sandy shore.

Answer: 3. Coldwater

Question 23. The course of the water system in the second is :

1. Ostia
2. In current canal
3. Prosopyle
4. Radial canal
5. Apopyle
6. Spongocoel
7. Osculum

Choose The Correct Option 

1. 1→2→3→4→5→6→7
2. 1→3→2→4→5→6→7
3. 1→4→3→4→5→6→7
4. 1→5→2→3→4→6→7

Answer: 1. 1→2→3→4→5→6→7

Question 24. Totipotent cells in sponges are :

1. Porocyte
2. Choanocyte
3. Archaeocyte
4. Pinacocyte;

Answer: 3. Archaeocyte

Question 25. Calcareous spicules are formed by :

1. Calcoblasts
2. Silicoblasts
3. Spiroblasts
4. Spongoblasts.

Answer: 1. Calcoblasts

Question 26. In a sponge body, the mesenchyme contains which type of cells:

1. Pinacocytes
2. Choanocytes
3. Amoebocytes
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Amoebocytes

Question 27. Monoaxon spicule with a knob at one end is called:

1. Acanthostyle
2. Tylostyle
3. Diastyle
4. Style.

Answer: 2. Tylostyle

Question 28. One of the following cells takes part in the reproduction of sponges:

1. Archaeocytes
2. Thesocytes
3. Myocytes
4. Choanocytes.

Answer: 1. Archaeocytes

Question 29. Which one of the following is the most distinctive of the character of sponges?

1. They are acellular
2. They possess special cells called choanocytes
3. They reproduce asexually
4. They are all marine.

Answer: 2. They reproduce asexually

Question 30. Which one of the following cells maintains a current of water in a sponge?

1. Trophocytes
2. Porocytes
3. Choanocytes
4. Chromocytes.

Answer: 3. Choanocytes

Question 31. The boring sponge is :

1. Spongilla
2. Euplectella
3. Cliona
4. Euspongia.

Answer: 3. Cliona

Question 32. A chamber which is common in different types of canal systems is :

1. Spongocoel
2. Coelom
3. Pseudocoelom
4. Haernocoel

Answer: 1. Spongocoel

Question 33. Osculum is generally surrounded by :

1. Spongin fibre
2. Spicules
3. Myocytes
4. Pinacocytes.

Answer: 3. Myocytes

Question 34. The cells in which the food is stored in the form of glycogen and glycoprotein are :

1. Thesocyte
2. Archaeocyte
3. Choanocyte
4. Amoebocyte

Answer: 1. Thesocyte

Question 35. The outer epithelial layer in sponges has:

1. Choanocyte
2. Amoebocyte
3. Porocyte
4. Porocyte and pinacocyte.

Answer: 4. Porocyte and pinacocyte.

Question 36. In sponges, nutrition, excretion, and respiration depend upon the system named:

1. Water vascular system
2. Canal system
3. Circulatory system
4. Haemocoelomic system.

Answer: 2. Canal system

Question 37. Which one of the sponges is harmful in the oyster industry?

1. Cliona
2. Ettspongia
3. Hyalonema
4. Euplectella.

Answer: 1. Cliona

Question 38. Olynthus is termed as the simplest type of sponge in structure as well as in form :

1. It is an adult animal belonging to the germs as suggested by Haeckel
2. A species of leucopenia
3. A transitory stage in the life history of the second
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. A species of leucopenia

Question 39. Which cells are found only in sponges?

1. Amoeboid cells
2. Choanocytes
3. Pigment cells
4. Gland cell.

Answer: 2. Choanocytes

Question 40. Trn most simple type of canal system of porifera, water flows through which one of the following ways?

1. Ostia spongocoel – osculum + exterior
2. Spongocoel – ostia + osculum + exterior
3. Osculum – spongocoel + ostia -+ exterior
4. Osculum – ostia – spongocoel + exterior.

Answer: 3. Osculum – spongocoel + ostia -+ exterior

Question 41. Gemmules are helpful in :

1. Digestion
2. Sexual reproduction
3. Water current relation
4. Asexual reproduction.

Answer: 4. Asexual reproduction.

Question 42. Which of the following is a freshwater sponge?

1. Euplectella
2. Spongilla
3. Euspongia
4. Sycon.

Answer: 2. Spongilla

Question 43. Larva of the sponge is known as :

1. Glochidium larva
2. Trochophore larva
3. Zoea larva
4. Amphiblastula larva.

Answer: 4. Amphiblastula larva.

Question 44. Which one of the following is not a class of phylum Porifera?

1. Calcarea
2. Hexactinellida
3. Hydrozoa
4. Demospoangiae.

Answer: 3. Hydrozoa

Question 45. Protospongia is a connecting link between :

1. Protozoa and porifera
2. Porifera and coelenterata
3. Protozoa and annelida
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Protozoa and Porifera

Question 46. The dried piece of bath sponge is made up of :

1. Cellulose fibres
2. Silk fibres
3. Spongin fibres
4. Yellow elastic fibres.

Answer: 3. Spongin fibres

Question 47. In sponges, prostyle is a :

1. Cell at the opening of the incurrent canal
2. Smaller canal and connect incurrent canal with radial canal
3. A cell which forms the lining of spongocoel
4. Contractile element at osculum.

Answer: 2. Smaller canal and connect incurrent canal with radial canal

Question 48. Which one of the following statements is correct?

1. The body of sponges consists of epithelial tissues only
2. All 4 types of tissues are seen in the body of the sponge
3. Only epithelial and connective tissues are present
4. Structurally organized tissues are absent in the body of the sponge.

Answer: 4. Structurally organized tissues are absent in the body of a sponge.

Question 49. In an experiment, the sponge is squeezed through silk bolting cloth and allowed to stand undisturbed in an appropriate medium. It is per{ormed to prove that :

1. The sponges are multicellular
2. The cells are loosely arranged
3. The cells are so small that they can be squeezed through cloth
4. The sponges are non-living.

Answer: 2. The cells are loosely arranged

Question 50. Phylogenetically sponges have evolved from :

1. Protozoans
2. Flagellates
3. Choanoflagellates
4. Ciliates.

Answer: 3. Choanoflagellates

Question 51. The inner lining of spongocoel is formed by :

1. Porocytes
2. Pinacocytes
3. Choanocytes
4. Archeocytes.

Answer: 3. Choanocytes

Question 52. Which of the following is not diploblastic?

1. Coelenterata
2. Porifera
3. Acnidaria
4. Platyhelminthes.

Answer: 4. Platyhelminthes.

Question 53. The body of sponges is mainly composed of :

1. Spongin fibres
2. Mesogloea
3. Spicules
4. Nematoblasts

Answer: 1. Spongin fibres

Phylum Coelenterata Cnidaria Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Which of the following is a radially symmetrical animal?

1. Planarian
2. Rotifer
3. Fluke
4. Sea anemone.

Answer: 4. Sea anemone.

Question 2. A distinguishing feature of cnidarians is the presence of specialized cells that contain nematocysts. They are located on the surface of the body wall and tentacles. They are used for capturing prey. These cells are called:

1. Cnidocytes
2. Flame cells
3. Statocysts
4. Nephridiopores.

Answer: 1. Cnidocytes

Question 3. Scyphozoan medusae are most commonly called :

1. Sea anemones
2. Jellyfishes
3. Corals
4. Hydra.

Answer: 4. Hydra.

Question 4. The ciliated free-swimming larval stage of cnidarian Aurelia (jellyfish) is called:

1. Blastula
2. Planula
3. Polyp
4. Medusa.

Answer: 1. Blastula

Question 5. A hydra is the simplest form of nervous system for integrating the functions of the body. It is called as :

1. Ladder system
2. Nerve net system
3. Ganglionic system
4. Ventral solid cord system.

Answer: 2. Nerve net system

Question 6. Polymorphism is an occurrence of:

1. Several organ systems in an individual
2. Several patterns of adaptation in a major animal group
3. Several modes of feeding in an individual.
4. Several modes of phenotypes in a population.

Answer: 4. Several modes of phenotypes in a population.

Question 7. Coelenterata includes sedimentary animals, they are:

1. Bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic
2. Radially symmetrical, diploblastic
3. Bilaterally symmetrical, diploblastic
4. Radially symmetrical, triploblastic.

Answer: 2. Radially symmetrical, diploblastic

Question 8. The gastrovascular cavity is divided into compartments:

1. Hydrozoa
2. Scyphozoa
3. Actinozoa
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Scyphozoa

Question 9. Polymorphism is exhibited by :

1. Hydra
2. Obelia
3. Aurelia
4. Coral.

Answer: 2. Obelia

Question 10. The alternation of sexual and asexual generation is known as:

1. Digenesis
2. Metagenesis
3. Metamorphosis
4. Dimorphism.

Answer: 2. Metagenesis

Question 11. Which one of the following inhabitants of freshwater bodies?

1. Hydra
2. Obelia
3. Tubularia
4. Gorgonia.

Answer: 1. Hydra

Question 12. The animal without sexual medusae is :

1. Velella
2. Millipore
3. Hydra
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Hydra

Question 13. Testes in Hydra:

1. Are less numerous than ovary
2. Have a conical tip
3. Are nearer the basal disc
4. Develop one sperm in each.

Answer: 2. Have a conical tip

Question 14. In an association mutually beneficial to both partners, in the green hydra, some small green plants live in it giving it a green colour. They are :

1. Zooxanthellae
2. Zoochlorella
3. Volvox
4. Chlamydomonas.

Answer: 2. Zoochlorella

Question 15. Which one of the following layers contains zoochlorella?

1. Gastrodermal cells
2. Myoepithelial cells
3. Mesogloea
4. Interstitial cells.

Answer: 1. Gastrodermal cells

Question 16. Tentacles of hydra arise from :

1. Aboral end
2. Hypostome
3. Stalk
4. Body wall.

Answer: 2. Hypostome

Question 17. In hydra between the ectodermic and gastrodermis, the intermediate structureless layer is found. This is known

1. Mesogloea
2. Muscle endothelial
3. Myoepithelial layer
4. Endoderm.

Answer: 1. Mesogloea

Question 18. Spermatogonia in hydra develops from :

1. Interstitial cells
2. Gastrodermis
3. Muscle endothelial cells
4. Gland cells.

Answer: 1. Interstitial cells

Question 19. The proximal end of hydra bears an adhesive disc which secretes a sticky substance for:

1. Protection
2. Defence from enemies
3. Sexual attraction
4. Attachrnent to the substrate of hydra.

Answer: 4. Attachrnent to the substrate of hydra.

Question 20. Which of the following will happen to a hydra when it is cut transversely into 2 halves?

1. Building up of lost parts
2. Reunion of 2 halves
3. Wound healing
4. Death.

Answer: 1. Building up of lost parts

Question 21. Below the hypostome the number of tentacles is usually:

1. 4-11
2. 10-16
3. 6-10
4. 6-16.

Answer: 3. 6-10

Question 22. When an organism can be cut into two halves by one of the many longitudinal planes passing through the centre, the symmetry is said to be:

1. Bilateral symmetry
2. Radial symmetry
3. Lateral symmetry
4. Longitudinal symmetry.

Answer: 2. Radial symmetry

Question 23. The single sac-like cavity in the body of a hydra is called :

1. Arachenteron
2. Blastocoel
3. Gastrovascular cavity
4. Hypnotoxin.

Answer: 3. Gastrovascular cavity

Question 24. The poisonous fluid present in the nematocyst of hydra is:

1. Toxin
2. Venom
3. Haematin
4. Hypnotoxin.

Answer: 3. Haematin

Question 25. In hydra, the gastrodermis is composed of :

1. Myoepithelial cells
2. Myonutritive cells
3. Sensory cells
4. Cnidoblasts.

Answer: 2. Myonutritive cells

Question 26. The mesogloea of hydra contains:

1. Nerve cells
2. Sensory cell
3. Nematoblasts
4. Nocells.

Answer: 4. Nocells.

Question 27. In hydra, the nematocysts are absent on the basal disc. They are abundant in:

1. Tupper part
2. Tmidclle part
3. Tentacles
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Tentacles

Question 28. Which animal depicts radial symmetry?

1. Planaria
2. Obelia
3. Earthworks
4. Pila.

Answer: 2. Obelia

Question 29. Stenotele nematocyst of hydra is important for :

1. Catching prey
2. Paralysing prey
3. Tasting the food
4. Tasting the water around;

Answer: 2. Paralysing prey

Question 30. Tentacles of hydra extend to the large length due to :

1. Relaxation of myonemes of epitheliomuscular cells
2. Relaxation of myonemes of gastrovascular cells
3. The pressure generated by the body fluid
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Relaxation of myonemes of epitheliomuscular cells

Question 31. The body wall of a hydra consists of :

1. Ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm
2. Ectoderm, mesenchyme and endoderm
3. Ectoderm and endoderm
4. Epidermis, mesogloea and gastrodermis.

Answer: 4. Epidermis, mesogloea and gastrodermis

Question 32. Which one of the following is known as a persistent embryonic layer?

1. Germ cells
2. Cnidoblasts
3. Interstitial cells
4. Muscular cells.

Answer: 3. Interstitial cells

Question 33. The process of digestion of food in hydra is :

1. Intercellular
2. Extracellular
3. Intracellular
4. Both extracellular and intracellular.

Answer: 4. Both extracellular and intracellular.

Question 34. One of the following nematocysts is the most specialized for catching prey:

1. Penetrant
2. Large agglutinant
3. Small conglutinant
4. Desmoneme.

Answer: 4. Desmoneme.

Question 35. Nerve cells of hydra differ from those of higher animals in that :

1. They conduct impulses in a definite direction
2. They conduct impulses in all directions
3. Both 1 and 2
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Both 1 and 2

Question 36. One of the following animals has a nervous system but no brainer:

1. Cockroach
2. Earthworm
3. Hydra
4. Sponges.

Answer: 3. Hydra

Question 37. In hydra, our contains :

1. A few ova
2. Single ovum
3. No ova
4. Lunlerous ova.

Answer: 2. Single ovum

Question 38. Mark the group, of animals that do not move :

1. Bug and slug
2. Coral and sponges
3. Antedon and holothurian
4. Coral and lepisma.

Answer: 2. Coral and sponges

Question 39. Fertilization in hydra is :

1. Hxtemal
2. In the body Glendale
3. Both male and female individuals come close and fuse
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. In the body Lenrale

Question 40. Self-fertilization in Hydra never takes place because they are :

1. Protandrous
2. Protogynous
3. Asexual
4. Hermaphrodite.

Answer: 1. Protandrous

Question 41. Hydra reproduces by bidding during:

1. Unfavourable conditions
2. Favourable conditions
3. Less water supply
4. Summer.

Answer: 2. Favourable conditions

Question 42. Coral reefs have been a result of activity of mainly:

1. Molluscs
2. Echinoderms
3. Coelenterates
4. Hernichordates.

Answer: 3. Coelenterates

Question 43. Polymorphism is best defined as the occurrence of:

1. Several types of organ systems in an individual
2. Different kinds of larval forms in the life history of an animal
3. Different functions performed by a single kind of organism
4. Several different types of individuals in the species.

Answer: 4. Several different types of individuals in the species.

Question 44. The cells of blastula in hydra divide repeatedly and tangentially forming many cells which migrate inward from all directions and fill in the blastocoel. This process is called:

1. Invagination
2. Immigration
3. Involution
4. Ingression.

Answer: 4. Ingression.

Question 45. Which animals are exceptions to the organ system level of organisation?

1. Echinoderms
2. Sponges
3. Coelenterates
4. Both 2 and 3.

Answer: 4. Both 2 and 3.

Question 46. Hydra is negatively chemotropic because it :

1. Moves away from strong light
2. Prefers weak illumination
3. Moves to water of low temperature
4. Avoids chlorinated water.

Answer: 3. Moves to water of low temperature

Question 47. If a hydra has to propagate successfully in a pond which is going to dry up soon, what method of reproduction will take place in the animal:

1. Panhenogenesis
2. Budding
3. Sexual
4. Sporogony.

Answer: 3. Sexual

Question 48. Tentaculocyst is :

1. Receptor organ in Ascaris
2. A part of Scolex
3. Protective covering of amoeba
4. A receptor organ of aurelia.

Answer: 4. A receptor organ of aurelia.

Question 49. Metagenesis is exhibited by :

1. Hydra
2. Fungia
3. Metridium
4. Obelia.

Answer: 4. Obelia.

Question 50. Penetrants and steno-teles are the names of hydra’s nematocysts. Of these;

1. Penetrants are larger
2. Penetrants are smaller
3. Steoteles are not found in hydra
4. Both are the same.

Answer: 4. Both are the same.

Question 51. A fringing reef is usually located at:

1. Very near the shore
2. In deep sea
3. In cold sea
4. Far away from the shore.

Answer: 1. Very near the shore

Question 52. True corals come from the order :

1. Hydroidea
2. Pennatulacea
3. Madreporaria
4. Alcyonacea.

Answer: 3. Madreporaria

Question 53. Sea pen is a popular name for:

1. Gorgonia
2. Pennatula
3. Fungia
4. Corallium.

Answer: 2. Pennatula

Question 54. The body cavity of cockroaches is

1. Hydrozoan
2. Scyphozoan
3. Anthozoan
4. Fish.

Answer: 3. Anthozoan

Question 55. Rhopalium is a complex of :

1. Two sense organs
2. Three sense organs
3. Four sense organs
4. Five sense organs.

Answer: 3. Four sense organs

Question 56. In obelia, statocysts function as the organ for:

1. Hearing
2. Iight perception
3. Smell
4. Equilibrium.

Answer: 4. Equilibrium.

Question 57. In hydra tests are located at:

1. Proximal half end of body
2. The distal half end of the body
3. Both the ends
4. Tentacles only.

Answer: 2. Distal half end of body

Question 58. Hydra can digest all types of food except:

1. Proteins
2. Fats
3. Sugars
4. Starch.

Answer: 4. Starch.

Question 59. Aurelia belongs to:

1. Hydrozoa
2. Scyphozoa
3. Actinozoa
4. Cephalopoda.

Answer: 2. Scyphozoa

Question 60. Which of the following phyla include diploblastic animals?

1. Coelenterata
2. Platyhelminthes
3. Aschelminthes
4. Echrnodermata.

Answer: 1. Coelenterata

Phylum Platyhelminths

Question 1. Flatworms have three tissue layers and only one body cavity-the digestive cavity. They are called:

1. Acoelomates
2. Pseudo-acoelomates
3. Pseudo-coelomates
4. Coelomates.

Answer: 1. Acoelomates

Question 2. Which of the following is an ectoparasite?

1. Fasciola
2. Paragonimus
3. Diplozoan
4. Taenia

Answer: 3. Diplozoan

Question 3. A unisexual fluke is :

1. Schistosoma
2. Paragonimus
3. Fasciola
4. Opisthorchis.

Answer: 1. Schistosoma

Question 4. Locomotory and receptor organs are lacking in :

1. Liver fluke
2. Lung fluke
3. Intestinal fluke
4. Tapeworm.

Answer: 4. Tapeworm.

Question 5. Flatwornrs have:

1. Ectothelial eggs
2. Endothelial eggs
3. Both 1 and 2
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Endothelial eggs

Question 6. The infective stage of taenia for man is:

1. Hexacanth
2. Onchosphere
3. Cysticercus
4. Adult worm.

Answer: 4. Adult worm.

Question 7. How many intermediate hosts does Paragonimus have?

1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Two

Question 8. Paragonimus lives in :

1. Intestine
2. Blood
3. Lung
4. Brain.

Answer: 3. Lung

Question 9. For protection against the infection of diphyllobothrium, do not take raw or undercooked:

1. Pork
2. Mutton
3. Vegetables
4. Fish.

Answer: 4. Fish.

Question 10. Tapeworms do not have an alimentary canal because they get good from:

1. Suckers
2. Mouth
3. Body surface
4. All of the above.

Answer: 3. Body surface

Question 11. Which of the following statements about taenia saginata is true?

1. It has a double circle of hooks on the rostellum
2. Its life history involves pig as an intermediate host
3. It has two large hooks on the scolex
4. It has no rostellar hooks.

Answer: 1. It has a double circle of hooks on the rostellum

Question 12. The study of worms which cause a parasitic infestation in man is called :

1. Helminthology
2. Herpetology
3. Ichthyology
4. Malacology.

Answer: 1. Helminthology

Question 13. Liver fluke is :

1. Coelomate
2. Pseudo-coelomate
3. Acoelomate
4. Haemo-coelomate.

Answer: 3. Acoelomate

Question 14. Taenia attaches to the intestinal wall by:

1. Scolex
2. Suckers
3. Hooks
4. Both 2 and 3.

Answer: 4. Both 2 and 3.

Question 15. Anaerobic respiration is likely to occur in :

1. Ants
2. Eafthworm
3. Tapeworms
4. Echinoderms.

Answer: 3. Tapeworms

Question 16. The correct sequence of various larvae in the liver fluke is :

1. Miracidium→sporocysts →cercaria → redia→ metacercaria
2. Miracidium → redia → Cercaria→metacercaria → sporocyst
3. Metacercaria → cercaria → redia →sporocyst → miracidium
4. Miracidium → sporocysts →redia→cercaria -→metacercaria.

Answer: 4. Miracidium →sporocysts→ redia→ cercaria→ metacercaria.

Question 17. Food is sucked into the fasciola hepatica with the help of:

1. Oral sucker
2. Muscular pharynx
3. Ventral sucker
4. Mouth.

Answer: 2. Muscular pharynx

Question 18. From the evolutionary point of view which group is considered to be the first triploblastic?

1. Platyhelminthes
2. Annelida
3. Coelenterata
4. Nemathelminthes.

Answer: 1. Platyhelminthes

Question 19. On examining the stool of a man, it was found to contain segments of tapeworms. Trace the possible source:

1. Fish meat
2. Beef
3. Pork
4. Mutton.

Answer: 3. Pork

Question 20. Which of the following is not a class of phylum Platyhelminthes?

1. Turbellaria
2. Hydrozoa
3. Trematoda
4. Cestoda.

Answer: 2. Hydrozoa

Question 21. Cysticercosis is caused by :

1. Taenia
2. Liver fluke
3. Bladder worm
4. Rhabditid.

Answer: 3. B1adder worm

Question 22. Which of the following is not a parasitic adaptation of helminths?

1. Secretion of mucus and anti-enzyme
2. Production of a large number of eggs
3. Presence of the nervous system
4. Presence of flame cells.

Answer: 3. Presence of nervous system

Question 23. Fasciola hepatica differs from taenia solium in:

1. Having a better-developed digestive system
2. A protective cuticle
3. Mesenchyme fills up the space between ectoderm and endoderm
4. Presence of nervous system.

Answer: 1. Having a better-developed digestive system

Question 24. Special mesodermal tissue fills up the space between various organs in flatworms:

1. Parenchyma
2. Botryoidal
3. Sclerenchyma
4. Mesogloea.

Answer: 1. Parenchyma

Question 25. In platyhelminthes, vitellarium is generally found in association with:

1. Ovaries
2. Testes
3. Both the ovary and testes
4. Gut.

Answer: 1. Ovaries

Question 26. In Platyhelminthes flame cells are units of :

1. Excretory system
2. Reproductive system
3. Vascular system
4. Respiratory system.

Answer: 1. Excretory system

Question 27. One of the main characteristics of taenia solium is that it:

1. Sucks the predigested food from the host’s intestine by employing oral suckers
2. Has no mouth, alimentary canal and anus
3. Has a head, a neck and a thorax but no abdomen
4. Passes eggs which are unaffected even at the boiling temperature of water.

Answer: 2. Has no mouth, alimentary canal and anus

Question 28. Cestodes have:

1. A scolex with sucker and hooks
2. A ribbon-like body
3. Numerous proglottids
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 29. The primary host of taenia is.

1. Pig
2. Man
3. Sheep
4. Mollusc.

Answer: 2. Man

Question 30. The intermediate host of talent solium is :

1. Pig
2. Man
3. Sheep
4. Snail.

Answer: 1. Pig

Question 31. Which one of the following larvae does not belong to liver fluke?

1. Cercaria
2. Planula
3. Media
4. Miracidium.

Answer: 2. Planula

Question 32. Miracidium larva occurs in the life cycle of :

1. Liver fluke
2. Tapeworm
3. Ascaris
4. Malarial parasite.

Answer: 1. Liver fluke

Question 33. Taenia solium feeds with :

1. Oral sucker
2. Body surface
3. Rostellum
4. Ventral sucker.

Answer: 2. Body surface

Question 34. The tapeworm is :

1. Unisexual
2. Asexual
3. Bisexual
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Bisexual

Question 35. The head of taenia solium is called :

1. Oral sucker
2. Acetabulum
3. Scolex
4. Rostellum

Answer: 3. Scolex

Question 36. In taenia, scolex bears at the top in the middle a prominent:

1. Cup-shaped sucker
2. Head
3. Rostellum
4. Recurved hooks.

Answer: 3. Rostellum

Question 37. The adult taenia contains :

1. 500 Proglottids
2. 1000 Progloltids
3. 800-900 Proglottids
4. Only 3 proglottids.

Answer: 3. 800-900 Proglottids

Question 38. Proglottids of cestodes have :

1. Monoecious reproductive system
2. Dioecious genitalia
3. Well-developed alimentary canal
4. Ax the above.

Answer: 1. Monoecius reproductive system

Question 39. Segments of taenia proliferate from the :

1. Head
2. Neck
3. The special region of proliferation in the neck
4. Anywhere from the body.

Answer: 3. Special region of proliferation in neck

Question 44. A proglottid is called gravid proglottid when it has :

1. Both male and female reproductive units
2. Only the female reproductive unit
3. Only the male reproductive unit well well-developed
4. Branched uterus filled with fertilized eggs.

Answer: 4. Branched uterus filled with fertilized eggs.

Question 41. Liver fluke has :

1. Self-fertilization
2. Cross-fertilization
3. None of above
4. Both of the above.

Answer: 4. Both of the above.

Question 42. The body wall in tapeworm is covered by :

1. Cuticle
2. Tegument
3. Integument
4. Mucus.

Answer: 2. Tegument

Question 43. Rhabdits are present in the epidermal cells of

1. Taenia
2. Fasciola
3. Dugesia
4. Schistosoma

Answer: 3. Dugesia

Question 44. Nen ous system of flatworms is

1. Of diffuse type
2. In the form of anterior ganglia and nerve cords
3. Consists of the central and sympathetic nervous system
4. In the form of clustered ganglia.

Answer: 2. In the form of anterior ganglia and nerve cords

Question 45. The tcstes in taenia :

1. Have a single structure
2. Have bulbed structure
3. Consist of several follicles
4. Consists of a pair of branched structures.

Answer: 3. Consist of some follicles

Question 46. The ovary in taenia is :

1. Single lobed
2. Bilobed
3. Follicular
4. A pair of glandular structures.

Answer: 2. Bilobed

Question 47. In tapeworms, fertilization is affected by one of the following manners:

1. Self-fertilization
2. Fusion of gametes between two parasites
3. Fertilization between gametes of adjacent segments
4. A combination of 1 and 3.

Answer: 4. A combination of 1 and 3.

Question 48. The life cycle of taenia is :

1. Monogenetic
2. Digenetic
3. Polygenetic
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Digenetic

Question 49. The infective stage of taenia in pigs is :

1. Onchosphere stage
2. Hexacanth
3. Adult stage
4. None of the above.

Answer: 4. None of the above.

Question 50. Taenia saginata differs from taenia solium mainly in the absence of:

1. Scolex
2. Hooks upon scolex
3. Suckers upon scolex
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Hooks upon scolex

Question 51. Onchosphere is an embryo which occurs in taenia characterized by the presence of:

1. Six hooks, primary shell only
2. Six hooks, geosphere membrane and embryophore
3. Onchosphere membrane only
4. Six hooks, onchosphere membrane, embryophore and primary shell only.

Answer: 4. Six hooks, onchosphere membrane, embryophore and primary shell only.

Question 52. Cysticercus is a stage in the life history of:

1. Fasciola
2. Ascaris
3. Taenia
4. Pheretima.

Answer: 3. Taenia

Question 53. Larval forni of a trematode which penetrates a gastropod mollusc is:

1. Hexacanth
2. Media
3. Cercaria
4. Miracidium.

Answer: 4. Miracidium.

Question 54. Trematodes have :

1. A branched alimentary canal
2. A monoecious reproductive apparatus
3. Direct or indirect alimentary canal
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 55. Schistosoma is called

1. Blood fluke
2. Chinese liver t-luke
3. Lung fluke
4. Dog tapeworm.

Answer: 1. Blood fluke

Question 56. Dugesia is an exmple of

1. Cestoda
2. Turbellaria
3. Digenetic Trematoda
4. Mgogenetic trematoda.

Answer: 2. Turbellaria

Question 57. Taenia saginata is a parasite of

1. Sheep
2. Cow
3. Man and cow
4. Dog.

Answer: 3. Man and cow

Question 58. Fasciola hepatica is a parasite that lives in the:

1. Intestine of sheep
2. Liver of sheep
3. Spleen of sheep
4. Pancreas of sheep.

Answer: 2. Liver of sheep

Question 59. Strobilation is seen in :

1. Taenia
2. Fasciola
3. Dugesia
4. Digenia.

Answer: 1. Taenia

Question 60. The presence of spicules on the body wall is a characteristic of:

1. Aurelia
2. Planaria
3. Taenia
4. Fasciola.

Answer: 4. Fasciola.

Phylum Aschelminthes

Question 1. Which of the following are pseudocoelomates?

1. Trematodes
2. Nematodes
3. Cestodes
4. Archiannelida.

Answer: 2. Nematodes

Question 2. Round worms have three tissue layers, a digestive cavity and an additional cavity between the endoderm and mesoderm. They are called as:

1. Acoelomates
2. Pseudocoelomates
3. Haemocoelomates
4. Coelomates.

Answer: 2. Pseudocoelomates

Question 3. Dracunculus medinensis is a parasite of :

1. Body fluids
2. Body tissue
3. Gut
4. Lungs.

Answer: 2. Body tissue

Question 4. The common parasite of the human large intestine is:

1. Asruris
2. Trichinella
3. Enterobius
4. Ancylostoma.

Answer: 3. Enterobius

Question 5. The Epidermis of the nematode consists of :

1. Cuticle
2. Epidermis
3. Muscle layer
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 6. Trichinosis is caused by :

1. Trichuris
2. Trichinella
3. Ancylostoma
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Trichinella

Question 7. The number of cells in the various organs of the body is fixed in :

1. Flatworms
2. Segmental worms
3. Walking worms
4. Round worms.

Answer: 4. Roundworms.

Question 8. Excretory organs of hookworm are :

1. Flame cells
2. Green gland
3. Renette glands
4. Nephridia.

Answer: 3. Renette glands

Question 9. Juvenile of Ascaris undergoes moult :

1. Twice
2. Once
3. Thrice
4. Four times.

Answer: 4. Four times.

Question 10. Pinworms are found in humans:

1. Alimentary canal
2. Colon
3. Intestine
4. Lungs.

Answer: 2. Colon

Question 11. The technical name of pinworm is :

1. Trichon cell
2. Ancylostoma
3. Oxyuris
4. Microfilariae.

Answer: 3. Oxyuris

Question 12. The most dangerous parasitic roundworms of man are:

1. Pinworm
2. Hookworm
3. Whipworm
4. Guinea worm.

Answer: 2. Hook worm

Question 13. Filaria is transmitted by :

1. Tsetse fly
2. Sandfly
3. Anopheles
4. Culex.

Answer: 4. Culex.

Question 14. Which of the following groups have one or more animals which are not

1. Ascaris, taenia
2. Enterobius,wuchereria
3. Ancylostoma, dracunculus
4. Ascaris, ancyiostoma.

Answer: 1. Ascaris, taenia

Question 15. In Ascaris lumbricoides, (roundworms) the males and females can be identified externally by certain characters. This phenomenon is called

1. Polymorphism
2. Sexual dimorphism
3. Anisogamy
4. Regeneration.

Answer: 2. Sexual dimorphism

Question 16. Ascaris is a parasite found in the :

1. Stomach
2. Vermiform appendix
3. Small intestine
4. Large intestine.

Answer: 3. Small intestine

Question 17. Ln ascaris lumbricoides :

1. The male is larger than the female
2. The body cavity is a true coelom
3. The life history involves two hosts
4. None of the above.

Answer: 4. None of the above.

Question 18. In male ascaris the posterior end is :

1. Straight
2. Upturned
3. Blunt and straight
4. Curved with pineal setae protruding out.

Answer: 4. Curved with pineal setae protruding out.

Question 19. Lips of Oscars are :

1. Horny
2. Bony
3. Cartilaginous
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Horny

Question 20. Which of the following systems are not well-defined in nematodes?

1. Respiratory and digestive
2. Circulatory and respiratory
3. Excretory and nervous
4. Reproductive and excretory.

Answer: 2. Circulatory and respiratory

Question 21. Helminthes parasite without any intermediate host in its life cycle is:

1. Liver fluke
2. Tapeworm.
3. Filarial worm
4. Roundworm.

Answer: 4. Roundworm.

Question 22. The cuticle in Ascaris is secreted by :

1. Muscular layer
2. Epidermis
3. Syncytial epidermis
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Syncytial epidermis

Question 23. The lateral lines of the epidermis in Ascaris contain :

1. Excretory canal
2. Nerves
3. Oviducts
4. Spermatic ducts.

Answer: 1. Excretory canal

Question 24. The transmission of scans takes place through:

1. Air
2. Housefly
3. Contaminated food and water
4. Female anopheles.

Answer: 3. Contaminated food and water

Question 25. In Ascaris, the respiration is:

1. Anaerobic
2. Anaerobic
3. Cutaneous
4. All the above.

Answer: 2. Anaerobic

Question 26. Cuticle of ascaris is an adaptation for :

1. Growth
2. Parasitism
3. Reproduction
4. Locomotion.

Answer: 2. Parasitism

Question 27. The matrix layer of the cuticle of ascarls is :

1. Spongy in consistency
2. Formed of keratin
3. Collagen fibres
4. Formed of basement membrane.

Answer: 1. Spongy in consistency

Question 28. Musculature it ascaris is formed of :

1. Circular muscles
2. Circular and longitudinal muscles
3. A single layer of spindle-shaped cells
4. Oblique and tangential circular muscles.

Answer: 3. Single layer of spindle-shaped cells

Question 29. Locomotion in Ascaris is brought about by:

1. Circular muscles
2. Oblique muscles
3. Alternate contraction of dorsolateral and ventrolateral muscles
4. Circular and oblique muscles to counteract

Answer: 3. Alternate contraction of dorsolateral and ventrolateral muscles

Question 30. The toxins produced by Ascaris interfere in:

1. Carbohydrate metabolism
2. Protein metabolism
3. Basal metabolic rate
4. Fat metabolism.

Answer: 2. Protein metabolism

Question 31. In Ascaris, excretory organs are:

1. Excretory cell
2. Kidney
3. Nephridia
4. Flame cells.

Answer: 1. Excretory cell

Question 32. Rectum of Ascaris :

1. Consists of tall columnar cells
2. Consists of internal cuticle
3. In males opens into the cloaca
4. All the above.

Answer: 2. Consists of internal cuticle

Question 33. The total number of apertures in male and female Ascaris are

1. Two and three
2. Three and four
3. Two each
4. Two and four.

Answer: 4. Two and four.

Question 34. Sperm in Ascaris is :

1. Monoflagellate
2. Biflagellate
3. Amoeboid
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Amoeboid

Question 35. Female ascsris lay eggs daily at the rate of about:

1. 10
2. 10,000
3. 1,00,000
4. 2,00,000.

Answer: 4. 2,00,000.

Question 36. In states, fertilization occurs in :

1. Water
2. Intestine of man
3. Proximal part of the uterus
4. Vagina.

Answer: 3. Proximal part of uterus

Question 37. A coiled embryo within the egg shell is formed in:

1. 24 Hours
2. 5 To 8 days
3. 10 -14 Days
4. 2 To 3 days.

Answer: 3. 10 -14 Days

Question 38. The innermost layer of shells of eggs is formed of :

1. Esterified glycosides
2. Proteins
3. Carbolrydrates
4. Phospholipids.

Answer: 1. Esterified glycosides

Question 39. First stage of the ascaris larva is :

1. Juvenile
2. Rhabdite larva
3. Rhabditoid larva
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Rhabditoid larva

Question 40. Final moulting gin ascaris takes place in :

1. Outside the body of a man
2. Intestine of man
3. Lungs of man
4. The trachea of man.

Answer: 2. Intestine of man

Question 41. Rhabditoid larva infects man by :

1. Boring the sole of feet
2. With water
3. With air
4. With contaminated food.

Answer: 4. With contaminated food.

Question 42. The infective stage of Ascaris is :

1. 1st stage larva
2. 2nd stage larva
3. 3rd stage larva
4. Egg itself.

Answer: 2. 2nd stage larva

Question 43. In the life cycle of Ascaris 3rd moulting occurs in:

1. Intestine
2. Lung
3. Heart
4. Liver.

Answer: 3. Heart

Question 44. Sites of first, second and third moulting of Ascaris larva are :

1. Stomach, intestine and liver
2. Soil, lungs and lungs
3. Intestine, lungs and liver
4. Lungs, intestine and liver.

Answer: 2. Soil, lungs and lungs

Question 45. Ascariasis is syntonised by :

1. Abdominal discomforts
2. Headache
3. High fever
4. All the above.

Answer: 1. Abdominal discomforts

Question 46. The larva of Ascaris circulates in the body of a man:

1. Intestine-liver-trachea-lungs-intestine
2. Intestine-heart-lungs-trachea-intestine
3. Intestine-liver-heart-lungs-intestine
4. Intestine-lungs-liver-trachea-intestine

Answer: 3. Intestine-liver-heart-lungs-intestine

Question 47. Infection of which parasite often gives rise to cough

1. Tapeworm
2. Pinworm
3. Guinea worm
4. Roundworm.

Answer: 4. Roundworm.

Question 48. In,a.sihelminthes the space between the body wall and visceral organs is called:

1. Pseudocoel
2. Schizocoel
3. Hameocoal
4. Roundworm

Answer: 1. Pseudocoel

Question 49. All roundworms differ from all flatworms in having :

1. Longitudinal nerve cord
2. Segrnerited body
3. Metamorphosis in their life cycle
4. Presence of pseudocoelom.

Answer: 4. Presence of pseudocoelom.

Question 50. Special modifications of ascaris in its parasitic mode of life is:

1. Segmented body
2. Resistant cuticle
3. Tubular body
4. Presence of toothed lips

Answer: 2. Resistant cuticle

Phylum Annelids

Question 1. Segmentation is found in :

1. Annelida
2. Arthropoda
3. Vertebrata
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 2. Trochophore larva occurs in :

1. Anneiida
2. Mollusca
3. Brachiopoda
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 3. The zoological name of the paddle worm is :

1. Phererimr
2. Arenicola
3. Chaetopterus
4. Polynoe

Answer: 3. Polynoe

Question 4. Branchiae are respiratory organs in

1. Nereis
2. Aphrodite
3. Polynoe
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 5. Parapodia are locomolory organs in :

1. Oligochaeta
2. Polychaeta
3. Diplopoda
4. Chiropoda.

Answer: 2. Polychaeta

Question 6. Segmentation in annelids is :

1. Hornonornous
2. Heteronomous
3. Both 1 and 2
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Both 1 and 2

Question 7. Aphrodite is popularly called as

1. Scale worm
2. Faloloworm
3. Lugworm
4. Sea mouse.

Answer: 4. Sea mouse

Question 8. Locomotion in leeches is brought about by :

1. Parapodia
2. (Ts) setae
3. Suckers
4. Body muscles and suckers.

Answer: 4. Body muscles and suckers.

Question 9. The excretory material of leech is mainly :

1. Ammonia
2. Urea
3. Uric acid
4. Amino acids.

Answer: 1. Ammonia

Question 10. Leech is :

1. Unisexual
2. Bisexual
3. Dioecious
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Bisexual

Question 11. In earthworm brain is located in :

1. Prostorniurn
2. Peristomium
3. Third segment
4. Second segment

Answer: 3. Third segment

Question 12. In earthworms, coelomic fluid oozes out through the :

1. Nephridiopores
2. Nephrostome
3. Dorsai acres
4. Spermathecal pores.

Answer: 3. Dorsai acres

Question 13. Which of the following does not apply to earthworms?

1. In indirect development
2. Protandry
3. Extracellular digestion
4. Closed circulatory system.

Answer: 1. In indirect development

Question 14. Blood of nereids contains haemoglobin in

1. Plasma
2. Amoeboid corpuscles
3. Red blood corpuscles
4. Both 1 and 2.

Answer: 1. Plasma

Question 15. A coelomic cavity in earthworms is

1. Schizocoelic
2. Enterocoelic
3. Haemocoelic
4. Pseudocoeiic.

Answer: 1. Schizocoelic

Question 16. The colour of the earthworm is given by :

1. Porphyrin
2. Chromatophores
3. Vitamins
4. Lacrnoglohin.

Answer: 1. Porphyrin

Question 17. The function of dorsal pores in earthworms is:

1. Respiration
2. Elimination of waste,
3. Exudation of body fluids
4. Excretion

Answer: 3. Exudation of body fluids

Question 18. In earthworm’s body is devoid of the:

1. Cuticle
2. Setae
3. Appendages
4. Epidermis.

Answer: 3. Appendages

Question 19. Septa without aperture lies between :

1. 11/12; 12/13 And 13/14 segrnents
2. 12/13; 13/14 And 14/15 segments
3. 10/11; 14/12 and 12/13 segments
4. 9/10; 10/11 And 11/12 segments.

Answer: 4. 9/10; 10/11 And 11/12 segments.

Question 20. In earthworms, chromophil cells are found in :

1. Pharyngeal gland
2. Respiratory cell
3. Sensory cell
4. Vascular system.

Answer: 1. Pharyngeal gland

Question 21. The major role of typhiosole in the intestine of earthworms is :

1. To control the flow of blood
2. To increase the absorptive surface
3. To produce digestive enzyme
4. To kill bacteria.

Answer: 2. To increase absorptive surface

Question 22. The presence of coelom and metamerism are important characters in :

1. Helminthes
2. Arthropods
3. Annelids
4. Coeienterates.

Answer: 3. Annelids

Question 23. The cuticle of annelids is ;

1. Non-chitinous and albuminoid
2. Chitinous
3. Chitinous and albuminoid
4. Non-chitinous.

Answer: 4. Non-chitinous.

Question 24. Earthworm is composed of 120 segments and prostomium refers to

1. First segment
2. 2nd segment
3. Not a segment
4. Fart of the reproductive system.

Answer: 3. Not a segment

Question 25. Setae are present in all segments except:

1. First and last segment
2. The first segment and the clitellum
3. Cliteltum, first and anal segments
4. Clitellum and last segrnent.

Answer: 3. Cliteltum, first and anal segments

Question 26. Clitellum in earthworms includes :

1. First three segments
2. 14,15 And 16 segments
3. Last three segments
4. 19, 20 And 21 segments.

Answer: 2. 14,15 And 16 segments

Question 27. In earthworms, the clitellar region helps in the process of:

1. Copulation
2. Conformation
3. Digestion
4. Locomotion.

Answer: 2. Conformation

Question 28. Where would you find calcareous glands in heretical?

1. Oesophagus
2. Stomach
3. Rectum
4. Typhlosole.

Answer: 2. Stomach

Question 29. During locomotion of earthworms:

1. Longitudinal muscles contract first
2. Circular muscles contract first
3. Both muscles contract simultaneously
4. Both muscles relax simultaneously.

Answer: 2. Circular muscles contract first

Question 30. The animals that drifted passively by water currents are known as :

1. Pelagic
2. Planktons
3. Freshwater form
4. Benthos.

Answer: 2. Planktons

Question 31. Which of these is secreted by pharyngeal mass?

1. Albumen
2. Mucin
3. Mucin arid proteases
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Mucin arid proteases

Question 32. The flow of blood in a dorsal blood vessel of heretical is :

1. From in front backwards
2. From behind forward
3. In both directions
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. From behind forward

Question 33. l-lateral hearts in heretical are situated in the following segments :

1. 12th and 13th
2. 10th and 11th
3. 7th and 9th
4. Both 1st and 3rd.

Answer: 3. 7th and 9th

Question 34. Blood glands in earthworms are situated in 4, 5 and 6 segments. These are associated with:

1. Excretion
2. Digestion
3. Secretion
4. Formation of blood corpuscles.

Answer: 4. Formation of blood corpuscles.

Question 35. Lateral oesophageal hearts in heretical are situated in the following segments :

1. 12 And 13
2. 10 And 11
3. 9 And 14
4. 7 And 9th.

Answer: 1. 12 And 13

Question 36. The blood of earthworms is :

1. Colourless
2. Pinkish
3. Bluish
4. Red.

Answer: 4. Red.

Question 37. Which of these vessels distribute the blood in the first thirteen segments :

1. Dorsal
2. Oesophageal
3. Subneural
4. Lateral.

Answer: 1. Dorsal

Question 38. The blood from the seminal vesicle of earthworm is collected by :

1. Lateral oesophageal
2. Ventral blood vessel
3. Ventro tegumentary vessel
4. Subneural vessel

Answer: 1. Lateral oesophageal

Question 39. The excretory organs in earthworms are :

1. Nephridia
2. Malpighiantubules
3. Flame cells
4. Coelomc ducts.

Answer: 1. Nephridia

Question 40. Pharyngeal nephridia of earthworms are situated in segments :

1. 4,5 And 6
2. 5,6,7
3. 3, 4 And 5
4. 6, 7, 8.

Answer: 1. 4,5 And 6

Question 41. In earthworms, mesonephric excretion takes place by:

1. Integumentary nephridia
2. Septal nephridia
3. Septal and pharyngeal nephridia
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Integumentary nephridia

Question 42. The pharyngeal nephridia in earthworms do not open :

1. Externally
2. Terminally
3. Internally
4. None of the above

Answer: 1. Externally

Question 43. The origin of nephridium is :

1. Germinal
2. Ectodermal
3. Mesodermal
4. Endodermal.

Answer: 2. Ectodermal

Question 44. In heretical in which segments septal nephridia are found?

1. In all the segments
2. From the 15th to the last segment
3. In the first 15 segments
4. From last to last segment.

Answer: 2. From the 15th to the last segment

Question 45. Where nephrostome is present in heretical?

1. Septal nephridia
2. Integumentary nephridia
3. Pharyngeal nephridia
4. All the above.

Answer: 1. Septal nephridia

Question 46. In earthworms, chloragogen cells perform :

1. Glycogen synthesis
2. Synthesis of urea
3. Removal of silicates
4. Elimination of surplus ca+ ions.

Answer: 2. Synthesis of urea

Question 47. How many eyes are found in heretical :

1. None
2. One
3. Two
4. Many.

Answer: 1. None

Question 48. Enteronephric nephridia throws out the excretory material:

1. Through alimentary canal
2. Through cloacal aperture
3. Directly outside
4. Through circulatory system

Answer: 1. Through alimentary canal

Question 49. In earthworms the ovary is situated in the :

1. 11th segment
2. 10Th segment
3. 13th segment
4. 14th segment.

Answer: 4. 14th segment.

Question 50. In earthworms, the testes are enclosed in the following segments :

1. 3th and 10th
2. 8Th and 9th
3. 11Th and 10th
4. 12th and 10th.

Answer: 2. 8th and 9th

Question 51. In which segment female genital aperture is found heretical?

1. 14th
2. 19th
3. 18th
4. 17th.

Answer: 4. 17th.

Question 52. In earthworms, the spermathecae are used for

1. Development of ovum
2. Development of sperms
3. Storing of spermatozoa
4. Storing oval

Answer: 3. Development of Sperms

Question 53. In earthworm the

1. Oviduct
2. Spermatheca
3. Clitellum
4. Cocoon.

Answer: 4. Trochophore

Question 54. The annelids larva if present is :

1. Tadpole
2. Planula
3. Trochophore
4. Ephyra.

Answer: 3. Trochophore

Question 55. The Polychaeta have all but one of the following characteristics :

1. Exclusively marine
2. Segmentation infinite
3. Distinct head
4. Setae are numerous throughout the body.

Answer: 1. Exclusively marine

Question 56. The term deuterostomes excludes :

1. Vertebrata
2. Echinoderamta
3. Cephalochordata
4. Annelida.

Answer: 4. Vertebrata

Question 57. Which statement is not correct for septal nephridia of heretical?

1. These occur in all segments except the first fourteen
2. They are enteronephric
3. They have a complicated nephrostome
4. They are exonephric.

Answer: 4. They are exonephric.

Question 58. Which has not been correctly classified

1. Oli go chaeta-heretical
2. Archiannelida-glossophobia
3. Hirudinea-pontobdella
4. Polychaeta-series

Answer: 2. Archiannelida-glossophobia

Question 59. Copulation occurs between two earthworms :

1. Generally at night during the rainy season
2. Generally at day time during the rainy season
3. At night during the winter season
4. At night during the summer season.

Answer: 1. Generally at night during the rainy season

Question 60. The difference between septal and pharyngeal nephridia in earthworms relates to:

1. Straight lobe
2. Vesicle
3. Funnel
4. Mode of action.

Answer: 3. Funnel

Question 61. The neurons in earthworms are :

1. Motor
2. Sensory
3. Adjustor
4. Motor, sensory and adjustor.

Answer: 4. Motor, sensory and adjustor.

Question 62. Septal nephridia are :

1. Largest in size
2. Double the size of integumentary nephridia
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Smallest in size.

Answer: 3. Both 1 and 2

Question 63. The total number of pores in the body wall of heretical, which are concerned with reproduction is :

1. 7
2. 11
3. 13
4. 14.

Answer: 3. 13

Question 64. Which is correct about earthworms?

1. It has a brain but no head
2. It has locomotory organs
3. It secretes cocoon around unfertilized egg
4. It can crawl on a smooth surface easily.

Answer: 2. It has locomotory organs

Question 65. Earthworms are:

1. Harmful to man
2. Useful to man
3. Both useful and harmful to man
4. Found only near banks of river.

Answer: 1. Harmful to man

Question 66. Hirudin, an enzyme in the saliva of leech

1. Coagulation of blood
2. Excretion
3. Sucking the blood
4. Digestion of blood.

Answer: 3. Sucking the blood

Question 67. In which area there is a hydrostatic support system?

1. Insects
2. Earthworm
3. Snail
4. Jelly lish.

Answer: 2. Earthworm

Phylum-Arthropoda

Question 1. Which of the following is not an arthropod characteristic?

1. Jointed appendages
2. Unsegmented body
3. Periodic moulting
4. Artiithted exoskeleton.

Answer: 2. Unsegmented body

Question 2. Which of the following arthropods are not manipulated?

1. Insects
2. Crab
3. Stumps
4. Spider.

Answer: 4. Spider.

Question 3. Lobster, crayfish and cancer &re

1. Myriapods
2. Crustaceans
3. Arachnids
4. Insects.

Answer: 2. Crustaceans

Question 4. Which of the following is not a characteristic of insects?

1. Three body divisions
2. Three pairs of jointed legs
3. Two pairs of antennae
4. Excretion by malpighian tubule.

Answer: 3. Two pairs of antennae

Question 5. Which of the following arthropods is a chelicerate?

1. Horseshoe crab
2. Lobster
3. Millipede
4. Grasshopper.

Answer: 1. Horse-shoe crab

Question 6. Which of the following animals does not have a hydrostatic support system?

1. Insects
2. Earthworm
3. Snail
4. Jellyfish.

Answer: 1. Insects

Question 7. Mouthparts of butterflies are :

1. Siphoninc
2. Chewing
3. Chewing lapping
4. Sponging.

Answer: 1. Siphoninc

Question 8. Wriggler is the larva of :

1. Housefly
2. Butterfly
3. Moth
4. Mosquito.

Answer: 3. Moth

Question 9. Which of the following is a social insect?

1. Butterfly
2. Moth
3. Wasp
4. Locust.

Answer: 3. Wasp

Question 10. The body cavity of an arthropod is :

1. Coelorn
2. Haemocoel
3. Spongocoel
4. Pseudocoel.

Answer: 2. Haemocoel

Question 11. Drones in honeybee are :

1. Fertile males
2. Fertile females
3. Sterile males
4. Sterile females.

Answer: 1. Lertile males

Question 12. The arthropod with a sting at the hind end is :

1. Scorpion
2. Periplaneta
3. Mantis
4. Spider.

Answer: 1. Scorpion

Question 13. Millipede belongs to the class :

1. Chilopoda
2. Diplopoda
3. Arachnida
4. Gastropoda

Answer: 2. Diplopoda

MCQs on Porifera Question 14. Which of the following has raptorial proleg?

1. Locust
2. Praying mantis
3. Wasp
4. Bed bug.

Answer: 2. Praying mantis

Question 15. Excretory organs of crustaceans are :

1. Nephridia
2. Malpighian tubules
3. Green glands
4. Flame cells.

Answer: 3. Green glands

Question 16. Cockroach is :

1. Ammonotelic
2. Uricotelic
3. Ureotelic
4. Aminotelic.

Answer: 2. Uricotelic

Question 17. Which of the underlying causes plague :

1. Salmonella Typhimurium
2. Tric hine llaspiralis
3. Yersinia pestis
4. Leishmania donovani.

Answer: 3. Yersinia pestis

Question 18. In silkworm silk is a product of :

1. Salivary glands of the larva
2. Cuticle of adult
3. Cuticle of larva
4. Salivary glands of the adult.

Answer: 1. Salivary glands of the larva

Question 19. Earthworms and cockroaches have one thing in common:

1. Ventral nerve bord
2. Closed blood vascular system
3. Nephridia
4. Trachea.

Answer: 1. Ventral nerve bord

Question 20. In insects compound eyes are composed of :

1. Ocelli
2. Ommatidia
3. Fye spots
4. Haematochrome.

Answer: 2. Ommatidia

Phylum Porifera Recommended MCQs NEET Questions Question 21. Scorpion respires with the help of :

1. Gills
2. Book lungs
3. Trachea
4. Malpighian tubules.

Answer: 2. Book lungs

Question 22. Drones in the colony of honey bees are produced by:

1. Parthenogenesis
2. Parthenocarpy
3. Zygote
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Parthenogenesis

Question 23. The male cricket produces a chirping sound with the help of its:

1. Vocal cords
2. Pharynx
3. Legs
4. Wings.

Answer: 3. Legs

Question 24. Locusts are closely related to :

1. Moth
2. Beetles
3. Butterflies
4. Grasshopper.

Answer: 4. Grasshopper.

Question 25. The larvae of sacculina are known as :

1. Tornaria
2. Nauplius
3. Trochophore
4. Veliger.

Answer: 2. Nauplius

Question 26. Which of these is an insect?

1. Tick
2. Mite
3. Spider
4. Lepisma.

Answer: 4. Lepisma.

Question 27. The number of segments in centipede is about :

1. 300
2. S0
3. 10-30
4. 10-25.

Answer: 4. 10-25.

Phylum Porifera Recommended MCQs NEET Questions Question 28. One of the following traits which is not found in arthropods :

1. Jointed feet
2. Segmented body
3. Movable jaws
4. Closed circulation.

Answer: 4. Closed circulation.

Question 29. Theropods include animals with jointed legs, they have a body cavity called :

1. Coelorn
2. Haemocoel
3. Gastrovascular cavity
4. Pseudocoel.

Answer: 2. Haemocoel

Question 30. The crustacean biramous appendages have a basal part is known as :

1. Exopodite
2. Epipodite
3. Protopodite
4. Endopodite.

Answer: 3. Protopodite

Question 31. Mites are closely related to :

1. Scorpions
2. Cyclops
3. Aphids
4. Beetles.

Answer: 1. Scorpions

Question 32. The first antennal segment is known as :

1. Frons
2. Pedicel
3. Scape
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Scape

Question 33. Antennae are absent in :

1. Dragon fly
2. Spider
3. Prawn
4. Peripatus.

Answer: 2. Spider

Question 34. Which of the following two parts in a cockroach are fundamentally similar in structure :

1. Mandible and antenna
2. Wings and anal cerci
3. Anal style and labrum
4. Maxilla and labium.

Answer: 4. Maxilla and labium.

Phylum Porifera MCQ Questions With Answers  Question 35. In Periplaneta, the number of spiracles is :

1. Six pairs
2. Eight pairs
3. Ten pairs
4. Twelve pairs.

Answer: 3. Ten pairs

Question 36. It feriplaneta the sclerites which surround the genital aperture are termed :

1. Conophores
2. Genitals
3. Gonapophyses
4. Sterna.

Answer: 3. Gonapophyses

Question 37. In cockroaches the exoskeleton is made of :

1. Calcium carbonate
2. Calcium phosphate
3. Chitinous cuticle
4. Calcium sulphate.

Answer: 3. Chitinous cuticle

Question 38. A dorsal plate of the cockroach is :

1. Pleuron
2. Plastron
3. Tergum
4. Stemum.

Answer: 3. Tergum

Question 39. Glossa and paraglossa are collectively termed as:

1. Lingua
2. Ligula
3. Labium
4. Labrum.

Answer: 2. Ligula

Phylum Porifera MCQ Questions With Answers  Question 40. Anal cerci are present :

1. Only in male Ascaris
2. Only in rare cockroaches
3. Only in female cockroaches
4. In both male and female cockroaches.

Answer: 4. In both male and female cockroaches.

Question 41. The flagellum of the antenna of a cockroach is :

1. 11 jointed
2. 13 Segmented
3. Unjointed
4. Many jointed.

Answer: 4. Many jointed.

Question 42. In cockroach antennae function as :

1. Thigmoreceptors, sensitive to touch
2. To help in catching insects
3. Locomotory structures
4. Feeding structures.

Answer: 1. Thigmoreceptors, sensitive to touch

Question 43. The chitinous endoskeleton in the head of the cockroach is known as :

1. Apodeme
2. Tentorium
3. Crematorium
4. Notatum.

Answer: 2. Tentorium

Question 44. Wings of. cockroaches are attached to anterolateral corners of terga of :

1. Mesothorax
2. Metathorax
3. Prothorax
4. Mesothorax and metathorax.

Answer: 4. Mesothorax and metathorax.

Question 45. Which one of the following characters of the forewing of the cockroach is wrong :

1. Leathery
2. Without veins
3. Opaque
4. Protective.

Answer: 2. Without veins

Question 46. Clypeus is a part of :

1. Head
2. Wing
3. Abdomen
4. Leg.

Answer: 4. Leg.

Phylum Porifera Animal Kingdom NEET Practice Question 47. For an insect feeding on body fluids, blood of the prey, the mouth parts should be of :

1. Sucking type
2. Sponging type
3. Piercing and sucking type
4. Biting type.

Answer: 3. Piercing and sucking type

Question 48. From the feeding habits, cockroaches could be classified as:

1. Herbivore
2. Carnivore
3. Frugivore
4. Omnivore.

Answer: 4. Omnivore.

Question 49. The mouth parts of cockroach are :

1. Piercing type
2. Sponging type
3. Siphoning type
4. Cutting and biting type.

Answer: 4. Cutting and biting type.

Question 50. Hepatic caecal in cockroaches is derived from :

1. Ileum
2. Midgut
3. Oesophagus
4. Crop.

Answer: 2. Midgut

Question 51. Which part of the digestive system secretes the peritrophic membrane around the food in cockroaches?

1. Crop
2. Gizzard
3. Hepatic caeca
4. Stomodaeal valve.

Answer: 4. Stomodaeal valve.

Question 52. What will happen if a peritrophic membrane is not formed in cockroaches?

1. Digestion of food will stop
2. Absorption of food will stop
3. Midgut will be injured
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Midgut will be injured

Question 53. In cockroach, the term regurgitation is associated with :

1. Swallowing
2. Ingestion
3. Egestion
4. Absorption.

Answer: 4. Absorption.

Phylum Porifera Animal Kingdom NEET Practice Question 54. The body cavity of a cockroach is :

1. Coelom
2. Haemocoel
3. Coelenteron
4. Pseudocoel.

Answer: 2. Haemocoel

Question 55. The blood of cockroaches is white due to :

1. Absence of haemoglobin
2. The circulatory system is open
3. There are no salts in the blood
4. There is more water in the blood.

Answer: 1. Absence of haemoglobin

Question 56. The tubular heart of a cockroach is composed of :

1. 7 Chambers
2. 9 Chambers
3. 13 Chambers
4. 14 Chambers.

Answer: 3. 13 Chambers

Question 57. What is the name of the Blood cells in Periplaneta americana?

1. Erythrocytes
2. Leucocytes
3. Haemocytes
4. Amoebocytes.

Answer: 3. Haemocytes

Question 58. The respiratory passage in cockroaches during inspiration is:

1. Spiracle and trachea
2. Longitudinal respiratory tube
3. Air chamber
4. Stigmata.

Answer: 1. Spiracle and trachea

Question 59. Oxygen is transported in cockroaches by :

1. Blood
2. Lymph
3. Trachea
4. Spiracle.

Answer: 3. Trachea

Question 60. Tracheae are supported by chitinous rings :

1. Inside the epithelium
2. Outside the epithelium
3. In between two epithelial layers
4. Both inside and around the epithelial.

Answer: 1. Inside the epithelium

Question 61. The nervous system of an insect consists of :

1. Sympathetic
2. Autonomous
3. Central, peripheral and sympathetic
4. Simple nerve cells.

Answer: 3. Central, peripheral and sympathetic

Question 62. Statolith is a sense organ that helps in :

1. Tactile stimulus
2. Viscous
3. Equilibrium
4. Chemical stimulus.

Answer: 3. Equilibrium

Question 63. Green glands are :

1. Respiratory organs of arachnids
2. Respiratory organs of insects
3. Excretory organs of many crustaceans
4. Digestive glands of myriapods.

Answer: 3. Excretory organs of many crustaceans

Question 64. The total number of ganglia present in the ventral nerve cord of a cockroach is:

1. 6
2. 9
3. 10
4. 13.

Answer: 2.

Phylum Porifera Animal Kingdom NEET Practice Question 65. Ingluvial ganglion in cockroaches is present on the surface of.

1. Crop
2. Gizzard,
3. Brain
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Crop

Question 66. During the night, the isolation of ommatidia is incomplete and all act as a single body. What type of image would be formed:

1. Single
2. Blind
3. Blurred
4. Superimposed.

Answer: 4. Superimposed.

Question 67. Which one of these is formed by corneagen cells of an ommatidium?

1. Cone cell
2. Crystalline cone
3. Corneal lens
4. Rhabdome.

Answer: 3. Corneal lens

Question 68. The main excretory product of cockroaches is :

1. Urea
2. Ammonia
3. Uric acid
4. Urine.

Answer: 3. Uric acid

Question 69. The main excretory organs of insects are :

1. Kidneys
2. Nephridia
3. Malpighian tubules
4. Far bodies.

Answer: 3. Malpighian tubules

MCQs on Porifera Question 70. The malpighian tubules open at the junction of :

1. Gizzard and gur
2. Mid gut and ileum
3. Ileum and colon
4. Colon and rectum.

Answer: 2. Mid gut and ileum

Question 71. Malpighian tubules pour the nitrogenous waste into the gut for the reabsorption of :

1. Useful salts
2. Glucose
3. Water
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Water

Question 72. A pair of rod-like structures situated on the sides of the oesophagus just behind the brain. Secrete a growth hormone, which is the one?

1. Corpora allata
2. Corpora cardiaca
3. Corpus srratum
4. Corpus callosum.

Answer: 2. Corpora cardiaca

Question 73. Brain hormone secreted by the intercerebral gland cells is responsible for the activation of:

1. Corpora cardiaca
2. Cerebral ganglia
3. Prothoracic gland
4. Salivary gland.

Answer: 3. Prothoracic gland

Question 74. The function ofthe collateral gland in cockroaches is to

1. Store spends
2. Secrete the egg case
3. Keep vagina moist
4. Store eggs.

Answer: 2. Secrete the egg case

Question 75. The function of the spermatheca in Periplaneta is

1. To help in copulation
2. To store eggs
3. To secrete musky fluid
4. To store sperm.

Answer: 4. To store sperms.

Question 76. Testes of cockroach lie in which segment:

1. 3Rd and 4rh
2. 4Th and 5rh
3. 6Th and 7th
4. 7Th and 8th.

Answer: 2. 4Th and 5rh

Question 77. Mushroom-shaped gland name is given to :

1. Phallic gland
2. Conglobate gland
3. Utricular gland
4. Collateral glance.

Answer: 3. Utricular gland

Question 78. How many times between hatching and its complete development the young cockroach undergoes ecdysis:

1. Not less than 7
2. Not less than 8
3. Not less than 9
4. Not less than 10.

Answer: 1. Not less than 7

MCQs on Porifera Question 79. The spermatophore of the cockroach has 3 layered walls. The middle layer is secreted by:

1. Seminal vesicles
2. Long tubules
3. Ejaculatory duct
4. Phallic gland.

Answer: 3. Ejaculatory duct

Question 80. In female cockroaches the 7th, 8th and 9th sterna enclose a cavity known as :

1. Egg chamber
2. Brood pouch
3. Oothecal chamber
4. Salivary chamber.

Answer: 2. Brood pouch

Question 81. The thoracic region of insects is divided into :

1. Anterior thorax and posterior thorax
2. Tergum and sternum
3. Prothorax, mesothorax and metathorax
4. Prosoma, mesosoma and metasoma

Answer: 1. Anterior thorax and posterior thorax

Question 82. Egg case of cockroach is known as :

1. Embryophore
2. Ootheca
3. Gonophore
4. Female gamete

Answer: 2. Ootheca

Question 83. How many eggs do you find in the egg case of a cockroach?

1. Eight
2. Six
3. Twelve
4. Sixteen

Answer: 4. Sixteen

Question 84. Gradual metamorphosis occurs in :

1. Crow
2. Cat
3. Amoeba
4. Cockroach

Answer: 4. Cockroach

Question 85. The young of some insects resemble the adult in general structure but lack the wings and the mature reproductive organs, such a young one is called :

1. Nymph
2. Grub
3. Caterpillar
4. Maggot

Answer: 1. Nymph

Question 86. Which species lay eggs in the soil?

1. Anopheles
2. Aedes
3. Culex
4. Both culex and anopheles

Answer: 2. Aedes

Phylum Porifera Recommended MCQs NEET Questions Question 87. Which disease is transmitted through culex :

1. Elephantiasis
2. Yellow fever
3. Diphtheria
4. Malaria

Answer: 1. Elephantiasis

Question 88. Why male mosquitoes is unable to pierce the skin of man?

1. Reduced mandibles
2. Mandibles absent
3. Antennae shott
4. None of them.

Answer: 2. Mandibles absent

Question 89. Anopheles lays eggs on:

1. Kitchen garbage
2. Dead bodies of animals
3. Still water
4. Cow and horse dung

Answer: 3. Still water

Question 90. Mouth parts of mosquitoes are :

1. Biting type
2. Sucking type
3. Piercing and sucking type
4. Chewing type.

Answer: 3. Piercing and sucking type

Question 91. Yellow fever is transmitted through :

1. Male anopheles mosquito
2. Aedes mosquito
3. Female anopheles
4. Culex.

Answer: 2. Aedes mosquito

Question 92. What is the name of the full-grown larva of Musca domestica?

1. Puparium
2. Maggot
3. Caterpillar
4. Cocoon

Answer: 2. Maggot

Question 93. The mouth parts of houseflies are of :

1. Cutting and chewing
2. Piercing and sucking
3. Sponging
4. Siphoning

Answer: 3. Sponging

Question 94. Number of eggs a housefly lays is :

1. 8-16
2. 25-50
3. 51-100
4. 500-600.

Answer: 4. 500-600.

Question 95. 2nd instar larva of the housefly has :

1. Two abdominal and one thoracic spiracle
2. One abdominal and one thoracic spiracle
3. Abdominal and two thoracic spiracles
4. Two abdominal and two thoracic spiracles

Answer: 2. One abdominal and one thoracic spiracle

Phylum Porifera Recommended MCQs NEET Questions Question 96. The maggot breathes through :

1. Trachea
2. Integument
3. External gill
4. Rectum

Answer: 1. Trachea

Question 97. Which set of insects is useful to man?

1. Silk moth, honey bee and dragonfly
2. Lac insect, silk moth and honey bee
3. Rice weevil, silk moth and honey bee
4. Honey bees, lac insects and locust

Answer: 2. Lac insect, silk moth and hone3r bee

Question 98. Which of these insects helps in pollination in plants?

1. Musca dotneslictt
2. Apis torsade
3. Bombyx more
4. Drosphila welano gaster

Answer: 2. Apis torsade

Question 99. Which one of these insects is a voracious feeder and worst destroyer of standing crops and orchards?

1. Schistosoma
2. Mantis
3. Dragonfly
4. Tineapellionella

Answer: 1. Schistocera

Question 100. Write of these cause main damage to sugarcane crops?

1. Locust
2. Termites
3. Perilla
4. Aphids

Answer: 3. Pyrilla

Question 102. In part of the body, honey bee keeps the nectar for some time.

1. Crop
2. Mouth
3. Gizzard
4. Pollen basket

Answer: 1. Crop

Phylum Porifera Recommended MCQs NEET Questions Question 103. What is the function of vector insects?

1. Spread disease acting as agents
2. Destroy crops
3. Act as scavengers
4. Useful insects.

Answer: 1. Spread disease acting as agents

Question 104. Which one of these produces drones in honey bee colonies?

1. Unfertilized eggs
2. Fertilizecl eggs
3. Larvae fed on royal jelly
4. Fasting larvae.

Answer: 1. Unfertilized eggs

Question 105. Locomotory organs in the maggot of house fly are:

1. Mandibular hooks
2. Bristles
3. Spiniferous pads
4. Mandibular hooks and spiniferous pads

Answer: 4. Mandibular hooks and spiniferous pads

Question 106. The ants make their path in a definite direction in a perfect manner of cures it is due to :

1. Vision
2. Smell
3. Sight
4. Intelligence

Answer: 2. Smell

Question 107. Spider makes the web with the help of fluid which comes out from the:

1. Mouth
2. Leg
3. Abdominal glands
4. Salivary glands.

Answer: 3. Abdominal glands

Phylum Porifera MCQ Questions With Answers  Question 108. Which of the following terms includes all of the others?

1. Larva
2. Maggot
3. Caterpillar
4. Grub.

Answer: 1. Larva

Question 109. Which of the following is an insect?

1. Spiny headed worm
2. Shipworm
3. Sandworm
4. Screwworm.

Answer: 4. Screwworm.

Question 110. Systematic insecticides :

1. Are absorbed by plants and then by insects
2. Enter the insects through the cuticle
3. Enter insect through the spiracle
4. Are of short-duration effects.

Answer: 1. Are absorbed by plants and then by insects

Question 111. Which of these insects work as scavengers?

1. Apis
2. Ants
3. Wasp
4. Locust.

Answer: 2. Ants

Question 112. Nectar sucking apparatus is formed of :

1. Galeae and glossae
2. Galeae only
3. Glossae only
4. Galeae, glossae and labial palps.

Answer: 4. Galeae, glossae and labial palps.

Question 113. The most specialized leg for the collection of pollen is :

1. Proleg
2. Mesothoracic leg
3. Metaleg
4. None of these.

Answer: 1. Proleg

Question 114. Chemically queen substance is :

1. 9 Oxodec-2 enoic acid
2. 3 Oxodec-9 enoic acid
3. 2 Oxodec-3 enoic acid
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. 9 Oxodec-2 enoic acid

Question 115. Embryonic development of honey bees is :

1. Heterometabolous
2. Hemimetabolous
3. Holometabolous
4. Holometabolous.

Answer: 4. Holometabolous.

Question 116. From which one of these formic acids is obtained?

1. Honey bee
2. Red and
3. Gryllus
4. Cimax.

Answer: 2. Red and

Question 117. From where does the spider prepare the web?

1. Mouth
2. Legs
3. Spinnerets
4. Salivary glands.

Answer: 3. Spinnerets

Question 118. Which stage of silkworm produces silk?

1. Esg
2. Caterpillar
3. Cocoon
4. Adult.

Answer: 3. Laccfer lacca

Question 119. Which of these insects secrete shellac?

1. Bomby
2. Laccfer lacca
3. Apis
4. Aepisma.

Answer: 2. Laccfer lacca

Question 120. The silk gland of the larva is the modification of :

1. Labial gland
2. Wall of the pharynx
3. Mandibular gland
4. All the above.

Answer: 1. Labial gland

Phylum Porifera MCQ Questions With Answers  Question 121. Where from you get Catherine :

1. Apis
2. Blister beetle
3. Lepisma
4. Culex.

Answer: 2. Blister beetle

Question 122. Which of these is a very useful scavenger?

1. Dung beetle
2. Bombyx
3. Wasp
4. Dragon fly.

Answer: 1. Dung beetle

Question 123. Which one of these spoils cotton before harvest :

1. Apis
2. Lepisma
3. Boll weevil
4. Dung beetle.

Answer: 3. Boll weevil

Question 124. Who decoded the language of honey bee :

1. Charles Darwin
2. William Harvey
3. Karl von Frisch
4. Carolus Linnaeus.

Answer: 3. Karl von frisch

Question 125. Which one of these surrounds the fine threads of silk emerging out from the exit tube :

1. Sericin
2. Collagen
3. Mucin
4. Myosin.

Answer: 1. Sericin

Question 126. Rostrum of lac insect is :

1. Two jointed
2. Three jointed
3. Four jointed
4. Unjointed.

Answer: 1. Two jointed

Question 127. Lac is :

1. Resinous substance
2. Alkaloid
3. Mucoid substance
4. Juice is acidic.

Answer: 1. Resinous substance

Question 128. Which of the following groups of animals can be included in the same group?

1. Planaria, tubularia, plumularia and radiolarians
2. Starfish, jellyfish, cuttlefish and dogfish
3. Millipede, crab, scorpion, cockroach and tick
4. Leech, locust, leucosolenia and lobster.

Answer: 3. Millipede, crab, scorpion, cockroach and tick

Question 129. In the life history of the culex mosquito :

1. A larva floats passively on the surface of the water
2. Each egg contains air spaces
3. Respiratory trumpets in pupa are long and narrow
4. Respiratory siphons in the area are very short.

Answer: 3. Respiratory trumpets in pupa are long and narrow

Phylum Porifera MCQ Questions With Answers  Question 130. The food canal in the proboscis of housefly is formed of :

1. Labrum, epipharynx and hypopharynx
2. Labial groove and hypopharynx
3. Right and left mandibles
4. Labella and pseudoffachea.

Answer: 2. Labial groove and hypopharynx

Question 131. The larva of anopheles differs from the larva of culex in the :

1. Absence of spiracles
2. Presence of piercing and sucking mouth parts
3. Absence of pecten
4. Absence of respiratory siphon.

Answer: 4. Absence of respiratory siphon.

Question 132. A housefly feeds upon sugar by :

1. Lapping up sugar crystals
2. Chewing sugar crystals and ingesting
3. Dissolving sugar in saliva and sucking it
4. Sucking sugar grain through pseudo trabeculae.

Answer: 3. Dissolving sugar in saliva and sucking it

Phylum Porifera Animal Kingdom NEET Practice Question 133. The period between two moults in insects is termed:

1. Incubation
2. Insrar
3. Stadium
4. Ecdysis.

Answer: 3. Stadium

Question 134. Which one is a colonial insect?

1. Housefly
2. Termite
3. Bed bug
4. Mosquito.

Answer: 2. Termite

Question 135. All of the following are blood-sucking except ;

1. Leech
2. Bed bug
3. Musca
4. Chigger.

Answer: 3. Musca

Question 136. Which one out of the following is a connecting link between annelids and arthropods?

1. Planoblast
2. Planaria
3. Peripatus
4. Pila.

Answer: 3. Peripatus

Question 137. An open type of circulatory system with no well-defined arteries and veins is characteristic of :

1. Coelenteraa
2. Sponges
3. Arthropoda
4. Mollusca

Answer: 3. Arthropoda

Question 138. Common house fly (Musca nebula) lays its eggs on:

1. Open meats and sweets
2. Hanging ropes
3. Stagnant water
4. Cow/horse dung

Answer: 4. Cow/horse dung

Phylum Mollusca

Question 1. In a mollusc nitrogenous wastes are removed from the body by tubular structures that connect the coelom with the mantle cavity. These structures are the:

1. Radula
2. Opercula
3. Kidneys
4. Ctenidia.

Answer: 3. Kidneys

Question 2. In all molluscs except bivalves, there is a tongue-like toothed structure, that is used to scrap off the food from the surface of rocks and convey it towards the digestive cavity. This structure is called :

1. Meta-nePhridium
2. Radulae
3. Palp
4. Ctenidium

Answer: 2. Radulae

Question 3. Which of the following characteristics is not found in gastroPods?

1. Shell of two valves
2. Asymmetrical due to torsion
3. Presence of ctenidia
4. Mostly marine.

Answer: 1. Shell of two valves

Question 4. A harmiul mollusc is :

1. Chiton
2. Teredo
3. Pinctada
4. Unio.

Answer: 2. Teredo

MCQs on Porifera Question 5. Shell is internal and reduced in :

1. Pila
2. Helix
3. Teredo
4. Limax.

Answer: 4. Limax.

Question 6. Superior quality pearls are formed by :

1. Pinctada
2. Unio
3. Octopus
4. Pecten.

Answer: 1. Pinctada

Question 7. Arms are webbed at the base in :

1. Loligo
2. SePia
3. Octopus
4. All the above

Answer: 3. Octopus

Question 8. CephaloPods are :

1. Herbivorous
2. Carnivorous
3. Omnivorous
4. Scavengers

Answer: 2. Carnivorous

Question 9. Most cephalopods when alarmed react by :

1. Releasing a dark-coloured ink from an ink-producing gland
2. Force water out of the ventral tubular funnel
3. Both A+B
4. Lie passively and do not react

Answer: 3. Both A+B

Question 10. The foot is missing in :

1. Pelecypoda
2. Aplacophora
3. Monoplacophora
4. Polyplacophora

Answer: 2. Aplacophora

Phylum Porifera Recommended MCQs NEET Questions Question 11. The blood vascular system of pila is :

1. Open
2. Closed
3. Reduced
4. Lacking

Answer: 1. Open

Question 12. The body cavity in the apple snail is :

1. Coelom
2. Pseudocoelom
3. Haemocoel
4. Absent

Answer: 3. Haemocoel

Question 13. Discriminate the Iayer that secretes pear lina molluscan shell:

1. Brownish layer
2. Prismatic layer
3. Periostracum
4. Nacre.

Answer: 4. Nacre.

Question 14. Commercial Pearl is formed by :

1. Unio
2. Lamellidens
3. Ostrea
4. Pecten.

Answer: 3. Ostrea

Question 15. Identify the larva which is characteristic of gastropods and scaphoPoda:

1. Trochophore
2. Tornaria
3. Bipinnaria
4. Muller’s Larva’

Answer: 1. TrochoPhore

Question 16. In molluscs the shell formation is affected by arms and not by the mantle:

1. Sepia
2. Dentalium
3. Argonatae
4. Nautilus.

Answer: 3. Argonatae

Question 17. The colour change in cephalopods is due to the presence of :

1. External shell
2. Internal secretions
3. Ink sac
4. ChromatoPhores

Answer: 4. ChromatoPhores

Question 18. Molluscan characters do not include one of the following :

1. Soft body
2. Mantle folds
3. Coelom reduced
4. Ventral ganglionated nerve cord

Answer: 4. Ventral ganglionated nerve cord

Question 19. Which one is not a class of Mollusca:

1. Decapoda
2. Scaphopoda
3. Gastropoda
4. PelecyPoda

Answer: 1. Decapoda

Phylum Porifera MCQ Questions With Answers Question 20. Select the class with the wrong example :

1. Aplacophora Example Chaetoderma
2. Polyplacophora Example Chiton
3. CephaloPoda Example Dentalium
4. Gastropoda Example Achatina.

Answer: 2. Polyplacophora Example Chiton

Question 21. Gastropods are characterised by one of the characters :

1. Ventral muscular and massive foot
2. Vertebrate like eYes
3. Head degenerated
4. Radula absent.

Answer: 3. Head degenerated

Question 22. Which one of the following is not a cephalopod?

1. Octopus
2. Sea Squirt
3. Sea Squid
4. Nautilus

Answer: 2. Sea Squirt

Question 23. Which one of the following is an amphibious mollusc?

1. Pecten
2. Teredo
3. Nautilus
4. Pila.

Answer: 4. Pila.

Question 24. Tusk shell is a :

1. Tooth of an elephant
2. Mollusc
3. Apple Snail
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Mollusc

Question 25. The respiratory pigment of most molluscs is :

1. Vanadium
2. Haemoenyrhrin
3. Haemocyanin
4. Haemoglobin.

Answer: 3. Haemocyanin

Question 26. Rasping organ of mollusc is :

1. Radula
2. Ctenidium
3. Buccal mass
4. Osphradium.

Answer: 1. Radula

Question 27. Slug belongs to class :

1. Cephalopoda
2. Gastropoda
3. Pelecypoda
4. Scaphopoda.

Answer: 2. Gastropoda

Phylum Porifera MCQ Questions With Answers Question 28. Gastropods are characterized by :

1. Absence of shell
2. Absence of head and tentacles
3. Large foot and head with eyes and tentacles
4. Absence of body mass.

Answer: 3. Large foot and head with eyes and tentacles

Question 29. Sepia belongs to the class :

1. Gastropoda
2. Bivalvia
3. Cephalopoda
4. Pelecypoda.

Answer: 3. Cephalopoda

Question 30. The foot is modified into an oral arm in the:

1. Pelecypoda
2. Gastropoda
3. Cephalopoda
4. Scaphopoda.

Answer: 3. Cephalopoda

Question 31. Pearls are formed of :

1. Calcium carbonate
2. Calcium sulphate
3. Magnesium trisilicate
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Calcium carbonate

Question 32. Which of the following is an invertebrate structure?

1. Bowman’s capsule
2. Cowper’s gland
3. Volkman’s canal
4. Aristotle lantern.

Answer: 4. Aristotle lantern.

Question 33. Which one of the following is the oldest living fossil?

1. Limulus
2. Nautilus
3. Architeuthis
4. Neopilina.

Answer: 2. Nautilus

Question 34. Cleavage in molluscs is usually :

1. Radial
2. Spiral
3. Biradial
4. Bilateral.

Answer: 2. Spiral

Question 35. Leaf-like chemoreceptors in apple snails is :

1. Odontophore
2. Ctenidium
3. Radula
4. Osphradium.

Answer: 4. Osphradium.

Question 36. Pearl is secreted by :

1. Edge of mantle
2. The inner lining of the mantle
3. The outer lining of the mantle
4. Organ of Bojanus.

Answer: 3. Outer lining of mantle

Phylum Porifera Animal Kingdom NEET Practice Question 37. One of the following genera has the wrong common name:

1. Dentalium-Tusk shell
2. Loligo-Sea squirrel
3. Octopus-Devil fish
4. Pila-Apple snail.

Answer: 2. Loligo-Sea squirrel

Question 38. To which class does oyster belong?

1. Cephalopoda
2. Gastropoda
3. Pelecypoda
4. None of these.

Answer: 3. Pelecypoda

Phylum-Echinodermata

Question 1. Which of the following is a deuterostome?

1. Starfish
2. Sea anemone
3. Ant
4. Octopus.

Answer: 1. Starfish

Question 2. Which of the following is not characteristic of echinoderms?

1. Water vascular system
2. Trochophore larva
3. Tube feet
4. Interior skeleton with projecting spines

Answer: 2. Trochophore larva

Question 3. Which of the following has a melon-shaped body:

1. Sea star
2. Sea cucumber
3. Sea urchin
4. Brittle star.

Answer: 1. Sea star

Question 4. Cloacal respiration occurs in :

1. Clypester
2. Antedon
3. Sea cucumber
4. Echinus.

Answer: 2. Antedon

Question 5. The skeletal ossicles of starfish arise from :

1. Ectoderm
2. Mesoderm
3. Endoderm
4. None of the above.

Answer: 4. None of the above.

Question 6. The ambulacral system contains :

1. Blood
2. Coelomic fluid
3. Mucus
4. Water.

Answer: 2. Coelomic fluid

Question 7. The echinoderms are related to chordates by their similarity in the development of :

1. Gut
2. Nervous system
3. Heart
4. Coelom.

Answer: 4. Coelom.

Question 8. The locomotory organs of echinoderms are called :

1. Parapodia
2. Pseudopodia
3. Tube feet
4. Setae.

Answer: 3. Tube feet

Question 9. Coelom of echinoderms is :

1. Enterocoelous in origin
2. Filled with coelomic fluid
3. Provided with coelomocytes
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. A1l the above.

MCQs on Porifera Question 10. Echinoderms :

1. Lack of an alimentary canal
2. Have a straight or coiled alimentary canal
3. Have a poorly developed alimentary canal
4. Have an alimentary canal.

Answer: 3. Have a poorly developed alimentary canal

Question 11. Adapted for hematophagous habit starfish belongs to the :

1. Moilusca
2. Hemichordata
3. Cephalochordata
4. Echinodermata.

Answer: 1. Moilusca

Question 12. All echinoderms are :

1. Freshwater animals
2. Terrestrial
3. Arboreal
4. Marine.

Answer: 4. Marine.

Question 13. Sea star is :

1. Omnivorous
2. Sanguivorous
3. Herbivorous
4. Carnivorous.

Answer: 4. Carnivorous.

Question 14. Respiration in stadish occurs by :

1. Gills
2. Lungs
3. Water vacuoles
4. Dermal branchiae.

Answer: 2. Lungs

Question 15. Echinoderm has calcareous and non-living :

1. Exoskeleton
2. Endoskeleton
3. Both 1 and 2
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Endoskeleton

MCQs on Porifera Question 16. A sieve plate in the vascular system is called :

1. Ossicle
2. Polian vesicle
3. Podium
4. Madreporite.

Answer: 4. Madreporite.

Question 17. Brown gland or axial gland is the other name heart in:

1. Molluscs
2. Echinoderms
3. Insects
4. Crustaceans.

Answer: 4. Crustaceans.

Question 18. The larva of starfish is called:

1. Bipinnaria
2. Trochophore
3. Ephyra
4. Tadpole.

Answer: 1. Bipinnaria

Question 19. The ability ofthe starfish to break off its arm is:

1. Autonasty
2. Autogamy
3. Autotomy
4. Autoplasty

Answer: 3. Autotomy

Question 20. Development in echinoderms is :

1. Direct
2. Indirect
3. Completed in the intermediate host
4. Retrogressive.

Answer: 2. Indirect

Question 21. Brittle Star is the name of :

1. Asterias nebula
2. Astropecten
3. Ophiothrir
4. Cucumaria-

Answer: 1. Asterias nebula

Question 22. Which one of the following is a sea cucumber?

1. Thyone
2. Synapta
3. Cucumaria
4. All the above.

Answer: 2. Synapta

Question 23. Sense organs in echinoderms are:

1. Poorly developed
2. We are developed
3. Overdeveloped
4. Absent.

Answer: 4. Absent.

Question 24. The group of echinoderms without spines, pedicellariae and suckers on tube feet are:

1. Sea cucumber
2. Sea star
3. Sea lily
4. Brittle star.

Answer: 2. Sea star

Question 25. Basket star belongs to the class :

1. Ophiuroidea
2. Echinoidea
3. Asteria
4. Crinoidea.

Answer: 1. Ophiuroidea

Phylum Porifera Recommended MCQs NEET Questions Question 26. Select the one with the wrong class :

1. Sea star-Asteroidea
2. Sea urchin-Echinoidea
3. Holothuriodea-sea cake
4. Ophiuroidea-brittle star.

Answer: 3. Holothuriodea-sea cake

Question 27. The water vascular system performs all but one function :

1. Locomotion
2. Sensation
3. Excretion
4. Food capturing and respiration.

Answer: 2. Sensation

Question 28. Which one of the following is not a part of the vascular system?

1. Tube feet
2. Polian vesicle
3. Teidmanns body
4. Axial sinus.

Answer: 4. Axial sinus.

Question 29. Antedon belongs to the class :

1. Asteroidea
2. Phiuroidea
3. Crinoidea
4. Echinoidea.

Answer: 3. Echinoidea.

Question 30. Aristotle’s lantern occurs in :

1. Sea urchin
2. Asterias
3. Ophiothuria
4. Sea anemone.

Answer: 1. Sea urchin

Phylum-Hemichordata

Question 1. Acorn worms belong to the phylum:

1. Chordata
2. Hemichordata
3. Unrochordata
4. Cephalochordata.

Answer: 2. Hemichordata

Question 2. Larva of hemichordate is:

1. Tornaria
2. Glochidium
3. Bipinnaria
4. Nauplius.

Answer: 1. Tornaria

Question 3. A non-contractile heart occurs in :

1. Earthworm
2. Sew star
3. Acorn worms
4. Apple snail

Answer: 3. Acorn worms

Question 4. The hollow nerve cord that occurs in the acorn worms is the:

1. Proboscis
2. Collar
3. Trunk
4. Entire body.

Answer: 2. Collar

Question 5. The circulatory system of palatoglossus is :

1. Open
2. Closed
3. Absent
4. Highly specialized.

Answer: 1. Open

Phylum Porifera Recommended MCQs NEET Questions Question 6. Respiration in palatoglossus is;

1. Cutaneous
2. Branchial
3. Tracheal
4. Pulmonary.

Answer: 2. Branchial

Question 7. Hemichordates are :

1. Acoelomate
2. Pseudocoelomate
3. Coelomates
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Coelomates

Question 8. Gill slits in hemichordates are :

1. Lateral in position
2. Dorsal in position
3. Ventral in position
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Lateral in position

Question 9. Tornaria larva of palatoglossus first discovered by j.muller resembles with:

1. Tadpole larva
2. Glochidium larva
3. Axolotl larva
4. Bipinnaria larva.

Answer: 4. Bipinnaria larva.

Question 10. The body of Balanoglossus is divisible into :

1. Head, thorax and abdomen
2. Head, trunk and tail
3. Proboscis, collar and tail
4. Proboscis, collar and trunk.

Answer: 4. Proboscis, collar and trunk.

Question 11. Epidermis of hemichordate is formed of :

1. A single layer of cells
2. Two layers of cells
3. Many layers of cells
4. Three lawyers of fat cells.

Answer: 1. Single layer of cells

Phylum Porifera MCQ Questions With Answers Question 12. The excretory organ of palatoglossus is :

1. Body wall
2. Glomeruli
3. Kidneys
4. Gills.

Answer: 2. Glomeruli

Question For competitive examinations

Question 1. The larva of bomby mori is

1. Nymph
2. Cocoon
3. Trochophore
4. Caterpillar.

Answer: 4. Caterpitlat.

Question 2. In hydra waste material of food digestion and nitrogenous waste material removed from :

1. Mouth and mouth
2. Body wetland body wall
3. Mouth and body wall
4. Mouth and tentacles.

Answer: 3. Mourh and body wall

Question 3. In which of the following haemocyanin pigment is found :

1. Mollusca
2. Echinodermata
3. Insecta
4. Lowerchordata.

Answer: 1. Mollusca

Question 4. Which of the following is present in molluscs but absent in echinoderms?

1. Malpighian tubules
2. Kidney
3. Flarire cells
4. None of above

Answer: 2. Kidney

Question 5. Which one of the following pair is a matching pair of an animal and a certain phenomenon it exhibits?

1. Taenia – polymorphism
2. Pheretima – sexual dimorphism
3. Musca – complete metamorphosis
4. Chametean – mimicry.

Answer: 3. Taenia – polymorphism

Question 6. A moulting hormone in insects is secreted by which gland?

1. Corpora aliata
2. Pineal gland
3. Hypothalamus
4. Prothoracic gland.

Answer: 4. Prothoracic gland.

Phylum Porifera MCQ Questions With Answers Question 7. The excretory system of prawn is called :

1. Malpighian tubule
2. Nephridia
3. Solenocytei
4. Green gland

Answer: 4. Green gland

Question 8. Hard shell, muscular body, ommatidiophores and foot are descripition abotrt :

1. Prawn
2. Limulus
3. Pila
4. Tortoise.

Answer: 3. Pila

Question 9. Sycon belongs to a group of animals, which are best described as :

1. Multicellular having tissue organization, but no body cavity
2. Multicellular with a gastrovascular system.
3. Multicellular without any tissue organization
4. Unicellular or acellular

Answer: 3. Multicellular without any tissue organization

Question 10. During the life cycle, fasciola hepatica infects its intermediate host and primary host at the following larval stages respectively:

1. Miracidium and metacercaria
2. Media and miracidium
3. Cercaria and media
4. Metacercaria and cercaria.

Answer: 1. Miracidium and metacercaria

Phylum Porifera Animal Kingdom NEET Practice Question 11. Ommatidia serve the purpose of photoreception in :

1. Cockroach
2. Frog
3. Human
4. Sunflower.

Answer: 1. Cockroach

Question 12. Which one of the phylum is devoid of coelom?

1. Platyhelminthes
2. Echinodermara.
3. Arthropoda
4. Annelida

Answer: 1. Platyhelminthes

Question 13. Body cavity not lined by mesoderm and directly connected to archenteron occurs in :

1. Platyhelminthes
2. Nematodes
3. Earthworm
4. Echinoderm.

Answer: 2. Nematodes

Question 14. Which one is correctly matched?

1. Jellyfish and starfish-radial symmetry
2. Hydra and shark-bilateral symmetry
3. Tapeworm and octopus-radial symmetry
4. Amoeba and sea urchin-asymmetry.

Answer: 1. Jellyfish and starfish-radial symmetry

Question 15. From the point of view of taxonomy, which of the following groups are correct :

1. Dentalium, octopus
2. Ascaris, cockroach, grasshopper.
3. Spongilla, teredo, leucoselenia
4. Starfish, petronryzon, solen

Answer: 1. Dentalium, octopus

Question 16. The young of cockroach is called :

1. Fingerling
2. Maggor
3. Caterpillar
4. Nymph.

Answer: 4. Nymph.

Question 17. Which one feature is common to leeches, cockroaches and scorpion ?

1. Nephridia
2. Ventral nerve cord
3. Cephalization
4. Antennae.

Answer: 2. Venrral nerve cord

Question 18. The contractile vacuole is absent in :

1. Sporozoa
2. Sarcodina
3. Zooflagellata
4. Slimemoulds.

Answer: 1. Sporozoa

Question 19. In nemathelminthes, the coelom not lined by the peritoneum is :

1. Acoelom
2. Pseudocoelom
3. Enterocoelom
4. Haemocoel.

Answer: 2. Pseudocoelom

Question 20. In arthropods, the head and thorax are often fused to form a cephalothorax, but in which one of the following classes, is the body divided into head, thorax and abdomen?

1. Crustacea
2. Arachnida and crustacea
3. Insecta
4. Myriapoda.

Answer: 3. Insecta

Question 21. The animals with bilateral symmetry in the young stage, and radial pentamerous symmetry in the adult stage belongs to phylum :

1. Cnidaria
2. Echinodermata
3. Annelida
4. Mollusca-

Answer: 2. Echinodermata

Phylum Porifera Animal Kingdom NEET Practice Question 22. The largest invertebrate animal is :

1. Whale
2. Giant squid
3. Shrew
4. Python.

Answer: 2. Giant squid

Question 23. Which one of the following genera of insects prefers to breed in clean water and their larvae lie parallel to the surface of the water?

1. Culex
2. Aedes
3. Anopheles
4. Phlebomotus

Answer: 3. Anopheles

Question 24. The spider web is formed by a fluid secreted by its :

1. Abdominal gland
2. Salivary gland
3. Cephalothorax
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Abdominal gland

Question 25. Which one is not correctly matched?

1. Annelida-enterocoeomate
2. Arthropoda-schizo-coelomate
3. Platyhelminthes-acoelomate
4. Nemathelminthes-pseudocoelomate

Answer: 1. Annelida-enteroscopyomate

Question 26. Coelomate animal where blastopore develops into the anus is:

1. Blastostomate
2. Protostomate
3. Deuterostomes
4. None of the above

Answer: 3. Deuterostomate

Question 27. Nektons are :

1. Floating plants
2. Swimming organisms
3. Suspended plants
4. Animals associated with plants.

Answer: 2. Swimming organisms

Question 28. From the following statements select the wrong one:

1. Millipedes have two pairs of appendages in each segment of the body
2. Prawn has two pairs of antennae
3. Animals belonging to phylum Porifera are exclusively marine
4. Nematocysts are characteristic of the phylum Cnidaria.

Answer: 3. Animals belonging to phylum Porifera are exclusively marine

Question 29. In contrast to annelids, the platyhelminths show:

1. Radial symmetry
2. Presence of pseudocoel
3. Bilateral symmetry
4. Absence of body cavity.

Answer: 4. Absence of body cavity.

Question 30. Hydra shows positive as well as negative responses in dim, and strong lights it shows :

1. Negative response to strong and positive to dim lights
2. Positive response to strong and negative to dim lights
3. A negative response to both
4. Positive response to both

Answer: 1. Negative response to strong and positive to dim lights

Question 31. The digestive system is not found in :

1. Earthworm
2. Cockroach
3. Taenia
4. Ascaris.

Answer: 3. Taenia

Question 32. Female Ascaris is identified based on:

1. The presence of two spicules at the posterior end
2. Presence of preanal and postanal papillae
3. Straight posterior end
4. A common cloacal aperture.

Answer: 3. Straight posterior end

Question 33. The stage of plasmodium when mosquitoes get infection:

1. Exoerythrocytic stage
2. Pre-erythrocytes cycle
3. Sexual stage or gametogamy
4. None of these.

Answer: 3. Sexual stage or gametogamy

Question 34. Classification of phylum proffer is primarily based on:

1. Branching
2. Symmetry
3. Spicules
4. Canal system.

Answer: 3. Spicules

Question 35. The phylum ‘Echinodermata’ was established by :

1. Von Seibold
2. Lamarck
3. Jacob Klein
4. Leuckart.

Answer: 3. Jacob Klein

Question 36. Which of the following has corect grouping ?

1. Taenia solium, roundworm, flatworm-platyhel- minthes
2. Cuttlefish, silverfish, sea urchin-coelenterate
3. Centipede, millipede, silverfish sharthropoda
4. None of these.

Answer: 4. None of these.

Question 37. Males are haploid in :

1. Ascaris
2. Honeybee
3. Silkworm
4. Hydra.

Answer: 2. Honeybee

Question 38. Molluscans possess :

1. Enterocoel
2. Pseudocoel
3. Schizocoel
4. No coelom.

Answer: 3. Schizocoel

Question 39. The coelenteron of hydra is :

1. Gastrovascular cavity
2. 181 Perivisceral cavity
3. Pseudocoelomic cavity
4. Coelomic cavity.

Answer: 1. Gastrovascular cavity

Question 40. Gynaecophoric canal is present in some animals of :

1. Turbellaria
2. Trematoda
3. Cestoda
4. Nematoda.

Answer: 2. Trematoda

Question 41. In Ascaris, eggs are fertilized in the :

1. Seminal vesicle
2. Lower parts of uteri
3. Oviducts
4. Vagina.

Answer: 2. Lower parts of uteri

Question 42. Flow of blood in dorsal vessel of earthworm is:

1. Forwards
2. Backwards
3. Backwards in half of it and forwards in another half
4. None of these.

Answer: 1. Forwards

Question 43. The male cockroach has :

1. Longwing
2. Anal style
3. Anal cerci
4. Both 2 and 3.

Answer: 4. Both 2 and 3.

Phylum Porifera Animal Kingdom NEET Practice Question 44. Honey is :

1. Neutral
2. Acidic
3. Alkaline
4. Basic after some days

Answer: 1. Neutral

Question 45. Which of the following is determinantal to pearl industry?

1. Euspongia
2. Oyster
3. Chalina
4. Cliona.

Answer: 4. Cliona.

Question 46. Antedon is a member of the class :

1. Asteroidea
2. Ophiuroidea
3. Crinoidea
4. Echinoidea.

Answer: 3. Crinoidea

Question 47. Which one of the following features is common in silverfish, scorpion, dragonfly and prawn?

1. Three pairs of legs and a segmented body
2. Chitinous cuticle and two pairs of antennae
3. Jointed appendages and chitinous exoskeleton
4. Cephalothorax and tracheae.

Answer: 3. Jointed appendages and chitinous exoskeleton

Question 47. Spiracles found in cockroaches are :

1. 2 Pairs in the thorax and 10 pairs in the abdomen
2. 2 Pairs in the thorax and 6 pairs in the abdomen
3. 2 Pairs in the thorax and 8 pairs in the abdomen
4. 2 Pairs in the thorax and 4 pairs in the abdomen.

Answer: 3. 2 Pairs in the thorax and 8 pairs in the abdomen

Question 48. The blood of earthworms is :

1. Red in colour, due to dissolved haemoglobin in plasma
2. Red in colour, due to dissolved haemoglobin in corpuscles
3. Blue in colour, due to dissolved haemocyanin in plasma
4. Blue in colour, due to dissolved haemocyanin in corpuscles.

Answer: 1. Red, due to dissolved haemoglobin in plasma

Question 49. Which of the following is a freshwater sponge?

1. Euplectella
2. Spongilla
3. Euspongia
4. Sycon.

Answer: 2. Spongilla

Question 50. Hepatic caeca in cockroaches are derived from:

1. Crop
2. Midgut
3. Gzzad
4. Ileum.

Answer: 2. Midgut

Question 51. Neoteny refers to

1. Development of gonads
2. Pre-adult animal
3. Metamorphosis
4. Retention of larval or embryonic trait in the adult body.

Answer: 4. Retention of a larval or embryonic trait in the adult body.

Question 52. In earthworm, the dorsal wall of the intestine from the 26th segment to the 95th segment forms a median internal fold called

1. Trochophore
2. Typhlosole
3. Clitellum
4. Trachea.

Answer: 2. Typhlosole

Question 53. The diagram represents the reproductive organ of a male cockroach. Choose the correct combination of labelling.

1. A- 8th sternum, b-anal cercus, c – 10th tergun, d- anal style
2. A – 10th tergum, b – anal cercus, c – anal style, d – 8th sternum
3. A – anal style, b – anal cercus, c – 10th tergum, d – 8th sternum
4. A- anal cercus, b – 8th sternum, c – 10th tergum. D . Analstyle.

Answer: 1.A- 8th sternum, b-anal cercus, c – 10th tergun, d- anal style

Question 54. Which one of the following groups of structures/organs have similar functions?

1. Typhlosole in earthworms, intestinal villi in rats and contractile vacuole in amoeba
2. Nephridia in earthworms, malpighian tubules in cockroaches and urinary tubules in rats.
3. Antennae of cockroach, tympanum of frog and clitellum of earthworm
4. Incisors of rats, gizzard(proventriculus) of cockroaches and tube feet of starfish.

Answer: 2. Nephridia in earthworms, malpighian tubules in cockroaches and urinary tubules in rats.

Question 55. The nasofrontal nerves in cockroaches originated from :

1. Suboesophageal ganglia
2. Supraoesophageal ganglia
3. Antennary nerves
4. Frontal ganglia

Answer: 2. Supraoesophageal ganglia

Question 56. Metameric segmentation is the characteristic of :

1. Annelida and Arthropoda
2. Mollusca and chordata
3. Platyhelminthes and arthropoda
4. Echinodermataandannelida.

Answer: 1. Annelida and Arthropoda

Question 57. Earthworms are :

1. Uricotelic under conditions of water scarcity
2. Ammonotelic when plenty of water is available
3. Uricotelic when plenty of water is available
4. Ureotelic when plenty of water is available.

Answer: 2. Ammonotelic when plenty of water is available

Question 58. Two common characteristics found in crabs are :

1. Green gland and tracheae
2. Book lungs and antennae
3. Compound eyes and anal cerci
4. Jointed legs and chitinous exoskeleton

Answer: 4. Jointed legs and chitinous exoskeleton

Question 59. Biradial symmetry and lack of cnidoblasts are the characteristics of:

1. Aureiia and paramctiunt
2. Hydra and starfish
3. Stylish and sea anemone
4. Ctenoplana and beroe

Answer: 2. Hydra and starfish

Question 60. Which one of the following is a matching set of a phylum and its three examples?

1. Mollusca- loligo, teredo, octopus
2. Porifera- spongilla, euplectella, pennatula
3. Cnidaria-b onellio, physalia, aurelia
4. Platyhelminthes-planaria, Schistosoma, Enterobius

Answer: 1. Mollusca- loligo, teredo, octopus

Phylum Porifera MCQ Questions With Answers  Question 61. Psetrdocoelom occur in

1. Lascaris
2. Taenia solium
3. Fasciolu hepatica
4. Planaria

Answer: 1. Lascaris

Question 62. What is true about nereis, scorpions, cockroaches and silver fish?

1. They all possess a dorsal heart
2. None of them is aquatic
3. They all belong to the same phylum
4. They all have joined paired appendages.

Answer: 1. They all possess a dorsal heart

Question 63. Which one of the following is a matching feature and the animal possessing it?

1. Ventral solid – leech nervous system
2. Pharyngeal gill slits – chamaeleon absent in embryo
3. Ventral heart – scorpion
4. Post-anal tail – octopus.

Answer: 1. Ventral solid – leech nervous system

Question 64. Which one of the following pairs is

1. Apis inda – honey
2. Kenia ACL – lac
3. Bomhy mori – silk
4. Pila – pearl

Answer: 4. Pila – pearl

Question 65. The radial symmetry is observed in :

1. Plaryhelminrhes
2. Coelerrterates
3. Aschelminthes
4. Annelids.

Answer: 2. Coelerrterates

Question 66. In understanding different types of symmetry, the term used as principal axis means :

1. A flat area that runs through any axis
2. An imaginary straight line joining two opposite points at the ends
3. An imaginary straight line joining the midpoint at one end and the midpoint at the opposite end
4. An animal has its body parts affected in such a manner to exhibit symmetry.

Answer: 2. An imaginary straight line joining two opposite points at the ends

Question 67. In hydra, nematocysts are found only in :

1. Epidermis
2. Gastrodermis
3. Mesoderm is
4. Endoderinis.

Answer: 1. Epidermis

Question 68. The jellyfish is classified under the phylum :

1. Porifera
2. Cnidaria
3. Mollusca
4. Echinodermara.

Answer: 2. Cnidaria

Question 69. Which of the following possesses a hard exoskeleton formed by calcium carbonate?

1. Physalia
2. Aurelicr
3. Corallium
4. Halisremma.

Answer: 3. Corallium

Phylum Porifera Animal Kingdom NEET Practice Question 70. Which of the following is not found in vertebrates?

1. Body scales
2. Cniodblasts
3. Gill opening
4. Bilateral symmetry

Answer: 2. Cniodblasts

Question 71. The infection of Enterobius in an

1. Flying
2. Piercing
3. Inoculation
4. Contamination.

Answer: 4. Contamination.

Question 72. Trophocytes, mycetocytes, oenocytes and urate cells are found in the body of cockroach. Which statement is true?

1. Trophocyfes contain reserve blood
2. Mycetocytes contain symbiotic bacteria
3. Oenocytes secrete war and rate cells contain uric acid
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 73. Cockroach have a stomodaeal valve between :

1. Ileum and colon
2. Crop and gizzard
3. Mesenteron and ileurn
4. Gizzad and mesenteron.

Answer: 4. Gizzad and mesenteron.

Question 74. Caterpillar and maggot are :

1. Pupa
2. Larvae
3. Adults
4. Nymphs.

Answer: 2. Pupa

Question 75. Which group of animals being to the same pirylurn

1. Earthworms, pinworms, tapeworms
2. Prawn, scorpion, locusta
3. Sponge, sea anemone, starfish
4. Malarial parasite, amoeba, mosquito

Answer: 4. Malarial parasite, amoeba, mosquito

Question 76. Mesogloea is seen between :

1. Ectoderm and endoderm
2. Ectoderm and mesoderm
3. Mesoderm and endoderm
4. Just below mesoderm.

Answer: 1. Ectoderm and endoderm

Question 78. Green giand is the excetory organ of:

1. Prawn
2. Butterlly
3. Snail
4. Earthworrn.

Answer: 1. Prawn

Question 79. The parasite completes its life cycle in a single host is :

1. Fasciola hepatica
2. Pktsmadiwn vivax
3. Taenia solium
4. Ascaris lum bricoides.

Answer: 4. Ascaris lum bricoides.

Question 80. In which triploblastic animal coelom is absent?

1. Platyhelminthes
2. Aschelminares
3. Annelids
4. Arthropoda.

Answer: 1. Platyhelminthes

Question 81. A waxy substance produced by honey bees to repair combs are called :

1. Propolis
2. Honeydew
3. Nectar
4. Sporopollenin

Answer: 1. Propolis

Question 82. Which one of the following groups of three animals each is correctly matched with their one characteristic morphological feature?

1. Animal morphological feature
2. Cockroach, locust, metameric segmentation taenia
3. Liver fluke, bilateral symmetry sea anemone, sea cucumber
4. Centipede, prawn, jointed appendages sea urchin
5. Scorpion, spider, ventral solid central
6. Cockroach nervous system.

Answer: 4. Cockroach nervous system.

Question 83. Which one of the following phyla is correctly matched with its two general characteristics?

1. Chordat notochord at some stage and separate anal and urinary, openings to the outside
2. Mollusca – normally oviparous and developement through a trochophore or veliger larva
3. Arthropoda – body divided into head, thorax and abdomen and respiration by trachea
4. Echinodermata – pentamerous radial symmetry and mostly internal fertilisation.

Answer: 2. Mollusca – normally oviparous and developement through a trochophore or veliger larva

Question 84. Ascaris is characterized by :

1. Presence of true coelom and metamerism (metamerisation)
2. The presence of neither true coelom nor metamerism
3. The absence of true coelom but the presence of metamerism
4. Absence of true coelom but the absence of metamerism

Answer: 2. Presence of neither true coelom nor metamerism

Question 85. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the phylum annelida?

1. Segmentation
2. Pseudocoelom
3. Ventral nerve cord
4. Closed circulatory system.

Answer: 2. Pseudocoelom

Question 86. Which of the following are correctly matched concerning their taxonomic classification?

1. Centipede, millipede, spider, scorpion-Insecta
2. Housefly, butterfly, silverfish-Insecta
3. Spiny anteater, sea urchin, sea cucumber- Echinodermata
4. Flying fish, cuttlefish, silverfish – pisces

Answer: 2. Housefly, butterfly, tsetse fly, silverfish-Insecta

Question 87. Which of the following is the true description of an animal concerned?

1. Cockroach – 10 pairs of spiracles (2 pairs on thorax and 8 pairs on abdomen)
2. Earthworm – the alimentary canal consists of a sequence of pharynx, oesophagus, and stomach. Gizzard and intestine
3. Frog – body divisible into three regions, head, neck and trunk
4. Rat – left kidney is slightly higher in position than the right one

Answer: 1. Cockroach – l0 pairs of spiracles (2 pairs of on thorax and 8 pairs on the abdomen)

Question 88. The number of abdominal segments in male and female cockroaches is :

1. 10, 10
2. 10, 10
3. 10, 11
4. 8, 10.

Answer: 1. 10, 10

Question 89. In earthworms, the characteristics internal median fold of the dorsal wall of the intestine called typhlosole are present in:

1. 5 To 9 segments
2. 9 To 14 segments
3. 26 To 95 segments
4. 15 To the last segment

Answer: 3. 26 To 95 segments

Question 90. In which of these following phyla, while the adults show radial symmetry, the larva shows bilateral symmetry?

1. Annelids
2. Arthropods
3. Molluscs
4. Echinoderms
5. Porifera.

Answer: 4. Porifera.

Question 91. Muga silk worm feeds on :

1. Shorea
2. Terminalia
3. Machilus
4. Morus

Answer: 3. Machilus

Question 92. Which of the following phylum possesses spicules

1. Annelids
2. Mollusca
3. Porifera
4. Platyhelminthes

Answer: 3. Porifera

Question 93. One of the representatives of phylum Arthropoda is :

1. Silverfish
2. Pufferfish
3. Flying fish
4. Cuttlefish

Answer: 1. Silverfish

NEET Biology Phylum Chordata Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Chordates are distinguished from non-chordates by the presence of:

1. Dorsal nerve cord
2. Ventral nerve cord
3. Visceral nervous system
4. Heart.

Answer: 1. Dorsal nerve cord

Question 2. The pharynx in chordates is :

1. Solid and segmented
2. Perforated
3. Not perforated
4. An endocrine gland.

Answer: 2. Perforated

Question 3. Which one of the following characters is not a characteristic of phylum chordata?

1. Perforated pharynx
2. Dorsal notochord
3. Hollow tubular ventral nerve cord
4. Presence of ventral heart.

Answer: 3. Hollow tubular ventral nerve cord

Question 4. Hemichordates have one chordate feature in their typical form which is that?

1. Buccal diverticulum
2. Perforated pharynx
3. 3 Types of coelom
4. Integument with cilia.

Answer: 2. Perforated pharynx

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Phylum Chordata NEET Questions Question 5. Which one is the most prominent difference between urochordates and cephalochordates?

1. Position of endostyle
2. Length of notochord
3. Dorsal lamina
4. Perforated pharynx.

Answer: 2. Length of notochord

Question 6. Petromyzon is not true fish because of:

1. Absence of median fins
2. Absence of paired fins and true jaws
3. Presence of acicular mouth
4. Absence of operculum.

Answer: 2. Absence of paired fins and true jaws

Question 7. Herdmania belongs to the group:

1. Hemichcrdata
2. Urochordata
3. Cephalochordata
4. Gnathostomata.

Answer: 2. Urochordata

Question 8. Which of the following is a chordate but not a vertebrate?

1. Rabbit
2. Lamprey
3. Snake
4. Sea squirt

Answer: 4. Sea squirt

Question 9. Larva of hemichordate is called :

1. Trilobite
2. Trochophore
3. Tomaria
4. Dipinnaria

Answer: 3. Tomaria

Question 10. Ciliary muscles are found in :

1. Ciliated epithelium
2. Mammalian diaphragm
3. Vertebrate eye
4. Mammalian heart.

Answer: 3. Vertebrate eye

Question 11. The major constituent of vertebrate bones is:

1. Calcium phosphate
2. Calcium and magnesium phosphate
3. Calcium carbonate
4. Sodium chloride.

Answer: 1. Calcium phosphate

Question 12. The ovary of vertebrates is also an organ for :

1. Balancing
2. Visual
3. Excretory
4. Endocrine function.

Answer: 4. Endocrine function.

Phylum Chordata NEET Questions Question 13. The greatest evolutionary change enabling the land vertebrates to be completely free from water habitat is the development of:

1. Four legs
2. Lungs
3. Four chambered heart
4. Shelled eggs.

Answer: 4. Shelled eggs.

Question 14. Which special type of circulatory system is seen in all types of vertebrates?

1. Renal portal
2. Hepatic portal
3. Open circulatory
4. Double circulatory.

Answer: 2. Hepatic portal

Question 15. The Mullerian duct is the name given to :

1. Ureter
2. Urinogenital duct
3. Oviduct
4. Spermiduct

Answer: 3. Oviduct

Question 16. Branchiostoma belongs to:

1. Cephalochordata
2. Urochodrata
3. Hemichordata
4. Vertebrata.

Answer: 1. Cephalochordata

Question 17. Petromyzon belongs to the class:

1. Chondrichthyes
2. Osteichthyes
3. Cyclostomata
4. Tunicata.

Answer: 3. Cyclostomata

Question 18. Chordates and echinoderms are phylogenetically similar because of their:

1. Axes of symmetry
2. Embryo forms
3. Biochemical pathways
4. Fossil form.

Answer: 2. Embryo forms

Question 19. Which gland has immunological functions?

1. Thymus
2. Pituitary
3. Adrenal
4. Thyroid.

Answer: 1. Adrenal

Question 20. Crocodiles, fish, and frog on the one hand, and squirrels and
crow on the other hand differ in:

1. The former has two appendages while the latter has two only.
2. The body temperature of the former changes with environmental temperature while the latter remains more or less constant
3. The former undergo metamorphosis while the latter do not
4. The former are oviparous while the latter are not.

Answer: 2. The former undergo metamorphosis while the latter do not

Phylum Chordata NEET QuestionsQuestion 21. Some characters that are shown by vertebrates are mentioned below:

1. Two-chambered heart and single-circulation
2. Ten pairs of cranial nerves
3. Pronephric kidney
4. Renal and hepatic portal systems are present.

Choose the right combination for true fishes

1. 1,2, 3
2. 2, 3, 4
3. 1,2, 4
4. 1, 3, 4.

Answer: 3. 1,2, 4

Question 22. Which one of the phylum is not a commonly accepted subphylum of chordata?

1. Urochordata
2. Hemichordata
3. Cephalochordata
4. Vertebrata.

Answer: 2. Hemichordata

Question 23. Vertebrates differ from other chordates in the possession of:

1. Cartilaginous or bony vertebrae
2. Usually two pairs of appendages
3. Rbc
4. Ventrally situated heart
5. Internal and jointed skeleton
6. Coelom
7. Gill slits
8. Bilateral symmetry

Choose the correct option

1. All the above are correct
2. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 are correct
3. 1, 2, 3, 6, and 7 are correct
4. 1, 2 4, 5, 6, and 7 are correct

Answer: 2. Rbc

Question 24. organized pancreas and spleen are absent in :

1. Lamprey
2. Shark
3. Carp
4. Hagfish

Answer: 1. Lamprey

Question 25. Larva of lamprey is :

1. Tomaria
2. Ammocoetes
3. Appendicularia
4. Bipinnaria.

Answer: 2. Ammocoetes

Question 26. Water is drawn into gill pouches through gill slits in

1. Petromyzon
2. Scoliodon
3. Labeo
4. Protopterus

Answer: 1. Petromyzon

Question 27. The spinal nerves of vertebrates are :

1. Snsory
2. Motor
3. Mixed
4. None of these.

Answer: 3. Mixed

Question 28. Which one of the following is found in chordates but not in non-chordates?

1. Chitinous exoskeleton
2. Gills
3. Post anal tail
4. Spiracles

Answer: 3. Post-anal tail

Class Pisces (Fishes)

Question 1. Scales in Chondrichthyes are:

1. Placoid
2. Ganoid
3. Cycloid
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Placoid

Question 2. Air bladder in Chondrichthyes is:

1. Single
2. Double
3. Reduced
4. Absent.

Answer: 4. Double

Question 3. Electric organs are present in :

1. Scoliodon
2. Torpedo
3. Pristis
4. Labeo.

Answer: 2. Torpedo

Question 4. Which of the following cartilaginous fish is with operculum over the gills?

1. Pristis
2. Trygon
3. Chimaera
4. Raja.

Answer: 3. Chimaera

Question 5. The suckers of sucker fish is a modification of:

1. Dorsal fin
2. Anal fin
3. Caudal fin
4. None of these.

Answer: 1. Dorsal fin

Question 6. Sharks feed on :

1. Human beings only
2. Squids, fishes, and other aquatic animals
3. Aquatic plants
4. Human beings and other aquatic animals.

Answer: 4. Human beings and other aquatic animals.

Question 7. Rays differ from sharks in having a:

1. Dorsoventrally compressed body
2. Broad body and narrow tail
3. Ventrally positioned gill slits
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. Ventrally positioned gill slits

Question 8. The teeth of sharks are :

1. Bony projections of the upper jaw
2. Hardened cartilaginous projections from the upper and lower jaw
3. Modified placoid scales
4. Horny out grown of jaws

Answer: 3. Modified placoid scales

Question 9. Electric organs of electric rays and skates are modified:

1. Muscles
2. Neurons
3. Connective tissue4
4. Receptors

Answer: 1. Muscles

Question 10. The scientific name of African lungfish is:

1. Polypterus
2. Lepidosiren
3. Protopterus
4. Neoceratodus

Answer: 3. Protopterus

Question 11. Scales in bony fishes are not:

1. Cosmoid
2. Cycloid
3. Placoid
4. Ctenoid

Answer: 2. Cycloid

Question 12. A homocercal tail is found in:

1. Bony fishes
2. Shark
3. Rays
4. Lung fishes

Answer: 1. Bony fishes

Question 13. Air bladder in fish does not help in:

1. Respiration
2. Sound production
3. Movement
4. Excretion.

Answer: 4. Excretion.

Question 14. Viviparity is seen in :

1. Labeo
2. All freshwater bony fishes
3. All marine bony fishes.
4. Answer: 2. All freshwater bony fishes

Question 15. A flying fish is:

1. Exocoetus
2. Amia
3. Acipenser
4. None of these.

Answer: 1. Exocoetus

Question 16. The tympanum is absent in :

1. Sharks
2. Cartilaginous fishes
3. Bony fishes
4. All of these.

Answer: 4. All of these.

Question 17. Internal nares are absent in :

1. Scoliodon
2. Protopterus
3. Labeo
4. Anabas.

Answer: 2. Protopterus

Question 18. Which one of the following combinations is not correct?

1. Elasmobranchii—scoliodon
2. Dipnoi— Petromyzon
3. Mammalia—whale
4. Urochordata— herdmania.

Answer: 2. Dipnoi— Petromyzon

Question 19. The holocephali lacks only one of the following elasmobranch characters, it is :

1. Claspers in male
2. Number of gills slits(5-7)
3. Cartilaginous endoskeleton
4. Marine habitat.

Answer: 2. Number of gills slits(5-7)

Question 20. Which one of the following ileostomies has no food value?

1. Mystus seenghala
2. Anabas
3. Labeo rohita
4. Cyprinus carpio.

Answer: 2. Anabas

Question 21. Fishes with ventral mouths and five pairs of gill slitsiare kept under the group :

1. Pleurotremata
2. Hypotremata
3. Holocephali
4. Actinopterygii.

Answer: 2. Hypotremata

Question 22. The tail of the bony fish is :

1. Protocercal
2. Heterocercal
3. Diphycercal
4. Homocercal.

Answer: 4. Homocercal.

Question 23. But of one, others are called carps, which one is?

1. Labeo
2. Catla catla
3. Mystus
4. Cyprinus.

Answer: 3. Mystus

Question 24. Which is the fish that gives birth to young ones?

1. Scoliodon
2. Anabas
3. Heteropneustes
4. Catla catla.

Answer: 1. Scoliodon

Question 25. Oxygenated blood never goes to the heart in :

1. Mammals
2. Fishes
3. Birds
4. Reptiles.

Answer: 2. Fishes

Question 26. The lateral line sensory system is markedly developed in

1. Scoliodon
2. Labeo
3. Larval stages of fishes
4. All members of class elasmobranchii.

Answer: 4. All members of class elasmobranchii.

Question 27. The kidney of fish is of the type :

1. Pronephros
2. Mesonephros
3. Metanephros
4. Nephridial.

Answer: 2. Mesonephros

Question 28. Vision in elasmobranch is :

1. Of importance for close-range
2. Is adapted for perception in low light intensities
3. Due to rods-rich retina
4. All of the above.

Answer: 1. Of importance for close-range

Question 29. Bony fishes are :

1. Ammonotelic
2. Ureotelic
3. Uricotelic
4. Aminotelic.

Answer: 1. Ammonotelic

Question 30. Fishes possess exoskeleton of:

1. Bones
2. Cartilages
3. Scales
4. Scutes.

Answer: 3. Scales

Question 31. Out of the following, which two are the most important identification features of fishes :

1. Epidermal scales and tail
2. Epidermal scales and gills
3. Tail and venous heart
4. Venous heart and gills.

Answer: 2. Epidermal scales and gills

Question 32. By noting the presence or absence of one of the following, the fish can be identified either as an elasmobranch fish or as a teleostean fish

1. Lateral line
2. Operculum
3. Mucus
4. Middle ear.

Answer: 2. Operculum

Question 33. Shagreen is :

1. Dried shark skin
2. Green colored gland of a shark
3. A fish meal
4. A gland found in amphibians.

Answer: 1. Dried shark skin

Question 34. An example of a migratory fish is :

1. Shark
2. Salmon
3. Carp
4. Ribbon fish.

Answer: 2. Salmon

Question 35. Electric ray is a:

1. Cartilagittpus fish
2. Bony fistt
3. Freshwater fish.

Answer: 1. Cartilagittpus fish

Question 36. Ichthyology is, the study of:

1. Birds
2. Reptiles
3. Insects
4. None of these

Answer: 4. None of these

Question 37. Which one is the true fish :

1. Dogfish
2. Silverfish
3. Starfish
4. Cuttlefish.

Answer: 1. Dogfish

Question 38. Carp fish common in India is:

1. Hilsa
2. Labeo
3. Barbus
4. Wallago.

Answer: 2. Labeo

Question 39. Which one of the following is an exotic Indian fish?

1. Labeo rohita
2. Catla,catla
3. Heteropneustes fossilis
4. Cyprinus carpio.

Answer: 4. Cyprinus carpio.

Question 40. In the fish, to see in the water medium :

1. The lens is flat and the cornea spherical
2. The cornea is flat and the lens spherical
3. Both the lens and cornea are flat
4. Both the lens and cornea are spherical.

Answer: 2. The cornea is flat and the lens spherical

Question 41. Lungfish burrow into the mud of rivers during hot day periods, which enables them to reduce their metabolic rate and survive. This phenomenon is called:

1. Hibernation
2. Aestivation
3. Reproduction
4. None of these.

Answer: 2. Aestivation

Question 42. Which of the following has a closed type of circulatory system?

1. Cockroach
2. Scorpion
3. Fish
4. Mollusc

Answer: 3. Fish

Question 43. Which among the following i.4 a living fossil?

1. Varanus
2. Dodo
3. Coelocanth
4. Dogfish.

Answer: 3. Coelocanth

Question 44. The lateral line system is present in :

1. Fish
2. Frog
3. Reptile
4. Man.

Answer: 1. Fish

Question 45. Pristis belongs to the class:

1. Dipnoi
2. Teleostomii
3. Elasmobranchii
4. Holocephali.

Answer: 2. Teleostomii

Question 46. Anadromous fishes move :

1. From the river to the sea
2. To fresh water from the sea
3. From estuary to sea
4. From sea to estuary.

Answer: 2. To fresh water from the sea

Question 47. The common name of a marine fish, Anguilla, is :

1. Rohu
2. Hilsa
3. Eel
4. Bombay duck.

Answer: 3. Eel

Question 48. One can identify a fish by the presence of one of the given characteristic features:

1. Tails
2. Fin with fin rays
3. Scales
4. Gills.

Answer: 3. Scales

Question 49. Which one of the following is a real fish?

1. Silver fish
2. Star fish
3. Dog fish
4. Shellfish.

Answer: 3. Dogfish

Class Amphibia

Question 1. A frog differs from a toad in:

1. Absence of warts
2. Absence of pinna
3. Presence of pigmented skin
4. Absence of neck.

Answer: 1. Absence of warts

Question 2. In frogs the mucous glands are derivatives of :

1. Stratum compactum
2. Stratum spongiosum
3. Epidermis
4. Dermis.

Answer: 4. Dermis.

Question 3. In frogs, teeth are present on:

1. Lower jaw
2. Upper jaw
3. Both jaws
4. None of these.

Answer: 2. Upperjaw

Question 4. In amphibia, the Jacobson organ is also known as:

1. Alimentary canal
2. Ear
3. Nasal chamber.
4. Eye.

Answer: 3. Nasal chamber.

Question 5. Among vertebrates, amphibians are the first to invade land but they always have to return to water for:

1. Excretion
2. Respiration
3. Breeding
4. Preying.

Answer: 1. Excretion

Question 6. In frogs false copulation occurs since the penis is absent in the male and fertilization of the eggs occurs:

1. Inside the bidder canal of the kidney
2. Externally in the water
3. When the egg is in the cloaca
4. When the egg is passing through the uterus.

Answer: 4. When the egg is passing through the uterus.

Question 7. During hibernation in frogs, the mode of respiration is:

1. Gill respiration
2. Cutaneous respiration
3. Pulmonary respiration
4. Pharyngeal respiration.

Answer: 4. Pharyngeal respiration.

Question 8. Pulmonary breathing increases when the frog is :

1. Hibernating
2. Underwater
3. Overwater
4. Excited.

Answer: 3. Overwater

Question 9. The biggest part of the brain of a frog is known as:

1. Forebrain
2. Hindbrain
3. Midbrain
4. None of these.

Answer: 1. Fore brain

Question 10. During the hibernation period, the left auricle of the frog heart contains:

1. Oxygenated blood
2. Deoxygenated blood
3. Mixed blood blood.

Answer: 3. Mixed blood blood.

Question 11. How many cranial nerves are present in the body of a frog?

1. 12 Pairs
2. 8 Pairs
3. 10 Pairs
4. 14 Pairs.

Answer: 2. 8 Pairs

Question 12. In frogs several spinal nerves are:

1. 9 Pairs and 10th unpaired
2. 12 Pairs
3. 31 Pairs
4. 37 Pairs.

Answer: 1. 9 Pairs and 10th unpaired

Question 13. Which of the following statements apply to the teeth of a frog?

1. Homodonty
2. Heterodonty
3. Pleurodonty
4. Acrodonty and homodonty.

Answer: 4. Acrodonty and homodonty.

Question 14. Cells in the skin of a frog for change the color according to the environment are known as:

1. Chromatophores
2. Melanocytes
3. Phagocytes
4. Thrombocytes.

Answer: 2. Melanocytes

Question 15. In frog:

1. Adult kidney develops from nephridia
2. The heart has a single ventricular chamber
3. There is a single portal system
4. There are seven cervical vertebrae.

Answer: 1. Adult kidney develops from nephridia

Question 16. Frogs are ectothermic or poikilothermal animals because:

1. Its body temperature is constant irrespective of the fluctuation in the temperature of the environment
2. Its body temperature is higher than that of the surrounding environment
3. Its body temperature is low and fluctuates with the temperature of the environment
4. None of the above.

Answer: 4. None of the above.

Question 17. The dorsal median line present in the skin of a frog is :

1. Warming line
2. Cold adaptation line
3. Sensory line
4. Ornamental line.

Answer: 2. Cold adaptation line

Question 18. The opening in the frog cranium in which the spinal cord comes out is called:

1. Foramen magnum
2. Occipital condyle
3. Pterygoid
4. Obturator foramen.

Answer: 2. Occipital condyle

Question 19. The number of vertebrae in the vertebral column of a frog is:

1. 9
2. 9 Vertebrae and urostyle
3. 8 Vertebrae and urostyle
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. 9 Vertebrae and urostyle

Question 20. The glenoid cavity or fossa in frogs is found in:

1. Pelvic girdle
2. Pectoral girdle
3. Sacrum
4. Skull.

Answer: 2. Pectoral girdle

Question 21. Acetabulum in frogs is associated with:

1. Pelvic girdle
2. Pectoral girdle
3. Sacrum
4. Cranium.

Answer: 2. Pectoral girdle

Question 22. The Iliac crest is a feature of frogs:

1. Hyoid apparatus
2. Sacrum
3. Pelvic girdle
4. Pectoral girdle.

Answer: 4. Pectoral girdle.

Question 23. The body of the frog is slimy with a mucus covering and the skin is maintained moist because the animal:

1. Cannot hold food with dry skin
2. Is unable to move with dry skin
3. Is unable to swim with dry skin
4. Has to perform cutaneous respiration.

Answer: 3. Is unable to swim with dry skin

Question 24. A well-fed frog’s skin is fully covered with a wax coating. After a day. The animal is found to be lazy and slow. This is because:

1. Animal gets poisoned by nitrogenous wastes which the skin cannot excrete
2. The animal is hungry
3. The animal is oxygen-starved and cutaneous respiration is blocked
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Animal gets poisoned by nitrogenous wastes which the skin cannot excrete

Question 25. The excretory product of an adult frog and tadpole in an internal gill stage respectively are :

1. Urea in both
2. Urea and uric acid
3. Urea and ammonia
4. Ammonia and uric acid.

Answer: 2. Urea and uric acid

Question 26. The largest living amphibian is the:

1. Giant salamander of Japan
2. The tiger salamander
3. The crimson-spotted newt
4. Necturus.

Answer: 4. Necturus.

Question 27. Which of the following is strictly aquatic amphibian?

1. Ambystoma
2. Cryptobranchus
3. Necturus
4. Diemictylus.

Answer: 2. Cryptobranchus

Question 28. A frog has no neck, suppose it has one, it would:

1. Swallow its prey
2. Unable to leap on land easily
3. Breathe easily by floating on water’s surface
4. Swim easily in water.

Answer: 1. Swallow its prey

Question 29. Nuptial pads occur on frogs:

1. Inner toes
2. Outer toes
3. Inner fingers
4. Outer fingers.

Answer: 1. Inner toes

Question 30. Which of the following is a limbless amphibian?

1. Ichthyophis
2. Rhacophorus
3. Eryops
4. Necturus.

Answer: 3. Eryops

Question 31. Neoteny is exhibited by :

1. Axolotl larva
2. Necturus
3. Proteus
4. All of these.

Answer: 2. Necturus

Question 32. The most striking case of parental care seen in:

1. Alytes
2. Echinoderm
3. Surinam toad
4. Necturus.

Answer: 2. Rhinoderm

Question 33. In toads poison glands are present in:

1. Parotid duct
2. Carotid labyrinth
3. Parotid glands
4. Sudoriferous glands.

Answer: 1. Parotid duct

Question 34. Coelom of rana is:

1. Enterocoel
2. Pseudocoel
3. Schizocoel
4. Eucoel.

Answer: 2. Pseudocoel

Question 35. The following vertebrate respires by skin :

1. Fish
2. Frog
3. Crocodile
4. Whale

Answer: 1. Fish

Question 36. Blindworm is :

1. Typhlops
2. Uraeotyphlus
3. Ophiosaurs
4. Necturus.

Answer: 4. Necturus.

Question 37. Ichthyophis is :

1. Limbless amphibian
2. Reptile
3. Lizard
4. Fish.

Answer: 1. Limbless amphibian

Question 38. Characteristic features of amphibians are:

1. Presence of scales
2. Amphibious mode of life
3. Poison glands
4. Absence of scales, glandular and moist skin.

Answer: 2. Amphibious mode of life

Question 39. Which of the following is a limbless amphibian?

1. Hyla
2. Necturus
3. Amphiuma
4. Uraeotyphlus.

Answer: 4. Uraeotyphlus.

Question 40. Which of the following similarity is between fish and tadpole?

1. Fins
2. Scales
3. Gills
4. All of these.

Answer: 2. Scales

Question 41. In frogs, there are:

1. No outer ear
2. No outer ear but eardrum and cochlea
3. Cochlea and outer ear
4. Eardrum and internal ear.

Answer: 2. No outer ear but eardrum and cochlea

Question 42.  The character that proves that frogs have evolved from fish is:

1. Similarity in the shape of the head
2. The ability to swim in water
3. The tadpole larva in frogs which resembles the fishes in many characters
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. The tadpole larva in frogs which resembles the fishes in many characters

Question 43. The suspended state of life of animals is called:

1. Hibernation
2. Origin of life
3. Aestivation
4. Migration.

Answer: 3. Aestivation

Question 44. Axolotl is the name given to the larva of:

1. Roundworm
2. Amphioxus
3. Ambystoma
4. Silkworm.

Answer: 1. Roundworm

Question 45. The glands of Swammerdam are rich in the following:

1. Calcium
2. Acetylcholine
3. Dopamine
4. Gonadotrophin.

Answer: 1. Calcium

Question 46. The renal portal system is made of :

1. Sciatic, renal portal veins
2. Femoral, sciatic, renal portal veins
3. Femoral, renal portal veins
4. Renal portal veins.

Answer: 2. Femoral, sciatic, renal portal veins

Class Reptilia

Question 1. Hands and feet are grasping in:

1. Chameleon
2. Calotes
3. Phrynosoma
4. Draco.

Answer: 1. Chameleon

Question 2. The only poisonous lizard is:

1. Varanus
2. Phrynosoma
3. Heloderma
4. Calotes.

Answer: 3. Heloderma

Question 3. Heart in a crocodile is :

1. Two chambered
2. Three chambered
3. Incomplete four chambered
4. Complete four-chambered.

Answer: 4. Complete four-chambered.

Question 4. The functional udult kidney of reptiles arc :

1. Pronephric
2. Metanephric
3. Mesonephric
4. 50% Each of mesonephric and metanephric

Answer: 2. Metanephric

Question 5. The reason for the death of a patient of cobra bite is :

1. Destruction of rbc
2. Permanent contraction of muscles
3. Inactivation of nerves
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Inactivation of nerves

Question 6. A reptile which can live in water as well as on land:

1. Turtle
2. Python
3. Sphenodon
4. Hemidactylus.

Answer: 4. Hemidactylus.

Question 7. The cleidoic eggs first developed in:

1. Fishes
2. Amphibians
3. Reptiles
4. Birds.

Answer: 4. Birds.

Question 8. Gavialis gangeticus the Indian gharial does not have the powerful jaws of their crocodile cousins. They eat:

1. Small aquatic birds
2. Crabs and prawn
3. Mollusc
4. Fishes.

Answer: 3. Mollusc

Question 9. The largest living lizard is:

1. Komodo dragon
2. The homed toad
3. Draco
4. Heloderma

Answer: 1. Komodo dragon

Question 10. The only lizard with a prehensile tail is :

1. Chameleon
2. Calotes
3. The Komodo dragon
4. Flying lizard.

Answer: 3. The Komodo dragon

Question 11. Snakes lack tympanic membranes. The auxiliary olfactory organs are :

1. Skin
2. Scales
3. Tongue
4. Precomea.

Answer: 2. Scales

Question 12. The number of occipital condyles in the skull of reptiles is:

1. Zero
2. One
3. Two
4. Four.

Answer: 1. Zero

Question 13. Typhlops is a :

1. Blind snake
2. Glass snake
3. Tree snake
4. Sea snake.

Answer: 4. Sea snake.

Question 14. The sea snake is different from the rest because it has:

1. Uniform scales on the head and body
2. Pectoral and pelvic fins for swimming
3. Big head
4. A laterally compressed tail.

Answer: 2. Pectoral and pelvic fins for swimming

Question 15. Which of the following snakes is not poisonous?

1. Naja naja
2. Python
3. Bungarus
4. Hydrophis.

Answer: 1. Naja naja

Question 16. Most of the poisonous snakes have:

1. Narrow transverse belly plates
2. Wide transverse plates stretching completely across the belly
3. Small uniform belly plates
4. None of the above.

Answer: 4. None of the above.

Question 17. Skull of the reptile is :

1. Dicondylar
2. Monocondylar
3. Tetracondylar
4. None of these.

Answer: 2. Monocondylar

Question 18. Largest fossil reptiles are :

1. Dinosaurs
2. Archaeopteryx
3. Sphenodon
4. Pterosaurs.

Answer: 2. Archaeopteryx

Question 19. Reptiles that can glide in the air are:

1. Heloderma
2. Draco
3. Phrynosoma
4. Anguis.

Answer: 2. Draco

Question 20. Aquatic reptiles belong to the order :

1. Crocodilia
2. Lacertilia
3. Ophidia
4. Rhynchocephalia.

Answer: 2. Lacertilia

Question 21. Embryonic membranes of reptiles are:

1. Yolk sac
2. Amnion
3. Allantois
4. All of these.

Answer: 2. Amnion

Question 22. The poison glands of a poisonous snake are modified :

1. Buccal glands
2. Salivary glands
3. Palatine glands
4. Lacrimal glands.

Answer: 4. Lacrimal glands.

Question 23. Fangs develop on:

1. Quadrate
2. Squamosal
3. Maxilla
4. Mandibles.

Answer: 3. Maxilla

Question 24. Phrynosoma is :

1. Horned lizard
2. Flying lizard
3. Monitor lizard
4. Garden lizard.

Answer: 1. Horned lizard

Question 25. Which of the following is not a snake?

1. Rattlesnake
2. Rat snake
3. Glass snake
4. Blind snake.

Answer: 2. Rat snake

Question 26. Gymnophiona are :

1. Wormiform without limbs
2. Tail-less with long legs
3. Scaleless with a well-developed tail
4. Extinct with a massive endoskeleton.

Answer: 4. Extinct with a massive endoskeleton.

Question 27. The true coelom is lined with :

1. Ectoderm
2. Endoderm
3. Mesoderm
4. Ectoderm and endoderm.

Answer: 2. Endoderm

Question 28. Most adapted for desert habitat:

1. Lizard
2. Rana tigrina
3. Cockroach
4. Osteichthyes.

Answer: 1. Lizard

Question 29. The carapace is the outer hard covering of:

1. Trilobites
2. Lizards
3. Tortoises
4. Gharial.

Answer: 1. Trilobites

Question 30. Four chambered hearts are found in reptiles:

1. Python
2. Krait
3. Crocodile
4. Bungarus.

Answer: 3. Crocodile

Question 31. The study of lizards is called :

1. Herpetology
2. Saurology
3. Ophiology
4. Serology.

Answer: 2. Saurology

Question 32. A lizard found in New Zealand and was considered extinct:

1. Rhynchoderma
2. Sphenodon
3. Varanus
4. Gecko.

Answer: 2. Sphenodon

Question 33. A snake has :

1. No eyelids
2. Moveable eyelids
3. Immoveable eyelids.
4. Eyelids placed in pouches.

Answer: 3. Immoveable eyelids

Question 34. Kidney of adult reptiles are:

1. Mesonephric
2. Metanephric
3. Pronephric
4. Both 1 and 2.

Answer: 2. Metanephric

Question 35. To which of the following is carapace related?

1. Crocodile
2. Bird
3. Tortoise
4. None.

Answer: 3. Tortoise

Question 36. The non-poisonous snake is :

1. Viper
2. Python
3. Naja
4. None.

Answer: 2. Python

Question 37. The identifying character of cobra is :

1. Presence of hood
2. Small scales on the head
3. Round tail
4. The third supra labial touches the eye and nostril.

Answer: 1. Presence of hood

Question 38. Laterally compressed tail is found in :

1. Marine, non-poisonous snakes
2. Marine, poisonous snakes
3. Freshwater snakes
4. Terrestrial snakes.

Answer: 2. Marine, poisonous snakes

Question 39. Herpetology is the study of :

1. Insects
2. Birds
3. Fishes
4. Reptiles.

Answer: 4. Reptiles.

Question 40. Which of the following is true?

1. All lizards are poisonous
2. Only 2 species of Mexican lizards are poisonous
3. The tail of the common lizard is poisonous
4. No lizard is poisonous.

Answer: 2. Only 2 species of Mexican lizards are poisonous

Question 41. The venom of cobra affects the following:

1. Digestive system
2. Circulatory system
3. Nervous system
4. Respiratory system.

Answer: 2. Circulatory system

Question 42. When the tail is cylindrical and ventral scales do not extend the entire width of the belly, the snake is:

1. Non-poisonous
2. Either poisonous or non-poisonous
3. Poisonous
4. Deadly poisonous.

Answer: 2. Either poisonous or non-poisonous

Question 43. ‘Homed toad’ is a/an :

1. Fish
2. Amphibian
3. Reptile
4. Mammal.

Answer: 3. Reptile

Class Aves

Question 1. Birds are:

1. Cold Blooded
2. Homeothermal
3. Poikilothermal
4. Homeopoiesis.

Answer: 2. Homeothermal

Question 2. The wing and tail feathers of birds are termed as:

1. Quill feathers
2. Filoplumes
3. Down feathers
4. Shaft feathers.

Answer: 1. Quill feathers

Question 3. Birds sing:

1. To ward off danger
2. To bring together birds
3. To attract mate
4. For communication between parents and young- ones.

Answer: 3. To attract a mate

Question 4. A bird that does not incubate its eggs is:

1. Cuckoo
2. Common hummingbird
3. Seagulls
4. Penguins.

Answer: 1. Cuckoo

Question 5. The largest living bird weighing about 136 kg is:

1. Emu
2. Cassowary
3. Ostrich
4. Kiwi.

Answer: 3. Ostrich

Question 6. The largest order of birds is :

1. Passiformes (songbirds)
2. Columbiformes (pigeons)
3. Falconiformes (birds of prey)
4. Galliformes (pheasants and fowls).

Answer: 1. Passiformes (songbirds)

Question 7. Which of the following is our national bird?

1. Pavo cristatus
2. Gallus gallus
3. Milvus migrans
4. Diomedea exulans.

Answer: 1. Pavo cristatus

Question 8. Which bird has claws on its digits in the wings?

1. Ostrich
2. Rheas
3. Hoatzin
4. All of these.

Answer: 3. Hoatzin

Question 9. Birds shed their old feathers in:

1. Late winter
2. Autumn
3. Late summer
4. After breeding season.

Answer: 4. After breeding season.

Question 10. A typical feather has three parts viz: Vane or vexillum, after shaft and

1. Calamus
2. Furcula
3. Rami
4. Shaft.

Answer: 1. Calamus

Question 11. Birds groom their feathers with oil from preen glands. These are located:

1. Under their beaks
2. In the neck regions
3. Below the eyes
4. Near the cloaca.

Answer: 4. Near the cloaca.

Question 12. Which of the following is a bird of prey?

1. Pavo
2. Eudynamis
3. Bubo
4. Picus.

Answer: 2. Eudynamis

Question 13. Wings are modified into swimming paddles in :

1. Ducks
2. Geese
3. Water fowls
4. Penguins.

Answer: 4. Penguins.

Question 14. Rectrices are feathers of:

1. Wings
2. Body
3. Tail
4. Legs.

Answer: 3. Tail

Question 15. Birds are:

1. Ureotelic
2. Uricotelic
3. Ammonotelic
4. Aminotelic.

Answer: 2. Uricotelic

Question 16. The urinary bladder is absent in :

1. Fishes
2. Amphibians
3. Mammals
4. Birds.

Answer: 4. Birds.

Question 17. Which of the following can fly backward?

1. Albatross
2. Crane
3. Hummingbird
4. Penguin.

Answer: 3. Hummingbird

Question 18. Penguins are:

1. Amphibious
2. Terrestrial
3. Strictly aquatic
4. Strictly aerial.

Answer: 1. Amphibious

Question 19. The skull of birds is :

1. Monocondylar
2. Condylar
3. Amphicondylar
4. None Of These.

Answer: 1. Monocondylar

Question 20. Birds fly from place to place, this movement is termed:

1. Cursorial
2. Volant
3. Scansorial
4. Digitigrade.

Answer: 2. Volant

Question 21. Which one of the following birds sucks nectar?

1. Parrot
2. Red-vented bulbul
3. Sunbird
4. Mynah.

Answer: 3. Sunbird

Question 22. Feathers of birds are modifications of:

1. Epidermal scales
2. Plates
3. Dermal scales
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Epidermal scales

Question 23. Flight adaptations in the forelimbs of birds are:

1. Presence of flight muscles
2. Feathers arranged to form wings
3. Pneumatic bones and clawless digits
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 24. Avian skin contains :

1. Oil glands in the region of the tail only
2. Oil glands distributed all over the body
3. Sweat glands
4. Special sudoriferous glands.

Answer: 1. Oil glands in the region of the tail only

Question 25. Furcula of birds are formed of:

1. Clavicles and interclavicles
2. Coracoids
3. Sternum and scapula
4. Coracoids and clavicles.

Answer: 1. Clavicles and interclavicles

Question 26. Sound in birds is produced by:

1. Syrinx
2. 1 Aryngo-tracheal chamber
3. Vocal cord
4. Larynx.

Answer: 1. Syrinx

Question 27. Air sacs are present in :

1. Terrestrial birds
2. Aquatic birds
3. All birds
4. None of the above.

Answer: 4. None of the above.

Question 28. Number of aortic arches in birds is:

1. One pair
2. Two pairs
3. Single left
4. Single right.

Answer: 2. Two pairs

Question 29. The female genitalia of birds consists of:

1. Paired ovaries which function alternatively
2. Left functional ovary
3. Right functional ovary
4. Equipotent left and right ovaries.

Answer: 2. Left functional ovary

Question 30. Flightless birds comprise a group called :

1. Ostrich
2. Kiwi
3. Emu
4. Ratitae.

Answer: 4. Ratitae.

Question 31. Birds of prey lay their eggs :

1. On lofty trees on high rocks
2. In sand pits
3. In nests built by them
4. In water.

Answer: 1. On lofty trees on high rocks

Question 32. Which of the following traits is not characteristic of birds?

1. Air sacs attached to lungs
2. Hollow bones
3. Ectothermic
4. Amniote egg.

Answer: 3. Ectothermic

Question 33. The types of vertebrae seen in birds are :

1. Opisthocoelous
2. Amphicoelous
3. Acoelous
4. Heterocoelous.

Answer: 4. Heterocoelous.

Question 34. How many air sacs do pigeons have?

1. 9
2. 8
3. 5
4. 6.

Answer: 1. 9

Question 35. The wish-bone of a bird, which supports the flight muscle is formed from:

1. The fusion of collarbones
2. Anterior ribs
3. Ventral extensions of vertebrae
4. Posterior extensions of the larynx.

Answer: 1. The fusion of collarbones

Question 36. Which of these characters is not true for birds?

1. Only one functional ovary present
2. Urinary bladder absent
3. Body temperature is constant within a narrow range
4. The diaphragm separating the thorax from the abdomen is present.

Answer: 4. The Diaphragm separating the thorax from the abdomen is present.

Question 37. Which of the following is not the flight adaptation of the bird?

1. Single ovary
2. Hollow bones with air space.
3. Light water waterproof feathers
4. Presence of penis in some birds.

Answer: 4. Presence of penis in some birds.

Question 38. Which of these are the longest feathers?

1. Contours
2. Filoplumes
3. Quill on wing
4. Tail quill.

Answer: 4. Tail quill.

Question 39. The hollow long bones connected by air passages are characteristics of:

1. All land vertebrates
2. Mammals
3. Reptiles
4. Aves.

Answer: 4. Aves.

Question 40. Sinus venosus is absent in :

1. Mammal
2. Birds
3. Reptiles
4. Amphibia.

Answer: 3. Reptiles

Question 41. Penguin is related to:

1. South pole
2. North pole
3. South America
4. New Zealand.

Answer: 1. South pole

Question 42. In which of the following bird teeth are/were present:

1. Pigeon
2. Peacock
3. Dodo
4. Archaeopteryx.

Answer: 4. Archaeopteryx.

Question 43. Which sound-producing organ is found in birds?

1. Pharynx
2. Larynx
3. Syrinx
4. Trachea.

Answer: 3. Syrinx

Question 44. Both birds and bats fly. Bats are different from birds due to the presence of:

1. Wings
2. Four chambered heart
3. Diaphragm
4. Homiotherm.

Answer: 2. Four chambered heart

Question 45. Dodo disappeared from :

1. Mauritius
2. Indonesia
3. Australia
4. India.

Answer: 4. India.

Question 46. Long snout and backwardly directed claws are present in:

1. Cursorial animals
2. Fossorial animals
3. Arboreal animals
4. Aquatic animals.

Answer: 3. Arboreal animals

Question 47. Four chambered hearts are present in:

1. Chelonia
2. Crocodilia
3. Amphibia
4. Birds and Crocodilia.

Answer: 3. Amphibia

Question 48. Which bird sucks nectar :

1. Humming Bird
2. Parrot
3. Sarus crane
4. Albatross.

Answer: 1. Humming Bird

Question 49. Pneumatic bones are expected to be found in :

1. Flying fish
2. Frog’s tadpole
3. Pigeon
4. House lizard.

Answer: 4. House lizard.

Question 50. All birds are:

1. Omnivorous
2. Have feathers and fly
3. Have calcareous shelled egg
4. Form nests and care for their young ones.

Answer: 3. Have calcareous shelled egg

Question 51. Flightless bird cassowary is found in :

1. Mauritius
2. Indonesia
3. New Zealand
4. Australia.

Answer: 2. Indonesia

Question 52. In birds, some of the vertebrae are fused to form:

1. Syncytium
2. Synsacrum
3. Keel
4. Furcula.

Answer: 1. Syncytium

Question 53. The vertebrae in birds are mostly :

1. Procoelous
2. Amphicoelous
3. Opisthocoelous
4. Heterocoelous.

Answer: 2. Amphicoelous

Question 54. The “wishbone” or “Merrythought bone” of birds is :

1. Sternum
2. Scapula
3. Coracoid
4. Clavicles.

Answer: 2. Scapula

Question 55. Flightless, aquatic birds are included in this group :

1. Ratittae
2. Carinatae
3. Odontognathae
4. Impennae.

Answer: 4. Impennae.

Questions for NEET Biology Animal Kingdom PhylumQuestion 56. The study of bird migration is known as :

1. Phenology
2. Oology
3. Nidology
4. Ornithology.

Answer: 2. Oology

Question 57. The state which has named most of its holiday resorts after names of birds is :

1. Himachal Pradesh
2. Haryana
3. Assam
4. Karnataka.

Answer: 2. Haryana

Question 58. Dr. Salim Ali is a famous birdman of India. He observed and described a maximum number of birds. His last desire was to rediscover:

1. Himalayan mountain quail
2. Jerdon’s courser
3. Indian courser
4. White-breasted King Fisher.

Answer: 1. Himalayan mountain quail

Question 59. The scientist who described the birds as glorified reptiles

1. Romer
2. Huxley
3. Mendel
4. Robert Hooke.

Answer: 2. Huxley

Question 60. The special sound-producing organ in birds is:

1. Syrinx
2. Glottis
3. Larynx
4. None.

Answer: 1. Syrinx

Question 61. Which one of the following is a flightless bird:

1. Pavo cristatus
2. Corvus
3. Aptenodytes
4. Passer.

Answer: 1. Pavo cristatus

Questions for NEET Biology Animal Kingdom Phylum  Question 62. The larynx is also called :

1. Glottis
2. Epiglottis
3. Voice box
4. Vocal chord.

Answer: 3. Voicebox

Question 63. The bones of a bird are :

1. Hollow and heavy
2. Solid but light
3. Hollow and light
4. Like iron rods.

Answer: 3. Hollow and light

Question 64. Which of the following birds is a famous migratory bird in India?

1. Arctic tern
2. Wagtail
3. Maina
4. Goose.

Answer: 1. Arctic tern

Question 65. Kingfisher is a bird in which the feet are :

1. Scratching type
2. Raptorial
3. Wading type
4. Perching type.

Answer: 3. Wading type

Question 66. The young chickens raised specifically for meat are called :

1. Hen
2. Broilers
3. Cockerels
4. Pullets.

Answer: 2. Broilers

MCQ Animal Kingdom Question 67. What is common between ostrich, penguin, and kiwi?

1. These are running birds
2. These have four toes on their feet
3. These are migratory birds
4. These are flightless birds.

Answer: 1. These are running birds

Question 68. Bone marrow is absent in :

1. Reptilia
2. Amphibia
3. Fishes
4. Birds.

Answer: 4. Birds.

Question 69. The national bird of India is :

1. The Peacock
2. The house sparrow
3. The hornbill
4. Black swan.

Answer: 1. The peacock

Class Mammalia

Question 1. Tachyglossus is a representative of:

1. Prototheria
2. Eutheria
3. Metatherian
4. Proboscidia.

Answer: 1. Prototheria

Question 2. The body is covered by large, thick, homy, overlapping scales in:

1. Hedgehog
2. Pangolin
3. Porcupine
4. Hare.

Answer: 2. Pangolin

Question 3. Loris belongs to the order :

1. Primata
2. Insectivora
3. Rodentia
4. Chiroptera.

Answer: 1. Primata

Question 4. Tusks occur in :

1. Elephant
2. Dugong
3. Walrus
4. All of these.

Answer: 4. All of these.

MCQ Animal Kingdom Question 5. Hind limbs are lacking in :

1. Balaenoptera
2. Dugong
3. Both of them
4. None of these.

Answer: 3. Both of them

Question 6. Which of the following is not a primate?

1. Rhesus monkey
2. Man
3. Lemur
4. Cat.

Answer: 4. Cat.

Question 7. Which of the following is a toothless whale?

1. Dolphin
2. Killer whale
3. Narwhale
4. Whalebone whale.

Answer: 4. Killer whale

Question 8. Bats can find their way in the dark by being highly sensitive:

1. Electromagnetic mechanism
2. Sonar mechanism
3. Heat mechanism
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Sonar mechanism