NEET Biology Multiple Choice Questions – Principles And Processes Of Biotechnology

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NEET Biology Principles And Process Of Biotechnology Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Clonal cell lines can be obtained by

  1. Autoradiography
  2. Tissue culture
  3. Centrifugation
  4. Cell fractionation.

Answer: 2. Tissue culture

Question 2. Which is the non-invasive technique of genetic counseling?

  1. Amniocentesis
  2. Chorionic biopsy
  3. Fetal blood sampling
  4. Ultrasonography

Answer: 4. Ultrasonography

Question 3. Who among the following discovered the enzyme restriction endonuclease?

  1. Hamilton Othanel Smith
  2. Sir Godfrey Hounsfield
  3. F. Jacob
  4. Andre Lwoff.

Answer: 1. Hamilton Othanel Smith

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Question 4. The First hormone artificially produced by culturing bacteria is:

  1. Insulin
  2. Thyroxine
  3. Testosterone
  4. Adrenaline

Answer: 1. Insulin

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Question 5. When the number of genes increases in response to some signal, the effect is called:

  1. Gene dosage
  2. Gene pool
  3. Gene amplification
  4. Gene frequency.

Answer: 3. Gene amplification

Question 6. A number of bacteria with recombinant DNA of the same type form:

  1. Clone library
  2. Gene library
  3. Gene pool
  4. Gene frequency.

Answer: 2. Gene library

Question 7. Restriction enzymes may be used for

  1. Making recombinant DNA
  2. Gene mapping
  3. Diagnosis of genetic diseases
  4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 8. When scientists make an animal superior by view of genotype, introducing some foreign genes in it, the phenomenon is called

  1. Tissue culture
  2. Biotechnology
  3. Genetic engineering
  4. Immunization.

Answer: 3. Genetic engineering

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Question 9. Many copies of a DNA molecule in a test tube are procured by:

  1. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
  2. Molecular chain reaction (MCR)
  3. Ephemeral chain reaction (ECR)
  4. All of them.

Answer: 1. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

Question 10. Genetic diagnosis by DNA testing

  1. Detects only mutant and normal alleles.
  2. Can be done only on eggs or sperm.
  3. Involves hybridization to ribosomal RNA.
  4. Utilizes restriction enzymes and a polymorphic site.

Answer: 1. Detects only mutant and normal alleles.

Question 11. DNA can be introduced into any cell by

  1. Injection
  2. Being complexed with calcium salts.
  3. Being placed along with the cell into a gene gun.
  4. Gel electrophoresis.

Answer: 2. Being complexed with calcium salts.

Question 12. Bam HI, Eco RI, and Sma H are the types of

  1. Restriction endooxidascs
  2. Restriction endonucleases
  3. Restriction exonucleases
  4. Restriction polymerases.

Answer: 2. Restriction endonucleases

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Question 13. The collection of bacteria with gDNA is called

  1. DNA clones
  2. DNA library
  3. Genomic DNA library
  4. DNA library.

Answer: 1. DNA clones

Question 14. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

  1. RNA polymerase – RNA primer
  2. Restriction enzymes-Genetic Engineering
  3. Central Dogma – codon
  4. Okazaki fragments-splicing.

Answer: 2. Restriction enzymes-Genetic Engineering

Question 15. Which one of the following scientists developed the process of DNA fingerprinting?

  1. Kary B. Mullis
  2. T.H. Morgan
  3. H.O. Smith
  4. Alec Jeffreys

Answer: 4. Alec Jeffreys

Question 16. DNA fingerprinting method is very useful for

  1. DNA tests for identity and relationships
  2. Forensic studies
  3. Polymorphism
  4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 17. In DNA fingerprinting

  1. A positive identification can be made
  2. Multiple restriction enzymes digest/generate unique fragments
  3. The polymerase chain reaction amplifies fewer DNA
  4. The variability of repeated sequences between two restriction sites is evaluated.

Answer: 4. The variability of repeated sequences between two restriction sites is evaluated

Question 18. In Northern blotting, RNAs are separated by gel electrophoresis and the RNA bands are transferred onto a membrane of

  1. Diazobenzyl oximetry
  2. Diazobenzene
  3. Diazobromine
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Diazobenzyl oximetry

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Question 19. In Southern blotting is separated by gel electrophoresis

  1. DNA
  2. m-RNA
  3. t-RNA
  4. Protein.

Answer: 1. DNA

Question 20. Protein engineering is used to study the proteins to compare the catalytic properties of

  1. Normal and mutated form of the enzyme
  2. The normal form of the enzyme
  3. A mutated form of the enzyme
  4. Normal and mutated forms of proteins.

Answer: 1. Normal and mutated form of enzyme

Question 21. Transgenic animals are produced by injecting foreign genes into the

  1. Egg
  2. Nucleus of unfertilized egg
  3. Nucleus of fertilized egg
  4. Nucleus of sperm.

Answer: 3. Nucleus of fertilized egg

Question 22. Western blotting technique was developed by:

  1. Alwin
  2. Edwin
  3. Towbin
  4. Thomas.

Answer: 3. Towbin

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Question 23. The process used for separation of protein in polyacrylamide gel is called:

  1. Southern blotting
  2. Northern blotting
  3. Western blotting
  4. Eastern blotting.

Answer: 3. Western blotting

Question 24. What is C-DNA?

  1. Circular DNA
  2. Cloned DNA
  3. DNA produced from reverse transcription of RNA
  4. Cytoplasmic DNA.

Answer: 2. Cloned DNA

Question 25. Which of the following organelles is associated with genetic engineering?

  1. Plastids
  2. Plasmids
  3. Chloroplast
  4. Mitochondria.

Answer: 2. Plasmids

Question 26. The minimum length of cistron in base pairs which synthesizes a polypeptide of 50 amino acids is:

  1. 50 bp
  2. 100 bp
  3. 150 bp
  4. 200 bp

Answer: 3. 150 bp

NEET MCQs On Biotechnology

Question 27. The recent techniques used for separating fragments of DNA is

  1. Northern blotting
  2. Southern blotting
  3. Eastern blotting
  4. Western blotting

Answer: 2. Southern blotting

Question 28. Plasmids are autonomously replicating mini chromosomes found in

  1. Bacteriophage lambda
  2. Leishmania Donovan
  3. Escherichia coli
  4. Paramecium caudatum.

Answer: 3. Escherichia coli

Question 29. Genetic engineering is possible because:

  1. The phenomenon of transduction in bacteria is well-understood
  2. We can see DNA by electron microscope
  3. We can cut DNA at specific sites by endonucleases like DNA asel
  4. Restriction endonucleases purified from bacteria can be used in vitro.

Answer: 4. Restriction endonucleases purified from bacteria can be used in vitro.

Question 30. Restriction endonucleases are

  1. Present in mammalian cells for degradation of DNA when the cell dies
  2. Synthesized by bacteria as part of their defense mechanism
  3. Used for in vitro DNA synthesis
  4. Both (2) and (3).

Answer: 4. Both (2) and (3).

Question 31. In bacteria, genes for antibiotic resistance are usually located in

  1. Chromosomal DNA
  2. Cytoplasm
  3. Mitochondria
  4. Plasmids.

Answer: 4. Plasmids.

NEET MCQs On Biotechnology

Question  32. Which one of the following is related to genetic engineering?

  1. Plasmids
  2. Mitochondria
  3. Mutations
  4. Ribosome

Answer: 1. Plasmids

Question 33. Improvement of the genotype of an organism by the addition of some foreign genes is

  1. Genetic diversity
  2. Gene handling
  3. Tissue culture
  4. Genetic engineering.

Answer: 4. Genetic diversity

Question 34. Two bacteria found to be very useful in genetic engineering experiments are

  1. Nitrosomonas and Klebsiella
  2. Escherichia and Agrobacterium
  3. Nitrobacter and Azotobacter
  4. Rhizobium and Diplococcus.

Answer: 2. Escherichia and Agrobacterium

Question 35. The term hybridoma implies:

  1. DNA-RNA hybrid
  2. Recombination of DNA molecules
  3. Somatic hybridisation
  4. Gametic fusion.

Answer: 3. Somatic hybridization

Question 36. Restriction enzymes are isolated chiefly from

  1. Algae
  2. Fungi
  3. Protozoans
  4. Prokaryotes

Answer: 4. Prokaryotes

Question 37. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

  1. Cosmid contains gene coding for viral protein
  2. Cosmid replicates like plasmids
  3. Cosmid has antibiotic antibiotic-resistant marker gene
  4. Cos site has 12 bases helping to join the complete genome to make it circular.

Answer: 1. Cosmid contains gene coding for viral protein

NEET MCQs On Biotechnology

Question 38. Harris and J.F. Watkins in 1965 first time reported the fusion of following cell lines to form hybrids

  1. Mouse and man
  2. Mouse and hamster
  3. Mouse and chick erythrocytes
  4. Mouse and drosophila

Answer: 1. Mouse and man

Question  39. The genetic recombinants obtained by the insertion of the plasmid into 1 phage genome is called

  1. Cosmid
  2. Phasmid
  3. Phagmid
  4. Foreign DNA.

Answer: 2. Phasmid

Biotechnology Principles and Processes MCQs Question 40. Synthetic DNA or sDNA is

  1. DNA synthesized in the lab without any template
  2. DNA synthesized in the cell without any template
  3. DNA synthesized in the lab. without any nucleotide
  4. DNA is synthesized in the cell without any nucleotide.

Answer: 1. DNA synthesized in the lab without any template

Question 41. A technique used to make numerous copies of a specific segment of DNA quickly and accurately

  1. Ligase chain reaction
  2. Transcription
  3. Polymerase chain reaction
  4. Translation.

Answer: 3. Polymerase chain reaction

Question 42. The human genome contains about:

  1. 10,000 nucleotides
  2. 10,000 genes
  3. 6 billion nucleotides
  4. 6 billion genes

Answer: 3. 6 billion nucleotides

Question 43. A collection of organisms, usually viruses, bacteria, or yeast, which have been transformed by the addition of extra genes from another species

  1. Gene replication
  2. Gene cloning
  3. Gene pool
  4. Gene library.

Answer: 4. Gene library.

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Question 44. The colony hybridization procedure for the identification of plasmid clones is called

  1. Southern blotting
  2. Grunstcin-Hogncss assay
  3. DNA probes
  4. Molecular assay.

Answer: 2. Grunstcin-Hogncss assay

Question 45. TATAATG sequence near the RNA start point of the prokaryotic promoter is

  1. Nicks
  2. DNA marker
  3. Palindrome
  4. Pribnow box.

Answer: 4. Pribnow box.

Question 46. Which one of the following scientists got the Nobel Prize for his invention of polymerase chain reaction (PCR)?

  1. F. Sanger
  2. Paul Berg
  3. Alec Jeffreys
  4. Kary B. Mullis.

Answer: 4. Kary B. Mullis.

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Question 47. An artificial process of infecting cells with naked viral DNA is:

  1. Translation
  2. Transduction
  3. Transfection
  4. Transgenic.

Answer: 3. Transfection

Question 48. Producing a ‘giant mouse’ in the laboratory was possible through:

  1. Gene mutation
  2. Gene duplication
  3. Gene synthesis
  4. Gene manipulation.

Answer: 4. Gene manipulation.

Question 49. One of the following is transgenic organisms:

  1. Holly sheep and Flavr savr tomato
  2. Holly sheep and Cotton Bt
  3. Dolly Sheep and Cotton Ct
  4. Flavr savr tomato and Cotton Bt.

Answer: 4. Flavr savr tomato and Cotton Bt.

Question 50. An environmental agent that triggers transcription from an operon is a

  1. Depressor
  2. Inducer
  3. Regulator
  4. Controlling element.

Answer: 2. Inducer

Question 51. Which of the following would not be used in preparing recombinant DNA?

  1. Plasmids
  2. Pages
  3. Restriction enzymes
  4. DNA polymerase 3

Answer: 4. DNA polymerase 3

Question 52. The ability to absorb foreign DNA is

  1. Sexduction
  2. Competence
  3. Hfr
  4. Transduction.

Answer: 2. Competence

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Question 53. RNA processing is

  1. An event that occurs after RNA transcribed
  2. The rejection of old, worn-out RNA
  3. An event that occurs before RNA is transcribed
  4. Both (1) and (3).

Answer: 1. An event that occurs after RNA transcribed

Question 54. There are special proteins that help to open up the DNA double helix in front of the replication fork. These proteins are

  1. DNA gyrase
  2. DNA polymerase 1
  3. DNA ligase
  4. DNA topoisomerase.

Answer: 1. DNA gyrase

Question 55. Who got the Nobel prize in medicine for their discovery of ‘G-proteins’ and the role of these proteins in the cells :

  1. Robert and Philip Sharp
  2. Gilman and Rodbell
  3. Fischer and Krebs
  4. Ervin Nahar and Bert Sakmann.

Answer: 2. Gilman and Rodbell

Question 56. A gene is made up of

  1. DNA
  2. RNA
  3. Either DNA or RNA
  4. Amino acids.

Answer: 3. Either DNA or RNA

Question 57. The message from nuclear DNA for the synthesis of specific cytoplasmic proteins is carried by

  1. mRNA
  2. t-RNA
  3. s-RNA
  4. rRNA.

Answer: 1. mRNA

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Question 58. Exonucleases cleaving nucleotides one at a time from the end of the polynucleotide chain are

  1. Specific for 5’end of RNA strand
  2. Specific for 3′ end of RNA strand
  3. Specific for both 5′ and 3′ ends of nucleotide strands.
  4. Non-specific for 5′ and 3′ ends of nucleotide strand.

Answer: 3. Specific for both 5′ and 3′ ends of nucleotide strands.

Question 59. Complete transduction is

  1. Transfer of whole genome with the help of virus
  2. Picking up of one or more genes by phage and transferring it to a second host
  3. Integration of genes brought by viral particles into the genome of a new host.
  4. Both 2 and 3.

Answer: 3. Integration of genes brought by viral particles into the genome of a new host.

Question 60. The inducible/lac operon system operates in

  1. Catabolic pathway
  2. Anabolic pathway
  3. Intermediate metabolism
  4. All the above.

Answer: 1. Catabolic pathway

Question 61. Nif genes is a group of proteins

  1. 15 genes
  2. 15 nucleotides
  3. 15 proteins
  4. 10 genes.

Answer: 1. 15 genes

Question 62. Nitrogen-fixing genes are called

  1. Nif genes
  2. Plasmid genes
  3. Leg genes
  4. Cos genes

Answer: 1. Nif genes

Biotechnology Principles and Processes NEET Question 63. Humulin is a

  1. Pig insulin
  2. Human insulin
  3. Viral insulin
  4. Human clone

Answer: 2. Human insulin

Question 64. Mishandling of genetic engineering may cause

  1. Genetic erosion
  2. Green revolution
  3. Silver revolution
  4. White revolution.

Answer: 1. Genetic erosion

NEET Important Questions On Biotechnology

Question 65. Genetic engineering is helpful in

  1. Gene regulation
  2. Gene translation
  3. Gene therapy
  4. Alcohol production.

Answer: 3. Gene therapy

Question 66. The Human Genome Project was the thought of:

  1. Jean Dausset
  2. Watson
  3. Crick
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Jean Dausset

Question 67. The genome map was produced under the human genome project in

  1. 1992
  2. 1994
  3. 1996
  4. 2000.

Answer: 2. 1994

Question 68. The colonies of recombinant bacteria appear white in contrast to the blue colonies of non-recombinant bacteria because of:

  1. Insertional inactivation of alpha-galactosidase in non-recombinant bacteria
  2. Insertional inactivation of alpha-galactosidase in recombinant bacteria
  3. Inactivation of glycosidase enzyme in recombinant bacteria
  4. Non-recombinant bacteria containing beta-galactosidase

Answer: 3. Inactivation of glycosidase enzyme in recombinant bacteria

Question 69. Genes that are involved in turning on or off the transcription of a set of structural genes are called

  1. Polymorphic genes
  2. Operator genes
  3. Redundant genes
  4. Regulatory genes

Answer: 2. Operator genes

Question 70. DNA fingerprinting method is very useful for:

  1. DNA tests for identity and relationships
  2. Forensic studies
  3. Polymorphism
  4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 71. Transgenic organisms are produced by

  1. Deleting sex chromosomes
  2. Inducing gene mutations
  3. Introducing foreign genes
  4. Arresting spindle fiber formation.

Answer: 3. Introducing foreign genes

Question 72. The basis for DNA fingerprinting is

  1. Occurrence of restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP)
  2. Phenotypic differences between individuals
  3. Availability of cloned DNA
  4. Knowledge of human karyotype.

Answer: 1. Occurrence of restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP)

Question 73. Genetically bacteria have been successfully used in the commercial production of:

  1. Human insulin
  2. Testosterone
  3. Thyroxine
  4. Melatonin.

Answer: 1. Human insulin

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Question 74. Which of the following is associated with genetic engineering?

  1. Plastids
  2. Plasmids
  3. Mutations
  4. Hybrid vigor.

Answer: 2. Plasmids

Question 75. PCR stands for:

  1. Polymerase Cyclic Reaction
  2. Polymerase Chain Reaction
  3. Polyethyl Cytosine Reaction
  4. Polymerization Chain Reaction.

Answer: 2. Polymerase Chain Reaction

Question 76. This segment of DNA has restriction sites 1 and 2 which create restriction fragments a, b, and c. Which of the following gel (s) produced by electrophoresis would represent the separation and identity of these fragments?

Principles And Processes Of Biotechnology Segment Of DNA Has Restriction Sites

Answer: 2

Question 77. DNA fragments generated by the restriction endonu¬cleases in a chemical reaction can be separated by

  1. Polymerase chain reaction
  2. Electrophoresis
  3. Restriction mapping
  4. Centrifugation

Answer: 2. Electrophoresis

Question 78. Yeast has become important in genetic engineering because it:

  1. Has plasmids that can be genetically engineered
  2. Allows the study of eukaryotic gene regulation and expression
  3. Grows readily and rapidly in the laboratory
  4. All of the above

Answer: 4. All of the above

Question 79. The gene for cloning may be chemically synthesized:

  1. When the exact sequence of nucleotides is known
  2. Through the use of restriction enzymes and gel electrophoresis to separate restriction fragments
  3. By the Sanger method
  4. By making complementary DNA from genes without introns.

Answer: 1. When the exact sequence of nucleotides is known

NEET Important Questions On Biotechnology

Question 80. You are attempting to introduce a gene that imparts larval moth resistance to bean plants. Which of the following vectors are you most likely to use?

  1. Phage DNA
  2. Bacterial plasmid
  3. Ti plasmid
  4. Yeast plasmid.

Answer: 3. Ti plasmid

Question 81. The genome of Caenorhabditis elegant consists of:

  1. 3 billion base pairs and 30,000 genes
  2. 12 million base pairs and 6,000 genes
  3. 4.7 million base pairs and 4,000 genes
  4. 97 million base pairs and 18,000 genes
  5. 180 million base pairs and 13,000 genes.

Answer: 4. 180 million base pairs and 13,000 genes.

Question 82. Taq polymerase enzyme is found in

  1. Thermits aqucitecus
  2. E.coli
  3. Pseudomonas
  4. Agrobacterium.

Answer: 1. Thermits aqucitecus

Biotechnology Principles and Processes MCQs Question 83. Petroleum-lysing bacteria are being engineered for the removal of oil spills. What is the most realistic danger of these bacteria to the environment?

  1. Mutations leading to the production of a strain pathogenic to humans
  2. Extinction of natural microbes due to the competitive advantage of the “petro-bacterium”
  3. Destruction of natural oil deposits
  4. Poisoning of the food chain.

Answer: 3. Destruction of natural oil deposits

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Question 84. An attenuated virus:

  1. Is a virus that is non-pathogenic
  2. In an elongated viral particle
  3. Can transfer recombinant DNA to other viruses
  4. Will not produce an immune response.

Answer: 1. Is a virus that is non-pathogenic

Question 85. Which of the following is a difficulty in getting prokaryotic cells to express eukaryotic genes?

  1. The signals that control gene expression are different and prokaryotic promoter regions must be added to the vector
  2. The genetic code differs between the two because prokaryotes substitute the base uracil for thymine
  3. Prokaryotic cells cannot transcribe introns because their genes do not have them
  4. The ribosomes of prokaryotes are not large enough to handle long eukaryotic genes.

Answer: 1. The signals that control gene expression are different and prokaryotic promoter regions must be added to the vector

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