MPBSE Class 12 Physics Ohm’s Law Combination Of Resistances Notes

Electric Current and Ohm’s Law Combination Of Resistances

Several resistances or resistors such as light bulbs, fans, pumps, etc. may bo Joined In a network variously for various purposes.

A combination of resistances can ho of three types:

Aeries combination,

Parallel combination

Mixed combination.

Equivalent resistance:

If a single resistance is used Instead of a combination of resistances, to keep the current unchanged in the circuit, then that single resistance is called the equivalent resistance of the combination.

Ohm’S Law Class 12 Physics Notes

Series Combination of Resistances:

A number of resistances are said to be connected In scries if they are connected end to end consecutively so that the same current flows through each resistance when a potential difference is applied across the combination.

Calculation of equivalent resistance: Three resistances R1, R2, and R3 arc connected in series in between the two points A and D of on electrical circuit.

Let VA, VB, VC, and VD be the potentials at points A, B, C, and D respectively.

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current and Ohm's Law Calculation of equivalent resistance

If I am the current flowing in the circuit, then according to Ohm’s law

VA-VB = IR1….(1)

VB – VC = IR2…..(2)

VC – VD = IR3….(3)

Adding (1), (2) and (3) we have,

VA-VD = I(R1+ R2+R3)…..(4)

If R be the equivalent resistance of the combination and if it is connected between die points A and D, the main current flowing in the circuit will remain die same. So

VA-VD = IR…..(5)

From (4) and (5) we have

R = R1 + R2 + R3

Combination Of Resistances Class 12 Notes

Similarly, if n number of resistances are connected in series instead of the three resistances then,

⇒ \(R=R_1+R_2+R_3^{\wedge}+\cdots+R_n=\sum_{i=1}^n R_i\)….(6)

So, the equivalent resistance of a series combination = the sum of the individual resistances.

A few characteristics of the series combination of resistances:

The same current flows through each resistance.

The total potential difference across the combination is equal to the sum of the individual potential difference across each resistance.

Since the current is constant, an individual potential difference is directly proportional to the individual resistance.

Unit 2 Current Electricity Chapter 1 Electric Current and Ohm’s Law Combination Of Resistances Numerical Examples

Example 1. Three resistances of magnitudes 20Ω, 30Ω, and 40Ω, are connected in series,

  1. What is the equivalent resistance?
  2. If the potential difference across the resistance 20 A is 1 V, calculate the potential difference across the other two resistances and also the total potential difference across the combination.

Solution:

1. Equivalent resistance, R = 20 + 30 + 40

= 90Ω

2. For the resistance of 20Ω

⇒ \(\text { current, } I=\frac{\text { potential difference }}{\text { resistance }}=\frac{1}{20} \mathrm{~A}\)

Since it is a series combination, the current everywhere is \(\frac{1}{20}\)A.

∴ The potential difference across 30Ω resistance

⇒ \(\frac{1}{20} \times 30\)

= 1.5 V

and across the 40Ω resistance = \(\frac{1}{20} \times 40\)

= 2.0 V

⇒ \(\frac{1}{20} \times 90\)

= 4.5 V

Mpbse Class 12 Physics Ohm’S Law Solutions

Example 2. \(\rho_1 \text { and } \rho_2\) are the resistivities of the materials of two wires of the same dimensions. What will be the equivalent resistivity of the series combination of the two wires?
Solution:

Let l be the length and A be the cross-sectional area of each wire.

The equivalent resistance in series combination is

⇒ \(R=R_1+R_2=\rho_1 \frac{l}{A}+\rho_2 \frac{l}{A}=\left(\rho_1+\rho_2\right) \frac{l}{A}\)….(1)

In the series combination, the length of the conductor =21; cross-sectional area = A.

Let the equivalent resistivity be \(\rho\)

∴ \(R=\rho \frac{2 l}{A}\)…..(2)

Comparing (1) and (2) we have,

⇒ \(\rho \frac{2 l}{A}=\left(\rho_1+\rho_2\right) \frac{l}{A} \quad \text { or, } \rho=\frac{\rho_1+\rho_2}{2}\)

Parallel Combination of Resistances:

Two or more resistors are said to be connected in parallel if one end of each is connected to a common point, and the other end to another point.

When this combination is joined in a circuit, the main current is distributed among the resistors, but the potential difference across each is the same

Parallel And Series Combination Of Resistances Class 12

Calculation of equivalent resistance: Three resistances R1, R2, and R3 are connected in parallel in between two common points A and B of an electrical circuit. Let VA and VB be the potentials at points A and B respectively.

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current and Ohm's Law Calculation of equivalent resistance.

A current I is divided into three parts through these resistances.

I = I1 +I2+ I3…(1)

A and B are the common terminals of each of the three resistances. So according to Ohm’s law,

For the resistance \(R_1, I_1=\frac{V_A-V_B}{R_1}\)….(2)

For the resistance \(R_2, I_2=\frac{V_A-V_B}{R_2}\)…..(3)

For the resistance \(R_3, I_3=\frac{V_A-V_B}{R_3}\)….(4)

Adding (2), (3) and (4) we get,

⇒ \(I_1+I_2+I_3=\left(V_A-V_B\right)\left(\frac{1}{R_1}+\frac{1}{R_2}+\frac{1}{R_3}\right)\)

or, \(I=\left(V_A-V_B\right)\left(\frac{1}{R_1}+\frac{1}{R_2}+\frac{1}{R_3}\right)\)….(5)

If R is the equivalent resistance of the combination and if it is connected between points A and B, the main current flow in the circuit will remain the same. So

⇒ \(I_1+I_2+I_3=\left(V_A-V_B\right)\left(\frac{1}{R_1}+\frac{1}{R_2}+\frac{1}{R_3}\right)\)…(6)

From (5) and (6) we get \(\frac{1}{R}=\frac{1}{R_1}+\frac{1}{R_2}+\frac{1}{R_3}\)

Similarly, if n number of resistances are connected in parallel
instead of the three resistances, we have

⇒ \(\frac{1}{R}=\frac{1}{R_1}+\frac{1}{R_2}+\frac{1}{R_3}+\cdots+\frac{1}{R_n}=\sum_{i=1}^n \frac{1}{R_i}\)…(7)

So, the reciprocal of the equivalent resistance of the parallel combination = the sum of the reciprocals of the individual resistances.

Parallel And Series Combination Of Resistances Class 12

Calculation of current in different resistances: If R be the equivalent resistance of a parallel combination connected between two points A and B of the circuit, the main current is given by,

⇒ \(I=\frac{V_A-V_B}{R} \text { or, } V_A-V_B=I R\)

The potential difference of each resistance is ( VA– VB).

So, the current flowing through Rl is

⇒ \(I_1=\frac{V_A-V_B}{R_1}=\frac{I \cdot R}{R_1}=I \cdot \frac{R}{R_1}\)

This rule is applicable to each resistance of the parallel combination.

So, the current flowing through any resistance

⇒ \(\text { main current } \times \frac{\text { equivalent resistance }}{\text { corresponding resistance }}\)

A few characteristics of parallel combinations of resistances:

1. The potential difference across each resistance is the same.

2. \(\frac{1}{R}=\frac{1}{R_1}+\frac{1}{R_2}+\cdots ; \text { so } \frac{1}{R}\) is greater than each of \(\frac{1}{R_1}+\frac{1}{R_2}+….\) etc. Therefore, the value of R is less than each of R1, R2….etc i.e., the equivalent resistance is less than each of the resistances in the combination.

3. Total ament through the parallel combination is the sum of the individual currents through the resistances.

4. Since the potential difference across each resistance Is constant, individual currents are Inversely proportional to the individual resistances.

In domestic electrical circuits, appliances such as bulbs, electric fan, heaters, etc. operate with the same potential difference (220 V), So these are connected in parallel.

Special case (parallel combination of two resistances): Suppose two resistances R1 and R2, are connected in parallel. Let their equivalent resistance be R. Then,

⇒ \(\frac{1}{R}=\frac{1}{R_1}+\frac{1}{R_2} \quad \text { or, } R=\frac{R_1 R_2}{R_1+R_2}\)

The potential difference across the two ends of the combination,

⇒ \(V=I R=I \frac{R_1 R_2}{R_1+R_2}\)

A potential difference of each resistance = V.

So, current flowing through \(R_1, I_1=\frac{V}{R_1}=I \cdot \frac{R_2}{R_1+R_2}\)

Similarly, current flowing through \(R_2, I_2=I \cdot \frac{R_1}{R_1+R_2}\)

So, current flowing through a resistance

⇒ \(=\text { main current } \times \frac{\text { other resistance }}{\text { sum of the two resistances }}\)

This formula will often be found handy in numerical calculations

Electric Current And Resistance Class 12 Notes

Electric Current and Ohm’s Law Numerical Examples

Example 1. ABC is a triangle formed by wires. The resistances of the sides AB, BC, and CA are respectively 40Ω, 60Ω and 100Ω. What is the equivalent resistance between points A and B?

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current and Ohm's Law Triangle Formed

Solution:

Along the path ACD the two resistances 100Ω and 60Ω are connected in series. So the equivalent resistance of the ACD

= 100 + 60

= 160Ω.

Again, the resistance 40Ω of the side All Is connected In parallel with the path ACB, So the equivalent resistance between the two points A and B is

⇒ \(R=\frac{160 \times 40}{160+40}=\frac{160 \times 40}{200}=32 \Omega\)

Example 2. Determine the equivalent resistance between points A and B

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current and Ohm's Law Equivalent Resistance

Solution:

The equivalent resistance of the path ADC = 3 + 7 = 10Ω.

With the path ADC, the 10Ω resistance of the diagonal AC Is connected in parallel.

So, the equivalent resistance of AD, DC, and AC

⇒ \(\frac{10 \times 10}{10+10}=5 \Omega \text {. }\)

With this 5Ω resistance, the 5Ω resistance of the side DC Is connected In series. So the equivalent resistance of 5 ft and DC

= 5 + 5

= 10Ω

Now, the 10Ω resistance of AD is also In, parallel with the above equivalent resistance 10Ω.

So, the equivalent resistance between A and B is

⇒ \(R=\frac{10 \times 10}{10+10}=5 \Omega\)

Electric Current And Resistance Class 12 Notes

Example 3. The two circuits draw equal currents from the battery. But the current through the resistance R in the second circuit is \(\frac{1}{10}\)th of that the first circuit. Determine the values of R1 and R2.

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current and Ohm's Law Equal Currents From The Battery

Solution:

Current drawn from the battery in first case,

⇒ \(I_1=\frac{E}{R}\)…..(1)

Current drawn from the battery in the second case,

⇒ \(I_2=\frac{\text { total emf }}{\text { total resistance }}=\frac{E}{R_1+\frac{R R_2}{R+R_2}}\) [∵ R1 is in series with the parallel combination of R and R2 ]

So, \(I_2=\frac{E\left(R+R_2\right)}{R_1 R+R_1 R_2+R R_2}\)….(2)

Accordingly, \(I_1=I_2 \quad \text { or, } \frac{E}{R}=\frac{E\left(R+R_2\right)}{R_1 R+R_1 R_2+R R_2}\)

or, R1R + R1R2 + RR2 = R2 + RR2

or, R2-R1R- R1R2 = 0 ….(3)

Now, current through the resistance R,

⇒ \(I_R=I_2 \frac{R_2}{R+R_2}\)…(4)

It is given that, \(I_R=\frac{I_1}{10} \quad \text { or, } I_R=\frac{I_2}{10} \quad\left(… I_1=I_2\right)\)

or, \(\frac{I_2 R_2}{R+R_2}=\frac{I_2}{10} \text { [from equation (4)] }\)

or, \(10 R_2=R+R_2 \quad \text { or, } R_2=\frac{R}{9}=0.11 R\)

Putting R2 in equation (3), we get

⇒ \(R^2-R_1 R-R_1 \frac{R}{9}=0 \quad \text { or, } R_1 \frac{10 R}{9}=R^2\)

⇒ \(R_1=\frac{9}{10} R=0.9 R\)

Required resistance, R2 = 0.117R and 7R1 = 0.9R

Mpbse Class 12 Physics Ohm’S Law Solutions

Example 4. You are given several identical resistances, each of value R = 10Ω and each capable of carrying a maximum combination of these resistances to obtain a resistance of 5Ω which can carry a current of 4 A. Find the minimum number of resistances of the Type R that will be required.
Solution:

The resistances have to be connected in a series of parallel combinations. Since each resistance can carry a current of 1 A, to pass a 4 A current, we need four paths in parallel. Let r be the resistance of each path.

The equivalent resistance of 4 parallel paths will be \(\frac{r}{4}\).

According to the given problem,

⇒ \(\frac{r}{4}\) = 5

∴ r = 5 x 4

= 20Ω

In order to have 20Ω resistance in each path, two resistances each of resistance 10Ω have to be connected in series.

Since there are four paths, the total number of resistances required

=2 x 4

= 8.

Example 5. A wire of uniform cross-section and length l has a resistance of 16Ω. It is cut into four equal parts. Each part is stretched uniformly to length l and all four stretched parts are connected in parallel. Calculate the total resistance of the combination so formed. Assume that the stretching of the wire does not cause any change in the density of its material.
Solution:

Let the cross-section of the wire change from A to Aj when it is cut into four parts.

As density remains constant, so volume also remains constant.

Volume of each part before stretching = volume of each part after stretching

or, \(\frac{A l}{4}=A_1 l \quad \text { or, } A_1=\frac{A}{4}\)

So resistance of each part, \(R_1=\frac{\rho l}{\frac{A}{4}}=\frac{4 \rho l}{A}\)

Therefore, the equivalent resistance of the parallel combination,

⇒ \(R_{\mathrm{eq}}=\frac{R_1}{4}=\frac{\rho l}{A}=16 \Omega\) [∵ initial resistance = \(\frac{\rho l}{A}=16 \Omega\)]

MPBSE Class 12 Physics Electric Current and Ohm’s Law Shunt Notes

Mpbse Class 12 Physics Ohm’s Law Solutions

Current Electricity

Electric Current and Ohm’s Law Shunt

For every electrical instrument, the current flowing through it has a maximum permissible limit.

If the current exceeds the limit, there is a possibility of damage to the instrument.

To protect sensitive instruments like galvanometers and ammeters against possible damages due to heavy current passing through them, an alternative passage is provided as an inbuilt device within these instruments such that a major part of the main current in the circuit passes through this alternative route and a very small part through the instrument.

This alternative passage which is nothing but a low resistance connected in parallel with the instrument is called a shunt.

The arrangement of a shunt where a low resistance S (shunt) is connected in parallel with a galvanometer of resistance G.

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current And Ohm's Law Shunt

Let I be the main current, IG be the current through the galvanometer, and Is be the current through the shunt.

So, \(I=I_G+I_S\)

Now the equivalent resistance of the combination of the galvanometer and the shunt = \(\frac{G S}{G+S}\)

So, \(V_A-V_B=I \cdot \frac{G S}{G+S}\)

∴ \(I_G=\frac{V_A-V_B}{G}=I \cdot \frac{S}{S+G}\)…(2)

Mpbse Class 12 Physics Ohm’s Law Solutions

and \(I_S=\frac{V_A-V_B}{S}\)

= \(I \cdot \frac{G}{S+G}\) ….(3)

From equations (2) and (3) we get \(\frac{I_G}{I_S}=\frac{S}{G}\)

Particularly, if S << G, then IG << Is.

The ratio of the main current and the current passing through the galvanometer is known as the multiplying factor or power of a shunt, denoted by n

∴ \(\frac{I}{I_G}=n \quad \text { or, } \frac{S}{G+S}=\frac{1}{n} \text { [from equation (2)] }\)

or, \(\frac{S}{G}=\frac{1}{n-1} \quad \text { or, } S=\frac{G}{n-1}\)…(4)

Thus the shunt resistance can be adjusted according to the demand of n depending on G.

The shunt has another utility. With the help of the shunt, the galvanometer can almost accurately record the current flowing through the circuit. When a high-resistance galvanometer is connected to a circuit, the current drops considerably.

But with a shunt which is used in parallel, the equivalent resistance is reduced even below S. So, the main current of the circuit remains practically unchanged. Therefore, it becomes possible to measure the main current almost correctly.

Current Electricity Electric Current and Ohm’s Law Shunt Numerical Examples

Example 1. To reduce the action of a galvanometer by 25 times, a shunt is added to it. If the galvanometer resistance is 1000 ft, what is the resistance of the shunt? An ammeter is used to measure the current and a voltmeter
Solution:

⇒ \(I_G=I \cdot \frac{S}{S+G} \quad \text { or, } \frac{I_G}{I}=\frac{S}{S+G}\)

According to the question \(\frac{I_G}{I}=\frac{1}{25}\)

∴ \(\frac{1}{25}=\frac{S}{S+G} \quad \text { or, } 25 S=S+G \quad \text { or, } 24 S=1000\)

or, \(S=\frac{1000}{24}=41.67 \Omega\)

Example 2. If a shunt of 1Ω Is connected to a galvanometer of resistance 99Ω, what fraction of the main current will flow through the galvanometer?
Solution:

The galvanometer resistance G and the shunt resistance S are connected in parallel. So the galvanometer current

⇒ \(I_G=I \cdot \frac{S}{S+G} \quad[I=\text { main current }]\)

or, \(\frac{I_G}{I}=\frac{S}{S+G}=\frac{1}{1+99}=\frac{1}{100}=1 \%\)

i.e., 1% of the main current will flow through the galvanometer.

Ohm’S Law Class 12 Notes

Example 3. A battery of internal resistance zero is connected to a galvanometer of resistance 80Ω and a resistance of 20Ω in series. A current flows through the galvanometer. If a shunt of 1Ω resistance is connected to the galvanometer, show that the current that will now flow through the galvanometer becomes \(\frac{1}{17}\) of the previous current.
Solution:

The main current before adding the shunt to the circuit is

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current And Ohm's Law A Battery Of Internal Resistance

⇒ \(I=\frac{E}{80+20}=\frac{E}{100}\)

After adding the shunt the main current is

⇒ \(I^{\prime}=\frac{E}{\frac{80 \times 1}{80+1}+20}=\frac{E \times 81}{80+20 \times 81}\)

So, \(I_G=I^{\prime} \cdot \frac{S}{S+G}=I^{\prime} \cdot \frac{1}{80+1}=I^{\prime} \times \frac{1}{81}=\frac{E}{80+20 \times 81}\)

∴ \(\frac{I_G}{I}=\frac{E}{80+20 \times 81} \times \frac{100}{E}=\frac{100}{20(4+81)}=\frac{100}{20 \times 85}=\frac{1}{17}\)

i.e., \(I_G=\frac{1}{17} I\)

Connection of Ammeter and Voltmeter in a Circuit:

An ammeter is used to measure the current and a voltmeter is used to measure the potential difference between any two points of a circuit.

Milliammeters and ammeters are used to measure small currents while millivoltmeters and microvoltmeters are used to measure small potential differences.

Connection of ammeter:

An ammeter is connected an electrical circuit, so that it may give the reading of the current when the circuit current passes through it. The main current decreases a little due to the resistance of the ammeter. To overcome this disadvantage a low-resistance ammeter should be used

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current and Ohm's Law Connection Of Ammeter

Connection of voltmeter: A voltmeter of resistance Rv is inserted in a parallel connection between the two points of the circuit across which the potentia difference is to be measured. The potential difference across the voltmeter is recorded as that between the two points. But there is a difficulty in this arrangement. Before inserting the voltmeter the resistance between the points A and B was R.

After joining the voltmeter, the resistance between points A and B is equal to the equivalent resistance of R and Rv, which is always less than R.

Electric Current Class 12 Physics Notes

So, the main current increases i.e., the potential difference between A and B also increases. Hence it is desirable that Rv should be much greater than R.

In that case, the equivalent resistance becomes almost equal to R and the slight increase of the potential difference can be ignored. So, the voltmeter is an instrument having a very high resistance and is connected in parallel in an electrical circuit.

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current And Ohm's Law Connection Of Voltmeter

Current Electricity

Electric Current and Ohm’s Law Numerical Examples

Example 1. The internal resistance of a battery of 100 V is 5fl. j When the emf of the battery is measured by a voltmeter 20% error is found. What is the resistance of the voltmeter?
Solution:

Suppose, the resistance of the voltmeter is R. Its reading is the potential difference of the external circuit.

According to the question, voltmeter reading =IR = 80% of 100 V = 80 V

∴ Lost volt =Ir = 100-80 = 20 V

∴ \(\frac{I R}{I r}=\frac{80}{20} \quad \text { or, } \frac{R}{r}=4\)

or, R = 4r

= 4 x 5

= 20Ω

Electric Current Class 12 Physics Notes

Example 2. In a supply line of 100 V, there is a resistance of 1000Ω. In between one terminal of the resistance and its point, a voltmeter is connected which gives a reading of 40 V. Determine the resistance of the voltmeter
Solution:

Suppose, the resistance of the voltmeter is R. I C is the midpoint of the resistance AB.

So, resistance of each portion AC and BC = \(\frac{1000}{2}\)

= 500Ω

Since the reading of the voltmeter = 40 V,

∴ VA – VC = 40V,

SO VC– VB = 100 – 40

= 60V

Now, the main current of the circuit,

⇒ \(I=\frac{V_C-V_B}{\text { resistance of } B C}=\frac{60}{500}=0.12 \mathrm{~A}\)

Again, current in the resistance AC,

⇒ \(I^{\prime}=\frac{V_A-V_C}{\text { resistance of } A C}\)

= \(\frac{40}{500}\)

= 0.08A

So, current in the voltmeter

IV = I-V

= 0.12 – 0.08

= 0.04 A

Therefore, the resistance of the voltmeter,

⇒ \(R=\frac{V_A-V_C}{I_V}=\frac{40}{0.04}=1000 \Omega\)

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current and Ohm's Law The Resistance Of The Voltmeter

Shunt In Electric Circuits Class 12

Example 3. When a voltmeter of resistance 100Ω is connected. with an electric cell, the reading of the voltmeter Is 2 V. When the cell is connected with a resistance of 15Ω, an ammeter of resistance 1Ω gives the reading of 0.1 A. Determine the emf of the cell.
Solution:

In the first circuit

⇒ \(\text { current, } I_1=\frac{\text { reading of the voltmeter }}{\text { resistance of the voltmeter }}=\frac{2}{100}=0.02 \mathrm{~A}\)

If the die emf of the cell is E and the internal resistance is r then,

lost volt = I1r

= 0.02r

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current And Ohm's Law Voltmeter Of Resistance

i.e., E = 2 + 0.02r…(1)

Now, in the second circuit

⇒ \(\text { current, } I_2=\frac{E}{r+15+1}\)

or, \(0.1=\frac{E}{r+16}\)

or, E = 0.1r + 1.6…(2)

From the equations (1) and (2) we have,

2 + 0.02r = 0.1r+ 1.6

or, 0.08r = 0.4

or, \(r=\frac{0.4}{0.08}=5 \Omega\)

So, from (1), E = 2 + 0.02 x 5

= 2 + 0.1

= 2.1V

MPBSE Class 12 Physics Ohm’s Law Multiple Choice Question And Answers

Class 12 Physics Ohm’s Law Multiple Choice Question And Answers

Question 1. Two copper wires have a ratio of 1: 4 between their diameters. If the same current passes through both of them, the drift velocity of the electrons will be in the ratio of

  1. 16:1
  2. 4: 1
  3. 1:4
  4. 1:16

Answer: 1. 16:1

Question 2. A conductor of uniform cross-section is carrying a current of 1 ampere. The number of free electrons flowing across the cross-section of the conductor per second is

  1. 6.25 x 1018
  2. 6.25 x 1017
  3. 6.25 X 1016
  4. 6.025 x 1023

Answer: 1. 6.25 x 1018

1 A electric current = the flow of 1 C charge through the cross-sectional area of the conductor in 1 second.

∴ Number of free electrons flowing per second

⇒ \(\frac{1 \mathrm{C}}{\text { charge of an electron }}\)

= \(\frac{1 \mathrm{C}}{1.6 \times 10^{-19} \mathrm{C}}\)

= \(6.25 \times 10^{18}\)

The option 1 is correct.

Question 3. In the circuit,

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current and Ohm's Law In Circuit

  1. I = 3A
  2. I1 = 2A
  3. I2 = 1A
  4. VAB = 8V

Answer:

1. I = 3A

2. I1 = 2A

3. I2 = 1A

Ohm’S Law Mcq Class 12 Physics

Question 4. In the circuit,

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Chapter 1 Electric Current and Ohm's Law Circuit

  1. I = 1 A
  2. I = \(\frac{4}{3}\)A
  3. VAB = 4 V
  4. VAB = 3 V

Answer:

1. I = 1 A

4. VAB = 3 V

Class 12 Physics Ohm’s Law MCQs Question 5. If I = 2 A in the circuit

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current and Ohm's Law The Circuit

  1. E = 5 V
  2. I1 = 1.5 A
  3. I2 = 0.5 A
  4. VAB = 3 V

Answer:

1. E = 5 V

2. I1 = 1.5 A

3. I2 = 0.5 A

4. VAB = 3 V

Ohm’S Law Mcq Class 12 Physics

Question 6. If the resistance of the rheostat Rh is gradually increased in the circuit,

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current and Ohm's Law The Resistance Of The Rehostar

  1. I will rise gradually
  2. I will fall gradually
  3. I1 will rise gradually
  4. I1 will fall gradually

Answer:

2. I will fall gradually

3. I1 will rise gradually

Question 7. Which of the following observations is correct if the galvanometer resistance is 200Ω in the circuit

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current and Ohm's Law Galvanometer Resistance

  1. S = 5Ω, I = 1.5 A,IG = 36.6 mA
  2. S = 1Ω, I = 1.5 A, IG = 14.9 mA
  3. S = 2Ω, I = 2 A, IG = 19.8 mA
  4. S = 3Ω, I = 2 A, IG = 29.6 mA

Answer:

1. S = 5Ω, I = 1.5 A,IG = 36.6 mA

3. S = 2Ω, I = 2 A, IG = 19.8 mA

4. S = 3Ω, I = 2 A, IG = 29.6 mA

Question 8. Brown, black, orange, and gold are the respective colors of the characteristic rings on a carbon resistor. Which of the following values of its resistance are definitely wrong?

  1. 10.6 kΩ
  2. 10.2 kΩ
  3. 9.8 kΩ
  4. 9.4 kΩ

Answer:

1. 10.6 kΩ

4. 9.4 kΩ

Mpbse Class 12 Physics Ohm’S Law Mcqs

Question 9. Three 4Ω resistances can be connected in different combinations. The probable values of the equivalent resistance are

  1. 12Ω
  2. \(\frac{10}{3}\)Ω
  3. \(\frac{4}{3}\)Ω

Answer:

1. 12Ω

2. 6Ω

4. \(\frac{4}{3}\)Ω

Class 12 Physics Ohm’s Law MCQs  Question 10. E1, E2, and r1,r2 are respectively, the emf’s and internal resistances of two cells. The current through an external resistance R, when it is connected to the first cell, is equal to that when it is connected to the second. Here, the probable relations are

  1. E1 = E2,r1 = r2
  2. E1 > E2, r1 > r2
  3. E1 < E2, r1 < r2
  4. E1 > E2, r1 < r2

Answer:

1. E1 = E2,r1 = r2

2. E1 > E2, r1 > r2

3. E1 < E2,r1 < r2

Question 11. A voltmeter and an ammeter are connected in series to an ideal cell of emf E. The voltmeter reading is V and the ammeter reading is I. Choose the correct options.

  1. The voltmeter resistance is \(\frac{V}{I}\)
  2. The potential difference across the ammeter is (E- V)
  3. V<E
  4. Voltmeter resistance + ammeter resistance = \(\frac{E}{I}\)

Answer:

1. The voltmeter resistance is \(\frac{V}{I}\)

2. The potential difference across the ammeter is (E- V)

3. V

Ohm’S Law Multiple Choice Questions

Question 12. Part of a circuit. Which points have the potential same as that of point m?

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current and Ohm's Law A Circuit

  1. p
  2. r
  3. t
  4. u

Answer:

2. r

3. t

Question 13. A galvanometer has a resistance of 100Ω and a full-scale range of 50μA. It can be used as a voltmeter or as a higher range ammeter, provided a resistance is added to it. Pick the correct range and resistance combination(s).

  1. 50 V range with 10kΩ resistance in series
  2. 10 V range with 200 kΩ .resistance in series
  3. 5 mA range with 1Ω resistance in parallel
  4. 10 mA range with 1Ω resistance in parallel

Answer:

2. 10 V range with 200 kΩ .resistance in series

3. 5 mA range with 1Ω resistance in parallel

Question 14. A straight conductor AB lies along the axis of a hollow metal cylinder, which is connected to the earth through a conductor C. A quantity of charge will flow through C if

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current and Ohm's Law Hollow Metal Cylinder

  1. A Current begins to flow through AB
  2. The current through AB is reversed
  3. AB is removed and a beam of protons flows in its place
  4. AB is removed, and a beam of electrons flows in its place

Answer:

3. AB is removed and a beam of protons flows in its place

4. AB is removed, and a beam of electrons flows in its place

Ohm’S Law Multiple Choice Questions

Class 12 Physics Ohm’s Law MCQs  Question 15. To double the full-scale voltage reading of any galvanometer turned into a voltmeter, you must

  1. Increase the resistance to 3R
  2. Half the resistance R
  3. Increase the resistance to 4R
  4. None of the above

Answer: 4. None of the above

Question 16. The resistance Ω of a conducting wire depends on its material, length l, and area of cross-section A. The resistivity of the material of the wire is p = \(\frac{RA}{l}\) the value of p is different for different materials. It is very low for conducting materials, like metals. Besides, the resistance of a conductor also depends on its temperature. If the resistance of a conductor is R0 at 0° C, and Rt at t° C, then Rt = R0(1 + αt), where a is called the temperature coefficient of resistance. The resistance increases with temperature for metallic conductors but decreases for graphite, a few metal alloys, and for semiconductors like silicon and germanium.

1. The resistance of a metal wire increases by 10% when its temperature rises from 10° C to 110° C. The temperature coefficient of resistance of the metal is

  1. 0.02 °C-1
  2. 0.01 °C-1
  3. 0.002 °C-1
  4. 0.001 °C-1

Answer: 4. 0.001 °C-1

2. The length of this metal wire is doubled by stretching. What will be the change in its resistance?

  1. 100% increase
  2. 200% increase
  3. 300% increase
  4. 500% decrease

Answer: 3. 300% increase

3. The temperature of this new wire is again raised from A B 10°C to 110°C. The percentage increase of its resistance would be

  1. 5%
  2. 10%
  3. 20%
  4. 40%

Answer: 2. 10%

4. The temperature coefficient of resistance of a semiconductor is

  1. Zero
  2. Positive
  3. Negative
  4. Positive or negative depending on the material

Answer: 3. Negative

Electric Resistance Mcq Class 12 Physics

5. The graphs of the relations between current (I) and potential difference (V) of a metal wire at two different temperatures t1 and t2. The relation between t1 and t2 is

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current and Ohm's Law A Metal Wire

  1. t1 = t2
  2. t1 < t2
  3. t1 > t2
  4. Insufficient data

Answer: 2. t1 < t2

Question 17. If a current passes through a metal conducting wire of area of cross-section A, the drift velocity of free electrons inside the metal is vd = \(\frac{1}{neA}\) where the amount of electric charge of an electron = e, and the number of free electrons per unit volume of the metal =n. The applied electric field on the wire is E = \(\frac{V}{l}\) y, where a potential difference V exists between two points,l apart, along the length of the wire. If R is the resistance of the wire between those two points, then the resistivity of its material is \(\rho=\frac{R A}{l}\). Besides, the mobility (μ) of the free electrons inside a wire is defined as their drift velocity for a unit-applied electric field.

1. Two copper wires have both lengths and radii in the ratio 1: 2. If the ratio between the electric currents flowing through them is also 1: 2, what would be the ratio between the drift velocities of free electrons?

  1. 1:1
  2. 1:2
  3. 2:1
  4. 4:1

Answer: 3. 2:1

2. The radii of two wires of the same metal are in the ratio 1: 2. The same potential difference is applied between two points at a distance on each of the wires. The ratio between the drift velocities of the free electrons in two wires is

  1. 1:1
  2. 1:2
  3. 2:1
  4. 1:4

Answer: 2. 1:2

Class 12 Physics Ohm’s Law MCQs  3. The radii of two wires, made of two different metals, are in the ratio 1: 2. The number density of free electrons in the first metal is double that in the second metal. If the current in the first wire is 1 A, then the current In the second wire producing the same drift velocity is

  1. 1 A
  2. 2 A
  3. 4 A
  4. 8 A

Answer: 3. 4 A

4. Tire current through unit cross-section of a conductor, culled tire electric current density J, Is related to the applied electric field E as

  1. J = \(\rho\)E
  2. \(J=\frac{1}{\rho} E\)
  3. J = μE
  4. \(J=\frac{1}{\mu} E\)

Answer: 2. \(J=\frac{1}{\rho} E\)

Electric Resistance Mcq Class 12 Physics

Question 18. Measurements and Interpretations of voltage and electric current signals are common In modern medicine. Occasionally, a situation arises In which a voltmeter or an ammeter Is needed but it Is not available. A galvanometer Is an instrument dial that can be used to construct an ammeter (for measuring electric currents). It can also be used to construct a voltmeter (to measure voltages). In both cases, a resistor R must be connected to the galvanometer to effect the change. To turn the galvanometer into an ammeter, the resistor R is connected in parallel. The resistor R is connected in series with the galvanometer in order to turn it into a voltmeter. The current required to produce a full-scale deflection in a galvanometer is 10mA. The internal resistance of the galvanometer is 100Ω. Let Vr be the voltage across r and VR the voltage across R.

1. Which of the following relations correctly applies to the ammeter?

  1. Vr>VR
  2. Vr < VR
  3. Vr=VR
  4. More information is required

Answer: 1. Vr>VR

2. What resistance must be connected in parallel to the galvanometer to turn It into an ammeter capable of reading electric currents up to 10.01 A?

  1. 0.1Ω
  2. 10Ω
  3. None

Answer: 1. 0.1Ω

3. What resistance R must be connected in series to the galvanometer in order to convert it to a 100 V voltmeter?

  1. 900Ω
  2. 1000Ω
  3. 9900Ω
  4. 10000Ω

Answer: 3. 9900Ω

4. In the voltmeter circuit, the current in the resistor R must be

  1. Negligible, so that it has only a small effect on the voltage reading
  2. Substantial, but does not have any effect on the voltage reading
  3. Substantial, but does have some effect on the voltage reading
  4. None of the above

Answer: 1. Negligible, so that it has only a small effect on the voltage reading

Class 12 Physics Ohm’s Law MCQs  5. Which of the following relations correctly applies to the voltmeter circuit?

  1. Vr>VR
  2. Vr<VR
  3. Vr=VR
  4. Vr = 2VR

Answer: 2. Vr<VR

Ohm’S Law Mcq Class 12 Physics

Question 19. Two cells each of emf e but internal resistances r1 and r2 are connected in series through an external resistance R. If the potential difference across the first cell is zero while current flows, the relation of R in terms of r1 and r2 is

  1. R = r1 + r2
  2. R = r1-r2
  3. R = \(\frac{1}{2}\) (rj + r2)
  4. R = \(\frac{1}{2}\)(r1 – r2)

Answer: 2. R = r1-r2

Question 20. Resistance of the thinner wire is 10Ω, then the resistance of the other wire will be

  1. 40Ω
  2. 20Ω
  3. 10Ω

Answer: 3. 10Ω

\(R=\rho \frac{l}{A}=\frac{\rho l}{\pi r^2}\)

∴ \(\frac{R_1}{R_2}=\frac{\rho_1}{\rho_2} \cdot \frac{l_1}{l_2} \cdot\left(\frac{r_2}{r_1}\right)^2=\frac{1}{3} \times \frac{1}{3} \times\left(\frac{3}{1}\right)^2=1\)

R2 = R1 = 10Ω

The option 3 is correct

Question 21. Four cells, each of emf E . and internal resistance r, are connected in series across an external resistance R. By mistake one of the cells is connected in reverse. Then the current in the external circuit is

  1. \(\frac{2 E}{4 r+R}\)
  2. \(\frac{3 E}{4 r+R}\)
  3. \(\frac{3 E}{3 r+R}\)
  4. \(\frac{2 E}{3 r+R}\)

Answer: 1. \(\frac{2 E}{4 r+R}\)

Currently the circuit,

⇒ \(I=\frac{3 E-E}{4 r+R}=\frac{2 E}{4 r+R}\)

The option 1 is correct.

Class 12 Physics Ohm’s Law MCQs  Question 22. A circuit consists of three batteries of emf E1 = 1V, E2 = 2 V, and E3 = 3V and internal resistances 1Ω, 2Ω, and 1Ω respectively which are connected in parallel. The potential difference between points P and Q is

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current and Ohm's Law A Circuit Consists Of Three Batteries

  1. 1.0V
  2. 2.0V
  3. 2.2V
  4. 3V

Answer: 2. 2.0V

Equivalent resistance of the internal resistances connected in parallel

= \(\frac{2}{5}\)Ω

Total current = \(\frac{1}{1}+\frac{2}{2}+\frac{3}{1}\)

= 5V

∴ The potential difference between points P and

Q = 5 x \(\frac{2}{5}\)

= 2V

The option 2 is correct

Ohm’S Law Mcq Class 12 Physics

Question 23. A metal wire of a circular cross-section has a resistance. The wire is now stretched without breaking so that its length is doubled and the density is assumed to remain the same. If the resistance of the wire now becomes R2 then R2: R1 is

  1. 1:1
  2. 1:2
  3. 4:1
  4. 1:4

Answer: 3. 4: 1

If the length of the wife is l and its cross-sectional area is A, the volume of the wire, V = lA = constant.

Then, A = \(\frac{V}{l}\)

Now, from the relation \(R=\rho \frac{l}{A}\)

⇒ \(\frac{R_1}{R_2}=\frac{l_1}{l_2} \cdot \frac{A_2}{A_1}=\frac{l_1}{l_2} \cdot \frac{V / l_2}{V / l_1}=\left(\frac{l_1}{l_2}\right)^2=\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^2=\frac{1}{4}\)

or, \(\frac{R_2}{R_1}=\frac{4}{1}=4: 1\)

The option 3 is correct

Question 24. Two equal resistances, 400Ω each, are connected in series with an 8 V battery. If the resistance of the first one increases by 0.5%, the charge required in the resistance of the second one in order to keep the potential difference across it unaltered is to

  1. Increase it by 1Ω
  2. Increase it by 2Ω
  3. Increase it by 4Ω
  4. Decrease it by 4Ω

Answer: 2. Increase it by 2Ω

Increase in first resistance =400 x \(\frac{0.5}{100}\) = 2Ω

Initially, the emf 8 V will be divided equally between the two resistances. So the voltage across each resistance will be 4 V. When the first resistance is increased, the second resistance should also be increased by 2Ω to keep the voltage across it unchanged.

The option 2 is correct.

Class 12 Physics Ohm’s Law MCQs  Question 25. Two wires of the same radius having lengths l1 and l2 and resistivities p1 and p2 are connected in series. The equivalent resistivity will be

  1. \(\frac{\rho_1 l_2+\rho_2 l_1}{\rho_1+\rho_2}\)
  2. \(\frac{\rho_1 l_1+\rho_2 l_2}{l_1+l_2}\)
  3. \(\frac{\rho_1 l_1-\rho_2 l_2}{l_1-l_2}\)
  4. \(\frac{\rho_1 l_2+\rho_2 l_1}{l_1+l_2}\)

Answer: 2. \(\frac{\rho_1 l_1+\rho_2 l_2}{l_1+l_2}\)

⇒ \(\frac{\rho_1 l_1}{A}+\frac{\rho_2 l_2}{A}=\rho_{\mathrm{eq}} \frac{\left(l_1+l_2\right)}{A}\)

∴ \(\rho_{\mathrm{eq}}=\frac{\rho_1 l_1+\rho_2 l_2}{l_1+l_2}\)

The option 2 is correct.

Question 26. The effective resistance between A and B is \(\frac{7}{12}\)Ω if each side of the cube has 1Ω resistance. The effective resistance between the same two points when the link AB is removed is

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current and Ohm's Law The Effective Resistance Between A And B

  1. \(\frac{7}{12}\)Ω
  2. \(\frac{5}{12}\)Ω
  3. \(\frac{7}{5}\)Ω
  4. \(\frac{5}{7}\)Ω

Answer: 3. \(\frac{7}{5}\)Ω

If x is the effective resistance between A and B of the remaining cube, then

⇒ \(\frac{7}{12}=\frac{1 \times x}{1+x}\)

Solving we get, x = \(\frac{7}{5}\)Ω

The option 3 is correct

Ohm’S Law Multiple Choice Questions

Question 27. Four resistors 100Ω, 200Ω, 300Ω, and 400Ω are connected to form four sides of a square. The resistors can be connected in any; order. What is the maximum possible equivalent resistance across the diagonal of the square?

  1. 210Ω
  2. 240Ω
  3. 300Ω
  4. 250Ω

Answer: 4. 250Ω

The resistance across the diagonal of the square formed by the four resistors is equal to the equivalent resistance of the resistors in parallel combination.

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current and Ohm's Law Resistance In Parallel Combination In Resistance

The equivalent resistance of the parallel combination is maximum when the resistance on the two sides of the diagonal is equal.

∴ Equivalent resistance,

⇒ \(R=\frac{500 \times 500}{500+500}=250 \Omega\)

The option 4 is correct.

Class 12 Physics Ohm’s Law MCQs  Question 28. What will be the current through the 200Ω resistor in the given circuit a long time after the switch K is made on?

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current and Ohm's Law Circuit A Long After Time Circuit

  1. 0
  2. 100mA
  3. 10mA
  4. 1mA

Answer: 3. 10mA

A long time after the switch K is turned on, the 1μF and 2μF capacitors will be open-circuited and no current will flow through them.

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current and Ohm's Law Capacitor Will Be Open Circuit

∴ Current through, the 200Ω resistor

⇒ \(\frac{6}{200+400}=\frac{1}{100} \mathrm{~A}\)

= 10mA

The option 3 is correct.

Question 29. When the 5 V potential difference is applied across a wire of length 0.1 m, the drift speed of electrons is 2.5 x 10-4 m s-1. If the electron density in the wire is 8 x 1028 m-3, the resistivity of the material is close to

  1. 1.6 x 10-8Ω.m
  2. 1.6 x 10-7Ω.m
  3. 1.6 x 10-6Ω.m
  4. 1.6 x 10-5Ω.m

Answer: 4. 1.6 x 10-5Ω.m

Drift velocity, \(v=\frac{I}{n e A}\)

⇒ \(I=\frac{V}{R}=\frac{V}{\rho \frac{l}{A}} \quad \text { or, } \rho=\frac{V}{\frac{I}{A} l}=\frac{V}{n e v l}\)

∴ \(\rho=\frac{5}{\left(8 \times 10^{28}\right) \times\left(1.6 \times 10^{-19}\right) \times\left(2.5 \times 10^{-4}\right) \times 0.1}\)

= 1.56 X 10-5Ω.m

= 1.6 X 10-5Ω m

The option 4 is correct.

Ohm’S Law Multiple Choice Questions

Question 30. The temperature dependence of resistances of Cu and undoped Si in the temperature range of 300-400 K, is best described by

  1. Linear increase for Cu, linear increase for Si
  2. Linear increase for Cu, exponential increase for Si
  3. Linear increase for Cu, exponential decrease for Si
  4. Linear decrease for Cu, linear decrease for Si

Answer: 3. Linear increase for Cu, exponential increase for Si

Question In the given circuit the current in each resistance is

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current and Ohm's Law Current In A Each Resistor

  1. 1A
  2. 0.25A
  3. 0.5A
  4. zero

Answer: 4. zero

There are two cells of equal electromotive force in opposite directions with each other in each loop. So, the electromotive force in each loop is zero. Hence, the current is also zero.

Option 4 is correct

Class 12 Physics Ohm’s Law MCQs  Question 31. In the given circuit diagram when the current reaches a steady state in the circuit, the charge on the capacitor of capacitance C will be

  1. CE
  2. \(\frac{C E r_1}{r_2+r}\)
  3. \(\frac{C E r_2}{r+r_2}\)
  4. \(\frac{C E r_1}{r_1+r}\)

Answer: 3. \(\frac{C E r_2}{r+r_2}\)

The current reaches a steady state in the circuit means that the current through the capacitor is zero

Class 12 Physics Unit 2 Current Electricity Chapter 1 Electric Current and Ohm's Law Current Through The Capacitor Is Zero

∴ Current in the circuit, \(i=\frac{E}{r+r_2}\)

Potential differences across the capacitor,

⇒ \(V_{A D}=V_{A B}=i r_2=\frac{E r_2}{r+r_2}\)

Therefore, the charge storedin the capacitor C,

⇒ \(Q=C V_{A D}=C E \frac{r_2}{r+r_2}\)

The option 3 is correct

Question 32. A, B, and C are voltmeters of resistance R, 1.5R, and 3R respectively. When some potential difference is applied between X and Y, the voltmeter readings are VA, VB,  and VC respectively. Then

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current and Ohm's Law The Voltmeter Of Resistance

  1. VA=VB=VC
  2. VA ≠ VB = VC
  3. VA = VB ≠ VC
  4. VA ≠ VB ≠ VC

Answer: 1. VA=VB=VC

Clearly, VB = VC

Again, equivalent resistance for B and C = \(\frac{1.5 \times 3}{1.5+3}=1 \Omega\)

= resistance of A.

Hence, VA = VB = VC

The option 1 is correct.

Electric Resistance Mcq Class 12 Physics

Question 33. Across a metallic conductor of a non-uniform cross-section, a constant potential difference is applied. The quantity which remains constant along the conductor is

  1. Current density
  2. Current
  3. Drift velocity
  4. Electric field

Current remains constant along the conductor.

The option 2 is correct.

Class 12 Physics Ohm’s Law MCQs  Question 34. In the electrical circuit, the current I through the side AB is

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current and Ohm's Law The Electrical Circuit

  1. \(\frac{6}{2}\)A
  2. \(\frac{10}{33}\)A
  3. \(\frac{1}{5}\)A
  4. \(\frac{10}{63}\)A

Answer: 1. \(\frac{6}{2}\)A

E=IR

or, \(10=I\left(10+\frac{20 \times 30}{20+30}+3\right)=0.25 I\)

Here, \(I=\frac{10}{25}=\frac{2}{5} \mathrm{~A}\)

∴ \(I_{A B}=\frac{2}{5} \times \frac{30}{20+30}=\frac{6}{25} \mathrm{~A}\)

The option 1 is correct

Question 35. A cell of emf E and internal resistance r is connected to a variable external resistor R. The graph which gives the terminal voltage of cell V with respect to R is

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current and Ohm's Law Terminal Voltage Of Cell

Answer: 2.

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current and Ohm's Law Terminal Voltage Of Cell

⇒ \(V=E-I r=E-\frac{E r}{R+r}\)

or, \(\frac{d V}{d R}=\frac{E r}{(R+r)^2}\)

Therefore, the slope of the V-R graph is positive and it decreases within resistance R

The option 2 is correct.

Electric Resistance Mcq Class 12 Physics

Question 36. A carbon resistor of (47 ± 4.7)kΩ is to be marked with rings of different colors for its identification. The color code sequence will be

  1. Yellow—Green—Violet—Gold
  2. Yellow—Violet—Orange—Silver
  3. Violet—Yellow—Orange—Silver
  4. Green—Orange—Violet—Gold

Answer: 2. Yellow—Violet—Orange—Silver

⇒ \((47 \pm 4.7)=47 \pm\left(\frac{4.7}{47} \times 100\right) \%=47 \pm 10 \%\)

∴ \((47 \pm 4.7) \mathrm{k} \Omega=47 \times 10^3 \pm 10 \% \Omega\)

Therefore, the color code sequence will be yellow—Violet—Orange—Silver

The option 2 is correct

Class 12 Physics Ohm’s Law MCQs  Question 37. A set of n equal resistors, of value R each, are connected in series to a battery of emf E and internal resistance R. The current drawn is I. Now, the n resistors are connected in parallel to the same battery. Then the current drawn from the battery becomes 10I. The value of n is

  1. 20
  2. 11
  3. 10
  4. 9

Answer: 3. 10

Equivalent resistance in series,

R1 = nR + R = (n + 1)R

∴ \(I=\frac{E}{R_1}=\frac{E}{(n+1) R}\)…..(1)

Equivalent resistance in parallel

⇒ \(R_2=\left(\frac{R}{n}+R\right)=\left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right) R\)

∴ \(10 I=\frac{E}{R_2}=\frac{E}{\left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right) R}\)…..(2)

From equations (1) and (2)

⇒ \(\frac{10 I}{I}=\frac{(n+1) R}{\left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right) R} \text { or, } 10\left(\frac{n+1}{n}\right)=(n+1)\)

or, n = 10

The option 3 is correct.

Question 38. A battery consists of a variable number n of identical cells (having internal resistance r each) which are connected in series. The terminals of the battery are short-circuited and the current I is measured. Which of the graphs shows the correct relationship between I and n?

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current and Ohm's Law Identical Cell

Answer: 3.

Class 12 Physics Current Electricity Electric Current and Ohm's Law Identical Cell.

Current in the circuit containing n identical cells connected in series,

I = \(\frac{ne}{nr}\) [ e = emf of each identical cell]

or, I = \(\frac{e}{r}\)

So, I remain the same with any change of n.

The option is correct.

MPBSE Class 12 Physics Atomic Nucleus Question And Answers

Mpbse Class 12 Physics Atomic Nucleus Solutions

Question 1. The Q -the value of a nuclear reaction A + b → C + d is defined by Q = [mA + mb-mC-md]c², where the masses refer to nuclear rest masses. Determine from the given data whether the following reactions are exothermic or endothermic

1. \({ }_1^1 \mathrm{H}+{ }_1^3 \mathrm{H} \rightarrow{ }_1^2 \mathrm{H}+{ }_1^2 \mathrm{H}\)

2. \({ }_6^{12} \mathrm{C}+{ }_6^{12} \mathrm{C} \rightarrow{ }_{10}^{20} \mathrm{Ne}+{ }_2^4 \mathrm{He}\)

Atomic masses are given to be

\(m\left({ }_1^1 \mathrm{H}\right)=1.007825 \mathrm{u}, m\left({ }_1^2 \mathrm{H}\right)=2.014102 \mathrm{u}\)

\(m\left({ }_1^3 \mathrm{H}\right)=3.016049 \mathrm{u}, m\left({ }_1^{12} \mathrm{C}\right)=12.000000 \mathrm{u}\)

\(m\left({ }_{10}^{20} \mathrm{Ne}\right)=19.992439 \mathrm{u}, \quad m\left({ }_2^4 \mathrm{He}\right)=4.002603 \mathrm{u}\)

Answer:

1. \({ }_1^1 \mathrm{H}+{ }_1^3 \mathrm{H} \rightarrow{ }_1^2 \mathrm{H}+{ }_1^2 \mathrm{H}\)

Q= \(m_{\mathrm{N}}\left({}_1^1\mathrm{H}\right)+m_{\mathrm{N}}\left({ }_1^3 \mathrm{H}\right)m_{\mathrm{N}}\left({ }_1^2 \mathrm{H}\right)-m_{\mathrm{N}}\left({ }_1^2 \mathrm{H}\right)\)

= \(m\left({ }_1^1 \mathrm{H}\right)-m_e+m\left({ }_1^3 \mathrm{H}\right)-m_e-m\left({ }_1^2 \mathrm{H}\right)\) + \(m_em\left({}_1^2\mathrm{H}\right)+m_e\)

= \(m\left({ }_1^1 \mathrm{H}\right)+m\left({ }_1^3 \mathrm{H}\right)-m\left({ }_1^2 \mathrm{H}\right)-m\left({ }_1^2 \mathrm{H}\right)\)

1.007825 + 3.016049-2 × 2.014102

= -0.00433 ×  931.5 MeV = -4.03 MeV

∴ Q < 0, the reaction is endothermic

2. \({ }_6^{12} \mathrm{C}+{ }_6^{12} \mathrm{C} \rightarrow{ }_{10}^{20} \mathrm{Ne}+{ }_2^4 \mathrm{He}\)

Q = \(2 m_{\mathrm{N}}\left({ }_6^{12} \mathrm{C}\right)-m_{\mathrm{N}}\left({ }_{10}^{20} \mathrm{Ne}\right)-m_{\mathrm{N}}\left({ }_2^4 \mathrm{He}\right)\)

= \(=2 m\left({ }_6^{12} \mathrm{C}\right)-12 m_e-m\left({ }_{10}^{20} \mathrm{Ne}\right)+10 m_e\) \(-m\left({ }_2^4 \mathrm{He}\right)+2 m_e\)

= [2 × 12.000000-19.992439-4.002603] × 931.5 MeV

= 0.004958 × 931.5 MeV = 4.62 MeV

Q > 0; so, the reaction is exothermic.

Mpbse Class 12 Physics Atomic Nucleus Solutions

Question 2. Is the fission of  56Fe26 nucleus into two equal fragments,  28Al13 energetically possible? Argue by working out the Q of the process. Given, m ( 56Fe26 ) = 55.93494 u and m(28Al13) = 27.98191 u
Answer:

If possible, let the reaction be \({ }_{26}^{56} \mathrm{Fe} \rightarrow{ }_{13}^{28} \mathrm{Al}+{ }_{13}^{28} \mathrm{Al}\)

Q -value of the process = \(m\left({ }_{26}^{56} \mathrm{Fe}\right)-2 m\left({ }_{13}^{28} \mathrm{Al}\right)\)

55.934944-2 × 27.98191

= -0.02888 × 931.5 MeV

= -26.90 MeV

Since the Q -value is negative, fission is not possible

Question 3. The fission properties of 239Pu94 are very similar to those of 235U92 The average energy released per fission is 180 MeV. How much energy, in MeV, is released if all the atoms in 239Pu941 kg of pure undergo fission?
Answer:

Number of nuclei in 1 kg of 239Pu94

= \(\frac{6.023 \times 10^{23}}{239} \times 1000.0\)

= 2.52 × 10 24

The energy released per fission = 180 MeV

Total energy released = 2.52 x 1024 × 180 MeV

= 4.54 × 1026 MeV

Atomic Nucleus Class 12 Questions And Answers

Question 4. A 1000 MW fission reactor consumes half of its fuel in 5y. How much 235U92 did it contain initially? Assume that the reactor was active 80% of the time and all the energy generated arises from the fission of 235U92 and that this nuclide is consumed by the fission process.
Answer:

Energy generated per gram of 235U92

= \(\frac{6.023 \times 10^{23}}{235} \times 200 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-13} \mathrm{~J} \cdot \mathrm{g}^{-1}\)

Energy generated in 5 y

Power × Time × 80%

(1000 × 106) × (5 × 365 × 24 × 60 × 60) × 80% J

Amount of spent

= \(\frac{\left(1000 \times 10^6\right) \times(5 \times 365 \times 24 \times 60 \times 60)}{6.023 \times 10^{23} \times 200 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-13}} \mathrm{x} \times 235\)

= 1538 kg

Initial mass of 235U92  = 2 × 1538 kg = 3076 kg

Question 5. How long an electric lamp of 100 W can be kept glowing by fusion of 2.0 kg of deuterium? The fusion reaction can be taken as = \({ }_1^2 \mathrm{H}+{ }_1^2\mathrm{H}\rightarrow{}_2^3\mathrm{He}+\mathrm{n}+3.2 \mathrm{MeV}\)
Answer:

Number of nuclei in 2 kg of 2H1

= \(\frac{6.023 \times 10^{23} \times 2000}{2}=6.023 \times 10^{26}\)

Energy generated by the fusion of these nuclei

E = \(\frac{3.2 \times 6.023 \times 10^{26}}{2} \mathrm{MeV}\)

Power of the bulb = 100 W

Let the bulb = 100 W

Energy spent = \(\frac{100 \times t}{1.6 \times 10^{-13}} \mathrm{MeV}\)

∴ \(\frac{100 t}{1.6 \times 10^{-13}}=\frac{3.2 \times 6.023}{2} \times 10^{23}\)

t = \(\frac{3.2 \times 6.023 \times 10^{23} \times 1.6 \times 10^{-13}}{2 \times 100}\)

– 1.54 × 10 12 s

= 4.89 × 104 y

Nuclear Physics Class 12 Important Questions

Question 6. A source contains two phosphorus radionuclides  32P15 (T1/2 = 14.3 d) and 33P15 (T1/2 = 25.3 d). Initially, 10% of the decay comes from 33P15. How long one must wait until 90% do so. 33 32
Answer:

Let i R01 and R02 be the initial activities of 33P15 and 32P15 respectively and R1 and R2 be their activities at any instant t. According to the first observation

R01 = 10% (R01 +R02)

R02 =  9 R01 ……………………………. (1)

Again, R1 = 90% (R1 + R2)

Or, \(\frac{R_2}{R_{02}}=\frac{1}{81} \frac{R_1}{R_{01}}\) ……………………………. (1)

Combining equation (1) and (2)

⇒ \(\frac{R_2}{R_{02}}=\frac{1}{81} \frac{R_1}{R_{01}}\)

Or, \(\frac{R_{02} e^{-\lambda_2 t}}{R_{02}}=\frac{1}{81} \times \frac{R_{01} e^{-\lambda_1 t}}{R_{01}}\)

Or, \(81 e^{-\lambda_2 t}=e^{-\lambda_1 t}\)

⇒ \(\left(\lambda_2-\lambda_1\right) t=\dot{2} .303 \log 81\)

t = \(\frac{2.303 \log 81}{\frac{0.693}{14.3}-\frac{0.693}{25.3}}\)

Since Or, λ = 0.693T½

= 208 . 5 d

Question 7. Under certain circumstances, a nucleus can decay by = 231.1 MeV emitting a particle more massive than an a -particle. Consider the following decay processes

1. \({ }_{88}^{223} \mathrm{Ra} \rightarrow{ }_{82}^{209} \mathrm{~Pb}+{ }_6^{14} \mathrm{C}\)

2. \({ }_{88}^{223} \mathrm{Ra} \rightarrow{ }_{86}^{219} \mathrm{Rn}+{ }_2^4 \mathrm{He}\)

Calculate the Q -values for these two decays and determine that both are energetically possible. 

m( 223Ra88 ) = 223.01850 u, m( 209Ra82 ) = 208.98107 u,

m(219Ra86 ) = 219.00948 u, m(14C6) = 14.00324 u and m(4He2) = 4.00260 u

Answer:

1. \({ }_{88}^{223} \mathrm{Ra} \rightarrow{ }_{82}^{209} \mathrm{~Pb}+{ }_6^{14} \mathrm{C}+Q\)

= \(\left[m_{\mathrm{N}}\left({ }_{88}^{223} \mathrm{Ra}\right)-m_{\mathrm{N}}\left({ }_{82}^{209} \mathrm{~Pb}\right)-m_{\mathrm{N}}\left({ }_6^{14} \mathrm{C}\right)\right]\) x 931.2 MeV

= \(\left[m_{88}^{223} \mathrm{Ra}-m\left({ }_{82}^{209} \mathrm{~Pb}\right)-m\left({ }_6^{14} \mathrm{C}\right)\right] \times 931.2 \mathrm{MeV}\)

31. 8 MeV

∴ Q > 0: so, the decay is possible

2. \({ }_{88}^{223} \mathrm{Ra} \rightarrow{ }_{86}^{219} \mathrm{Rn}+{ }_2^4 \mathrm{He}+Q^{\prime}\)

Q’ = 5.98 MeV [by similar calculation as above]

∴ Q’ > 0; so, this decay is also possible.

Nuclear Physics Class 12 Important Questions

Question 8. Consider the fission of 238U92 by fast neutrons. In one fission event, no neutrons are emitted and the final stable end products, after the beta decay of the primary fragments, are140Ce58 and 99Ru44 Calculate Q for this fission process
Given

\(m\left({ }_{92}^{238} \mathrm{U}\right)=238.05079 \mathrm{u}, m\left({ }_{58}^{140} \mathrm{Ce}\right)=139.90543 \mathrm{u}\)

\(m\left({ }_{44}^{99} \dot{\mathrm{Ru}}\right)=98.90594 \mathrm{u}, \dot{m}_n=1.008667 \mathrm{u}\)

Answer:

The fission reaction is

⇒ \({ }_{92}^{238} \mathrm{U}+{ }_0^1 \mathrm{n}{\beta}{ }_{58}^{140} \mathrm{Ce}+{ }_{44}^{99}\mathrm{Ru}+Q\)

∴ Q = \(\left[m\left({}_{92}^{238}\mathrm{U}\right)+m\left({ }_0^1\mathrm{n}\right)m\left({}_{58}^{140}\mathrm{Ce}\right)-m\left({ }_{44}^{99} \mathrm{Ru}\right)\right] \mathrm{u}\)

= \([238.05079+1.00867-139.90543-98.90594]\)

= 23 1.1 MeV

Question 9. Suppose India had a target of producing by 2020 AD, 200, 000 MW of electric power, 10% of which was to be obtained from nuclear power plants. Suppose we are given that, on average, the efficiency of utilization (i.e., conversion to electric energy) of thermal energy produced in a reactor was 25%. How much amount of fissionable uranium did our country need per year by 2020? Take the heat per fission of 235U92 to be about 200 MeV. Avogadro’s number = 6.023 × 10 mol-1. Nuclear power target = 10% of total generation
Answer:

Nuclear power target = 10% of total generation

= 10% × 2 × 1011 W

= 2 × 1010 W

Efficiency, η = 25%

∴ Total power generated by the nuclear reactor

= \(\frac{2 \times 10^{10}}{25 \%} \mathrm{~W}=8 \times 10^{10} \mathrm{~W}\)

∴ Generated heat by the reactor in 2020

H = 8 × 1010 × 366 × 24 × 60 ×60 J

∴ Number of fission required for generation of this heat,

N = \(\frac{H}{200 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-13}}\)

If m g of  235U92 contains this number of nuclei, then,

m = \(\frac{N \times 235}{6.023 \times 10^{23}} \mathrm{~g}\)

= \(\frac{8 \times 10^{10} \times 366 \times 24 \times 60 \times 60 \times 235}{200 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-13} \times 6.023 \times 10^{23}} \mathrm{~g}\)

= 3.084 × 104  kg

Structure Of Atomic Nucleus Class 12 Questions

Question 10. Calculate and compare the energy released by

  1. Fusion of: 1.0 kg of hydrogen deep within the sun and
  2. The fission oqc of 1.0 kg of 235U in a fission reactor.

Answer: 

1. Equation of fusion reaction,

4 1H → 4He2 + 2 0e+1 + 26 MeV

∴ 26 MeV of energy is released on a combination of four H nuclei.

Number of nuclei in 1 kg of hydrogen

= 6.023 × 1023 × 1000

Energy released,

EH = 6.023  × 1026 ×  26 MeV

2. Fission of one  nucleus releases 200 MeV of energy

Number of nuclei in 1 kg of 235U92 = \(\frac{6.023 \times 10^{23} \times 1000}{235}\)

∴ Energy released,

EU = \(\frac{6.023 \times 10^{23} \times 1000 \times 20}{235}\)

= 5.12 × 1026 MeV

∴ \(\frac{E_{\mathrm{H}}}{E_{\mathrm{U}}}=\frac{3.913 \times 10^{27}}{5.12 \times 10^{26}}\)

= 7.6

Question 11. The half-life of a radioactive substance is 30 days. The number of atoms in the substance is 1012. How many disintegrations of atoms per second does occur?
Answer:

T = 30 d =30 × 24 × 60 × 60 s

⇒ \(\lambda=\frac{0.693}{T}\)

= \(=\frac{0.693}{30 \times 24 \times 60 \times 60}\)

= 2.67 × 10-7(approx)

If t = 1 s, t = 2.67 × 10-7

Hence, eλt  = 1.000000267(approx)

N = N0eλt  = \(\)

= 9.99999733 × 1011 (approx)

∴ Number of atoms disintegrated per second

= N0 – N = 2.67 ×  10 5 (approx)

Question 12. Draw a plot of the potential energy of a pair of nucleons as a function of their separations. Mark the region where the nuclear force is (1) attractive and (il) repulsive. Write any two characteristic features of nuclear forces
Answer:

The required plot

Atomic Nucleus Required Plot

In region AB, nuclear force is attractive.

The nuclear force is not repulsive. The repulsive force corresponding to the region DF is the repulsive coulomb force between protons

Structure Of Atomic Nucleus Class 12 Questions

Question 13.

  1. Draw the Plot of binding energy per nucleon (B.E./A ) as a function of mass number A . Write two important conclusions that can be drawn regarding the nature of
    nuclear force
  2. Use this graph to explain the release of energy in both the processes of nuclear fusion and fission.
  3. Write the basic nuclear process of neutrons undergoing β-decay. Why is the detection of neutrinos found very difficult?

Answer:

1.

Atomic Nucleus Binding Energy Per Nucleon

  1. Two conclusions from the plot: the nuclear force is
  2. Short-range and
  3. Charge independent

2. Mass of a nucleus (M) = mass of its nucleons- binding energy (B)

So, M decreases with an increase in B.

Now, we consider nuclear fission: 1 → 2 + 3.

From mass-energy equivalence,

M1 = M2 + M3+ energy release (Q)

or, Q = M1 – M2 – M3

Q is positive, i.e., energy is released if

M1 > M2 – M3,i.e., B1 < B2 – BM3

or A1e1<A2e2 + A3e3

Where A1A2, A3 are mass numbers A1 = A2 + A3) and e1 , e2 , e3 are binding energy per nucleon. From the plot, we see that this condition is satisfied for high A1, where both e2 and e3 are higher than e1 of the large nucleus 1.

The fission of a large nucleus releases energy. On the other hand, for low A nuclei, e2, and e3 will be less than the e1 of the larger nucleus 1. So, energy will be released rather in the opposite process: 2 + 3 → 1. Therefore, a fusion of small nuclei releases energy

3. It is very difficult to detect neutrinos or antineutrinos experimentally because they have neither any charge nor any mass.

Question 14. Define the activity of a radioactive sample. Write its SI unit. A radioactive sample has the activity of 10000 disintegrations per second (DPS) after 20 hours. After the next 10 hours its activity reduces to 5000 dps. Find out its half-life and initial

The activity of a radioactive sample is defined as the rate of disintegration of the sample. It is also called the count rate. Its SI unit is becquerel (Bq).

1 Bq = 1 decays/s

We know A = A8 e-λt

5000 = 10000e-λt

Or, eλt = \(\frac{10000}{5000}\)

= 2

Taking logs on both sides we get

λt = log 2

Or, λ = \(\frac{\log 2}{t}\)

Now half-life T = \(=\frac{0.693}{\lambda}=\frac{0.693 \times t}{\log 2}=\frac{0.693 \times 600}{\log 2}\)

= 1381. 26 min 23 h

Atomic Nucleus Radioactivity Samples

In this table, the last two values are the given values. Prom these values, the first two values have been calculated,

Atomic Nucleus Class 12 Questions And Answers

Question 15.

1. A radioactive nucleus ‘A ‘ undergoes a series of decays as given below:

Atomic Nucleus Radioactive Nucleus

The mass number and atomic number of A2 are 176 and 71 respectively. Determine the mass and atomic numbers of A4 and A.

2. Write the basic nuclear processes underlying α and β decays

Answer:

1. When βdecay occurs

Atomic Nucleus Nuclear Process Beta Negative

When β decay occurs

Atomic Nucleus Nuclear Process Beta Positive

In the case of β–   decay, the mass number of A is 180 and its atomic number is 72. In the case of β+ decay, the mass number of A is 100 and its atomic number is 74. In both cases, the mass number of A4   Is 172 and its atomic number is 69.

Atomic Nucleus Beta Decay Occurs

Question 16. Explain the processes of nuclear fission and nuclear fusion by using the plot of binding energy per nucleon (BE/A) versus the mass number A

Nuclear fission:

The binding energy per nucleon for heavier nuclei is approximately 7.6 MeV, but for lighter nuclei, it is roughly 8.4 MeV. The heavier nuclei exhibit reduced stability, leading to the fission of the heavier nucleus into lighter nuclei, which therefore releases energy. This process is referred to as nuclear fission.

Nuclear fusion:

The binding energy per nucleon for nuclei with mass number A < 12 is minimal, rendering them less stable. Consequently, two such nuclei can amalgamate to create a somewhat heavier nucleus, which possesses a greater binding energy per nucleon.

Consequently, energy is liberated in this process, referred to as nuclear fusion.

Atomic Nucleus Class 12 Questions And Answers

Question 17. A radioactive isotope has a half-life of 10 years. How long will it take for the activity to reduce to 3.125%?
Answer:

Activity A = λN

Given A = 3. 125 % of \(\frac{3.125 A_0}{100}=\frac{A_0}{32}\)

Or, \(\frac{A}{A_0}=\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^5\)

∴ \(\frac{N}{N_0}=\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^5\)

So the activity will reduce to 3.125% after 5 half-lives. Hence required time =5 × 10 = 50 years

NEET Biology Notes on Agricultural Chemical Pesticides

NEET Biology Agricultural Chemical Pesticides Plant Pests

Agricultural:

Agricultural chemicals, including fertilizers, plant growth regulators, and insecticides, are employed to enhance the production potential of crops.

Fertilizers restore soil nutrients, growth regulators facilitate plant development, and insecticides safeguard plants against diseases and pests. c Pesticides encompass fungicides, herbicides, rodenticides, insecticides, nematicides, and algicides.

Major Groups Of Pesticides

Agricultural Chemical Pesticides And Plant Pests Major Groups Of Pesticides

Agricultural Chemical Pesticides NEET Notes

As regards the mode of action pesticides attack the nervous systems and respiratory systems and herbicides damage the photosystem 2 of photosynthesis and translocation. Pesticides are capable of damaging the ecosystem and in the long run render agriculture non-sustainable.

  • All pesticides are poisons. They upset the food web in nature.
  • Some resistant pests survive even after pesticide application, thus higher doses are required to kill them.
  • The major problem with the application of pesticides is bioconcentration in the bodies of animals.
  • Due to the lack of safety measures in the use of pesticides, they pose adverse health effects on people.
  • Owing to the lack of stringent measures in the manufacture of pesticides, there may be grave consequences such as the recent Bhopal gas tragedy. (1984)
  • Integrated Pest Management (IPM) is a combination of techniques such as biological control, mechanical control and carefully timed application of pesticides along with sound cultural practices,

NEET Biology Agricultural Chemical Pesticides

Pesticides are capable of damaging the ecosystem and in the long run render agriculture non-sustainable.

All pesticides are poisonous; they are not specific to the target organism and they may kill useful organisms. They upset the food web in nature.

Examples of Classes of Pesticides

  1. Organochlorides – DDT, BHC, Aldrin, Endosulphanc.
  2. Organophosphate – Maiathion, Parathion and Fenitrothion.
  3. Carbamates – Carbofuran, Aldicarboropoxus.
  4. Triazincs – Simazines, Atrazinc
  5. Pyrethroids – Pyrethrin

Types Of Pesticides NEET

Types Of Pesticides

Agricultural Chemical Pesticides And Plant Pests Types Of Pesticides

Various Organic Compounds With Heavy Metals, Commonly Used As Fungicides Are:

  1. Agrosan GN, Ceresan, and Tillex are compounds of mercury used in seed treatment.
  2. Dithane M-45 and Dithane Z-79 control the tikka disease of groundnut.

Burgundy Mixture. It is an important copper fungicide. Its nature and function are the same as the Bordeaux mixture.

Biocides The pesticides that affect useful plants and animals including human beings.

Organochlorides are lipophilic in nature; hence, show a great affinity for fatty tissues. These decompose very slowly; therefore, get accumulate in the environment posing serious problems.

  • Organophosphates are organic esters of phosphoric acid, thiophosphoric acid and other phosphoric acids. These are sold under the names-organic phosphates, phosphorus insecticides, nerve gas relatives, phosphates, and phosphate insecticides.
  • These are the most toxic pesticides to vertebrates e.g., Parathion, Malathion, Fernethion, Trithion, TEPP and Ethion.
  • Organophosphates act on the central nervous system, combining with the phosphorus molecule of the enzyme cholinesterase inhibiting its normal functioning. As a result, the breakdown of acetylcholine stops.
  • The accumulation of acetylcholine leads to a barrage of extraneous nervous impulses. It causes acute toxicity resulting in convulsions, paralysis and death. The recognition of this property led to the development of nerve gas used in World War 2.

Carbamates are organic esters of hypothetical carbanic acid. Isolan, carbaryl, carbofuran, aldicarb, and propoxur are widely used.

Pyrethroids are synthetic derivatives of pyrethrin—a chemical extracted from an annual plant Chrysanthemum cinerarifolium, C. narshallii, and C. coccinium.

Triazines are a group of herbicides which are derived from urea, for example, Simazines and atrazine.

Effects Of Chemical Pesticides NEET

NEET Biology Agricultural Chemical Pesticides Plant Diseases

When the favourable conditions of life are so seriously affected by any agency that the life of a part of a plant or whole plant is threatened, we call it plant disease. or

Plant disease can be defined as a condition in which the structure and function of a plant are disturbed and threaten the life of a plant.

  • A diseased plant can be differentiated from a healthy plant because of a disturbed morphological and physiological state.
  • Pathogens are the disease-causing organisms. There are numerous different types of pathogens. They are classified as animate, viral and inanimate pathogens.
  1. Animate Pathogens. They are generally microbial in nature. Nematodes and insects are the other pathogens of animal origin. The fungus Puccinia graminis tritici causes black rust in wheat. A bacterium Xanthomonas ciiri causes citrus canker. Mites cause Mango malformation.
  2. Viral Pathogens. Certain viruses act as pathogens. A few viral plant diseases arc mosaic, vein-clearing, chlorosis and leaf curl of potato.
  3. Inanimate Pathogens. There are certain plant diseases whose causes cannot be attributed to any pathogens. Molybdenum deficiency in the soil causes whip tail of cauliflower. The black tip of mango and scabs are caused by gases released from chimneys and respiratory gaseous products in cold storage respectively.

Chemical Method To Control Plant Diseases

  1. Bordeaux Mixture. It is a mixture of copper sulphate and lime in the ratio 4:4 dissolved in 50 gallons of water. It was first used in controlling many types of crop diseases by French Prof. Mallardet of the University of Bordeaux in 1878.
  2. Burgandy Mixture. It is a mixture of copper sulphate 5 lbs, sodium carbonate 0.25 lbs and water 50 lbs
  3. Ammonical Copper Carbonate (3 oz. copper carbonate, 5 pints ammonia and 50 gallons of water.
  4. Sulphur Dust. Inorganic dust is one of the oldest and most widely used fungicides. It can be used as a powder or in the wettable form.
  5. Antibiotics. Several antibiotics are used to control various plant diseases. Penicillin, streptomycin, cycloheximide, griseofulvin, viridin, blasticidin, agrimycin are the most common effective antibiotics.
  6. Commonly Used Fungicides Are:
    1. Agrosan GN Ceresan Tillex are compounds of mercury used in seed treatment.
    2. Dithane M-45, Dithane Z-79 Control tikka disease of groundnut.
    3. Pyrethroids

Agricultural Chemicals And Their Impact

NEET Biology Agricultural Chemical Pesticides Plant Pests

Pests. Pests are animals or plant organisms which damage cultivated plants or plant products.

Types Of Pests. Pests are of the following types: Arthropods (invertebrates with jointed appendages)

  1. Insects like grasshoppers, bugs, beetles, weevils, caterpillars and grain moth.
  2. Non-insect arthropods, like crabs, ticks and mites,
  3. Molluscs like snails and slugs.
  4. Birds such as pigeons, parrots, sparrows and crows,
  5. Mammals like rodents, monkeys and wild elephants.
  1. Pests Of Maize.
    • Maize stems Borer (Chilo-Cornelius).
    • Pink Borer (Sesamia inferens).
  2. Pests Of Millets.
    • Deccan wingless grasshopper (Calemania sphenarroides)
    • Greasy cutworm (Agrotis physilon).
  3. Pests Of Sugarcane.
    • Top shoot Borer (Scirpophaga nivella)
    • Stem Borer (Diatoroea venosata).
  4. Pests Of Cotton.
    • Spotted Bollworm (Earias fabla).
    • Pink bollworm (Pectinophora gossypiella.)

Various Stored Grain Pests

  1. Rice Weevil (Calandra oryzae): A little bug, reddish-brown in color, measures approximately 2.5 mm in length.
  2. Angoumois Grain Moth (Sitotroga cerealella):  It is a 12 mm long, lustrous buff-colored moth with pointed, slender wings featuring broad fringes.
  3. Puke Beetle (Bruchus sp.)is a 3.00 mm:  Long insect characterized by elongated antennae and a chocolate-colored body, which inflicts significant damage to crops and stored grain.
  4. Lesser Grain Borer (Rhizopertha dominica): The beetle measures approximately 1.5 mm in length, with a coloration ranging from black to brown, and possesses a globular head.
  5. Red Grain Beetle (Tribolium castaneum): The adult measures 1.5 mm in length and exhibits a reddish-brown hue, but the larva is pale yellow.
  6. Khapra Beetle (Trogoderma granarium): It is a brown-oval beetle that inflicts damage on wheat, as well as pulses, maize, and cereals. Only grubs inflict the injury.
  7. Rice moth (Coreyra cephalonica).

Harmful Effects Of Pesticides NEET

List Of Some Of The Insect Pests That Destroy Crops In The Fields

Agricultural Chemical Pesticides And Plant Pests List Of Some Of The Insects That Pests Destroy Crops In The Fields

Agricultural Chemical Pesticides Class 12 Notes For NEET

NEET Biology Agricultural Chemical Pesticides Synopsis

Common Examples Of Organochlorides Are:

  1. BHC
  2. DDT
  3. Heptachlor
  4. DDE
  5. Chlordane
  6. Endosulfan
  7. Aldrin
  8. Dieldrin
  9. Endrin.

Carbofuran is sold as furadan, propoxur as Baygon and aldicarb as Temik.

Role Of Pesticides In Agriculture NEET

Pesticide Treadmill Effect:

The usage of pesticides results in farmers allocating a greater amount of their income to these chemicals without achieving higher yields. This has occurred with cotton in India.

  • A fish residing in water contaminated with DDT can accumulate a concentration of DDT that is 1,000,000 times greater than that present in the water.
  • DDT disrupts the correct production of eggshells in birds, resulting in the destruction of deposited eggs prior to hatching.
  • Peregrine falcons, Ospreys, and bald eagles have nearly become extinct due to DDT. Gambusia fish have been employed to manage mosquito populations within Integrated Pest Management (IPM).
  • Algicides are insecticides that eliminate algal diseases and blooms, such as Copper Sulphate.
    The inaugural commercial bioinsecticide is Sporeine, which was developed in Germany.
    Organophosphates are biodegradable.

Dioxan is present as an impurity in 2,4,5 -T It is highly toxic and Carcinogen also causes kidney/ liver disorders.

Bioinsecticides of Plant Origin

  • Rotenone from roots of Derris elliptica
  • Cinerin and Pyrethrin from Chrysanthamum cinnarifolium
  • Thurioside and Sporeine from Bacillus thringenesis
  • Azadirachtin from Azadirachta indica
  • Squill from Sea Onion
  • Nicotine from Nicotiana species.

Phenylcarbamates and thiocarbamates are used as herbicides while Dithiocarbamates are used as fungicides.

 

MCQs on biopesticides – NEET Biology

NEET Biology Biopesticides Multiple Choice Questions And Answers

Question 1. Pulse pest is:

  1. Rntehtts
  2. Slug and snails
  3. Schocnobices
  4. Leptocorisa.

Answer: 1. Rntehtts

Question 2. The disease apple scab is due to:

  1. Zinc deficiency in the soil
  2. Molybdenum deficiency in the soil
  3. Respiratory gaseous products in cold storage
  4. Xanthomonas malvacerrum .

Answer: 3. Respiratory gaseous products in cold storage

Question 3. Nephantis screencap is responsible for damage of:

  1. Rice
  2. Wheat
  3. Coconut
  4. Cotton.

Answer: 3. Coconut

Question 4. Late blight of potatoes is caused by:

  1. Pythium species
  2. Calviceps purpura
  3. Phytophthora infestans
  4. Uncinula ancestor.

Answer: 1. Pythium species

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 5. Which of the following herbicides is derived from urea?

  1. Simazine
  2. DDT
  3. Malathion
  4. Aldrin.

Answer: 1. Simazine

NEET Biology Biopesticides On MCQs

Question 6. Stem borer of rice is caused by:

  1. Tnporyza inertias
  2. Leptocorisa varicomis
  3. Pectinophora gossypiella
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Tnporyza incertulas

Biopesticides Mcq For Neet

Question 7. Which of the following pests feeds directly on the rice grains?

  1. Red pumpkin beetle
  2. Rice weevil
  3. Carpet beetle
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Rice weevil

Question 8. The science which deals with the study of the nature, development and control of plant diseases is called as:

  1. Plant pathology
  2. Phytopathology
  3. Pathology
  4. Both (1) and (2).

Answer: 4. Both (1) and (2).

Question 9. A plant is said to be diseased when:

  1. It shows some physiological disorder
  2. There developed some structural abnormality
  3. Its economic value is reduced
  4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 10. In modern science, a disease is an interaction:

  1. Between the host and parasite
  2. Between the plant and environment
  3. Among the host, parasite and environment
  4. All of the above

Answer: 3. Among the host, parasite and environment

Question 11. Puccinia graminis tritici causes:

  1. Covered smut of wheat
  2. Black rust of wheat
  3. Loose smut of wheat
  4. White rust.

Answer: 2. Black rust of wheat

Biopesticides Mcq For Neet

Question 12. The problem of wheat rust in India was studied by:

  1. J.F. Dastur
  2. E.J. Butler
  3. K.C. Mehta
  4. G.S. Kulkami.

Answer: 3. K.C. Mehta

Question 13. The small insects that suck the milky sap in the tender grains of rice after destroying the crop completely are:

  1. Gundhy or paddy bugs of rice, leukocoria
  2. Larvae of rice grasshopper, hieroglyphs
  3. Rice weevil, Calandra sp.
  4. Lesser grain beetles, Rhizopertha sp.

Answer: 1. Gundhy or paddy bugs of rice, leukocoria

Question 14. An organism which causes a disease in a plant is called as:

  1. Parasite
  2. Pathogen
  3. Vector
  4. Host.

Answer: 2. Pathogen

Question 15. Bacteria and fungi are the pathogens belonging to:

  1. Biotic type
  2. Abiotic type
  3. Viral type
  4. Both biotic and abiotic types.

Answer: 1. Biotic type

Question 16. When a disease spreads to the whole of the plant, it is termed as:

  1. Localised
  2. Systemic
  3. Sporadic
  4. Endemic.

Answer: 2. Systemic

Neet Biology Mcqs On Biopesticides

Question 17. The brown leaf spot disease of rice is caused by a fungus called:

  1. Phytophthora infestans
  2. Helminthosporium oryzae
  3. Venturia inadequate
  4. Xanthomonas oryzae.

Answer: 3. Venturia inadequate

Question 18. Insect pests can be controlled by:

  1. Using bastide
  2. Using antibiotics
  3. Spraying sulphur dust
  4. Spraying insecticides.

Answer: 4. Spraying insecticides.

Question 19. Paddy bug is a serious pest of:

  1. Wheat
  2. Paddy
  3. Groundnut
  4. Sugarcane.

Answer: 4. Sugarcane.

Question 20. An abnormal increase in the size of the plant organ due to the increase in the number of cells is called:

  1. Hyperplasia
  2. Hypertrophy
  3. Overgrowth
  4. Canker.

Answer: 1. Hyperplasia

Question 21. Blight refers to the:

  1. Development Of Large And Irregular Spots On The Leaves
  2. Burnt Appearance In The Infected Part Of The Plant
  3. Decaying And Discolouring Of The Different Parts Of The Plant
  4. Death Of The Cells In The Form Of Elongated Lines Or Streaks.

Answer: 2. Burnt Appearance In The Infected Part Of The Plant

Question 22. Khapra beetle (Trogoderma granarium) is a pest of:

  1. Stem Of Rice
  2. Leaves Of Paddy
  3. Stored Grains
  4. Both (1) and (2).

Answer: 3. Stored Grains

Question 23. Wilting in a plant is caused by:

  1. An injury to the root system
  2. Loss of water from the soil
  3. Plugging of xylem by fungi and bacteria
  4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Previous Year Neet Questions On Biopesticides

Question 24. In ergot disease, fungal mycelium (Claviceps purpurea) aggregates to form a hard bunch called the:

  1. Blotch
  2. Knot
  3. Spot
  4. Sclerotium.

Answer: 1. Blotch

Mcqs On Biopesticides Question 25. Insecticides are specific inhibitors of:

  1. Nervous system
  2. Blood vascular system
  3. Digestive system
  4. Excretory system.

Answer: 1. Nervous system

Question 26. When a disease in moderate or severe form is localised to a particular region, it is called as

  1. Epidemic
  2. Endemic
  3. Sporadic
  4. Pandemic.

Answer: 2. Endemic

Question 27. The disease in which the floral parts get transformed into leafy structures is called as:

  1. Dieback
  2. Phylloidy
  3. Atrophy
  4. Hypertrophy

Answer: 2. Phylloidy

Question 28. Rust diseases are:

  1. Air bone
  2. Soil bone
  3. Seed borne
  4. All the above

Answer: 1. Air bone

Question 29. Tobacco mosaic virus particles are:

  1. Rod-shaped
  2. Rounded
  3. Comma-shaped
  4. Amoeboid.

Answer: 1. Rod-shaped

Previous Year Neet Questions On Biopesticides

Question 30. Xantliomonas oryzae causes:

  1. Bacterial blight of rice
  2. Citrus canker
  3. Potato mosaic
  4. White rust of crucifers.

Answer: 1. Bacterial blight of rice

Question 31. Bacterial blight of rice is a disease which is

  1. Seed Borne
  2. Air Borne
  3. Soil Borne
  4. Water Borne.

Answer: 1. Seed Borne

Question 32. Malathion is present in:

  1. Baygon
  2. Finit/Flit
  3. Temik
  4. Furadin.

Answer: 2. Finit/Flit

Question 33. Potato mosaic disease is caused by:

  1. Bacteria
  2. Synchytrium sp.
  3. Potato virus X and Y
  4. Both (2) and (3).

Answer: 3. Potato virus X and Y

Question 34. Black stem rust of wheat is caused by:

  1. Ustilago tritici
  2. Puccinia graminis tritici
  3. Altemaria solani
  4. None of these.

Answer: 2. Puccinia graminis tritici

Question 35. A diseased plant shows water-soaked translucent spots on the margin and mid-rib of the leaves. Slowly the spots increase and form yellowish white streaks. Bacterial exudates appear in the form of droplets on the affected parts, which later on dry up forming hard resinous granules. The vascular tissue gets plugged and the plant ultimately dies. The disease is known as:

  1. Potato mosaic
  2. Bacterial blight of rice
  3. Little leaf of brinjal
  4. Late blight of potato.

Answer: 3. Little leaf of brinjal

Question 36. Prophylaxis refers to:

  1. Curing the diseased plants
  2. Improvement of the power of disease resistance of the plants
  3. Prevention of the plants from being exposed to the agencies responsible for various plant diseases
  4. All the above.

Answer: 3. Prevention of the plants from being exposed to the agencies responsible for various plant diseases

Examples Of Biopesticides Mcqs For Neet

Question 37. Quarantine regulations are a measure of control of plant diseases of:

  1. Therapeutic nature
  2. Prophylactic nature
  3. Immunization nature
  4. Not related to plant diseases.

Answer: 2. Prophylactic nature

Question 38. Bordeaux mixture contains:

  1. Borax dissolved in water
  2. Sodium bisulphite dissolved in water
  3. Copper sulphate and lime dissolved in water
  4. Phenyl mercuric acetate dissolved in water.

Answer: 3. Copper sulphate and lime dissolved in water

NEET Objective Questions On Biopesticides Question 39. Quarantine regulations are concerned with

  1. The growing of fruit trees
  2. Prevention of entry of diseased plant material into our country
  3. The spraying of diseased plants with insecticides and fungicides, etc.
  4. None of these

Answer: 2. Prevention of entry of diseased plant material into our country

Question 40. The pesticide used as a preventive measure in buildings is:

  1. Aldrin
  2. Dieldrin
  3. Endrin
  4. DDT.

Answer: 1. Aldrin

Question 41. Systematic removal of diseased plants from a field is called:

  1. Roguing
  2. Crop rotation
  3. Field sanitation
  4. Biological control.

Answer: 1. Roguing

Question 42. A good chemotherapeutic should be:

  1. Cheap, easily available and harmless to the host
  2. Toxic to the pathogen
  3. Capable of remaining on the host surface for quite some time
  4. All of these.

Answer: 4. All of these.

Question 43. A mild mosaic of potato is visible in the form of:

  1. Hypertrophy of leaves
  2. Mild interveinal mottling or chlorosis of leaves
  3. Tubers show necrotic spots
  4. Both (2) and (3).

Answer: 4. Both (2) and (3).

Question 44. A mild mosaic of potato is transmitted by:

  1. Bacteria
  2. Sap inoculum
  3. Insects
  4. Soil.

Answer: 2. Sap inoculum

Examples Of Biopesticides Mcqs For Neet

Question 45. Rugose mosaic of potato is caused by:

  1. Potato virus X
  2. Potato virus Y, t,
  3. Potato virus A
  4. Both (1) and (2).

Answer: 4. Both (1) and (2).

Agricultural Chemical Pesticides And Plant Pests Questions From Competitive Examinations

Question 1. Which of the following pesticides is an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor?

  1. Aldrin
  2. Y-BHC
  3. Endosulfan
  4. Alatliion.

Answer: 4. Allison.

Question 2. Integrated pest management (IPM) stands for:

  1. Chemical control
  2. Biological control
  3. Host plant resistances
  4. Integration of the above.

Answer: 4. Integration of the above.

Question 3. The chemical pesticide present in Baygon is

  1. Parathion
  2. Malatliion
  3. Aldicarb
  4. Propoxur.

Answer: 4. Propoxur.

Question 4. Which one is the active ingredient of flit.?

  1. Malathion
  2. Aldicarb
  3. Propoxur
  4. Carbofuran.

Answer: 1. Malathion

Question 5. Which of the following pesticides is most toxic to vertebrates:

  1. Carbamates
  2. Organochlorines
  3. Organophosphates
  4. None of these.

Answer: 3. Organophosphates

Examples Of Biopesticides Mcqs For Neet

Question 6. D.D.T. and 2, 4-D were introduced:

  1. During World War 1
  2. Just after the World War 1
  3. Towards the beginning of World War 2
  4. Towards the end of World War 2.

Answer: 4. Towards the end of World War 2.

Question 7. Carbofuran is sold in the market as:

  1. Baygon
  2. Furadan
  3. Aldrin
  4. DDT.

Answer: 2. Furadan

Question 8. Which one of the chemicals is present in Baygon?

  1. Aldicarb
  2. Propoxur
  3. Carbofuran
  4. Malathion.

Answer: 2. Propoxur

Question 9. The major drawback of D.D.T. as a pesticide is that

  1. Organisms at once develop resistance to it.
  2. It is significantly less effective than other pesticides
  3. Its cost of production is high
  4. It is not readily and rapidly degraded in nature.

Answer: 4. It is not readily and rapidly degraded in nature.

Question 10. Which is a fungicide?

  1. BHC
  2. DDT
  3. 2,4-D
  4. Bordeaux mixture.

Answer: 4. Bordeaux mixture.

Question 11. A pesticide of a lipophilic nature is:

  1. 2-4D
  2. DDT
  3. BHC
  4. Carbamates.

Answer: 2. DDT

Question 12. The common mode of action of most insecticides is through the attack on:

  1. Nervous system
  2. Circulatory system
  3. Respiratory system
  4. Muscular system.

Answer: 1. Nervous system

Question 13. Which of the following is not correctly matched:

  1. Pyrethroid—Arazine
  2. Organochlorine—D.D.T.
  3. Organophosphate—Malathion
  4. Carbamate—Carbaryl.

Answer: 1. Pyrethoid—Arazine

Biopesticides Mcq For Neet

Question 14. Which of the following ingredients of pesticide killed hundreds of people in the Bhopal gas tragedy:

  1. Carbon tetra chloride
  2. Methyl isocyanate
  3. Mustard gas
  4. Nitrous acid.

Answer: 2. Methyl isocyanate

Question 15. Herbicides interfere with

  1. Carbon dioxide absorption
  2. Water absorption
  3. Translocation of sugar
  4. Photolysis of water.

Answer: 4. Photolysis of water.

Question 16. Drinking mineral water with very low pesticides (about 0.02 ppm) for long periods may:

  1. Cause cancer of the intestine
  2. Produce immunity against mosquito
  3. Cause leukaemia (blood cancer) in most people
  4. Lead to the accumulation of pesticide residues in body fat.

Answer: 4. Lead to accumulation of pesticide residues of body fat.

Question 17. Which one among the following is likely to have the highest level of DDT deposition in its body?

  1. Crab
  2. Eel fish
  3. Sea gull
  4. Phytoplanktons

Answer: 3. Seagull

Mcqs On Biopesticides Question 18. The chemicals used in the National Malaria Eradication Programme are:

  1. BHC
  2. DDT
  3. 2,4-D
  4. Pyrethroid

Answer: 2. DDT

Biopesticides Mcq For Neet

Question 19. Which one is a pest:

  1. Mouse
  2. Pathogen
  3. Insect
  4. All of these.

Answer: 4. All of these.

Question 20. Insecticides obtained from neem plant are:

  1. Pyrethrin
  2. Pyrethroid
  3. Thiocarbamate
  4. Azadirachtin.

Answer: 4. Azadirachtin.

Question 21. Which of the following statements is correct about DDT?

  1. It is not a pollutant
  2. It is a biomagnifying biodegradable pollutant
  3. It is a non-biomagnifying biodegradable pollutant
  4. It is a biomagnifying non-biodegradable pollutant.

Answer: 4. It is a biomagnifying non-biodegradable pollutant.

Mcqs On Biopesticides Question 22. Weed killers generally have properties much like that of:

  1. Hormones
  2. Carbohydrate
  3. Enzymes
  4. All of these.

Answer: 1. Hormones

Question 23. Bordeaux mixture can be prepared by mixing the copper sulphate with:

  1. Limestone
  2. Sodium chloride
  3. Calcium sulphate
  4. Milk of calcium hydroxide.

Answer: 4. Milk of calcium hydroxide.

Question 24. Which is used as weedicide?

  1. 2, 4-D
  2. IBA
  3. IAA
  4. ABA.

Answer: 1. 2, 4-D

Question 25. Biomagnification phenomenon is related to the pollutant:

  1. CO2
  2. NO2
  3. DDT
  4. SO2

Answer: 3. DDT

 

NEET Biology Notes on Human Growth Development

NEET Biology Human Growth Development

  • Growth is defined as an irreversible permanent change in the volume or size of a living body accompanied by a change in the dry weight.
  • It involves 3 phases i.e. phase of cell division, phase of cell elongation, and phase of cell differentiation.
  • Growth is always followed by differentiation and the two phenomena jointly constitute a larger phenomenon called development.
  • The growth centers in higher plants are called meristems which may be apical, lateral, or intercalary.
  • The growth at the cellular level is initiated by plasmatic growth. A cell passes through 3 phases of growth, differentiated as cell formation, cell elongation, and cell maturation.
  • The growth may be measured in terms of fresh weight, dry weight, length, and area.
  • Growth in length can be measured by horizontal microscopy, are indicator, or auxanometer. Bose’s crescograph is the finest instrument for measuring growth.

Sachs was the first to plot growth rate i.e., increase of growth per unit of time, and obtained a sigmoid curve.

Growth And Development Of S -Shaped Growth Curve

Human Growth and Development NEET Notes

He differentiated three phases i.e., lag, log or exponential, and steady-state followed by the senescence phase. In some plants, a linear phase is recognized.

  1. The arithmetic growth of the root can be put as Lt = Lo +rt, where Lo is the length at zero time, Lt at time t, and r is the growth rate.
  2. Maintenance of the ratio between the growth rates of different parts is called allometric growth. The growth shows a diurnal rhythm. They are partly endogenous and partly governed by external factors.
  3. The growing shoot tip follows a helical path and the phenomenon is called circumnutation. Many phases of plants operate by a ‘biological clock’.
  4. When a distinct juvenile phase is identified in the life history, the development is said to be heteroblastic. Such phases have been seen in many plants. Example:  BatrachosperDuan, Hedera, Citrus, Quercus, etc.

The juvenility may be due to arrested development or low light intensity. In Acacia melamoxylon, it recapitulates phylogeny.

Human Growth And Development NEET Notes

NEET Biology Notes On Human Growth Development Factors Affecting Growth

The growth of plants is fundamentally regulated by genetic factors via the production of several enzymes. Multiple environmental elements affect growth, including flight, temperature, CO2 levels, moisture, nutrition, and pollution.

  • Plants growing in darkness exhibit etiolation. Light intensity influences leaf orientation, chlorophyll synthesis, and other factors. Sun leaves differ from shadow leaves.
  • Optimal growth is observed under red light, while minimal growth occurs under green light among monochromatic lights. Gamma, ultraviolet, and X-rays are detrimental to plants. The length of light influences flowering.
  • The temperature thresholds for the growth phase are 5°C, 20-30°C, and 35-40°C. They respond to diurnal (photo-temperature) and nocturnal temperatures. This occurrence is referred to as thermoperiodicity.
  • Exposure to severe temperatures results in harm to plants. For instance, desiccation, refrigeration, and cryopreservation.
  • To endure these challenges, a plant exhibits both internal and external adaptations.
    An elevation in CO2concentration from 300 to 1000 ppm enhances net respiration (NR) and relative growth rate (RGR) in certain plant species. Moisture stress may cause the RGR to decline to zero.
  • The growth of plants is affected by mineral deficiencies, specifically nitrogen, calcium, iodine, and boron.
  • Growth is significantly impacted by contaminants including fluorine, ozone, and ethylene.

Human Growth And Development NEET Notes

NEET Biology Notes On Human Growth Development Growth regulators

  1. Growth is regulated not only by environmental factors like light and temperature but also by certain chemical substances within the plants.
  • These substances are known as plant hormones, growth hormones, phytohormones, or growth regulators.
  • A plant hormone can be defined as a chemical substance, which is capable of translocation and regulating one or more physiological reactions, when present in low concentrations.
  • The plant hormones can have a positive effect on a process and thus promote it, or they have a negative effect and cause inhibition. A particular hormone may promote certain processes, or inhibit some other processes.

Human Growth And Development NEET Notes

NEET Biology Notes On Human Growth Development Auxins

  • Auxins (auxin = to grow) are a class of phytohormones that promote longitudinal growth in plants.
  • Auxins that occur in plants are called natural auxins eg.- indole-3-acetic acid, Indolc- 3-acetaldehyde, and Indolc-3-pyruvic acid.
  • Synthetic auxins are synthesized artificially and have properties like auxins, eg.- Naphthalene Acetic Acid (NAA), Indole Butyric Acid (IBA), Indole Propionic Acid (IPA), 2, 4-Dichlorophenoxy acetic acid (2,4-D).
  • The biosynthesis of auxin has been traced back from the amino acid tryptophan.
  • The movement of auxins is polar and basipetal in most plants.
  • Auxins can be degraded by the enzyme system IAA oxidase and also by light. They can be inactivated by X-rays UV-rays and gamma rays.
  • Auxins are synthesized in the apices ol‘ the stem.
  • The most characteristic action of auxin is to promote cell enlargement.
  • Auxins cause growth in leaves, roots, stems, etc. by Indicating cell enlargement and cell elongation.
  • The cell enlargement is due to ;
    1. Increase in osmotic content of the cell.
    2. increase in cell permeability to water. ,
    3. Reduction in wall pressure,
    4. Increase in wall synthesis and,
    5. Synthesis of specific RNA and proteins which increase cell wall plasticity.

Human Growth And Development NEET Notes

NEET Biology Notes On Human Growth Development Gibberellins

They are weakly acidic plant growth hormones that possess a gibbon ring, structure, and can bring about cell elongation of both leaves and stems in general, and intermodal length of genetically dwarf plants in particular.

  • They are named after the fungus Gibberella  (= Fusariitm moniliform) which produces balance (foolish seedling disease) in rice. The hormone was discovered by Yabuta and Suniiki. Yabuta (1935) coined the term gibberellin.
  • About 100 gibberellins are known, GA or gibberellic acid is the commonest. GA4 and GA2 are also commercially used. Gibberellins are synthesized in plants in the leaves of buds, developing embryos, and root tips.
  • GA3 promotes intermodal elongation and flowering.
  • They promote stem growth by activating the subapical meristem of the stem tip.
  • The elongation of internodes before flowering in rosette plants is called bolting.
  • Applications of gibberellins induce bolting.
  • Gibberellins induce flowering in long-day plants during short-day conditions, e.g.- cabbage, Rudbeckia.
  • Gibberellins induce flowering in plants that require cool winter nights before flowering (i.e., they substitute the cold treatment, vernalization).
  • Gibberellins break the dormancy in buds and seeds.
  • Gibberellins promote the germination of cereal grains such as barley, wheat, rice, etc.
  • Gibberellins promote the development of parthenocarpic fruits in tomatoes, apples, almonds, etc.
    1. The size of the fruits and seeds also increases due to gibberellin treatment.
    2. When giberellins are sprayed on plants their leaves become expanded. It increases the total photosynthetic area and biomass.
    3. Gibberellins inhibit the formation of adventitious roots from the cut end of the stem.
    4. Parthenocarpy. They can induce parthenocarpy in several plants.
    5. Maleness. Gibberellins stimulate maleness.
    6. Fruit Yield. Gibberellin application increases the number and size of fruits, e.g., grapes.
    7. Malt. There is increased malt production when gibberellins are provided to germinating barley grains (due to greater production of a-amylase).
    8. Sugarcane. GA application increases the sugar yield of sugarcane by promoting intermodal length.

NEET Human Growth And Development Chapter Notes

NEET Biology Notes On Human Growth Development Cytokinins

Cytokinins are slightly basic growth hormones, often derivatives of amino-purine (sometimes adenine), that stimulate cell division in plants. The initial cytokinin was identified by Miller et al. (1955) via the autoclaving of Herring sperm DNA.

  • The substance is a synthetic compound known as kinetin. It is 9-furfurylaminopurine. The initial natural cytokinin was identified by Letham et al. (1963). It was satin fabric. Approximately 18 cytokinins have been identified, including dihydrozeatin, IPA, and benzyl adenine.
  • Cytokinins are crucial for cytokinesis via chromosomal duplication and may occur in their absence.
  • Cytokinins induce division in permanent cells in the presence of auxin.
  • Cytokinins, like to auxin and gibberellins, induce cell elongation.
  • Buds arise when cytokinins are in surplus, but roots develop when their ratios are inverted (Skoog and Miller, 1957).
  • Cytokinins promote plastid differentiation, lignification, and the development of interfascicular cambium.
  • Cytokinins postpone the senescence of leaves and other tissues. They also enhance resilience to harsh temperatures and diseases.
  • They function antagonistically to auxin, which facilitates apical dominance.
    Similar to gibberellins, they mitigate seed dormancy.
  • They facilitate phloem movement.
  • Cytokinins, similar to auxins and ethylene, facilitate the development of female characteristics in flowers.

Human Growth And Development Class 12 Notes For NEET

NEET Biology Notes On Human Growth Development Ethylene

  1. Ethylene (CH2 = CH2) is a volatile gas present in the atmosphere and as a component of smoke and other industrial gases. Ethylene is formed by incomplete combustion of carbon-rich compounds such as coal, petroleum, and natural gas.
  2. Soon after the introduction of illuminating gas (produced from coal) for home and street lighting, evidence of plant damage was observed. Physiological studies confirmed that plants produce ethylene by metabolic process during growth and development.
  3. Ripening fruits in particular synthesize quantities of ethylene that build up to rather high concentrations within intercellular spaces of fruit tissue. The most important effect of ethylene on fruit ripening is that it is produced in large amounts which coincides with the respiratory climacteric.
  4. Excess of auxin causes ethylene synthesis.
  5. In the presence of ethylene, roots become apogeotropic while stems turn positively geotropic.
  6. Abscission of various parts (leaves, flowers, fruits,) is stimulated by ethylene which induces the formation of hydrolases.
  7. Ethylene promotes apical dominance and prolongs the dormancy of lateral buds.
  8. In low concentrations ethylene helps in root initiation, growth of lateral roots, and root hairs.

NEET Biology Human Growth And Development Revision Notes

NEET Biology Notes On Human Growth Development Abscisic Acid (Aba)

  • It is also called stress hormone or dormant because the production of hormones is stimulated by drought, water logging, and other adverse environmental conditions.
  • The hormone is an inhibitor that counteracts the influence of growth-promoting hormones (auxin, gibberellins, and cytokinins), induces dormancy, and helps overcome conditions of stress. The hormone was discovered by Addicott et al in 1963.
  • It is commonly formed inside chloroplasts either from mevalonic acid or xanthophyll-like violoxanthin.
  • It is known as dormant as it induces dormancy in buds, underground stems, and seeds.
  • This hormone was first isolated by Addicott et al (1963) from cotton balls.
  • It is produced in many parts of the plants but more abundantly inside the chloroplasts of green cells.
  • The hormone is formed from mevalonic acid or xanthophylls.
  • It is transported to all parts of the plant through diffusion as well as transport channels (phloem and xylem).
  • Abscisic acid induces dormancy of buds towards the approach of winter.
  • The buds as well as seeds sprout only when abscisic acid is overcome by gibberellin.
  • The formation of abscisic acid stops mitosis in the vascular cambium towards the approach of winter.
  • Abscisic acid promotes the abscission of flowers and fruits.

NEET Biology Notes Oon Human Growth Development Calines

  • The effect of auxin on root, stem, and leaves is not an isolated reaction but involves other natural hormones called canines which are of three types :
  1. Rhizocaline: It is a special root-forming honnone produced by the leaves and transported in a polar manner down the stem.
  2. Caulocaline: It is a stem-forming hormone synthesized in roots from where it is translocated to its site of activity in the stem. ,
  3. Phyllocaline: It stimulates mesophyll development in leaves. It is synthesized only in the presence of light and the actual site of its synthesis is not known.

NEET Biology Human Growth And Development Important Points

NEET Biology Notes On Human Growth Development Florigen

It is a floral hormone that is produced in photo-induced leaves and translocated to apical and lateral meristems where flower formation is initiated

Growth And Development Uses Of Some Synthetic Auxins

NEET Biology Human Growth And Development Important Points

NEET Biology Notes On Human Growth Development Useful Information

  • Went is credited with the discovery of auxins.
  • Hitchcock and Zimmerman showed that flowering in Nicotiana can be accelerated by auxins.
  • Auxins prevent premature leaf fall by arresting the formation of the abscission layer.
  • Snow (1933) showed that the reactivation of the cambial cells in the spring season is due to auxins.
  • Went named the growth-promoting substance Auxin (auxin = to grow)
  • Kogl and Haagen Smith isolated three chemicals from human urine and named them auxin a, auxin b, and heteroauxin.
  • IAA was first discovered by KogI et al in 1934.
  • Letham et al obtained the first naturally occurring cytokinin from unripe maize grain called Zeatin (6 hydroxy, 3 methyl trans, 2 butenyl amino purine).
  • Crookes et al recognized ethylene as a plant hormone. r4 Cams and Addict (1961) extracted abscisin-1 and abscisic-II from old cotton bolls and young cotton bolls respectively.
  • Knott (1934) found that the locus for photoperiodic induction occurs in the leaves.
  • Wellensick (1964) found that the locus for perception of cold treatment is the mer- istematic cells, especially the shoot apex.
  • Yabuta (1935) separated the hormone and named it Gibberellin.
  • O Yabuta (1938) prepared a crystalline form of Gibberellin.
  • Hitchcock and Zimmerman showed that flowering in Nicotiana can be acceler¬ated by auxins.
  • Snow (1933) showed that the cambial cells become activated in spring due to auxins.
  • Brain et al (1955) isolated GA3 in pure form.
  • Cross et al (1961) worked out the structure of Gibberellin or GA3. It is chemically CL 19 ^22
  • The first cytokinin was discovered by Miller et al and called Kinetin.
  • Draghett (1933) used the term crypto vegetation to signify a state of vegetation maintained by certain plants under low-temperature conditions of winter.
  • Peter Ray et al showed that IAA promotes the liberation of a water-soluble xyloglucan from the cell wall.
  • Boysen Jensen (1931) while working on coleoptiles of oats (Avena saliva), concluded that growth triggering substance is synthesized in the coleoptile tips.
  • Paal (1919) confirmed that growth-promoting substance is synthesized in the stem tips only.
  • Went extracted the substance from Avena coleoptile tip and observed its effects
    on the stump. He named the substance as auxin.
  • Kogl, Erxlaben, and Haagen-Smit isolated heteroauxin from human urine which was chemically Indole-3-acetic acid (IAA). The term auxin was coined by KogI.

Stages Of Human Growth And Development NEET 

NEET Biology Notes On Human Growth Development Photoperiodism

  • Light is of crucial significance in the flowering of plants. The response of a plant to the Native lengths of light and dark periods is called photoperiodism and the length of the daylight required by the plant to flower is called photoperiod.
  • Garner and Allard (1920) classified plants into three groups according to their photoperiods.
  • Short-dav plants (SDP or long-night plants): These plants flower when the day length is less than a certain critical length (critical day length is the photoperiod required to induce flowering) say 12 hours. Some examples of short-day plants are tobacco, soybean, Xanlhium, and Chrysanthemum. etc.
  • Long-day plants: These plants flower when the day length is greater than a certain critical length example. Spinach, sugarbeet, radish, henbane, potato etc.
  • Day-neutral plants: These plants flower in all possible photoperiods e.g. tomato, four o’clock, cotton, cucumber, balsam, maize, etc.
  • The photoperiodic stimulus is received by a pigment called phytochrome present in leaves. This pigment is a protein with a chromophore prosthetic group. It seems to be localized in the cell membranes. Phytochrome exists in two interconvertible forms i.e. Pr and Pfr.
  • The Pr form of phytochrome absorbs red light (660 nm) and is converted into Pfr form while Pfr forms absorb far-red light (730 nm) and are converted into Pr form. Under continuous darkness, the Pfr form of phytochrome gradually changes to Pr form which promotes the formation of flowering stimulus in short-day plants.
  • If the long dark period is interrupted by red light, the Pr form is converted into Pfr form which inhibits the formation of flowering stimulus in short-day plants. In long-day plants, the flowering is promoted by the Pfr form of phytochrome as the long light period favors the conversion of Pr to the Pfr form of phytochrome.
  • It is. therefore, concluded that flowering in short-day plants is promoted by the Pr form and inhibited by the Pfr form whereas in long-day plants, flowering is promoted by the Pfr form of phytochrome and inhibited by the Pr form.
  • The floral stimulus is a floral hormone. Butler and others isolated the phytochrome pigment responsible for the above change. It is a glycoprotein having a molecular weight of 1,25,000 and located in the plasma membrane. It occurs in two forms PR and Pp^ which are interconvertible as under :
  • The photo-induced leaves synthesize this floral hormone called florigen which is translocated to the site of flower formation. Cajlachjan (1958) suggested that there are two steps involved in the flowering process, the first mediated by gibberellin and the second by the flowering factor called ‘adhesive.’
  • Together, gibberellin and anthesine constitute the true florigen.

Photoperiodism and C/N Ratio: Kraus and Kraybill, 1918, while working with tomato plants discovered an interesting correlation. They found that different levels of carbohydrate and nitrate supply produce different responses in the plant. Broadly speaking there are four possibilities.

  1. Very high C/N Ratio → Plants remain weakly vegetative and no flowering is observed.
  2. High C/N Ratio → Plants show less vegetative growth but flower profusely.
  3. Low C/N Ratio→ Plants show luxuriant vegetative growth but no flowering is observed.
  4. Very low C/N Ratio → Plants show weak vegetative growth but fail to produce flowers.
  • The Day neutrals or photo neutrals do not need any specific photoperiod for flowering example, Cucumis, Gossypium, impatiens, Lycopersicon, Zea, Mirabilis, etc.
  • The photoperiod needed for flowering is called a critical day length. In short-day plants, it indicates the minimum period whereas in long-day plants, it tells the maximum photoperiod.
  • Based on experiments Knott, and Cajlachjan confirmed that photoperiodic and photoperiodic stimulus is captured by leaves of cotyledons. The experiments were conducted on loin pioups of plants of Chrysanthemum.

The photoperiodic stimulus may be systemic (Xanthium) or localiscil ((cosmos), Host flowering ooouis in red wavelength. poor flowering under blue and no flowering occurs in green.

Factors Affecting Growth And Development NEET

NEET Biology Notes On Human Growth Development Vernalization

  • Many species, especially biennials and perennials, arc induced or promoted to flower by low temperatures. Vernalization is the low-temperature treatment given to water-soaked seeds, slightly germinated seeds, or seedlings to hasten the time of plants that will develop from them.
  • So, vernalization can best be defined as “The acquisition or acceleration of tire ability to flower by a chilling treatment.’’ (Chounrd 1960).
  • T.D Lysenko used the term vernalization as a low-temperature promotion of flowering in plants, The low-temperature requirement for flowering was first noticed by lvlippart (1837) while working with two varieties of wheat, the winter wheat and the spring wheat.
  • He concluded that winter wheat requires low treatment (0 – 5° C) for subsequent flowering, a tire phenomenon now called vernalization. It is an aerobic process.
  • Plains, in nature, requiring vernalization commonly behave as biennials. The biennials complete their life cycle in two years. They germinate and grow vegetatively in the first year and produce flowers in the second year of growth.
  • These fulfill their cold requirement during winter.
  • Russian scientists recognized the following two phrases in vernalization.
  • Thermophase. It requires a temperature varying between 10 – 20° C together with some moisture and oxygen (so that the embryo wakes up from the dormancy).
  • This phase has to be completed before the initiation of the primordia of reproductive organs. The period of low-temperature treatment varies from four days to three months in different plants. Thermophase can take place during the day as well as at night.
  • Photophase. A thermophase has to be followed by a period of illumination (i.e., photoperiod) and a period of relatively high temperature.
  • This low-temperature treatment given to the seeds to reduce the vegetative growth period and accelerate flowering is called vernalization or Yarovization. The site of vernalization is believed to be the growing point (apical bud).
  • The German botanist, Melchers (1939) demonstrated that the product of vernalization could be transmitted from a vernalized to an unvernalized Hyoscyamus plant through a graft union. He named this substance vernalin which is a hypothetical one and has not been isolated yet.
  • The vernalization effect is reversible and the process is called deyernalization. If the vernalized seeds are kept at high temperatures or under anaerobic conditions, they revert to their normal nature and produce biennial plants.

Growth Hormones And Development NEET

Human development NEET notes Mechanism Of Vernalization

  • To explain the mechanism of vernalization in physiological terms, three different hypotheses have been put forward.
  • Antagonism between vegetative and reproductive growth. According to this theory, vegetative growth and flowering are antagonistic to each other. Thus any means of repressing vegetative growth would result in flowering.
  • Phasic development hypothesis. Lysenko (1932) emphasized the distinction between growth (quantitative change or increase in size) and development (a qualitative change or progressive change in the characteristics of new organs produced in cell division) and opined what has become known as the ‘Phasic development theory’.
  • According to this theory, the process of development of an annual seed plant consists of a series of phases that must occur in some predetermined sequence. When the proceeding phase is completed, the onset of any one phase will only take place.
  • Flower-producing substances hypothesis—Regarding the role of flower-producing substances during vernalization in cereal plants, Purvis (1961) has proposed a scheme. According to Purvis’s scheme, B is some compound that is part of a reaction system leading to flowering.

Growth And Development In Flower Producing Substances Hypothesis

Difference Between Growth And Development NEET

NEET growth and development Biology Factors Affecting Vernalization

  1. Water and Oxygen. Dry seeds cannot be vernalized. Seeds need to imbibe about 30¬40% moisture before they can be vernalized. Although moisture may be present, in the absence of air or oxygen, seeds or plants cannot be vernalized.
  2. In other words, active respiration is essential. This is supported by the fact that the inhibitors of respiration such as cyanide and dinitrophenol prevent vernalization even when other conditions are favourable.
  3. Temperature. The seeds of plants can be vernalized by exposing them to low temperatures. Usually, a temperature in the range of 1-7° C is equally effective. Vernalization, although weak, is still possible at temperatures lower than this range up to-4 °C and the higher range up to 12°C. Temperature beyond 12°C does not cause vernalization.
  4. Food Substances. If vernalization has to take place, there should be a source of carbohydrates. Isolated embryos of cereals cannot be vernalized till these are supplied with sucrose and minerals.
  5. Effect of Light. Light does not affect the process of vernalization. Many plants like carrots and hyoscyams have both vernalization and photoperiodic requirements for flowering.
  6. Effect on Hormones. Many species with an obligate vernalization requirement such as Carrot and Hyoscyams are rosette in habit during the vegetative stage. When vernalized, these plants show flowering, and flowering is accompanied by rapid elongation.
  7. Such an elongation of the stem is called bolting. In such rosette plants, the vernalization requirement can be replaced by the application of gibberellic acid.
  8. In these plants, GA causes both bolting and flowering without the necessity of exposure to low temperatures.

Role Of Endocrine System In Human Growth NEET

NEET Biology Notes On Human Growth Development Senescence

As the young plant grows, it undergoes aging and develops into mature plants in an orderly fashion. Senescence constitutes a collective, progressive, and deteriorative development process that ultimately leads to the complete loss of organization and function of plant or plant parts.

Types of senescence. Mainly senescence is of two types :

  1. Whole plant senescence. In the case of monocarpic species ( which flower and form fruit only once in their lifetime and then die) whole plant senescence occurs e.g.wheat, soybeans (annuals), agave, bamboo, sunflower etc.
  2. Organ senescence. In polycarpic species (which flower and form fruit repeatedly) senescence and death are not associated with flowering and fruiting. Organ senescence is of the following types.
  3. Shoot senescence. In herbaceous perennials, the whole above-ground part of the plant body may senescence and die each year. example: Gladius, Ginger, Rumex, Banana.
  4. Simultaneous or synchronous senescence. Leaves of temperate deciduous woody arcs may sense and fall at a certain season of the year. It is controlled by environmental factors rather than internal factors.
  5. Sequential senescence. It is the progressive senescence of older leaves which may occur at any time of year. Each leaf in most of the plants has a limited life span, so that the shoot grows in height, lower older leaves tend to senesce and die.
  6. Retardants of Sense . Kinetin, a growth regulator, retards senescence of leaves. It causes a rapid increase in the rate of RNA and protein synthesis and it also causes mobilization of metabolites.
  • Growth is a quantitative phenomenon and can be measured over time.
  • Quiescence is the suspension of growth due to external factors such as changes in surrounding conditions.
  • Seed dormancy may be due to rudimentary, embryos, permeable seed coats, mechanically resistant seed coats, physiologically immature embryos, and due to presence of germination inhibitors.
  • The common germination inhibitors are abscisic acid, phenolic acids, short-chain fatty acids, and coumarin.
  • Rhizophora. Sonneratia and Heriticra growing in marshy land show a special type of germination termed vivipary, in which seed germination within the fruit, while still attached to the parent plant.
  • The rate of growth is called the efficiency index.
  • Auxin precursors tire the compounds which can be converted to auxins.
  • Antiauxins inhibit the action of auxins
  • Free auxins can be easily extracted and are active.
  • Bound auxins are inactive and hard to extract. They need the use of organic solvents. A dynamic equilibrium exists between the two forms.

Human Growth And Development NEET Chapter Summary

NEET Biology Notes on Human Growth Development Quanta to Memory

  • The presence of more auxin on the lower side of the stem apex causes more growth oil on that side.
  • The presence of more auxin in the root has a negative effect i.e., it inhibits growth on the lower side.
  • IAA (Indole Acetic Acid) is the principal naturally occurring auxin found in all plants studied so far and also in fungi.
  • IAA Destruction is caused by : (i) Photo-oxidation by blue light, and (ii) Dark oxidation by IAA-oxidase.
  • Auxin IAA stimulates ethylene synthesis in a plant.
  • IAA also occurs in human urine, especially in persons suffering from pellagra.
  • Bioiissay means the testing of a substance for its activity in living organisms under controlled conditions.
  • Abscission is the shedding of leaves, fruits, or (lowers by a plant generally due to a change in the hormonal balance.
  • The term Phytoalexin was introduced by Muller (1956) example. Pisatin in Pisum sativum is due to an infection of Ascochyta Ω.
  • 0•025 % of maleic hydrazide prevents potato sprouting.
  • Cytokinins along with auxins help in the differentiation of roots and shoots.
  • 2,4 D is a synthetic auxin acting as a weedicide.
  • Abscisic acid inhibits gibberellin-mediated amylase formation during the germination of cereal grains.
  • ABA has been found to induce parthenocarpic development in roses.
  • The use of abscisic acid promotes rooting in many stem cuttings.
  • It counteracts the effects of all growth-promoting hormones (auxins, gibberellins, cytokinins) and therefore, keeps their activity under check.
  • The role of IAA in humans is not known.
  • In maize, the single cotyledon never leaves the germinating grain and plumule grows out of coleoptile.
  • Vernalization was first studied in Europe on the winter varieties of cereals such as wheat, barley, rye, and oat.
  • The chemical nature of vernalin (Cold induced stimulus) is not known.
  • In growth anabolic processes dominate over the catabolic processes and therefore growth is the final product of successful metabolism.

NEET Biology MCQs on Human Growth Development

NEET Biology Growth And Development Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Growth is defined as :

  1. increase in size
  2. increase in shape
  3. increase in weight
  4. permanent increase in dry weight accompanied by a permanent increase in weight, size, and volume.

Answer: 4. permanent increase in dry weight accompanied by a permanent increase in weight, size, and volume.

Question 2. The maximum growth rate occurs in:

  1. exponential phase
  2. lag phase
  3. stationary phase
  4. senescence phase.

Answer: 1. exponential phase

Question 3. Mobilization of stored food in germinating seeds is triggered by :

  1. auxins
  2. cytokinins
  3. gibberellins
  4. ethylene.

Answer: 3. gibberellins

Question 4. The highest concentrations of auxin exist:

  1. at the base of various plant organs
  2. in growing tips of plants
  3. in leaves
  4. in xylem and phloem cells only.

Answer: 2. in growing tips of plants

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 5. Exogenous application of Gibberellins induces male flower formation on genetically female plants in:

  1. Cucumis
  2. Cucurbita
  3. Ccirica
  4. Coccinia.

Answer: 2. Cucurbita

Human Growth And Development MCQs

Question 6. Presence of which of the following is associated with seed dormancy?

  1. Starch
  2. Ethylene
  3. IAA
  4. Abscisic acid.

Answer: 4. Abscisic acid

Question 7. Growth takes place when:

  1. destructive processes are more than constructive ones
  2. destructive and constructive processes are equal
  3. constructive processes are more than destructive processes
  4. only anabolic processes occur, and no catabolic processes.

Answer: 3. constructive processes are more than destructive processes

Question 8. Growing points possess :

  1. meristematic cells
  2. mature cells
  3. dead cells
  4. slowly enlarging cells.

Answer: 1. meristematic cells

Question 9. In higher plant growth takes place :

  1. in the entire plant body
  2. in aerial parts only
  3. by growing points scattered all over the body
  4. by growing points confined to certain regions of the plant.

Answer: 4. by growing points confined to certain regions of the plant.

Question 10. The correct sequence of development stages in the plant is :

  1. Flowering-fruiting-juvenility-germination
  2. Germination-juvenility-flowering-fruiting
  3. Juvenility-flowering-germination-fruiting
  4. Fruiting-flowering-Juvenility-germination.

Answer: 2. Germination-juvenility-flowering-fruiting

Human Growth And Development MCQs

Question 11. The correct sequence of cellular growth stage is :

  1. Division-differentiation-elongation
  2. Division-elongation-differentiation
  3. Diffcrcntitation-division-elongation
  4. Elongation-differentiation.

Answer: 2. Division-elongation-differentiation

Question 12. Some chemicals have profound effects on plant growth arc called:

  1. catalytic agents
  2. phytohormones
  3. enzymes
  4. simple hormones.

Answer: 2. phytohormones

Question 13. The short-day winter annual “Pansy” belongs to the genus:

  1. Iberis
  2. Viola
  3. Papaver
  4. Malva.

Answer: 2. Viola

Question 14. The rate of growth of a stem of the plant is measured using:

  1. hydrometer
  2. osmometer
  3. auxanometer
  4. photometer.

Answer: 3. auxanometer

MCQs On Human Growth For NEET

Question 15. Light of low intensity :

  1. increases growth
  2. develops weak stem
  3. decreases growth
  4. does not affect growth.

Answer: 2. develops weak stem

Question 16. The favorable temperature for plant growth is :

  1. 10°-15°C
  2. 15°-20°C
  3. 35°-40°C
  4. 20°-30°C.

Answer: 2. 15°-20°C

Question 17. Plant growth is regulated by :

  1. environment
  2. growth hormones
  3. environment and growth hormones
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. environment and growth hormones

Question 18. Classical experiments on plant growth were performed by:

  1. Devers and Pall
  2. Boysen-Jensen and Darwin
  3. Lamarck-Boysen and Jensen
  4. None of the above.

Answer:2. Boysen-Jensen and Darwin

MCQs On Human Growth For NEET

Question 19. Phytohormones are :

  1. hormones regulating growth from seed to adulthood
  2. growth regulators synthesized by plants and influencing the physiological process
  3. hormones regulating flowering
  4. hormones regulating secondary growth.

Answer: 2. growth regulators synthesized by plants and influencing physiological process

NEET Questions Plant Growth and Development Question 20. Which type of light is favorable for plant growth?

  1. White
  2. Red
  3. Green
  4. Violet.

Answer: 2. Red

Question 21. Plants can be vernalized by :

  1. heat treatment
  2. hormonal treatment
  3. cold temperature treatment
  4. colchicine treatment.

Answer: 3. cold temperature treatment

Question 22. The combination of auxin and cytokinin which is likely to induce shoot differentiation in tobacco callus is :

  1. only auxin and no cytokinin
  2. only cytokinin and no auxin
  3. higher concentration of auxin and lower concentration of cytokinin
  4. lower concentration of cytokinin and higher concentration of auxin.

Answer: 3. higher concentration of auxin lower concentration of cytokinin

Question 23. The substance which enhances stem growth is :

  1. enzyme
  2. vitamin
  3. auxin
  4. abscisic acid.

Answer: 3. auxin

NEET Previous Year Questions On Growth

Question 24. The following plant growth substances are not growth promoters:

  1. IAA
  2. Gibberellins
  3. Kinetin
  4. Abscisic acid.

Answer: 4. Abscisic acid.

Question 25. The habit of the cabbage plant can be changed drastically by the application of :

  1. IAA
  2. Gibberellins
  3. Kinetin
  4. Abscisic acid.

Answer: 2. Gibberellins

Question 26. The synthesis of amylase in certain cereals is stimulated by :

  1. IAA
  2. Gibberellins
  3. Kinetin
  4. Abscisic acid.

Answer: 2. Gibberellins

Question 27. The curvature in Avena coleoptile is associated with growth substance :

  1. IAA
  2. Gibberellins
  3. Kinetin
  4. Abscisic acid.

Answer: 1. IAA

Question 28. The short-day winter annual ‘Pansy’ belongs to the genus :

  1. Iberis
  2. Viola
  3. Malva
  4. Papaver.

Answer: 2. Viola

Question 29. 2,4-D stands for :

  1. 2,4-Dichlorobutyric acid
  2. 2,4-Dichlorophenoxy acetic acid
  3. 2,4-Dichloronaphthalene acetic acid
  4. 2,4-Dichloroacetic acid.

Answer: 2. 2,4-Dichlorophenoxy acetic acid

NEET Previous Year Questions On Growth

Question 30. Intermodal elongation is promoted by :

  1. gibberellic acid
  2. ethylene
  3. abscisic acid
  4. coumarin.

Answer: 1. gibberellic acid

Question 31. To be very accurate, the long-day plants have :

  1. Short night requirement for flowering
  2. No night requirement for flowering
  3. Long night requirement for flowering
  4. Short-day requirement for flowering.

Answer: 1. Short night requirement for flowering

Question 32. In the R-FR responses of plants it is the :

  1. the first treatment that counts
  2. middle treatment that counts
  3. last treatment that counts
  4. total of all the treatments that count.

Answer: 3. The last treatment that counts

Question 33. Seedless varieties of tomatoes can be produced by :

  1. spraying hormones on plants
  2. spraying radioactive elements
  3. by subjecting seeds to heat treatment
  4. by vegetative propagation of stem.

Answer: 1. spraying hormones on plants

Question 34. Dormancy in potato buds and seeds can be broken by treating them with :

  1. Auxins
  2. Gibberellins
  3. Auxins and cytokinins
  4. Cytokinins and Gibberellins.

Answer: 4. Cytokinins and Gibberellins

Question 35. Auxin hormones were first discovered by :

  1. Skoog
  2. Hales
  3. Boysen and Jensen
  4. Kogl.

Answer: 3. Boysen and Jensen

Human Growth Process MCQs NEET

Question 36. The ethylene hormone is mainly responsible for:

  1. formation of root hair
  2. ripening of fruit
  3. formation of nodes
  4. formation of intemodes.

Answer: 2. ripening of fruit

Question 37. What will happen if Gibberellins are applied to intact plants?

  1. Increase in root
  2. Ripening of fruits
  3. Leaf extension growth
  4. Sudden elongation of the stem.

Answer: 4. Sudden elongation of the stem.

Question 38. One of the important roles of cytokinin is:

  1. to check senescence
  2. to check abscission
  3. to mobilize solutes from one part to the other
  4. to overcome dormancy.

Answer: 1. to check senescence

Question 39. An excised leaf does not turn yellow if it is induced to root. This is attributed to synthesis in the root of:

  1. ethylene
  2. cytokinins
  3. gibberellins
  4. auxins.

Answer: 2. cytokinins

Human Growth Process MCQs NEET

Question 40. Which one of the following hormones is chiefly concerned with cell division?

  1. Auxin
  2. Cytokinins
  3. G.A.
  4. 2-4

Answer: 2. Cytokinins

Question 41. In phototropism, auxins :

  1. promote the growth of cells
  2. stimulate differential growth of cells on different sides of the plant
  3. inhibit the growth of cells
  4. stimulate and signal the direction of light or gravity of the plant.

Answer: 2. stimulate differential growth of cells on different sides of the plant

Question 42. From which was kinetin isolated :

  1. Coconut milk
  2. Pineapple
  3. Soyabean
  4. Groundnut.

Answer: 1. Coconut milk

Question 43. In a short-day plant growing in a home garden, phytochrome is normally switched from one form to the other by:

  1. red and far-red light
  2. sunlight
  3. activation by gibberellin or abscisic acid
  4. measuring the length of the dark period between light periods.

Answer: 1. red and far-red light

Question 44. Which of the following are two growth inhibitors?

  1. Florigen and ABA
  2. Salicylic acid and ABA
  3. Cinnamic acid and IAA
  4. NAA and Coumarin.

Answer: 2. Salicylic acid and ABA

NEET Biology Important MCQs

Question 45. In unisexual plants, sex can be changed by the application of:

  1. Ethanol
  2. GA
  3. Cytokinins
  4. ABA.

Answer: 2. GA

Question 46. A long-day plant is one that :

  1. requires more than 12 hours of light to flower
  2. increases in height when it flowers
  3. needs a certain minimum length of photoperiod to flower
  4. is not affected by temperature in its flowering response.

Answer: 1. requires more than 12 hours of light to flower

Question 47. Short-day plants require :

  1. Night
  2. Light
  3. Long dark period
  4. Long light period.

Answer: 3. Long dark period

Question 48. During seed germination, its stored food is mobilized by:

  1. ABA
  2. Gibberellin
  3. Ethylene
  4. Cytoxinin

Answer: 4. Cytoxinin

Question 49. Name of the flowering hormone produced in some plants as a result of low-temperature treatment to :

  1. Vemalin
  2. Florigen
  3. Abscisin
  4. Dormin.

Answer: 1. Vemalin

NEET Biology Important MCQs

Question 50. A substance that induces dormancy in the seed is :

  1. GA
  2. ABA
  3. Thiourea
  4. Cytokines

Answer: 2. ABA

NEET Questions Plant Growth and Development Question 51. The growth-controlling substances originating at the stem tips are :

  1. Proteins
  2. Vitamins
  3. Enzymes
  4. Auxins.

Answer: 4. Auxins

Question 52. An abnormally long-stemmed plant with pale yellow leaves is called:

  1. Chlorotic
  2. Etiolated
  3. Necrotic
  4. Abnormal.

Answer: 2. Etiolated

Question 53. The ripening of fruits can be accelerated by :

  1. keeping fruits at high temperature
  2. artificially adding ethylene
  3. keeping fruits at low temperature
  4. reducing H2,O2 supply by dehydration.

Answer: 2. artificially adding ethylene

Question 54. Cytokinin is used to :

  1. cause dormancy
  2. induce cell division
  3. regulate cell movements
  4. increase growth.

Answer: 2. induce cell division

Question 55. Auxins are growth hormones related to :

  1. cell elongation
  2. cell differentiation
  3. cell division
  4. cell mutation.

Answer: 1. cell elongation

NEET Biology Important MCQs

Question 56. Match the items of column 1 and Column 2.

Growth And Development Match The Items Question 56

  1. A- q,   B – r,   C- p,    D- t
  2. A- q,   B-s,    C-p,     D-t
  3. A – q,  B -p,   C -1,    D – r
  4. A – q,  B- t,   C- p,   D – r.

Answer: 3. A – q,  B -p,   C -1,    D – r

Question 57. Gibberellin was first extracted from :

  1. fungi
  2. algae
  3. bacteria
  4. roots of plants.

Answer: 1. fungi

Question 58. Hormones found in the liquid endosperm of coconut are:

  1. Gibberellin
  2. Auxin
  3. Ethylene
  4. Cytokinin.

Answer: 4. Cytokinin.

Question 59. Senescence in plants can be delayed by :

  1. Auxins
  2. Cytokinins
  3. Gibberellins
  4. Ascorbic acid.

Answer: 2. Cytokinins

Question 60. The red-far red (R-FR) responses are not independent of:

  1. IAA
  2. 2, 4-D
  3. GA
  4. Abscisic acid.

Answer: 3. GA

Question 61. The growth hormone auxin occurs in :

  1. root tip and shoot tip
  2. branches
  3. leaf apex
  4. old leaves.

Answer: 1. root tip and shoot tip

MCQs On Human Growth For NEET

Question 62. Gibberellin was discovered and named by :

  1. Darwin
  2. Yabuta and Sumiki
  3. Boysen Jenson
  4. Amon.

Answer: 2. Yabuta and Sumiki

Question 63. Seedless fruits can be had by treating unpollinated flowers with :

  1. sucrose
  2. enzymes
  3. hormones
  4. inhibitors.

Answer: 2. enzymes

Question 64. Photoperiodism is due to :

  1. growth curvature in response to light
  2. response to the relative length of day and night
  3. light period
  4. dark period.

Answer: 1. growth curvature in response to light

Question 65. Photoperiodism is associated with the formation of :

  1. auxin
  2. florigen
  3. cytokinin
  4. enzymes.

Answer: 3. cytokinin

Question 66. When the terminal bud is removed, a plant grows more :

  1. tall
  2. bushy
  3. slowly
  4. rapidly.

Answer: 2. bushy

MCQs On Human Growth For NEET

Question 67. Plant growth is :

  1. Limited
  2. Unlimited
  3. Unlocalised
  4. Diffused.

Answer: 2. Unlimited

Question 68. Genetically dwarf plants can elongate on the application of:

  1. Kinetins
  2. Indole acetic acid
  3. GA3
  4. All the above.

Answer: 3. GA3

Question 69. Maximum root growth occurs :

  1. at the apex
  2. in the presence of light
  3. behind the apex
  4. in the presence of soil.

Answer: 3. behind the apex

Question 70. Apical dominance in higher plants is due to :

  1. Excess of auxins
  2. enzyme activity
  3. C/N ratio
  4. Light.

Answer: 1. Excess of auxins

Question 71. The Crcscofiraph was invented by :

  1. Darwin
  2. J.C, Bose
  3. F.W, Went
  4. C.V, Kaman,

Answer: 2. J.C, Bose

Question 72. Photoperiodic stimulus is perceived by :

  1. Leaves
  2. Flowers
  3. Buds
  4. Meristem.

Answer: 1. Leaves

NEET Previous Year Questions On Growth

Question 73. Which of the following plant growth substances can substitute for vernalization 7

  1. Auxins
  2. Cytokinins
  3. Gibberellins
  4. Ethylene.

Answer: 3. Ethylene.

Question 74. In a pineapple field, spraying NAA (an auxin) induces flowering because it:

  1. stops vegetative growth
  2. promotes flowering
  3. gets converted to ethylene which induces flowering.
  4. stimulates the production of ethylene,

Answer: 3. gets converted to ethylene which induces flowering

Question 75. Leaf aging is retarded by :

  1. cytokinin
  2. florigen
  3. auxin
  4. abscisic acid.

Answer: 1. cytokinin

Question 76. Which one of the following pigments is associated with flowering?

  1. Photochromic
  2. Cytochrome
  3. Chlorophyll
  4. Xanthophyll.

Answer: 1. Phytochromc

Question 77. The red-absorbing form of phytochrome gets converted to the far-red absorbing form after getting irradiated at

  1. 530 nm
  2. 660 nm
  3. 730 nm
  4. 660 nm to 730 nm.

Answer: 2. 660 nm

Plant Growth and Development NEET Questions Question 78. The stimulus of vernalization is received in annual and biennial plants by :

  1. root
  2. tips of young leaves
  3. dry seeds
  4. stem apex.

Answer: 4. stem apex

Question 79. The ‘S’ shaped (sigmoid) growth curve was postulated by:

  1. Sachs
  2. Blackman
  3. Smith
  4. Kogl.

Answer: 1. Sachs

Question 80. Lettuce seeds require a light treatment for germination. This treatment can be replaced by using one of the following phytohormones :

  1. Auxins
  2. Ethylene
  3. Gibberellins
  4. Cytokinins.

Answer: 3. Gibberellins

Question 81. The process of senescence in plants can be reversed by applying :

  1. Ethylene
  2. Auxins
  3. Gibberellins
  4. Cytokinins.

Answer: 4. Cytokinins.

Question 82. The natural form of active auxin, produced by plants, is:

  1. indole acetic acid
  2. colyledauxins
  3. tryptophan
  4. apical acid.

Answer: 1. indole acetic acid

Question 83. Parthenogenetic fruits are prepared by spraying :

  1. auxins
  2. cytokinins
  3. Ethylene
  4. Abscisic acid.

Answer: 1. auxins

Question 84. Elongation of genetically dwarf plants can be done with the help of:

  1. Auxins
  2. Gibberellins
  3. IAA
  4. Cytokinin.

Answer: 2. Gibberellins

Question 85. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

  1. Auxin          –   Dwarf rice
  2. Gibberellins   – Elongation
  3. Cytokinin      – Coconut milk
  4. Abscisic acid  – Early leaf fall,

Select the correct answer using the codes given below—

  1. 2, 3, and 4
  2. 1, 2, and 3
  3. 1, Band 4
  4. 1, 3, and 4

Answer: 1. 2, 3, and 4

Question 86. Hormones responsible for plant and seed dormancy during drought are:

  1. IBA
  2. NAA
  3. ABA
  4. Zealand.

Answer: 3. ABA

Question 87. Growth regulator ethylene is used for:

  1. Retarding ripening of tomatoes
  2. Speeding up the ripening of fruits
  3. Slowing down the ripening of apples
  4. Both B and C.

Answer: 2. Speeding up the ripening of fruits

Question 88. If total growth is plotted against time, the curve obtained is known as:

  1. T-shaped curve
  2. U-shaped curve
  3. G-shaped curve
  4. S-shaped curve.

Answer: 4. S-shaped curve

Question 89. The total period of growth is termed as :

  1. Magnified period of growth
  2. Total period of growth
  3. Grand period of growth
  4. Graceful period of growth.

Answer: 3. Grand period of growth

Plant Growth and Development NEET Questions Question 90. The bioassay for gibberellins is:

  1. Avena curvature test
  2. Soybean callus test
  3. a-amylase induction test in barley aleurone cells
  4. Barley leaf disc test for Chlorophylls.

Answer: 3. a-amylase induction test in barley aleurone cells

Question 91. Graph showing the growth of yeast; This is the type of growth curve noted for most organisms.

Growth And Development Graph Showing The Growth Of Yeast Question 91

The log phase of growth is represented by :

  1. Point A to B
  2. Point B to C
  3. Point C to D
  4. Point A to C.

Answer: 2. Point B to C

Question 92. The segment C-D indicates a point where :

  1. No new individuals are formed
  2. The death rate is zero
  3. The rate of formation and rate of death of individuals is the same
  4. The experiment stopped.

Answer: 3. The rate of formation and rate of death of individuals is the same

Question 93. The segment D-E indicates a period of:

  1. Decline
  2. Maturation
  3. Recommencement of growth
  4. Active growth.

Answer: 1. Decline

Question 94. Which of the following is necessary for flower formation in higher plants?

  1. Water and minerals
  2. Florigen
  3. Phyllocaline
  4. None.

Answer: 2. Florigen

Question 95. If a brief flash of light is provided during a dark period to the plant that requires a short day then the plant is likely

  1. to flower
  2. not to flower
  3. to have no effect
  4. produces more flowers.

Answer: 2. not to flower

Question 96. In many plants, the change over from the vegetative phase to the reproductive phase takes place in response to :

  1. the length of the day
  2. the severity of the temperature
  3. mainly the food material available in the soil
  4. the oxygen present in the air.

Answer: 1. the length of the day

Question 97. In short-day plants, flowering is inhibited by :

  1. Interruption of dark by white or red light
  2. Dark interruption by far-red light
  3. Dark interruption by red light followed by far-red light
  4. Not possible.

Answer: 1. Interruption of the dark by white or red light

Question 98, Which of the following plant hormones substitutes for low-temperature treatment?

  1. Auxins
  2. Gibbcrcllins
  3. Cytokinins
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Gibbcrcllins

NEET Questions Plant Growth and Development Question 99. What does the growth of a single cell, organism, and population have in common?

  1. They are influenced by the environment
  2. They require energy and acquire mass
  3. They result in an S-shaped curve if the size is plotted against time.
  4. All of the above.

Answer: 3. They result in an S-shaped curve if the size is plotted against time.

Question 100. A high concentration of auxin is present in :

  1. Root apex
  2. Shoot apex
  3. Petiole
  4. Node.

Answer: 2. Shoot apex

Question 101. Match List 1 with List 2 and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :

Growth And Development Match Question 101

Codes :

  1. 2,1,3,4
  2. 2,1,4,3
  3. 1,2,4,3
  4. 1,2,3,4

Answer: 2. 2,1,4,3

NEET Biology Tools And Techniques Multiple Choice Questions

NEET Biology Tools And Techniques Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Fluorescent dye bonded to monoclonal antibodies is used to locate particular:

  1. Cell proteins
  2. Cells
  3. Diseased parts
  4. Organs of defence.

Answer: 1. Cell proteins

Question 2. The scientists who developed the technique of keeping tissue and organs alive outside the body are:

  1. Ringer
  2. Cannon
  3. Lorenty
  4. Binning and Rohrer.

Answer: 1. Ringer

Read and Learn More NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 3. The Electron microscope has revealed the presence of:

  1. Chloroplasts
  2. Leucoplasts
  3. Ribosomes
  4. Chromosomes.

Answer: 3. Ribosomes

Tools and Techniques MCQs For NEET

Question 4. Magnification of a “compound microscope” does not depend upon :

  1. The focal length of the objective
  2. The focal length of the eyepiece
  3. Tube length of the microscope
  4. Numerical aperture of the objective.

Answer: 4. Numerical aperture of objective.

Question 5. For studying the metabolism of deoxyribonucleic acid, an autoradiographic technique is used involving:

  1. Tritiated uridine
  2. Tritiated thymidine
  3. Tritiated mannose
  4. Tritiated amino acids.

Answer: 2. Tritiated thymidine

Question 6. Phase contrast microscope was designed by:

  1. Tolles
  2. Zernicke
  3. Hooke
  4. Zsigmondy.

Answer: 1. Tolles

Question 7. Scanning electron microscope (sem) is primarily used for :

  1. 3-D external surface only
  2. 3-D internal study of tissue
  3. 2-D external study
  4. 2-D internal study.

Answer: 1. 3-D external surface only

Question 8. In a microscope. A lens closer to the eye is called :

  1. Ocular
  2. Eye piece
  3. Both 1 & 2
  4. Oculomotor.

Answer: 1. Eyepiece

Question 9. The electron microscope is made up of :

  1. Fluorochromes
  2. Polariser and analyser filter
  3. Electromagnetic lenses
  4. Objective and ocular lenses.

Answer: 3. Electromagnetic lenses

Tools and Techniques MCQs For NEET

Question 10. Angstrom, the unit of measurement in the transmission electron microscope , is equal to :

  1. 0.01tim
  2. 0.001pm
  3. 0.0001pm
  4. 0.00001pm.

Answer: 3. 0.0001pm

Question 11. The resolving power of an electron microscope is :

  1. 1A
  2. 10a
  3. 100A
  4. 10004.

Answer: 2. 10a

Question 12. Knoll and Ruska first designed the electron microscope in the year:

  1. 1932
  2. 194S
  3. 1941
  4. 1900.

Answer: 1. 1932

Question 13. Among the following isotopes, which is not radioactive?

  1. C-o
  2. P-
  3. H
  4. O-.

Answer: 4. O-.

Question 14. X-ray crystallography is used to study :

  1. Structure of lipids
  2. Composition of proteins and nucleic acids
  3. Arrangement of proteins
  4. Three-dimensional structure of proteins.

Answer: 2. Composition of proteins and nucleic acids

NEET Biology Tools And Techniques Questions

Question 15. One of the important techniques used to study the synthesis of molecules and to trace the metabolic pathway or events in cells is:

  1. Autoradiography
  2. Microspectrophotometry
  3. Calorimetry
  4. Chromatography.

Answer: 1. Autoradiography

Question 16. Resolution power is the ability to :

  1. Distinguish two close points
  2. Distinguish two close objects
  3. Distinguish amongst organelles
  4. Magnify images.

Answer: 1. Distinguish two close points

Question 17. What will you call the study of plants and animals outside the body in a glass tube?

  1. In vivo
  2. In vitro
  3. Innate
  4. Desperate.

Answer: 2. Innate

Question 18. When biologists wish to study the internal ultrastructure of cells, they most likely would use :

  1. A good modern light microscope
  2. A scanning electron microscope
  3. A transmission electron microscope
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. A transmission electron microscope

Question 19. Living cells can be studied by :

  1. Phase contrast microscope
  2. Fluorescent microscope
  3. Electron microscope
  4. Light microscope.

Answer: 1. Phase contrast microscope

NEET Biology Tools And Techniques Questions

Question 20. The method most frequently used to determine the molecular weight of proteins is :

  1. X-ray diffraction
  2. Classical chemistry
  3. Ultra-centrifugation
  4. Both 1 and 2.

Answer: 3. Ultra-centrifugation

Biotechnology Principles and Processes MCQ for NEET Question 21. Which of the following techniques other than a microscope

  1. Plasmolysis
  2. Maceration
  3. Chromatography
  4. Auto-radiography.

Answer: 4. Auto-radiography.

Question 22. The electron microscope differs from the ordinary microscope in having resolving power due to the use of:

  1. Electrons, which have a longer wavelength than ordinary light, as the source of illumination
  2. Ultraviolet light as the source of illumination
  3. Fast electrons which have shorter wavelengths than ordinary light rays as the source of illumination
  4. Gamma rays as the source of illumination.

Answer: 3. Fast electrons which have shorter wavelengths than ordinary light rays as the source of illumination

Question 23. A student wants to study the metaphysic behaviour of chromosomes/chromosomes in a living cell. The technique most suitable is:

  1. Phase contrast microscope
  2. Scanning electron microscope
  3. X-ray microscope
  4. Cell fractionation.

Answer: 1. Phase contrast microscope

Question 24. What is the primary objective of cell fractionation?

  1. To view the structure of cell membranes
  2. To identify the enzymes outside the organelles
  3. To determine the size of various organelles
  4. To separate the organelles.

Answer: 4. To separate the organelles.

Biotechnology Tools MCQs For NEET

Question 25. High-wavelength UV rays are used in:

  1. Fluorescent microscope
  2. Polarising microscope
  3. Ultraviolet microscope
  4. Phase-contrast microscope.

Answer: 1. Fluorescent microscope

Question 26. The pattern of protein binding on dna can be studied by

  1. Light microscope
  2. Electron microscope
  3. Ultracentrifugation
  4. X-ray crystallography.

Answer: 4. X-ray crystallography.

Question 27. Fundamentally a dead cell differs from a living cell when seen under a phase contrast microscope because:

  1. It has become separated from other cells
  2. Its vital forces have been destroyed
  3. A change in its surrounding environment has occurred
  4. A change in its specific organization has occurred.

Answer: 2. Its vital forces have been destroyed

Question 28. The part of a cell that can be seen with an electron microscope, but never with a light microscope is/are the:

  1. Nucleus
  2. Golgi bodies
  3. Chloroplasts
  4. Mebrane separating the nucleus from the cytoplasm

Answer: 3. Chloroplasts

NEET Previous Year Questions On Lab Techniques

Question 29. A lab technician spun a cell suspension from leaf tissue in a centrifuge in a slurry of sucrose at a speed that formed a bright green band about halfway down the solution in the tube. In what fraction would you expect to find the nuclei?

  1. In a pellet at the bottom of the tube
  2. In the green band
  3. In a dark band above the green band
  4. In the supernatant.

Answer: 1. In a pellet at the bottom of the tube

Question 30. You have developed a stain that colours alpha and beta tubulin a bright orange colour. When the stain is ap- plied to non-dividing leaf cells, what area of the cell would you expect to be orange when viewed with a light microscope?

  1. The nucleus
  2. The cell wall adjacent to the surface of the plasma membrane
  3. The cytoskeleton
  4. Flagella.

Answer: 4. Flagella.

Question 31. A cytologist must decide what type of microscope to purchase for his laboratory. The lab examines fibres and hairs. And other forensic evidence as whole specimens. As the microscope salesperson, you suggest that he should buy:

  1. A light microscope with a resolution power of 1 nm.
  2. A scanning electron microscope.
  3. A transmission electron microscope with a maximum magnification of 1,000 x.
  4. An electron microscope with resolution power of about 2 nanometres.

Answer: 2. A transmission electron microscope with a maximum magnification of 1,000 x.

NEET Biology MCQ Test  Question 32. Cellulose in a cell is stained by :

  1. Ivlethylene blue
  2. Zinc chloro-iodide
  3. Sudan iv
  4. Ruthenium red.

Answer: 2. Zinc chloro-iodide

Question 33. Elisa is used to detecting viruses where the key reagent is:

  1. Catalase
  2. Osmic acid
  3. Acetylcholinesterase
  4. Alkaline phosphate.

Answer: 4. Alkaline phosphate.

Question 34. A fluorescence microscope is used to:

  1. Increase resolving power
  2. Localise cell components
  3. Obtain x-ray dif1iaction pattern of dna
  4. Study cells and their components in a living state using phase differences in light rays.

Answer: 2. Localise cell components

NEET Previous Year Questions On Lab Techniques

Question 35. Cell organelles can be separated by :

  1. Differential centrifugation
  2. Autoradiography
  3. Thin section microtomy
  4. X-ray diffraction.

Answer: 1. Differential centrifugation

Question 36. If a biochemical analysis of mitochondria is to be done, the best procedure would be:

  1. Subject the cells to cell fractionation (centrifuge) and obtain mitochondria.
  2. Grind the cell filter out the mixture and take the debris
  3. Plasmolyse the cells, filter them and take the debris
  4. Select cells which have a large number of mitochondria.

Answer: 4. Select cells which have a large number of mitochondria.

Mental Health and Community Health For NEET

Mental Health And Community Health For NEET Mental Health Growth Of Human Populations

Modern humans appeared around 50,000 years ago from the archaic Homo sapiens that existed between 1,00,000 and 2,00,000 years ago.

Population is defined as a group of organisms of the same species or other species within which individuals may change genetic information occupying a particular space.

Demography deals with the statistical study of the population.

  • The population has characteristics which are a function of the whole group and not of the individuals; these are population density, birth rate, death rate, age distribution, biotic potential, rate of dispersion and growth form.
  • In the beginning, the human population was sparsely distributed over the earth. Its growth was very slow in the beginning.
  • About ten thousand years ago, the growth of the human population increased. Since then it is grown rapidly.
  • Today in the world the population is not evenly distributed.
  • Nearly 70 per cent of the world population lives in less developed countries
  • In 1700 the human population was about 0.6 billion, it touched the one billion mark around 1850. It reached 6.1 billion by 2000.
  • This dramatic increase is called a population explosion.

Maximum Carrying Capacity is the maximum size which can be supported in the environment. It has the first two components life-supporting capacity and waste assimilative capacity.

  • The increased levels of environmental degradation arise from population explosion and population densities within different parts of the world.
  • Population growth is determined by biotic potential and environmental resistance. The human population shows a T-shaped growth curve in the absence of environmental resistance. Enhanced longevity has also contributed towards the population explosion.

Mental Health And Community Health NEET Notes

Malthus, An Economist, Proposed A Theory Of Human Population Growth that states when unchecked population grows geometrically, whereas, the means of sustenance grows only arithmetically and this would cause imbalance. There are positive checks such as floods, wars, volcanic eruptions, earthquakes etc. which maintain population.

Fertility-Related Statistics. Fertility can be measured by a number of the following factors:

Birth Rate. The birth rate is the simplest indicator of fertility and is defined as “the number of live births per 1000 estimated mid-year population, in a given year. It is calculated by the formula

= \(\frac{\text { Number of live births during the year }}{\text { Estimated mid }- \text { year population }} \times 1000\)

The birth rate is an unsatisfactory measure of fertility because the total population is not exposed to childbearing. Therefore it does not give a true idea of the fertility of a population.

Rate Of Change In Population Size 

  1. In the ‘S’ shaped growth curve, the rate of change in population size \(\left[\frac{d \mathrm{~N}}{d t}\right]=r \mathrm{~N}\left[\frac{\mathrm{K}-\mathrm{N}}{\mathrm{K}}\right]\)
  2. In ‘J’ shaped growth curve, Rate of change in population size \(\left[\frac{d \mathrm{~N}}{d t}\right]=r \mathrm{~N}\) where \(\left[\frac{\mathrm{K}-\mathrm{N}}{\mathrm{K}}\right] \text { or }\left[1-\frac{\mathrm{N}}{\mathrm{K}}\right]\) = Environment resistance, r = Biotic potential, population size.

General Fertility Rate (GFR). It is the ‘number of live births per 1000 women in the reproductive age group (15-44 or 49 years) in a given year’.

GFR = \(\frac{\text { Number of live births in an area during the year }}{\text { Mid year female population of age } 15-44} \times 1000\)

The general fertility rate is a better measure of fertility than the crude birth rate because the denominator is restricted to the number of women of childbearing age, rather than the whole population. The major weakness of this rate is that not all women in the denominator are exposed to the risk of childbirth.

Total Fertility Rate (TFR) is the average number of children that would be bom to a woman during her lifetime assuming the age-specific birth rates at a given time. The total fertility rate is lower in developed countries as compared to underdeveloped countries. It is controlled by economics and human aspirations.

Doubling Time. The time required for a population to double itself is called doubling time.

Dobuiling Time = \(\left(\frac{70}{\text { Growth rate (in %age) }}\right)\)

With a 2% growth rate in India, the doubling time will be 70/2 = 35 years

The doubling time for the world population = 35 -10 years

Crude Birth And Crude Death Rates are the number of live births and deaths respectively per thousand people, on July 7 i.e. middle of the year.

Demographic transition. If birth and death rates are equal, it results in a zero population growth rate, it is termed demographic transition. It may occur in all countries as they become developed but it may take many decades in underdeveloped countries.

Immigration is the movement of individuals into a place or country.

Emigration refers to the movement of individuals out of a place or a country.

Population Explosion. If the growth of the population is continued either due to an increased birth rate or decreased death rate, it is called a population explosion. This is a great hazard to the development and prosperity of a nation.

Mental Health And Community Health NEET Notes

Reasons For Population Explosion

  1. Management of Natural Disasters: Mitigation of floods, earthquakes, cyclones, and cold weather has lowered mortality rates, thereby leading to population growth.
  2. Management of Epidemics: Control over plague, smallpox, diphtheria, cholera, diarrhea, and whooping cough has also reduced the death rate.
  3. Augmented Food Production: The Green Revolution pertains to the enhancement of crops such as wheat and rice. The White Revolution for dairy and the Blue Revolution for aquaculture have augmented the quantity and accessibility of food for a broader segment of the population.
  4. Modes of Transportation: The enhancement of rapid transportation services has facilitated the delivery of food to remote locations during emergencies. During a flood, food packets are delivered via helicopter or other rapid transportation methods.
  5. Deficiency in Education: Individuals lack education and awareness on the detrimental effects of overpopulation.
  6. Decrease in Infant Mortality Rate and Increase in Life Expectancy. Improvements in medical facilities have reduced the newborn mortality rate and raised the life expectancy of the population.

Annual Average Growth Rate:

It is a measure of the human population. It is calculated as follows:

Annual average growth rate in percent = \(\left[\frac{P_2-P_1}{P_1 \times N}\right] \times 100\)

Where P1 = Population size in the previous census

P2 = Population size in the present census.

N = Number of years between two censuses.

Dependency Ratio = \(\frac{\text { Person in dependent ages }}{\text { Persons in economically providing ages }}\)

Replacement Level (RL). It is the number of children a couple must produce to replace clientele, The actual RL, is always higher than 2.0 because children may the even better than the reproductive ape, In developed countries RL, is achieved at 2. 1 whereas in developing countries it is around 2.7 due to higher mortality rate and short life expectancy.

Three Components Of Environment

  1. Productive System. Such as croplands, and orchards which provide food and fibres.
  2. Protective System. It buffers the air and water cycle and extremes in temperature example, forests and ocean.
  3. Waste Assimilative System. This part assimilates wastes produced by human activities, for example, waterways, and wetlands.

Maximum Carrying Capacity. It is defined as the “Feeding capacity of an environment of an ecosystem for a population of a species under a provided set of conditions.” It is also defined as the “Level beyond which no major increase can occur.” This limit is a constant and represented by K.

Maximum Carrying Capacity Depends Upon Following Components Of Environment:

  1. Productive system and
  2. Protective system.

The use of advances in science and technology for the productive system of the environment has increased the carrying capacity.

Sustainable Development encourages a process of change in which the exploitation of resources, the direction of investments, the orientation of technological development and institutional changes are all in harmony. Such development enhances both present and future potential to meet human needs and aspirations.

The concept of sustainable development, thus, aims at a framework to integrate developmental strategies and environmental policies at local, national and global levels. Development should not endanger the natural systems that support life.

Birth Control Measures

Drugs And Drug Dependence Mental Health Growth Of Human Populations Birth Control Measures

Mental Health and Community Health For NEET Amniocentesis

Amniocentesis Aim. It is a technique to determine:

  1. Sex of the developing baby;
  2. Genetically controlled congenital diseases;
  3. Metabolic disorders in the foetus.

So amniocentesis is a pre-natal diagnostic technique.

Amniocentesis Procedure. It involves the following steps:

  • The location of the foetus is determined by a technique called sonography (using high-frequency ultrasound waves) to prevent accidental damage to the foetus.
  • A fine hollow needle is passed through the abdominal and uterine wall of a pregnant female (about the 14th or 15th week after conception) into the amniotic cavity.
  • A small amount of amniotic fluid is withdrawn. It contains foetal skin cells and a number of proteins, especially enzymes. The cells can be cultured in vitro for further examination.

Community Health Mcqs For Neet

Amniocentesis Significance:

To know the sex of the baby, congenital genetic diseases and metabolic disorders in the developing foetus, the technique known as amniocentesis is followed.

Thus amniocentesis is a pre-natal diagnostic technique. But the technique is being misused even to abort normal female foetuses. So it has been now banned. Karyotypic studies show that human females are homogametic while human males are heterogametic. It is the father who is biologically responsible for the sex of the child.

Test Tube Babies (In Vitro Fertilization)-IVF.

The Technique of in-vitro fertilization and in-vitro development followed by the embryo transfer in the uterus of the normal female to start the development and finally lead to normal birth is called test tube baby.

Test Tube Babies (In Vitro Fertilization)-IVF Procedure. It involves the following steps:

  1. Removal of unfertilized ovum from the reproductive tract of a female.
  2. Ovum is kept under aseptic conditions.
  3. Fusion of sperm and ovum in a culture medium, outside the female body, to form the zygote.
  4. The zygote is stimulated to develop in-vitro up to 32-celled stages.
  5. The developing embryo is implanted in the endometrium of the uterus at the 32-celled stage. So the pregnancy in the woman starts and further development of the child continues in the womb till it is bom.

Such a baby is called a test tube baby.

Test Tube Babies (In Vitro Fertilization)-IVF Significance

  1. It is a boon to infertile mothers.
  2. It can be used for men with oligospermia (low sperm count).
  3. Old superior cows can donate oocytes.

Embryos can be frozen and preserved in an embryo tank for 10 years for future use. In very rare cases, a surrogate mother may have to be used to bring up an in vitro fertilized ovum to maturity. Though the biological realization of a test tube baby is a remarkable achievement, it has raised several ethical and legal problems including the right over the child.

  • The first test tube baby was bom to Lesley and Gilbert Brown on July 25, 1978, in Oldham, England. Mrs. Brown had obstructed Fallopian tubes. Dr. Patricke Steptoe and Dr. Robert Edwards both from England experienced Mrs. Brown successfully.
  • The world’s first test tube baby (a baby girl) was named Louise Joy Brown. Later, test tube babies were also born in Australia, the United States and some other countries. India’s first test tube baby was bom on August 6, 1986, at K.E.M. Hospital, Mumbai. Her name is Kumari Harsha.
  • Mental Health. Behaviour according to the accepted norms of society is termed mental health.
  • Mental Illness. A person may be physically fit and not suffering from any disease but because of certain inhibitions, abnormal behaviour and abnormal reactions to normal situations of life.
  • Mental Illness is mainly classified into psychosis, neurosis and other disorders such as mental retardation and epilepsy.

Differences Between Psychosis And Neurosis

Drugs And Drug Dependence Mental Health Growth Of Human Populations Differences Between Psychosis And Neurosis

Symptoms Of Mental Illness

  1. Depression.
  2. Insomnia or excessive sleeping.
  3. Compulsive action.
  4. The feeling of hopelessness.
  5. Serious thoughts of suicide.
  6. Unreasonable phobias.

Community Health Mcqs For Neet

List Of Common Problems Of Adolescence

  1. Anxiety
  2. Hypochondria
  3. Loneliness
  4. Neurasthenia
  5. Phobias
  6. Post-traumatic stress.

Drug Abuse. The constant use of certain drugs forms a habit and one becomes a drug dependent.

  • This is called drug dependency or drug addiction or drug abuse. Such drugs act on the brain and change the behaviour, consciousness and power of perception of an individual, and are called mood-altering or psychotropic drugs.
  • The drugs of abuse are often taken with alcohol or with common medicines such as aspirin. It increases sedation.
  • Drug abuse is not found among well-adjusted, satisfied and happy people. It is more common among those who are under stress and feel insecure.

Anxiety Disorders. These may be

  1. Neurotic anxiety or
  2. Separation anxiety or
  3. School phobia. These disorders are due to overreaction to stress conditions. The symptoms are palpitation, sweating, nausea, trembling, diarrhoea and muscular tension.

Schizophrenia.

It is characterized by the following:

  1. Distorted thoughts
  2. Laughing or crying at an inappropriate time disturbs emotion
  3. Incoherent and bizarre behaviour lasting for a week or more
  4. Auditory hallucination.
  5. Delusion.
  6. List Of Psychological Disorders
  7. Anxiety disorders
  8. Obsessive-compulsive disorders
  9. Attention deficit disorders
  10. Mood disorders
  11. Schizophrenia
  12. Borderline personality disorders
  13. Addictive disorder

Obsessive-compulsive Disorders. These disorders cause total disability and affect a person’s working hours. Affected persons manifest overwhelming obsessions and compulsions.

  • They are compelled to perform an action or an idea despite their own attempt to resist it (compulsion).
  • The most common obsessions are violence, concern about infection by germs or dirt, and constant doubts (obsessions).

Mental Health Neet Biology Notes Pdf

Mental Health And Community Health For NEET Drugs

Drugs are substances used to treat diseases or to replace a missing substance essential for growth or combat against genus-causing infection. Another category of dmg includes those substances which work on the nervous system and act either as stimulants or as depressants.

Drug Dependence Or Drug Addiction. It is defined as self-administration of damage for a long period which leads to dependence of the body on them and may cause various disorders.

Drugs are classified on the basis of their action as follows:

Drugs And Drug Dependence Mental Health Growth Of Human Populations Drugs

  • Tranquillisers. They slow down the high centres of the brain and relieve worries. They influence only mental activity but do not affect working efficiency, for example, alcohol, compose, diazepam, Librium (chlordiazepoxide) and luminal.
  • Depressant. Depressants are used to calm anxiety. They produce drowsiness and a feeling of confusion, for example, Barbiturates are used as depressants or sedatives.
  • Stimulants (Antidepressants). These drugs temporarily increase mental alertness or self-confidence. They are also called Mood elevators or Superman drugs, for example. Amphetamines, cocaine, coffee and tea also contain small amounts of stimulants.
  • Narcotic. It is a drug or chemical which depresses the activities of the central nervous system.

Antidepressants: They are essential for the treatment of severe cases of depression and are prescribed in most cases of clinical depression. Four types are in use as given

Drugs And Drug Dependence Mental Health Growth Of Human Populations Antidepressants

Mental Health and Community Health For NEET Psychedelic Or Producing Drugs

These drugs have a strong effect on the cerebrum and sense organs and take the user to a world of fantasy giving him false and temporary happiness. The individual may sense strong colours and strong sounds even though nothing is there. They include LSD (Lysergic acid Diethyl amide), Marijuana and Hashish.

Barbiturates. They are the synthetic drugs. They are sedatives and are the major components of sleeping pills. Its use produces drowsiness, feelings of confusion and sleep. Its withdrawal causes epilepsy.

Cannabis. It is the most ancient drug-yielding plant. Three kinds of drugs are obtained from these plants (Derivation of Cannabis indica).

  1. Hashish or Cliaras is obtained from the flowering tops of female plants.
  2. Bhang is obtained from dry leaves.
  3. Ganja. It is obtained from small leaves and bracts of inflorescence.

Marijuana is another drug obtained from Cannabis sativa. The common reaction of these drugs is relaxation, euphoria, laughing tendency, and rise in blood sugar level.

Human Population Growth Historical Perspective

Kinds And Effects Of A Few Drugs

Drugs And Drug Dependence Mental Health Growth Of Human Populations Kinds And Effects Of A Few Drugs

Classes Of Psychoactive Drugs

Drugs And Drug Dependence Mental Health Growth Of Human Populations Classes of Psychoactive Drugs

Mental Health and Community Health For NEET Tobacco Addiction

The tobacco plant is a native plant of tropical America.

WHO report states that in India, about one million people die every year (2,200 Indians die every day) due to tobacco-related diseases.

Tobacco smoke mutates and inactivates the P-53 gene which checks cancer growth.

Benzpyrene. Carcinogen present in tobacco. About 33 per cent of all cancers are caused by tobacco.

In India, about 19 per cent of women workers engaged in beedi making, have one of four miscarriages at three to four months of pregnancy.

Byssinosis. Acute bronchitis is associated with generalized airflow obstruction.

No Tobacco Day: 31st May. Tobacco is commonly called killer weed.

1996- The Olympics held in Atlanta (USA) had been declared smoke-free.

Health Care Foundation of India (HCFI) has suggested that tobacco should be treated like any other narcotic as regular nicotine use may also lead to addiction.

In India, the graph of smokers skyrocketed by 400 per cent during the 1970-80 period alone. Meanwhile, a six-fold increase in mortality from bronchitis and emphysema was also noted in India.

An “ Anti-tobacco Bill” has been long pending before Parliament.

  • One out of 20 children are tempted by cigarette advertisements.
  • India is one of the top consumers of cigarettes. Over 142 million men and 37 million women above 15 years of age are regular smokers.

Lung Cancer mortality risk for a heavy smoker is 20-30 times greater than that of a non-smoker.

  • China has the biggest cigarette market.
  • According to WHO, by 2025 AD only 15 per cent of the world’s smokers will be in the rich countries compared to the present 28 per cent, while in the Third World, the percentage of smokers will rise from 72 to 85 per cent.

Central Tobacco Research Institute is located at Rajahmundry (A.P.)

Mental Health and Community Health For NEET Alcoholism

Alcoholism. The habit of drinking alcohol is called alcoholism. Alcoholism as a disease was declared by WHO in 1964.

Sedative. Which depresses functional efficiency.

Depressant. Lowers the activities of CNS.

Beer, Wine And Whisky contain 3%, 10% and 40% alcohol.

Mental Health Neet Biology Notes Pdf

Anaesthetic. Causes loss of sensation.

Hangover. Mild effects of alcohol even after a long period of its consumption.

Polyneuropathy. A degenerative disease of the nervous system associated with chronic alcoholism.

The most common form of cirrhosis is known as Lenmec’s cirrhosis.

Alcoholism also causes a reduction in life span of 10 to 12 years.

Treatment Of Alcoholism: Abstaining from alcohol; general psychological rehabilitative treatments; use of drugs like Antabuse (disulfiram) and Temposil (Citrated calcium cyanide); aversion therapy; etc.

Mental Health and Community Health For NEET Community Health

The sum total of all the activities that contribute to the improvement of the health of the community.

Vaccination. The introduction of antigens into the body induces the production of specific antibodies, either to confer immunity against subsequent infection by the same antigen or, less commonly, to treat a disease.

Sanitary. Free from dirt and germs that might cause disease.

Sanitation. All the arrangements provide sanitary conditions.

Sterilization. A process which makes things free from germs.

National Programmes: The Government of India has launched various national programmes to eradicate and control some of the major communicable diseases. These are

  1. National Malaria Eradication Programme (N.M.E.P)
  2. National Filaria Control Programme (N. F. C. P.)
  3. National Leprosy Control Programme (N.L.C.P.)
  4. National Smallpox Eradication Programme
  5. National Cholera Control Programme (N.C.C.P.)
  6. Tuberculosis Programme
  7. Other diseases—Trachoma, Cancer, V.D, T.B.

AIDS etc. are also covered under various National Programmes

Drugs And Drug Dependence Mental Health Growth Of Human Populations National Programmes

Universal /National Immunisation Programme:

The success of the smallpox eradication program has catalyzed efforts to eliminate six avoidable illnesses via the universal immunization initiative. The six diseases are diphtheria, pertussis (whooping cough), poliomyelitis, tetanus, TB, and measles.

  • The program was initiated by the World Health Organization in May 1974 and aims to reach every kid by the year 2000 A.D.
  • It was launched in India in 1985 and reached every child by 1992. India has designated the year 2000 A.D. as the year for universal health. The immunization timetable for six selected diseases and two supplementary ones
    1. Cholera and
    2. Typhoid

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The Human Population Increased To An Unmanageable Proportion In Recent Times Due To The Following Reasons:

  1. Enhanced longevity has contributed to the population explosion.
  2. Advances in medicines and surgery have made it possible to save thousands of lives.

Human Population Growth Curve Assumes T Shape And Sigmoid Or ‘S’ Shape: When the food supply becomes insufficient in comparison with population, mass starvation death results. The graph of population growth will become T -shaped. When there is no increase in population and the environment can sustain a limited population, the growth curve will become ‘S’-shaped.

Reasons For Depletion Of Environment:

  1. Excessive deforestation,
  2. Indiscriminate mining operations,
  3. Excessive use of fossil fuels.

Limiting Factors Which Prevent The Earth From Supporting a Human Population Of Indefinite Size:

The following are the limiting factors which prevent the Earth from supporting a human population of limited size

  1. Adequate food supply.
  2. The habitable area on the land is limited. If a man tries to create more habitable areas by cutting down trees in forests, it would lead to imbalances in the nature.
  3. Limited natural resources.
  4. The adaptability of an organism for growth to the conditions.
  5. Famine, floods and epidemic diseases.
  6. Adolescence is the period of rapid growth, and physical and mental development period between childhood and adulthood.
  7. Acne resulting from clogged pores of the skin is a common problem of adolescence in both sexes.
  8. Neurasthenia is characterized by the inability to concentrate on enjoying things. It may lead to irritability, fatigue, insomnia, depression and headache.
  9. Phobias are common in adolescents.
  10. Mental Illness is characterized by abnormal behaviour and talk resulting in social and vocational dysfunction.

Important Psychological Disorders Are:

Anxiety disorders, obsessive-compulsive disorders, attention deficit disorder, mood disorder, Schizophrenia, Borderline personality disorder (BPD) Youths are tempted to go for drugs for non-clinical use.

Psychotropic Drugs or mood-altering drugs are also addictive:

  • The substances are classified as sedatives and tranquilizers, opiate narcotics, stimulants, and hallucinogens.
  • Drugs can be administered via inhalation or oral ingestion. They may also be administered by injections.
  • All pharmaceuticals influence the central nervous system. Prolonged usage is exceedingly harmful to health.
  • Nonetheless, some of these medications are given by physicians in appropriate dosages for certain conditions.
  • Alcohol is swiftly absorbed and enters the circulatory system. A multitude of metabolic diseases is linked to persistent and excessive alcohol consumption.
  • These encompass fatty liver disease, cirrhosis, hypertension, cardiovascular disorders, gastric ulcers, and vitamin shortages.
  • Overcoming addiction is feasible with medical supervision and social assistance.
  • The concurrent use of drugs and alcohol

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Major Groups Of Psychotropic Drugs, Examples And Effects

Drugs And Drug Dependence Mental Health Growth Of Human Populations Major Groups Of Psychotropic Drugs Examples And Effects

Interaction Of Alcohol With Some Common Drugs

Drugs And Drug Dependence Mental Health Growth Of Human Populations Interation Of Alcohol With Same Common Drugs

Mental Health and Community Health For NEET Synopsis

WHO (World Health Organization) is a specialized, non-political health agency of the United Nations with its headquarters in Geneva. The constitution came into force on 7th April, 1948. Which is celebrated every year as ‘World Health Day’.

Alcohol is by far the number one foetal teratogen. Maternal alcohol intake and characteristic pattern of malformation in the foetus has recently been recognized called FAS, Foetal alcohol syndrome.

Symptoms of FAS include slow growth before and after birth, small head, facial irregularities like narrow eye slits, defective heart and other organs, malformed arms and legs, genital abnormalities and damage of the central nervous system and many, behavioural problems like hyperactivity and nervousness.

Cigarette smoke may be teratogenic and cause cardiac abnormalities and anencephaly (absence of cerebrum). Maternal smoking is also a significant factor in the development of cleft tip, palate and gastrointestinal disturbances. It is linked with sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS).

Anabolic Steroids misused by players are mainly Nandrolone, stanozolol, oxymetholone and methandie- nonc.

Age Distribution Pyramids. For constructing age pyramids, 3-age groups are taken into consideration.

  1. Pre-reproductive age (0-14 years).
  2. Reproductive age (15-60 years).
  3. Post Reproductive age (> 60 years).

There are 3-types of pyramids, i.e. Triangular, Bell-shaped and Urn-shaped

  1. Triangular Pyramid. It indicates an expanding population with a high growth rate.
  2. Bell-shaped Pyramid. It indicates a stable population with a zero growth rate.
  3. Urn-Shaped Pyramid. It indicates a declining population with a growth rate of minus.

Drugs And Drug Dependence Mental Health Growth Of Human Populations Bell Shaped Phyramid

Drugs And Drug Dependence Mental Health Growth Of Human Populations Urn Shaped Pyramid

P1 = Pre-reproductive age, P2 = Reproductive age. P3 = Post-reproductive age

Projected Growth Rates. Year 1999 = 1.4%, Year 2010 = 1.8%, Year 2030 = 0.5%

GIFT. Gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT), a modified form of IVF, was developed in 1984 and is used when at least one fallopian tube is open.

  • The sperms (gametes) are injected into the oviduct (fallopian tube) when the ovulation occurs.
  • The difference between IVF and GIFT is that in GIFT fertilization occurs naturally within the body of a female partner, instead of in the laboratory in IVF.

ZIFT. Zygote intrafallopian transfer is another variation of IVF, and is also called ‘tubal embryo transfer’. In this case, after in vitro fertilization (in a Petri dish or test tube) the zygote is transferred into the fallopian tube. The difference between ZIFT and GIFT is that in ZIFT fertilization is observed/assured, whereas in GIFT it is not.

  • The success of IVF/GIFT/ZIFT declines with the advancement of the age of the woman, perhaps due to poor quality of eggs; and if the success rate is improved, the chances of multiple births are increased.
  • The present rate of growth of the human population is about 2 per cent per annum and in developing countries, it is 2.5% per annum.
  • Sigmoid (S-shaped) and J-shaped growth curves are the two main kinds of growth curves.
  • In a recent cyclone in Bangladesh over 50,000 people were killed but with a birth rate of 3.3 per cent per year, the number was replaced in 40 days.
  • At the current rate of growth human population is doubling every 35 years.

If the 4.5 billion people in the world today continue to increase at the present rate, their combined mass will exceed the mass of the earth which is about 6.5 billion trillion tonnes in a period of 1550 years.

  • Japan is the most densely populated country in the world.
  • Australia is the most thinly populated country.
  • Kerala is the most densely populated state of India. The complete count of individuals in an area is called a census.

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The sex ratio in India is 929 females per 1,000 males. About 56% of the world’s population lives in Asia alone

  • Harsha is the name of the first test tube baby bom in India (Kolkata)
  • Laparoscopy involves tubular ligation (blocking fallopian tubes)
  • Biologically females are superior to men because they nurse the foetus in the womb for about 280 days.
  • The Red Cross was established in 1864
  • There is a proposal to bring legislation to discourage the use of tobacco products including a ban on the use/consumption of tobacco in public places and on tobacco advertisements.
  • Blood transfusion was first practised by James BledclI.
  • The mechanism to preserve vaccines is called the cold chain.
  • Amnesia. Loss of memory is associated with excessive alcohol intake.
  • International Day against Drug Abuse and Illicit Trafficking is celebrated on June 27.
  • IV-Drug: Any drug which is taken intravenously and includes addictive narcotic drugs like heroin.
  • Drug phencyclidine is useful in controlling “rogue elephants.”
  • “The Narcotics, Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act 1985” in India is one of the most powerful laws in the world to combat drug trafficking.

Teratogens. The drugs which cause foetal abnormalities when given to a pregnant mother are termed ter¬atogens. The placenta does not act as a barrier. Thalidomide is a well-known teratogen and causes phocomelia. Such drugs affect the foetus in three stages

  1. Fertilization and implantation
  2. Organogenesis
  3. Growth and development.

Other Known Teratogens Are LSD, morphine, methotrexate, stilboestrol, corticosteroids, warfarin, antithyroid drugs, tetracycline etc.

World Breastfeeding Week is celebrated every year from 1-7 August.

  • WHO = World Health Organisation
  • NICD = National Institute of Communicable Diseases
  • ICMR = Indian Council of Medical Research
  • ESI= Employees State Insurance